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2016 Cisco 642-359 Exam Of Cisco 642-359 100% Pass Training Questions And Answers

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which command would you use to determine if device aliases in VSAN 5 are configured for fabriC.wide distribution?
A. show zoneset name alias vsan 5
B. show cfs application name device-alias
C. showfcalias distribution vsan 5
D. show vsan 5 device-alias status

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP

Drop
Drag the Cisco analysis tool on the left to its appropriate description on the right.
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
A. 1=3 , 2=2, 3=4, 4=3
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 2 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam

Explanation:
QUESTION 3
The MDS 9000 family switches use what three technologies to protect against unauthorized management access? (Choose three.)
A. SNMPV3
B. SSH
C. RBAC
D. RMON
E. ses
F. WEBM

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 3 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam

QUESTION 4
What is a benefit of enhanced zoning?
A. fabric locked during configuration changes
B. larger zoning database size
C. database rollback in case of failure
D. zones allowed to span VSANs

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which two of these environments suggest the use of FCIP Write Acceleration? (Choose two.)
A. remote tape backup
B. Port Channel links between sites
C. applications that support multiple outstanding l/Os
D. fast network with minimal delays
E. DWDM links

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which three of the following are possible reasons why a line card module does not come online? (Choose three.)
A. Port indexes have been taken offline.
B. Available port indexes are noncontiguous.
C. Not enough power is available in the chassis.
D. An invalid interoperability mode has been configured.
E. Unsupported SFPs have been installed.
F. Not enough port indexes are available.

Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 4 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam

Which two options from the Tools menu would you select to verify connectivity and latency to a Fibre Channel end device? (Choose two.)
A. Switch Health
B. Fabric Configuration
C. End to End Connectivity
D. Ping
E. Device Manager

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
During initial switch configuration, the administrator elects to enable full zoneset distribution. What is the impact of this choice during zoneset activation?
A. only the active zoneset is distributed to all switches in the fabric
B. both the full zone database and active zoneset are distributed to all switches in the fabric
C. both FCID and WWN information are distributed to all switches in the fabric
D. only the full zone database is distributed to all switches in the fabric

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
You are asked to review the running configuration of a switch that a junior administrator has prepared to be placed in a heterogeneous SAN environment. This environment includes three different brands of Fibre Channel switches. In this particular environment, only VSAN 1 is being used.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 5 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Which of these attributes suggests that the switch has been incorrectly configured?
A. Astatic domain ID has been set to 0x21.
B. The srC.dst-ox load balancing has been selected.
C. Interop mode 1 has been selected.
D. FCC has been enabled.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP

Drop
Drag the correct compression mode on the left to its appropriate bandwidth on the right.
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
A. mode1=2 , mode2=3 , mode3=1 , auto=4
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 6 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Explanation:

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Drop
Click and drag each item on the left to its correct security description on the right.
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
A. 1=6 , 2=2 , 3=3 , 4=5 , 5=4 , 6=1
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 7

QUESTION 12
When configuring FCIP, packet fragmentation should be avoided in order to achieve optimal throughput. Fragmentation can be avoided by knowing which of the following?
A. MTU of the source IP interface
B. largest MTU in the path
C. smallest MTU in the path
D. MTU of the destination IP interface

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
When configuring FCIP, packet fragmentation should be avoided in order to achieve optimal throughput. Fragmentation can be avoided by knowing which of the following?
A. MTU of the source IP interface
B. largest MTU in the path
C. smallest MTU in the path
D. MTU of the destination IP interface

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
For purposes of granting restricted access to statically configure iSCSI virtual targets, which three of these can be used to identify iSCSI initiators? (Choose three.)
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 8 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
A. iSCSI node name
B. hostname
C. IPv4 address and subnet
D. MAC address
E. IPv6 address
F. iSCSIWWN

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
You have been asked to convert three existing ISLs into a PortChannel as nondisruptively as possible.

Which approach will best accomplish this?
A. Place all three ISLs into a PortChannel, because PortChannel creation is a nondisruptive operation.
B. Convert the ISLs into an EISL and then place them into a PortChannel.
C. Place one link into a single-link PortChannel and then add the other two links to the PortChannel.
D. Ensure that the VSAN allowed lists on both ends of each link are identically configured, then create the three-link PortChannel.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 9 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Which three statements describe automatically supported, basic zone features (no additional configuration required) in the Cisco MDS 9000 Family of switches? (Choose three.)
A. A VSAN contains the zone sets.
B. Zone reactivation can disrupt existing traffic.
C. A zone or zone set with the same name can exist in each VSAN.
D. Hard zoning can be disabled.
E. Active zone sets are preserved across switch reboots
F. Default zoning behavior is to distribute the Full Zone Database.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which three options allow or enable nondisruptive upgrades? (Choose three.)
A. IPS module software upgrades
B. dual supervisor modules on a Cisco MDS 9500 Series switch
C. using the install-all command
D. upgrading the loader
E. installing a license F – using the reload command

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which services are supported by a Cisco SAN-OS AAA configuration?
A. Telnet, SSH, FM and DM logins
B. console login, FC.SP authentication, FTP
C. FC.SP authentication, FM and DM logins, TFTP
D. iSCSI authentication, FTP, FC.SP authentication

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
How many ports are addressable on a fabric arbitrated loop?
A. 126 “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 10 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
B. 127
C. 255
D. 256

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
A customer with multiple vendor switches establishes an ISL between a non-Cisco switch and an E_Port
on a Cisco MDS 9000 switch.
Which three statements are true about the interop behavior between the two switches? (Choose three.)

A. Exchange-based load balancing is supported in all interop modes.
B. Interop mode affects all VSANs.
C. Only E_Ports can be used to connect to non-Cisco MDS switches.
D. The non-Cisco switch must have matching FC timers with the VSAN containing the E_Port on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series switch.
E. Adding another ISL between the switches will allow a PortChannel to be configured for HA.
F. Interop mode 1 allows full featured communication between all combinations of MDS and non- MDS switches

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Which license is required on switches that are going to implement LUN zoning?
A. Storage Services Enabler
B. Enterprise license
C. Fabric Manager Server license
D. SAN Extension over IP license

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
DRAG DROP

Drop
Match the definition on the left with its appropriate word or phrase about switch interoperability on the right.

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 11
Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
A. 1=2, 2=1, 3=4, 4=5, 5=3
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 12 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
QUESTION 23
Which two of these logging statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Call Home message level 0 is most urgent and level 7 is least urgent, whereas the syslog level 9 is most urgent and level 0 is least urgent.
B. Syslog message level 0 is most urgent and level 7 is least urgent, whereas the Call Home message level 9 is most urgent and level 0 is least urgent,
C. Syslog message level 7 is most urgent and level 0 is least urgent, whereas the Call Home message level 9 is most urgent and level 0 is least urgent.
D. Accounting logs can be stored locally and sent to remote AAA servers.
E. Go to logs > syslog > setup in Device Manager to view the local accounting log.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Which of these Cisco Fabric Manager debugging tools can compare the current configuration with a previously saved configuration file?
A. Switch Health Analysis
B. Fabric Configuration Analysis
C. EnD.to-End Connectivity Analysis
D. Zone Merge Analysis

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Choose the correct list of tasks to configure Remote Spanning.
A. Create a VSAN interface. Enable a Fibre Channel tunnel. Initiate the Fibre Channel tunnel. Configure the ST_Port in the source switch. Configure the SD_Port in the destination switch. Configure a SPAN session in the source switch.
B. Create a VSAN interface. Enable a Fibre Channel tunnel. Initiate the Fibre Channel tunnel. Configure the ST_Port in the source switch. Configure the SD_Port in the destination switch. Configure an RSPAN session in the source switch.
C. Create an RSPAN interface. Enable a Fibre Channel tunnel. Initiate the Fibre Channel tunnel. Configure the SD_Port in the destination switch. Configure the ST_Port in the source switch. Configure an RSPAN session in the source switch.
D. Create a VSAN interface. Enable a Fibre Channel tunnel. Initiate the Fibre Channel tunnel. Configure the ST_Port in the destination switch. Configure the SD_Port in the source switch. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 13 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam Configure an RSPAN session in the source switch.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
When creating an Inter-VSAN routing topology, which type of World Wide Name (WWN) must be used?
A. Port WWN
B. Switch WWN
C. Fabric Port WWN
D. VSAN WWN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Your company has a multiswitch fabric including Switch A and Switch B. An administrator of Switch A creates the following zone set and successfully activates it: zoneset name ZoneSetl vsan 1 zone name Zonel vsan 1 pwwn 21:01:00:e0:8b:3c:03:b6 pwwn 21:01:00:e0:8b:3c:55:bb Later in the day, a second administrator creates the following zone set on Switch B: zoneset name ZoneSet2 vsan 1 zone name Zonel vsan 1 pwwn 21:01:00:e0:8b:3c:03:b6 pwwn 21:01:00:e0:8b:3c:55:aa What happens when the administrator of Switch B attempts to activate ZoneSet2?
A. ZoneSet2 becomes the active zone set for both Switches A and
B.
C. The fabric segments and ZoneSet2 become the active zone set for Switch B only.
D. The fabric segments and ZoneSet2 become the active zone set for Switch A only.
E. The fabric segments and ZoneSetl remain the active zone set for Switch B, while ZoneSet2 becomes the active zone set for Switch A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 14 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
You have been asked to configure a port on your Cisco MDS switch so that a host can join your fabric. Which of these switch port types should the port be set to?
A. N_Port
B. NL_Port
C. F_Port
D. E_Port
E. TE_Port
F. SD Port

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
DRAG DROP
Drop The IT director wants to standardize the process that the SAN team follows when troubleshooting the SAN. IT director wants to leverage the tools that are provided by Cisco Fabric Manager so that each member of the team executes the samesteps when faced with a problem in the SAN. Click and drag the Cisco Fabric Manager troubleshooting tool to the purpose it serves in the repair strategy.

Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
A. 1=2, 2=4, 3=3, 4=1
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 15 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam

Explanation:

QUESTION 30
Which of the following tools would you use to view SCSI error count statistics?
A. Cisco Performance Manager
B. RMON
C. Cisco Traffic Analyzer
D. Cisco Fabric Analyzer

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
A customer would like to implement a low-cost traffic engineering solution that provides a primary data path, and a secondary data path that will only be used in the event of a failure in the primary path. Which of these solutions best meets the customer needs?
A. VSAN allowed list pruning
B. FCC
C. QoS “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 16 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
D. FSPF link costs
E. VOQ

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
The output from the switch show interface command indicates that the link from a host comes up as an FL_Port. The switch port is configured as auto. Which three of these HBA configurations could cause this scenario? (Choose three.)
A. the HBA is configured as an N_Port
B. the HBA is configured as an NL_Port
C. the HBA supports only NL mode
D. the HBA is configured as a TE_Port
E. the HBA supports only FC.AL technology
F. the HBA is configured as an TL_Port

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit. Which of the following statements is true?

A. All users belonging to the sangroup role are allowed to perform all configuration commands except fspf commands because the deny config feature fspf is listed first.
B. All users are allowed to perform all configuration commands because the permit config command is listed last and that will globally override all other rules.
C. All users belonging to the sangroup role to perform all configuration commands except fspf commands because it does not matter what order the rules are entered.
D. The configuration is not valid because rules are entered at the switch (config-role-vsan)# level.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
Which three types of network statistics can be captured with the Cisco Traffic Analyzer? (Choose three.)
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 17 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
A. historical reporting
B. total bandwidth used
C. Tx/Rx bandwidth per VSAN
D. Tx/Rx bandwidth per N_Port
E. class-based traffic breakdown

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Which two security protocols are supported in the Cisco iSCSI implementation? (Choose two.)
A. IPSec
B. FC.SP
C. SLAP
D. CHAP
E. PAP

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Issuing the show role command to check a defined role in an MDS 9000 Series switch will produce the following output: Role: Manage VSAN Description: Vsanpolicy: deny Permitted vsans: 2-4 Rule Type Command-type Feature 1- permit config * 2- deny config fspf 3- permit debug zone 4- permit exec fcping
Which of the following two functions can a user with role Manage undertake? (Choose two.)
A. check connectivity for VSAN 2
B. issue a debug command for a port
C. configure FC port parameters for VSAN 3
D. changefspf parameters

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which two options can be used to enable flex-attach when automatic assignment is used?
(Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. global across all NPV switches
B. per server WWN
C. per server FC-ID
D. per interface or interface range
E. global across all NPIV-enabled switches

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Match the definition on the left with its appropriate word or phrase about switch interoperability on the right.

A. 1,2,3,4,5
B. 2,1,3,4,5
C. 3,1,2,4,5
D. 2,3,4,5,1

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
When using the Cisco MDS 9000 Switches, which protocol provides in-band management? Select the best response.
A. SNMP
B. IPFC
C. FCIP
D. iSCSI

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What information does the command showflogi database provide?
A. verifies connectivity for attached devices
B. displays fabric login errors
C. displays a list of the host ports that have logged into each storage port
D. verifies that attached devices are in the correct zone

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You have set up a session to the SD_Portto enable the investigation of a problem on a particular Fibre Channel port. You need to check whether this has been correctly set up for the desired port. Which command should you use?
A. showfcanalyzer
B. show span session
C. showfcflow
D. showtlport

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
A host is unable to access the storage network after its HBA is replaced. Which of these switch configurations could be preventing access?
A. port-mode security
B. port VSAN membership
C. port-based zoning
D. port security

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which command would you use to determine if device aliases in VSAN 5 are configured for fabriC.wide distribution?
A. showcfs application name device-alias
B. showvsan 5 device-alias status
C. showzoneset name alias vsan 5
D. showfcalias distribution vsan 5

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which feature requires the Cisco MDS 9000 Series Enterprise license?
A. centralized AAA services
B. port security
C. virtual output queues
D. PortChannels

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
What is the recommended minimum clearance between chassis when installing the Cisco MDS 9500 Series in a standard telco rack?
A. 2.5 inches
B. 9 inches
C. 3 inches
D. 6 inches

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
You work as a network administrator for Company.com. You study the exhibit carefully. When
looking at the Cisco Fabric Manager, you notice that one of the switches has this symbol
superimposed on it. What is the reason?
Exhibit:
Select the best response.
A. The device is down.
B. The device is manageable but there are operational problems.
C. The device is not manageable.
D. The device is online but not working properly.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
You work as a network administrator for Company.com. You study the exhibit carefully. Which of
the following statements is true?
Exhibit:
A. All users belonging to thesangroup role to perform all configuration commands except fspf commands because it does not matter what order the rules are entered.
B. All users belonging to thesangroup role are allowed to perform all configuration commands except fspf commands because the deny config feature fspf is listed first.
C. All users are allowed to perform all configuration commands because the permitconfig command is listed last and that will globally override all other rules.
D. The configuration is not valid because rules are entered at the switch (config-role-vsan)# level.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which of the following tools would you use to view SCSI error count statistics?
A. RMON
B. Cisco Fabric Analyzer
C. Cisco Traffic Analyzer
D. Cisco Performance Manager

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which two security protocols are supported in the Cisco iSCSI implementation? (Choose two.)
A. SLAP
B. CHAP
C. IPSec
D. PAP
E. FC.SP

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
While examining the output of a show run command on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series, you notice that the statement interface GigabitEthernet2/2 appears in the output. What does this mean?
A. It refers to the second FCIP tunnel that is configured on port GigabitEthernet2/1.
B. It refers to a VLAN subinterface on port GigabitEthernet2/1.
C. It means that port GigabitEthernet2/1 is assigned to VSAN 2.
D. It is a mistake in the interface configuration.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
What is a benefit of enhanced zoning?
A. fabric locked during configuration changes
B. larger zoning database size
C. database rollback in case of failure
D. zones allowed to span VSANs

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
While examining the output of a show run command on the CiscoMDS9000Series, you notice that the statement interface GigabitEthernet2/1.2 appears in the output. What does this mean?
A. It refers to these condFCIP tunnel that is configured on port GigabitEthernet2/1.
B. It refers to a VLAN subinterface on port GigabitEthernet2/1.
C. It means that port GigabitEthernet2/1is assigned to VSAN2.
D. It is a mistake in the interface configuration.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
The HBA on your storage server only supports the NL_Port mode. Which interface type on the Cisco MDS9000Series fabrics witches can support this HBA?
A. F
B. TE
C. FL
D. N E. E

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
For purposes of granting restricted access to statically configure iSCSI virtual targets, which three of these can be used to identify iSCSI initiators?(Choose three.)
A. iSCS Inodename
B. hostname
C. IPv4 address and subnet
D. MAC address
E. IPv6 address
F. iSCSI WWN

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
What is a benefit of enhanced zoning?
A. fabriclockedduringconfigurationchanges
B. largerzoningdatabasesize
C. databaserollbackincaseoffailure
D. zonesallowedtospanVSANs

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A QUESTION 1
Exhibit:

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. Which three of these are accurate description of values that you will find in the verified column for different types of products? ( Choose three.)
A. If the solution is configured and orderable, a check mark will be displayed.
B. If the configuration is incomplete, the words “Not Configured” will be displayed
C. If the part is a non-configurable part, the words “Not configurable” will be displayed
D. If the solution is not orderable, a check mark will be displayed
E. If the configuration is complete, the word Done will be displayed
F. If the solution is not configured, a check mark will be displayed

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which routing method is used to determine the forwarding paths for IP traffic in a Secure Cisco Single-Site Network foundation solution with remote teleworkers?
A. RIP
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. Static and default routes

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Exhibit:
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. In a Cisco Single-
Site Secure Network foundation implementation, which factors affect the router configuration you select?
Exhibit: image027.jpg

A. Maximum number of supported IP Phones per platform
B. Type of security scheme that is to be implemented
C. Maximum Amount of packet latency acceptable
D. Type of QoS scheme hat is being used

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in WAN
Services.
Match the appropriate WAN Services with the correct service type.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 5

The recommended WAN Access method for a simplified and cost effective Cisco Single-site Secure Network Foundation Deployment provides which type of Service?
A. Low Latency
B. Best-Effort
C. Guaranteed Quality
D. Guaranteed Bandwidth

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You are designing a solution that needs to support 30 IP phone users. Which switch model and how many switches does the Cisco Single-Site Secure Network Foundation1.1 Desing and Implementation Guide suggest for the solution?
A. 1 Catalyst Express 500G-12TC,1 Catalyst 3750G-12S-S
B. 1 Catalyst 3750G-12S-S, 1 Catalyst Express 500-24PC
C. 2 Catalyst Express 500G-12TC
D. 1 Catalyst 3750G-12S-S, 1 Catalyst Express 500-24PC
E. 2 Catalyst Express 500-24PC
F. 2 Catalyst 3750G-12S-S

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Exhibit: You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. All of the computing devices shown are on the same logical network, as if they were all connected to the same switch. Which two features make this possible? ( Choose two.)

A. PAT
B. 802.1Q
C. Spanning-tree
D. VLANs
E. QoS

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
If voice and data traffic will be sent and received via a WAN links, what must be configured to provide a certain amount of dedicated bandwidth and to prioritize the voice traffic over other types of network traffic?
A. IPSec VPN
B. QoS mechanism
C. Firewall
D. NAT
E. EIGRP routing protocol
F. Static routing

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco 642-176 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1) exam is the exam associated with the Cisco Certified Entry Network Technician (CCENT) certification and is a tangible first step in achieving an Associate-level certification Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1) course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small branch office network. The exam includes topics on the operation of IP data networks, LAN switching technologies, IPv6, IP routing technologies, IP services (DHCP, NAT, ACLs), network device security, and basic troubleshooting
QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in UTP
categories.
Match the appropriate environments with the correct UTP category.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 10

You are designing a solution that needs to support a full-rate T3 connection. Which router model does the Cisco Single-Site Secure Network Foundation 1.1 Design and Implementation Guide suggest for this solution?
A. Cisco 2821
B. Cisco 2811
C. Cisco 3845
D. Cisco 2801
E. Cisco 2851
F. Cisco 3825

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
When resetting a Catalyst Express switch to factory default settings, which three options are available from the Software Recovery window? (Choose three.)
A. Boot to a password recovery window
B. Boot with the factory default image
C. Erase the system configuration and boot with the factory default IOS image
D. Erase the system configuration and boot from a TFTP-supplied IOS image
E. Erase the System Configuration

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 12
Which statement correctly describes network security settings in Cisco Network Assistant for the Catalyst Express 500 Switch?
A. The LOW setting enables broadcast storm control, but has no effect on the number of devices that can connect to a switch port
B. The LOW setting enables broadcast storm control and limits the number of devices that can connect to a switch port.
C. The LOW setting disables broadcast storm control but limits the number of devices that can connect to a switch port
D. The default network setting is “HIGH”

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
In an environment in which multiple VLANs have been defined on Catalyst Express 500 switches, which two statements are correct for ports that have been configured with the Smartport role of “IP Phone + Desktop”? (Choose two.)
A. The names of the VLANs used by the SmartPorts are case insensitive
B. The ports may belong to a configurable data VLAN
C. The names of the VLANs used by the Smartports are not relevant
D. The ports may belong to many VLANs, depending on how many PCs are connected to each port.
E. The names of the VLANs used by the Smartports are case sensitive

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
DRAG DROP You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in SMB wireless solutions. You are required to produce the correct order for performing a Technology Strategy Development. Choose only steps that apply.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
Exhibit: You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. Which Cisco SDM Configuration task would you use to enable access and inspection rules on the WAN interface, preventing any external traffic from entering the network unless that traffic is a reply to a session that originated in the internal network?

A. Additional Task
B. Interface and Connections
C. Routing
D. NAT
E. Firewall and ACL
F. VPN

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
When enabling IPS on an ISR using the Cisco SDM IPS Wizard, in what location can the SDF be placed?
A. On the RAM of the ISR
B. On the USB memory stick of the ISR
C. On the NVRAM of the ISR
D. On the IPS Module of the ISR E. On the Flash memory of the ISR

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
During which phase of the Steps to Success methodology for Cisco SMB Security Solutions would the Security Technology Requirements document be used to determine a customer’s security requirements?
A. Perform
B. Position
C. Develop
D. Prepare
E. Plan
F. Design

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Exhibit:

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. The exhibit is an example of which technology being implemented?
A. Spanning-tree
B. 802.1Q
C. VLANs
D. PAT
E. QoS

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 19
Exhibit:

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. Which two statements correctly identify the reasons why there is only one static route and there are no dynamic protocols for the configuration shown?(Choose two.)
A. The configuration has not been completed yet on the router
B. There is only one entry and exit path to the service provider, so one static route is sufficient
C. The LAN functions at L3, so dynamic routing does not need to be enabled
D. Switch Agg 1 and R1 have not achieved L3 adjacency yet, thus whatever routing protocol has been configuration on R1 is not completely up
E. There is only one L3 device, thus dynamic routing is not needed

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
During which phase of the steps to success methodology for Cisco SMB security solutions would the Network Readiness Assessment be used to assess the readiness of an existing network infrastructure and determine which, if any, modification should be made prior to implementation?
A. Position
B. Prepare
C. Design
D. Perform
E. Plan

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
When determining a customer’s security requirements using the security site survey from the steps for success methodology, which three of theses should be included in the customer’s security policy and procedures? (Choose three.)
A. Third-party due diligence policy review
B. Remote Access Policy
C. Encryption Policy
D. Application change control policy
E. Security Personnel policy

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
DRAG DROP You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested network security mechanisms. You are required to match the correct mechanism with the proper description.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 23

DRAG DROP You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested Success Methodology phases steps. You are required to produce the correct in which the appropriate phases takes place Use only steps that apply.

A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
When using the steps to success methodology, where does Quote Builder fit into the deal process flow?
A. It encompasses the validate and solve steps
B. It encompasses the Discovery, Validate and Solve steps
C. It encompasses the Discover, Validate, Solve and Present Steps
D. It encompasses the Discovery, Solve and Close steps
E. It encompasses the Discovery, Validate and Present Steps

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Which three of these pre-requisite for resetting a Catalyst Express 500 switch when Cisco Network Assistant is unavailable? (Choose three.)
A. At Least one enabled switch port that is unconnected to any device
B. A PC pre-configured with a specific IP Address and Mask
C. A PC or laptop with Windows 2000 or Windows XP installed and a web browser that has Java Script enabled
D. Physical Access to Switch
E. A Switch with no connected devices

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
To protect the network from external and internal threats, where should Cisco IPS be enabled on an ISR?
A. Globally on the ISR
B. On the Console and Auxiliary Ports of the ISR
C. On the untrusted (Outside) interface of the ISR
D. On the trusted (Inside) interface of the ISR
E. On the WAN and LAN interfaces of the ISR

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Which two WAN access methods are specified for a simplified and cost-effective Cisco Single-Site Secure Network Foundation Deployment Design? (Choose two.)
A. Frame-Relay
B. Leased Line
C. MPLS
D. DSL
E. Cable
F. Wireless

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
DRAG DROP
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in WAN
devices.
Match the appropriate WAN device with the correct description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
DRAG DROP
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in port types.

Match the appropriate port type with the correct function.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 30

During which phase of the steps to success methodology for Cisco SMB Security Solutions would the Network Readiness Assessment be used to assess the readiness of an existing network infrastructure and determine which, if any modification should be prior to implementation?
A. Prepare
B. Design
C. Position
D. Develop
E. Plan
F. Perform

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Exhibit.

Please study the exhibit.
Which Cisco SDM configuration task is used to enable the translation of the inside network private IP
address to the public IP address?

A. Firewall and ACL
B. NAT
C. Routing
D. Interface and connections
E. VPN
F. Security Audit

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
Please study the exhibit.

What are two options available when using the Security Audit Configuration task in Cisco SDM? ( Choose two.)
A. Perform a One-step lockdown on the Router
B. Perform a Virus Scan
C. Perform a Secure audit on the Router
D. Perform a Denial Of Service attack on the Router to verify that it is protected
E. Perform a real-time inspection of incoming traffic destined for the router

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
When determining a customer’s technical requirements for a Cisco Unified Communications solution, which important tool can be used to determine the bandwidth used by different codecs with various protocols over different media?
A. Network Codec Aggregator Tool
B. Bandwidth Estimator Tool
C. Unified Communication Bandwidth Tool
D. Voice Bandwidth Calculator
E. Voice Codec Bandwidth Calculator

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
Exhibit:

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. What does “locking Down” the router entail?
A. Disabling HTTPS access to Cisco SDM
B. Prohibiting console access to Router
C. Preventing any alterations to the router’s running configuration
D. Disabling all vulnerable Services on the Router
E. Shutting down all the router’s interfaces

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Your Customer has 21 users, each requiring both PC and IP Phone connectivity. Which is the correct configuration for this customer?
A. 1 Cisco 2811 ISR, 1 Catalyst Express 500G-12TC, 2 Catalyst Express 500-24PC
B. 1 Cisco 2851 ISR, Catalyst Express 500G-12TC, 3 catalyst Express 500-24PC
C. 1 Cisco 2821 ISR, Catalyst Express 500G-12TC, 2 Catalyst Express 500-24PC
D. 1 Cisco 2801 ISR, 1 Catalyst Express 500-24PC

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 36
When using Cisco Network Assistant to configure a WS-CE500-24LC switch, which three are available choices in the port settings window? (Choose three.)
A. Duplex mode selections
B. Auto MDIX selections
C. Status Selections
D. Group mode selections
E. Port security selections

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
Which statements describes the remote sites in a Cisco Single-Site Secure Network Foundation solution with remote teleworkers?
A. They are separate from the central site and use NAT to route through the Internet to the Central Site
B. They are part of the VLANs at the Central Site; they are in the same subnets
C. They use public IP Addresses that are routable through the Internet
D. They are in separate subnets but are part of the private address space of the network

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
Which two statements about 802.1Q trunking in Secure Network Foundation Design Guide for Single Site Deployments are correct?
A. The Cisco Control VLAN carries only Layer 2 control traffic
B. 802.1Q trunking is used between the access switch and the router
C. There is no 802.1Q trunking used in these designs
D. When 802.1Q trunks are configured, they are also called Native VLANs
E. Trunking Ensures that traffic from only one VLAN is carried on that trunk

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
Exhibit: You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. Which Cisco SDM configuration task would you select to configure a static route to the Service Provider?

A. NAC
B. Routing
C. Intrusion Protection
D. Quality Of Service
E. NAT

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
Which WAN connection requires a different interface than the standard interface provided in the Cisco Single-Site Secure Network Foundation deployment design?
A. Metro Ethernet
B. DSL
C. VPN
D. Cable
E. Frame-Relay

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CCNA Cisco 642-176 Exam Certification Guide is part of a recommended study program from Cisco 642-176 that includes simulation and hands-on training from authorized Cisco 642-176 Learning Partners and self-study products from Cisco 642-176.Find out more about instructor-led, e-learning, and hands-on instruction offered by authorized Cisco 642-176 Learning Partners worldwide

Real Cisco 642-176 Exam Free‎ Training Download VCE And PDF With All New Exam Questions

This volume is part of the Exam Certification Guide Series from Cisco 642-176.Cisco 642-176 in this series provide officially developed exam preparation materials that offer assessment, review, and practice to help Cisco 642-176 Certification candidates identify weaknesses, concentrate their study efforts, and enhance their confidence as Cisco 642-176 exam day nears.

Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. What could be possible causes for the “Serial0/0 is down” interface status? (Choose two.)

A. A Layer 1 problem exists.
B. The bandwidth is set too low.
C. A protocol mismatch exists
D. An incorrect cable is being used.
E. There is an incorrect IP address on the Serial 0/0 interface.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 2
Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two.)
A. the amount of available ROM
B. the amount of available flash and RAM memory
C. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router
D. show version
E. show processes
F. show running-config
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
“Everything is under control” – www.pass4sure.com 3

A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 5
If you are a network administrator, how will you explain VTP configuration to a new technician? (Choose three.)
A. In the VTP client mode, a switch is unable to update its local VLAN database.
B. Configure a trunk link between the switches to forward VTP updates.
C. In the VTP server mode, a switch is able to update a switch in the VTP transparent mode.
D. In the VTP transparent mode, a switch will forward the received updates to other switches.
E. A switch in the VTP server mode only updates switches in the VTP client mode that have a higher VTP revision number.
F. A switch in the VTP server mode will update switches in the VTP client mode regardless of the configured VTP domain membership.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 6
Cisco IOS (originally Internetwork Operating System) is the software used on the vast majority of Cisco Systems routers and all current Cisco network switches. Which two of the following devices could you configure as a source for the IOS image in the boot system command? (Choose two.)
A. RAM
B. NVRAM
C. flash memory
D. HTTP server
E. TFTP server
F. Telnet server
Correct Answer: CE

CCNA Composite Exam:Cisco 642-176 CCNAX is the composite exam associated with the Cisco CCNA Routing and Switching certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices: Accelerated (CCNAX) course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The topics include all the areas covered under ICND 1 and ICND2 Exams.
QUESTION 7
What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.)
A. to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches
B. to determine the status of network services on a remote device
C. to determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers
D. to verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices
E. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails “Everything is under control” -www.pass4sure.com 5
F. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device
Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are using a default configuration. Which two destination addresses will host 4 use to send data to host 1? (Choose two.)
“Everything is under control” – www.pass4sure.com 6

A. the IP address of host 1
B. the IP address of host 4
C. the MAC address of host 1
D. the MAC address of host 4
E. the MAC address of the Fa0/0 interface of the R1 router
F. the MAC address of the Fa0/1 interface of the R1 router
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 9
Exhibit:
“Everything is under control” – www.pass4sure.com 7
Refer to the exhibit. The router has been configured with these commands:

What are the two results of this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. The default route should have a next hop address of 64.100.0.3.
B. Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 are using public IP addressing.
C. The address of the subnet segment with the WWW server will support seven more servers.
D. The addressing scheme allows users on the Internet to access the WWW server.
E. Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 will not be able to access the Internet “Everything is under control” – www.pass4sure.com 8 without address translation.
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 10
Your Company has installed IP phones. Both the phones and the office computers connect to the same device. The phone traffic and the office computer data traffic must be on different networks to ensure maximum throughput for the phone data. Which network device can be best connected to the phones and computers, and which technology will be performed on this device? (Choose two.)
A. hub
B. router
C. switch
D. stp
E. subinterfaces
F. VLAN
Correct Answer: CF

The VVJHV contains more than 400 practice questions for the Cisco 642-176 exams, including simulation-based questions. Also contains hands-on exercises and a customized copy of the Cisco 642-176 exams network simulation software.

Pass Cisco 642-164 Exam – 642-164 100% Pass Guaranteed‎ Free Study Guide Ensure You 100% Pass

Cisco 642-165 Exam Certification Guide presents you with an organized test preparation routine through the use of proven series elements and techniques.“Do I Know This Already?”quizzes open each chapter and allow you to decide how much time you need to spend on each section.Cisco 642-165 lists and Foundation Summary tables make referencing easy and give you a quick refresher whenever you need it.Challenging Cisco 642-165 review questions help you assess your knowledge and reinforce key concepts.Cisco 642-165 exercises help you think about exam objectives in real-world situations, thus increasing recall during exam time.

Exam A
QUESTION 1
You are designing a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express system with four requirements:
250 configured agents

150 agents maximum logged in at any given time

30 agents able to make outbound calls

20 agents able to answer emails
How many premium seats should be purchased?
A. 150 seats
B. 180 seats
C. 200 seats
D. 250 seats

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
In Cisco Unified Contact Center Express, where is wrap-up data enabled?
A. in the Cisco Supervisor Desktop
B. in CSQ configuration on Application Administration
C. in workflow groups on Cisco Desktop Work Flow Administrator
D. in resource configuration on Application Administration

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 3
Which criterion can be used to control supervisor workflows?
A. length of time an agent is in the NotReady state
B. number of agents logged in
C. number of calls abandoned
D. duration of oldest call in queue

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 4
In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express deployment with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, which feature is disabled on the Cisco Agent Desktop?
A. recording
B. monitoring
C. embedded browser
D. call-control buttons

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 4 Cisco 642-165 Exam

QUESTION 5
Where are Cisco Unified CCX users managed and their data stored when deployed with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express?
A. in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express database
B. in Application Administration with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express database
C. in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express database
D. in Application Administration with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express database

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 6
How is the default eMail address in the eMail Subsystem Configuration page used?
A. It receives all mail sent in the Send eMail step as a bcc.
B. It is the From address for emails sent by agents using Agent E-mail.
C. It is used if no email contact is specified in the Create eMail step.
D. It becomes the From address in the Send eMail step if no address is specified.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 7
Which configuration object can have skills assigned to it in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. Contact Service Queue
B. Skill Groups
C. Resource Groups
D. competence levels

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 8
Which three fields are used in defining a CSQ in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Enhanced? (Choose three.)
A. Agent Name
B. WrapUp Time
C. Service Level
D. Overflow CSQ
E. Automatic Work
F. CCX Application

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 5 Cisco 642-165 Exam
QUESTION 9
Which type of information is available from the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Control Center?
A. database replication status
B. system parameters configuration
C. date and time of most recent failure
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster status

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 10
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express platform set supports the use of an embedded Internet browser within the Cisco Agent Desktop?
A. Premium only
B. Enhanced and Premium only
C. Standard, Enhanced, and Premium
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express does not support an embedded Internet browser

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 11
Which deployment option is invalid for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. a two-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster
B. a one-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to two Cisco Unified Communications Manager clusters
C. a one-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router
D. two Cisco Unified Contact Center Express clusters, each with two nodes, connected to the same Cisco Unified Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 12
Which three features are included in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Supervisor Desktop? (Choose three.)
A. graphical reports
B. dockable windows
C. access to chat logs
D. URL push to agents
E. send an email to an agent
F. send a call in queue to a specific agent

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 6 Cisco 642-165 Exam
QUESTION 13
Which three Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Application Administration tasks may be performed by a supervisor who does not have administrative privilege? (Choose three.)
A. Delete a resource group.
B. Remove a skill from a CSQ.
C. Enable automatic work on a CSQ.
D. Modify the skill competence level of an agent.
E. Create a resource.
F. Delete a skill.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 14
Which three statements describe the importing of contacts into a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express campaign? (Choose three.)
A. Phone1 is the only mandatory field.
B. Up to three custom fields can be added.
C. List filtering for “Do Not Call” is unsupported.
D. When records have matching phone numbers, only one record is created.
E. Imports can be automatically executed on a weekly basis.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 15
In Cisco Unified CCX Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Telephony group?
A. CTI Ports
B. CTI Route Point
C. Cisco Unified CCX Call Control Group
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Call Control Group
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which codec should be selected when a Cisco Unified CCX cluster uses ASR?
A. G.711
B. G.723
C. G.729
D. Any codec works fine with ASR.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 17
Select a statement about the Call Subflow step that is not true.
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 7 Cisco 642-165 Exam
A. A subflow can access all variables in the calling script.
B. When the Call Subflow step executes, you can transfer values of variables from the calling flow to the subflow.
C. After the Call Subflow step executes, you can transfer values of variables from the subflow to the calling flow.
D. The same subflow can be invoked from different scripts.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 18
Which three of the following tasks can be performed using Cisco Unified Real-Time Monitoring Tool? (Choose three.)
A. collect trace files
B. stop and start Cisco Unified CCX services
C. view syslog messages
D. perform backup and restore functions
E. monitor the health of the Cisco Unified CCX system

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 19
Which tool is used to size Cisco Unified CCX?
A. Analysis Manager
B. Cisco Unified Communications Sizing Tool
C. Expert Advisor
D. Cisco Unified Real-Time Monitoring Tool
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which two releases require physical media to be ordered and received prior to patching or upgrading Cisco Unified Contact Center Express? (Choose two.)
A. minor release
B. major release
C. service update
D. engineering special

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 21
Which step library is included in the license for Cisco Unified CCX Standard?
A. ICM steps
B. email steps
C. document steps “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 8 Cisco 642-165 Exam
D. database steps

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 22
Which three tasks can an agent perform on the Cisco Agent Desktop? (Choose three.)
A. chat with an SME
B. send an email to an SME
C. send enterprise data to an SME
D. transfer a call to an SME
E. start a Cisco WebEx session with an SME

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 23
Which three tasks can an agent perform using email? (Choose three.)
A. save the response as a draft
B. send the response to the supervisor for review
C. transfer the email to another CSQ
D. transfer the email to another agent
E. mark the email as urgent
F. mark the email as junk
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 24
Where are CTI route points added or configured for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Media Subsystem
B. Cisco Unified CallManager Device Configuration
C. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Directory Management
D. Cisco Supervisor Desktop
E. Cisco CRS Administration, JTAPI Trigger Creation

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 25
Which three components are installed from the Cisco CRS Installer media? (Choose three.)
A. iPlanet Web Server
B. Cisco CRS Engine
C. Cisco Recording
D. Cisco IP Telephony Windows 2000 Server OS
E. Cisco Unified CallManager
F. MS SQL Server “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 9 Cisco 642-165 Exam

Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 26
What is the maximum number of CTI ports that can be supported by a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 8.0 Standard deployment?
A. 150
B. 200
C. 300
D. 400

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 27
Which two items are automatically installed on the Cisco Unified CCX server by the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Installer? (Choose two.)
A. IVR System Prompts
B. Cisco Supervisor Desktop
C. Unified Communications Operating System
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. Workforce Management

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 28
Where can you start, stop, and restart Cisco Unified Contact Center Express services?
A. Control Center on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Serviceability
B. System page on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Administration
C. Cisco Desktop Administrator
D. Cisco Unified Communications Operating System Administration

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 29
Which tool is used to estimate the hardware server resources that are required for a Cisco Unified CCX deployment?
A. IPC Resource Calculator
B. CTI Port Calculator
C. Cisco Unified Communications Sizing Tool
D. Cisco Unified CCX Applications Administration

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 30
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 10 Cisco 642-165 Exam
How many languages can be installed for the Cisco Agent Desktop (CAD) and the Cisco Supervisor Desktop (CSD)?
A. one language for both the CAD and the CSD
B. one language for the CAD and a different language for the CSD
C. two languages for the CAD and one language for the CSD
D. two languages for both the CAD and the CSD

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 31
Which statement is true about the default script field when adding an application?
A. When a caller does not enter a choice in a Menu step, it will execute the default script.
B. Any problems running the configured script will cause the default script to be executed.
C. When the caller enters a digit in the Menu step that is not defined, the default script will be executed.
D. When the caller enters a digit that is not checked in the filter of the Get Digit String step, the default script will be executed.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 32
Which step can be used to trap runtime script errors and recover gracefully?
A. Set
B. Call Subflow
C. On Exception Goto
D. Get Reporting Statistic

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 33
Which two steps check out a database connection from the connection pool? (Choose two.)
A. DB Get
B. DB Read
C. DB Write
D. DB Release

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 34
If the Call Redirect step sends a caller to a device that does not exist in the CallManager, which branch of the step is executed?
A. Busy
B. Invalid
C. Successful “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 11 Cisco 642-165 Exam
D. Unsuccessful

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 35
Which step is designed to prompt a user to press or say a single-digit number to perform a specific function?
A. Menu
B. Get Digit String
C. Get Call Contact Info
D. Extended Get Digit String

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 36
Which step would you use to get information about the number of contacts currently in queue?
A. Get Contact Info
B. Get Session Info
C. Get Call Contact Info
D. Get Reporting Statistics

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 37
How can you configure the Prompt step to play different prompts following subsequent timeouts or retries?
A. Configure it as a Generated Prompt.
B. Configure it as a Random Container Prompt.
C. Configure it as an Escalating Container Prompt.
D. Configure it as a Concatenated Container Prompt.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 38
What formula do you use to calculate the number of agents in a Call Center?
A. Erlang B
B. Erlang C
C. AHT * BHCA
D. VG ports + IVR ports

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 39
What formula do you use to calculate the number of Voice Gateway ports?
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 12 Cisco 642-165 Exam
A. Erlang A
B. Erlang B
C. Erlang C
D. IVR ports + agent phones

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Cisco 642-165 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 642-165 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification
QUESTION 40
What does it mean for a variable in the Application Editor to be defined as a parameter?
A. The variable can be used to pass data to and from subflows.
B. The value for that variable can be supplied via Application Configuration in Application Administration.
C. The value for that variable is defined by the calling application.
D. The variable can be used in conditional steps.
E. The variable can be used to pass data to and from VoiceXML applications.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 41
What can help expose problems with script logic or validity by simulating the execution of a script?
A. Alarm and Trace Configuration
B. debug session
C. script validation
D. script refresh

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 42
What is the maximum number of agents supported on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express deployment?
A. 10 agents
B. 50 agents
C. 100 agents
D. 300 agents

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 43
Which configuration enables a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express server to fail over to a secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager server when the primary server fails?
A. No special configuration is needed.
B. Configure LDAP with a secondary profile. “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 13 Cisco 642-165 Exam
C. Configure a second Cisco Unified Communications Manager telephony user with an alternate range of CTI ports.
D. Configure the telephony provider with a primary and secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager IP address.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 44
Presence integration is a Cisco Unified CCX feature available in which of these packages?
A. Premium, Enhanced, and Standard
B. Premium only
C. Premium with high availability only
D. Premium and Enhanced

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 45
Which two tasks must an administrator perform on Cisco Desktop Administrator to support presence integration? (Choose two.)
A. Assign a contact list to a CSQ.
B. Assign a contact list to a workflow group.
C. Assign an SME to a contact list.
D. Assign a contact list to a skill.
E. Assign an SME to a CSQ.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation

Cisco 642-035 Vce Exams With VCE And PDF For Groundbreaking Results Download

Exam Description
The Cisco 642-035 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) is the exam associated with the Cisco Certified Network Associate certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) v1.0 course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The exam covers topics on VLSM and IPv6 addressing; extending switched networks with VLANs; configuring, verifying and troubleshooting VLANs; the VTP, RSTP, OSPF and EIGRP protocols; determining IP routes; managing IP traffic with access lists; NAT and DHCP; establishing point-to- point connections; and establishing Frame Relay connections.
Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Topic 1 – Configure, verify and troubleshoot a switch with VLANs and interswitch communications. (63 Questions) Describe enhanced switching technologies (including: VTP, RSTP, VLAN, PVSTP, 802.1q) Describe how VLANs create logically separate networks and the need for routing between them Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VLANs Configure, verify, and troubleshoot trunking on Cisco switches Configure, verify, and troubleshoot interVLAN routing Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VTP Configure, verify, and troubleshoot RSTP operation Interpret the output of various show and debug commands to verify the operational status of a Cisco switched network Implement basic switch security (including: port security, unassigned ports, trunk access, etc.)
Topic 2 – Implement IP addressing and Services(18 Questions) Calculate and apply a VLSM IP addressing design to a network Determine the appropriate classless addressing scheme using VLSM and summarization to satisfy addressing requirements in a LAN/WAN environment Describe the technological requirements for running IPv6 (including: protocols, dual stack, tunneling, etc) Describe IPv6 addresses Identify and correct common problems associated with IP addressing and host configurations
Topic 3 – Configure and troubleshoot basic operation and routing on Cisco devices. (69 Questions) Compare and contrast methods of routing and routing protocols Configure, verify and troubleshoot OSPF Configure, verify and troubleshoot EIGRP Verify configuration and connectivity using ping, traceroute, and telnet or SSH Troubleshoot routing implementation issues Verify router hardware and software operation using SHOW DEBUG commands Implement basic router security
Topic 4 – Implement, verify, and troubleshoot NAT and ACLs in a medium-size Enterprise branch office network. (20 Questions) Describe the purpose and types of access control lists Configure and apply access control lists based on network filtering requirements Configure and apply an access control list to limit telnet and SSH access to the router Verify and monitor ACL’s in a network environment Troubleshoot ACL implementation issues Explain the basic operation of NAT Configure Network Address Translation for given network requirements using CLI Troubleshoot NAT implementation issues
Topic 5 – Implement and verify WAN links. (24 Questions) Configure and verify Frame Relay on Cisco routers Troubleshoot WAN implementation issues Describe VPN technology (including: importance, benefits, role, impact, components) Configure and vary PPP connection between Cisco routers

 

Exam A
QUESTION 1
A customer is trying to boot an operating system that is installed on the eUSB on a Cisco UCS B- Series blade server; however, the boot fails. What is the cause of this failure?
A. The local disk must be the first device in the boot order.
B. eUSB is not a supported boot device.
C. eUSB support is available only on the Cisco UCS C-Series rack server.
D. eUSB is not the first device in the boot order for the server.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
A customer is troubleshooting degraded DIMM errors on a Cisco UCS blade server and would like to reset the BMC. What is the correct command sequence to reset the BMC?
A. UCS1-A# server x/y UCS1-A /chassis/server # scope bmc UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc # reset UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc* # commit-buffer
B. UCS1-A# server scope UCS1-A /chassis/server # scope bmc UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc # reset UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc* # commit-buffer
C. UCS1-A# scope server x/y UCS1-A /chassis/server # scope bmc UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc # reset UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc* # commit-buffer
D. UCS1-A# scope server x/y UCS1-A /chassis/server # scope bmc UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc* # commit-buffer

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which commands can you enter to see if a component in the Cisco UCS domain generated a core file?
A. 6100-A# scope monitoring 6100-A /monitoring # scope sysdebug 6100-A /monitoring/sysdebug # show cores Core Files: Name Fabric ID
B. 6100-A# scope sysdebug 6100-A /sysdebug # scope monitoring 6100-A /sysdebug/monitoring # show cores Core Files: Name Fabric ID
C. 6100-A# scope system 6100-A /system # scope monitoring 6100-A /system/monitoring # show cores Core Files: Name Fabric ID
D. 6100-A# scope cores 6100-A /cores # show cores Core Files: Name Fabric ID
E. 6100-A# scope logging 6100-A /logging # scope monitoring 6100-A /logging/monitoring # show cores Core Files: Name Fabric ID

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which four tech support files can you create with the Cisco UCS Manager that you can submit to Cisco TAC for support?
A. UCSM
B. disk LUNs
C. fabric extender
D. memory
E. rack server
F. chassis
G. server cache

Correct Answer: ACEF
QUESTION 5
Which protocols can be used to send to Cisco TAC (Technical Assistance Center) the show tech- support command output information about the Cisco UCS domain?
A. TFTP
B. FTP
C. SCP
D. Telnet
E. SecureTelnet

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6
The Cisco UCS Manager displays FSM information for which four of these?
A. which FSM task is being executed
B. the current state of an FSM task
C. the status of the previous FSM task
D. any error codes returned while processing
E. all completed FSM tasks
F. multiple FSM tasks that completed over multiple tries
G. multiple FSM tasks that failed
Correct Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 7
How will the Cisco UCS Manager react when all of the FSM tasks fail?
A. retries for 60 seconds
B. raises faults and alarms
C. restarts from the previous known good task
D. sends an NOC SNMP trap email

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
What should you do when you see faults during the initial setup and discovery process?
A. Take note and address the faults.
B. You can safely ignore these faults.
C. Log them and try to address the first one.
D. Reboot until the error messages go away.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
When using the Cisco UCS Manager GUI to troubleshoot a suspected bad memory, which logs contain data that are related to the faulty DIMM?
A. the System Event log and Faults log that are located under the Admin tab
B. the Events log and Faults log that are located under the Admin tab
C. the System Event log that is located under the Server tab in the Navigation panel and the Faults log that is located under the Admin tab
D. the System Event log that is located under the Equipment tab and the Faults log that is located under the Admin tab

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which three are valid tech support bundles to collect in the local management shell? (Choose three.)
A. UCSM
B. UCSM-MGMT
C. Port-Channel
D. Adapter
E. SAN
F. FEX

Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 11
The Core File Exporter automatically exports cores to a remote server as they are generated. Which protocol does it use for this action?
A. FTP
B. SCP
C. SFTP
D. TFTP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which log file in Cisco UCS Manager contains information about which user took a specific action?
A. user access log
B. system change log
C. audit log
D. access control log
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
Which statement is true about system event logs?
A. By default, they require manual clearing.
B. They report operating system crashes and errors.
C. They are also referred to as system error logs.
D. They can only be accessed from Cisco UCS Manager.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
Which piece of information does the FSM provide?
A. the current task and status
B. a collection of blade statistics
C. the last user to access the resource
D. a list of faults currently suppressed by the Cisco UCS Manager

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Which of these does not have an FSM associated with it?
A. vCenter connection
B. service profile
C. server hardware
D. service profile templates

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

Which tab would be the most useful for troubleshooting a blade discovery problem?
A. Faults
B. Events
C. FSM
D. Servers

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
RBAC is a method of restricting access for a particular user on which two of these? (Choose two.)
A. roles
B. realm
C. locales
D. RADIUS
E. LDAP

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 18
Which two types of ports does end host mode switching have? (Choose two.)
A. VSS
B. border
C. router
D. server
E. STP
F. client

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 19
In a Cisco UCS environment, what are the three power types in a power policy? (Choose three.)
A. backup
B. grid
C. redund
D. n-plus-1
E. non-redund
F. plus-1

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 20
When a service profile is disassociated from a server, what happens to the identity and connectivity information for the server?
A. It is cleared and set to the default that was setup initially by the first configuration.
B. It is maintained and can be reused.
C. It is reset to factory defaults.
D. It uses master service profile parameters.
E. It takes parameters of other servers in the service profile.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
At any given time, each server can be associated with how many service profiles?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
E. unlimited
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
In new Cisco UCS release 2.0 installations, what are the default VLAN IDs?
A. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 4048, FCOE default VLAN ID 4048
B. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 1, FCOE default VLAN ID is 3968
C. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 1, FCOE default VLAN ID is 2
D. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 2, FCOE default VLAN ID is 4047
E. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 1, FCOE default VLAN ID is 4048

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 23
If a server is not associated with a service profile, the activated firmware remains pending. Which two steps should you take? (Choose two.)
A. Manually reboot the server.
B. Reset the server to a new profile.
C. Reset the unassociated server to activate the firmware.
D. Reinitialize the firmware process with Cisco UCS Manager.
E. Download the firmware and start over.
F. Shut down gracefully and start over.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 24
After migrating a server that is configured with dynamic vNICs, Cisco UCS Manager assigns new dynamic vNICs to the server. If you had been monitoring traffic on an original dynamic vNIC, what must you do when the server comes back up?”
A. Reassign the dynamic vNIC back to the old configuration.
B. Nothing; Cisco UCS Manager will take over.
C. Reassign the service profile back to the master one.
D. Remove and reconfigure the dynamic vNIC.
E. Reassign the monitoring source.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.

Using RBAC for security in a Cisco UCS environment, what is seen in the exhibit?
A. custom role
B. default role
C. LDAP group map
D. external service profile

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.

Which of these is an extension of the virtual machine abstraction that is applied to physical servers?
A. service profile
B. compute profile
C. organization profile
D. locale profile
E. role profile

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 27
Which two Cisco Nexus 2000-Series Fabric Extenders support connections to both Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 2248TP
B. Cisco Nexus 2248TP-E
C. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
D. Cisco Nexus 2232TM

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 28
UCS-A# scope eth-uplink UCS-A /eth-uplink # scope fabric a UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric # scope interface 2 3 UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric/interface # create mon-src Monitor23 UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric/interface/mon-src* # set direction receive UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric/interface/mon-src* # commit-buffer What does the command scope interface 2 3 in the above CLI command sequence do on a Cisco UCS
blade server?
A. enters the interface command mode for the specified uplink port
B. enters the interface command mode for the specified Fabric A
C. enters the interface command mode for the specified Fabric B
D. enters slot 3 port 2 specified uplink port

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 29
A customer is configuring SAN pin groups in a Cisco UCS domain. The customer notices that pinning is not working and traffic from the vHBA is not passing over the Fibre Channel uplink port. Which of these must be done for pinning to work correctly?
A. Include the SAN pin group in a vHBA policy and then include the vHBA policy in the service profile that is assigned to that server.
B. Include the SAN policy in the Cisco UCS Manager to match with pin groups on the fabric interconnect.
C. The customer must have Cisco UCS Manager version 2.0 or above.
D. Fibre Channel switch mode needs to be configured first.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 30
A customer is configuring LAN pin groups in a Cisco UCS domain. The customer has two fabric interconnects and would like to associate the pin group with only one interconnect. Which statement about this configuration is true?
A. In a system with two fabric interconnects, you can associate the pin group with only one fabric interconnect, and the other fabric interconnect will not be usable.
B. In a system with two fabric interconnects, you can only associate the pin group with both fabric interconnects; you cannot associate the pin group with only one fabric interconnect.
C. In a system with two fabric interconnects, you can associate the pin group with only one fabric interconnect or with both fabric interconnect. This is a supported configuration.
D. This configuration is not supported in a Cisco UCS domain.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 31
A customer is configuring an upstream disjoint Layer 2 network in a Cisco UCS domain. So far they have
configured the following:
Fabric Interconnects are in switching mode.
There is symmetrical configuration for high availability.
There are no overlapping VLANs.
Each vNIC is communicating with one disjoint Layer 2 network.
After validating the above, the customer is still having issues with network connectivity. What is the issue?

A. Overlapping VLANs are allowed in a disjoint Layer 2 network.
B. The vNIC configuration is incorrect and must communicate with two or more disjoint layer 2 networks.
C. The fabric interconnect must be in end-host mode for a disjoint Layer 2 network.
D. Asymmetrical configuration for high availability needs to be configured.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
A customer is configuring a network control policy in a Cisco UCS domain. The network control policy configures the network control settings for the Cisco UCS domain, including which three of these? (Choose three.)
A. how the VIF behaves if no uplink port is available in end-host mode
B. the action that the Cisco UCS Manager takes on the remote Ethernet interface, vEthernet interface, or vFibreChannel interface when the associated border port fails
C. Layer 2 switching on the fabric interconnect
D. whether MAC registration occurs on a per-vNIC basis or for all VLANs
E. the end-host mode setting on the I/O module

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 33
A customer is troubleshooting QoS in a Cisco UCS domain due to high packet drops in the network. The customer has configured the vNIC and associated QoS policy, and changed the MTU from 1000 to 1200. Packet drops still exist. What is the cause of this issue?
A. The MTU specified here must be greater than the MTU specified in the associated QoS system class. If this MTU value is less than the MTU value in the QoS system class, packets may be dropped during data transmission.
B. The MTU specified here must be equal to or less than the MTU specified in the associated QoS system class. If this MTU value exceeds the MTU value in the QoS system class, packets may be dropped during data transmission.
C. The MTU specified here must be less than the MTU specified in the associated QoS system policy. If this MTU value exceeds the MTU value in the QoS system policy, packets may be not be dropped during data transmission.
D. The MTU must be optimized and should be changed to fc with the CLI command set mtu fc.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
A customer is configuring the dynamic vNIC connection policy in a Cisco UCS domain. Why is the dynamic vNIC policy required?
A. It is only required if you are configuring VM-FEX.
B. It is only required if you are configuring Adapter-FEX.
C. It is mainly for the Cisco UCS Manager to communicate with the fabric interconnect.
D. It is required for Cisco UCS instances that include servers with VIC adapters on which you have installed VMs and configured dynamic vNICs.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
What is the default number of dynamic vNICs that is specified by the Cisco UCS Manager when creating a dynamic vNIC connection policy?
A. 54
B. 128
C. 256
D. 257

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
Looking at the Equipment > Chassis > Servers > Server X view from the Cisco UCS Manager GUI, which tab would you select to identify the fabric interconnect uplink associated with a given virtual circuit?
A. Paths
B. vNIC Paths
C. Virtual Circuit Paths
D. VIF Paths

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
While attempting to boot a Cisco UCS server from SAN, you are unable to see the LUN. Which of these are causing the problem? (Choose three.)
A. VHBA template
B. RAID policy
C. zoning
D. LUN ID
E. vACLs
F. disjoint fabrics

Correct Answer: ACD

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Exact exams
QUESTION 1
What are two features of a bridge? (Choose two.)
A. reliable transmission
B. operate at OSI Layer 2
C. operate at OSI Layer 3
D. create multiple broadcast domains
E. create multiple collision domains
F. flood input packets to all ports
G. drop IP packets with invalid destination ports
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 2
What are three reasons that switches supersede bridges? (Choose three.)
A. Smaller frame buffers decrease latency.
B. Forward, filter, or flood frames.
C. Multiple simultaneous communications between ports.
D. Larger inspection engine allows for higher throughput.
E. Switches have many ports.
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 3
Which statement describes the purpose of the MAC address forwarding table of a switch?
A. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the best route to a destination.
B. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the output port.
C. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if the packet is routable.
D. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if access control permits the packet.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
What are two attributes of a VLAN? (Choose two.)
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 4 Cisco 640-911 Exam
A. A VLAN defines a collision domain.
B. A VLAN defines a broadcast domain.
C. Broadcasts are flooded to all VLANs.
D. Collisions are flooded to all VLANs.
E. A Layer 3 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
F. A Layer 2 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
Which four statements indicate unique properties of VLAN 1 on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose four.)
A. VLAN 1 is used to flood multicast traffic.
B. VLAN 1 cannot be deleted.
C. VLAN 1 is used for Cisco Discovery Protocol.
D. VLAN 1 is used for VTP advertisements.
E. VLAN 1 defines a collision domain.
F. VLAN 1 defines a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: BCDF
QUESTION 6
Which VTP mode disallows the creation of local VLANs?
A. transparent
B. tunneling
C. server
D. client
E. off
F. native

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which three statements are true concerning RFC 1918 IP addresses? (Choose three.)
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 5 Cisco 640-911 Exam
A. They are globally routable.
B. They are not globally routable.
C. They must not be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
D. They should be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
E. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/16, and 192.168.1.0/24.
F. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/21, and 192.168.0.0/16.

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 8
What are three reasons to migrate from IPv4 to IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. IPv6 eliminates the requirement for NAT.
B. IPv6 includes enough IP addresses to allocate more than four billion IP addresses to every person on earth.
C. IPv6 eliminates the need for VLANs.
D. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DHCP.
E. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DNS.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 9
Which two options describe services that are provided by TCP? (Choose two.)
A. session multiplexing
B. EtherTypes identify destination services
C. connection-oriented
D. best-effort packet delivery
E. binary translation
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10
Which two options represent a subnet mask that allows for a maximum of 14 available host addresses on a subnet? (Choose two.)
A. 255.255.255.240
B. 255.255.255.192
C. 255.255.240.0
D. 255.255.192.0
E. /14
F. /21
G. /26
H. /28
Correct Answer: AH
QUESTION 11
What is the binary value of the hexadecimal number 0x511?
A. 10100011001
B. 10101010101
C. 10110010001
D. 10100010001
E. 10100110011
Correct Answer: D

Cisco 640-911 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 640-911 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification
QUESTION 12
What are three modular Layer 2 processes in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose three.)
A. UDLD
B. PIM “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 7 Cisco 640-911 Exam

C. HSRP
D. STP
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol

F. OSPF
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 13
What are three modular Layer 3 processes in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose three.)
A. UDLD
B. PIM
C. HSRP
D. STP

E. OSPF
F. Cisco Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 14
On most keyboards, the Up arrow and Down arrow keys move through the command history. Which two key sequences can be used as alternatives? (Choose two.)
A. Alt-A
B. Alt-F
C. Alt-N
D. Alt-E
E. Alt-P

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 15
Where does Cisco Nexus Operating System store the running configuration file?
A. RAM
B. flash
C. bootflash
D. volatile

E. NVRAM
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Where does Cisco Nexus Operating System store the startup configuration file?
A. RAM
B. flash
C. bootflash
D. volatile

E. NVRAM
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 17
What is the minimum required command to enter global configuration mode on a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. nexus# con “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 9 Cisco 640-911 Exam
B. nexus# configure
C. nexus# configure global
D. nexus# configure terminal

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which option would you use to exit the Cisco Nexus Operating System interface configuration mode and return to the exec prompt?
A. nexus(config-if)#Ctrl-C nexus#
B. nexus(config-if)#Ctrl-Z nexus#
C. nexus(config-if)#Ctrl-E nexus#
D. nexus(config-if)#exit nexus#
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
What is the correct format of an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny FTP traffic from any source to destination host 10.10.1.110?
A. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq ftp
B. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq ftp
C. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq ftp N5K-A(config)#access-list 101denyip any any
D. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# denyudp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
E. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 21 “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 10 Cisco 640-911 Exam N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any

Correct Answer: E
Our material on our site Cisco 640-911 is exam-oriented, keeping in view the candidates requirements and level of understanding.Cisco 640-911 materials are in the most popular and easy-to-use PDF version. You can use it on any devices with you anywhere.

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Exam A QUESTION 1
1
Which two networking devices operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub

Correct Answer: AE QUESTION 2
2
Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address? (Choose two.)

A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 3
3
Which two network topologies are the most popular in switching? (Choose two.)

A. bus
B. token passing bus
C. star
D. extended star
E. ring

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 4
4
Which device would you select to partition a network into VLANs?

A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
5
At which layer of the OSI model does TCP operate?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
6
Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet forwarding based on destination IP address? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
7
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams?
A. datagram
B. routing
C. network
D. data link
E. transport
F. transmission
G. session
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8
8
Which three terms are used to describe data at Layers 1, 2, and 4 of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
A. PDUs
B. bits
C. sequences
D. segments
E. packets
F. frames
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 9
9
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite application layer? (Choose two.)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 10
10
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite network access layer? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
11
In an IEEE 802.3 Ethernet frame, what is the significance of the DSAP field?
A. The DSAP field specifies the TCP or UDP port that is associated with the transport protocol.
B. The DSAP field is only used on United States Department of Defense networks to indicate the information classification level.
C. The DSAP field is only used in Ethernet II frames.
D. The DSAP field indicates the network layer protocol.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
12
Which field in an Ethernet II frame performs the same function as the DSAP field in an 802.3 Ethernet frame?
A. start of frame
B. EtherType
C. frame check sequence
D. Subnetwork Access Protocol
E. Logical Link Control
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
13
What are two features of a bridge? (Choose two.)
A. reliable transmission
B. operate at OSI Layer 2
C. operate at OSI Layer 3
D. create multiple broadcast domains
E. create multiple collision domains
F. flood input packets to all ports
G. drop IP packets with invalid destination ports

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 14
14
What are three reasons that switches supersede bridges? (Choose three.)
A. Smaller frame buffers decrease latency.
B. Forward, filter, or flood frames.
C. Multiple simultaneous communications between ports.
D. Larger inspection engine allows for higher throughput.
E. Switches have many ports.

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 15
15
What action does a switch take if the destination MAC address is unknown?
A. discard frame
B. send ICMP unreachable message to source
C. flood packet on all ports
D. compare destination IP address against an ACL to determine if it is permitted
E. send gratuitous ARP on all ports and wait for reply before forwarding

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
16
Which statement describes the purpose of the MAC address forwarding table of a switch?
A. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the best route to a destination.
B. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the output port.
C. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if the packet is routable.
D. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if access control permits the packet.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
17
What are two attributes of a VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. A VLAN defines a collision domain.
B. A VLAN defines a broadcast domain.
C. Broadcasts are flooded to all VLANs.
D. Collisions are flooded to all VLANs.
E. A Layer 3 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
F. A Layer 2 device is required to route packets between VLANs.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 18
18
Which four statements indicate unique properties of VLAN 1 on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose four.)
A. VLAN 1 is used to flood multicast traffic.
B. VLAN 1 cannot be deleted.
C. VLAN 1 is used for Cisco Discovery Protocol.
D. VLAN 1 is used for VTP advertisements.
E. VLAN 1 defines a collision domain.
F. VLAN 1 defines a broadcast domain.

Correct Answer: BCDF
QUESTION 19
19
Which command displays the Trunking Native Mode VLAN on port Ethernet 1/18?
A. show running-config switchport e1/18
B. show running-config e1/18 switchport
C. show interface e1/18
D. show interface e1/18 switchport
E. show interface e1/18 native

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
20
Which VTP mode disallows the creation of local VLANs?
A. transparent
B. tunneling
C. server
D. client
E. off
F. native
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
21
Which three statements are true concerning RFC 1918 IP addresses? (Choose three.)
A. They are globally routable.
B. They are not globally routable.
C. They must not be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
D. They should be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
E. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/16, and 192.168.1.0/24.
F. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/21, and 192.168.0.0/16.

Correct Answer: BDF QUESTION 22
22
Which two statements describe the purpose of RFC 1918? (Choose two.)

A. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to the growing use of multicast video.
B. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to the growing use of peer-to-peer file-sharing applications.
C. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to use on internal networks.
D. Establish a range of IP addresses to address the shrinking pool of globally routable addresses.
E. Delay the transition to IPv6.

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 23
23
What are three reasons to migrate from IPv4 to IPv6? (Choose three.)

A. IPv6 eliminates the requirement for NAT.
B. IPv6 includes enough IP addresses to allocate more than four billion IP addresses to every person on earth.
C. IPv6 eliminates the need for VLANs.
D. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DHCP.
E. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DNS.

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 24
24
Which two options describe services that are provided by TCP? (Choose two.)

A. session multiplexing
B. EtherTypes identify destination services
C. connection-oriented
D. best-effort packet delivery
E. binary translation

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 25
25
Which two options describe services that are provided by UDP? (Choose two.)

A. session multiplexing
B. segmentation
C. connection-oriented
D. reliable packet delivery
E. best-effort packet delivery Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 26
26
Which two options represent a subnet mask that allows for a maximum of 14 available host addresses on a subnet? (Choose two.)
A. 255.255.255.240
B. 255.255.255.192
C. 255.255.240.0
D. 255.255.192.0
E. /14
F. /21
G. /26
H. /28
Correct Answer: AH
QUESTION 27
27
What is the binary value of the hexadecimal number 0x511?
A. 10100011001
B. 10101010101
C. 10110010001
D. 10100010001
E. 10100110011
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
28
What is the binary value of the decimal number 1263?
A. 11011101101
B. 10011101111
C. 10011101011
D. 11010001111
E. 10111101111
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
29
Which option is an example of a distance vector routing protocol?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. ARP
D. IS-IS
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Which option is an example of an advanced distance vector routing protocol?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF

D. ARP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
31
Which option is an example of a link-state routing protocol?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. ARP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
32
What is the maximum allowable hop count for RIPv1?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 15
E. 16
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
33
What is the default periodic interval at which RIPv1 sends routing updates?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
E. 90 seconds
F. RIPv1 only sends routing updates when the topology changes.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
34
What does RIPv1 send to its neighbors?
A. information about changed routes
B. information about new routes
C. the entire routing table
D. information about deleted routes

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
35
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 36
36
Which statement correctly describes an SVI?

A. An SVI is a Layer 2 interface and uses a dynamic MAC address.
B. An SVI cannot have an IP address assigned to it.
C. An SVI provides Layer 3 routing between VLANs.
D. Each switch port requires an SVI assignment.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
37
What is the Cisco Nexus Operating System command to define a port as a Layer 3 port?

A. port routed
B. no switchport
C. l3 switchport
D. port switching off

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38
38
Which statement is correct regarding a routed port on a multilayer switch?

A. A routed port requires an SVI definition.
B. Routed ports cannot be configured on a multilayer switch that uses SVIs.
C. A maximum of 32 routed ports can be provisioned on a given multilayer switch.
D. A routed port is a physical port that supports Layer 3 routing.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
39
On a new Cisco Nexus switch, you receive an error message when you attempt to create an SVI. What is the first command you must use to create the SVI?
A. interface vlan (vlan_id)
B. vlan (vlan_id)
C. feature svi
D. interface routed

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
40
Which command should you use to configure a Cisco Nexus switch port for Layer 2 operation?
A. nexus(config-if)#switchport
B. nexus(config-if)#layer-2
C. nexus(config-if)#routed
D. nexus(config)#interface vlan 10 nexus(config-if)#switchport

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
41
Which version of Cisco Nexus Operating System became a common operating system for Cisco Nexus switches and Cisco MDS storage switches?
A. 2.7
B. 3.3
C. 3.9
D. 4.1
E. 5.01GD
F. 6.2
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
42
What are two core features of Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose two.)
A. SNMPv3
B. RMON
C. System Manager

D. PSS
E. VRF
F. TRILL
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 43
43
What is the acronym expansion of the UDLD feature of Cisco Nexus Operating System?
A. UniDirectional Link Detection
B. Unified Data Link Distribution
C. Unified Data Loss Detection
D. Unified Directional Link Distribution
E. Unidirectional Data Loss Detection
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
44
What are four security features that are included in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco TrustSec
B. IEEE 802.1Qau
C. CoPP
D. port security
E. PIM
F. SSL VPN
G. IPsec VPN
H. ACLs
Correct Answer: ACDH

Download IT Exams Cisco 640-822 Pass Certification Exam Training Questions And Answers With PDF And VCE

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. The junior network support staff provided the diagram as a recommended configuration for the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project. The entire network expansion will have over 1000 users on 14 network segments and has been allocated this IP address space:
192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255
192.168.100.1 through 198.168.100.255
What are three problems with this design? (Choose three.)
A. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
B. The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
C. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space.
D. The network address space that is provided requires a single network-wide mask.
E. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.
F. The broadcast domain in AREA 1 is too large for IP to function.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 2
A network administrator is connecting PC hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet interfaces as shown in the graphic. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts? (Choose two.)
A. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
B. A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable
C. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192.
D. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
E. The hosts must be reconfigured to use private IP addresses for direct connections of this type.
F. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 3
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
C. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
D. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
E. to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which two statements best describe the wireless security standard that is defined by WPA? (Choose two.)
A. It specifies use of a static encryption key that must be changed frequently to enhance security.
B. It requires use of an open authentication method.
C. It specifies the use of dynamic encryption keys that change each time a client establishes a connection.
D. It requires that all access points and wireless devices use the same encryption key.
E. It includes authentication by PSK.
Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 5

Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Host A needs to send data to Host B. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will be used to send the data from Host A to Host B?
A. 192.168.60.5 and 0011.43da.2c98
B. 192.168.60.5 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
C. 192.168.24.1 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
D. 192.168.24.2 and 0007.0e84.acef
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. The IP address space of 128.107.7.0/24 has been allocated for all devices on this network. All devices must use the same subnet mask and all subnets are usable.
Which subnet mask is required to apply the allocated address space to the configuration that is shown?
A. 255.255.254.0
B. 255.255.255.0
C. 255.255.255.128
D. 255.255.255.192
E. 255.255.255.224
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the WLAN diagram? (Choose two.)
A. The area of overlap of the two cells represents a basic service set (BSS).
B. The network diagram represents an extended service set (ESS).
C. Access points in each cell must be configured to use channel 1.
D. The area of overlap must be less than 10% of the area to ensure connectivity.
E. The two APs should be configured to operate on different channels.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 10
Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, which three addresses are valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.8.0
B. 172.16.9.0
C. 172.16.16.0
D. 172.16.20.0
E. 172.16.24.0
F. 172.16.31.0
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What could be the cause of the problem?
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
A single 802.11g access point has been configured and installed in the center of a square office. A few wireless users are experiencing slow performance and drops while most users are operating at peak efficiency. What are three likely causes of this problem? (Choose three.)
A. mismatched TKIP encryption
B. null SSID
C. cordless phones
D. mismatched SSID
E. metal file cabinets
F. antenna type or direction

Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 15
What two actions must a router take in order to route incoming packets? (Choose two.)
A. Identify the destination network address of each packet.
B. Identify the source network address of each packet.
C. Validate sources of routing information.
D. Inspect the routing table to select the best path to the destination network address.
E. Verify the receipt of routed packets by the next hop router.
F. Inspect the ARP table to verify a legitimate source MAC address for each packet.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?
A. It configures SSH globally for all logins.
B. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that fails to use Telnet.
C. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
D. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the virtual terminal ports.
E. It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 18
Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E. The network is not subnetted.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 19
After the router interfaces shown in the diagram have been configured, it is discovered that hosts in the Branch LAN cannot access the Internet. Further testing reveals additional connectivity issues. What will fix this problem?
A. Change the address of the Branch router LAN interface.
B. Change the address of the Branch router WAN interface.
C. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router LAN interface.
D. Change the address of the HQ router LAN interface.
E. Change the address of the HQ router interface to the Internet.
F. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router interface to the Internet.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit. Serial0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet0/0 LAN. How can this problem be corrected?
A. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.
B. Correct the IP address for Serial 0/0.
C. Correct the IP address for FastEthernet 0/0.
D. Change the encapsulation type on Serial 0/0.
E. Enable autoconfiguration on the Serial 0/0 interface.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?
A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface

Cisco 640-822 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 640-822 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification

 

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is configuring RTA to connect to a non-Cisco network. Which two commands would be applied to the S0/0 WAN interface, but not to the Fa0/0 LAN interface? (Choose two.)
A. speed
B. no shutdown
C. ip address
D. authentication pap
E. encapsulation ppp
Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 23
At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
E. application

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the exhibit is running the RIPv2 routing protocol. The network has converged, and the routers in this network are functioning properly.
The FastEthernet0/0 interface on R1 goes down. In which two ways will the routers in this network respond to this change? (Choose two.)
A. All routers will reference their topology database to determine if any backup routes to the 192.168.1.0 network are known.
B. Routers R2 and R3 mark the route as inaccessible and will not accept any further routing updates from R1 until their hold-down timers expire.
C. Because of the split-horizon rule, router R2 will be prevented from sending erroneous information to R1 about connectivity to the 192.168.1.0 network.
D. When router R2 learns from R1 that the link to the 192.168.1.0 network has been lost, R2 will respond by sending a route back to R1 with an infinite metric to the 192.168.1.0 network.
E. R1 will send LSAs to R2 and R3 informing them of this change, and then all routers will send periodic updates at an increased rate until the network again converges.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 25
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are four collision domains in the network.
E. There are five collision domains in the network.
F. There are seven collision domains in the network.

Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 26
The administrator is unable to establish connectivity between two Cisco routers. Upon reviewing the command output of both routers, what is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. Authentication needs to be changed to PAP for both routers.
B. Serial ip addresses of routers are not on the same subnet.
C. Username/password is incorrectly configured.
D. Router names are incorrectly configured.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. Workstation A must be able to telnet to switch SW-A through router RTA for
management purposes. What must be configured for this connection to be successful?
A. VLAN 1 on RTA
B. default gateway on SW-A
C. IP routing on SW-A
D. cross-over cable connecting SW-A and RTA

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
This graphic shows some common router ports. Which port can be used for a WAN T1 connection?
A. AUI
B. BRI
C. Console
D. Serial 0
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit. The goal of this network design is to provide the most efficient use of IP address space in a network expansion. Each circle defines a network segment and the number of users required on that segment. An IP subnetwork number and default gateway address are shown for each segment.
What are three problems with the network design as shown? (Choose three.)
A. Interface fa0/3 has an IP address that overlaps with network 10.1.1.0/30.
B. Interface fa0/1 has an invalid IP address for the subnet on which it resides.
C. Interface fa0/2 has an invalid IP address for the subnet on which it resides.
D. Network 10.1.2.0/25 requires more user address space.
E. Network 10.1.3.128/25 requires more user address space.
F. The IP subnet 10.1.1.0/30 is invalid for a segment with a single server.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown?
A. 1 – Ethernet crossover cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – fiber optic cable 4 – rollover cable
B. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
C. 1 – Ethernet rollover cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – null modem cable
D. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
E. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – Ethernet straight-through cable

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. For security reasons, information about RTA, including platform and IP addresses, should not be accessible from the Internet. This information should, however, be accessible to devices on the internal networks of RTA. Which command or series of commands will accomplish these objectives?
A. RTA(config)#no cdp run
B. RTA(config)#no cdp enable
C. RTA(config)#interface s0/0 RTA(config-if)#no cdp run
D. RTA(config)#interface s0/0 RTA(config-if)#no cdp enable

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
Which of the following describe private IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the Internet
B. addresses that cannot be routed through the public Internet
C. addresses that can be routed through the public Internet
D. a scheme to conserve public addresses
E. addresses licensed to enterprises or ISPs by an Internet registry organization

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 33
WAN data link encapsulation types include which of the following? (Choose two.)
A. T1
B. Frame Relay

C. DSL
D. PPP
E. ISDN
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit. A technician is testing connection problems in the internetwork. What is the problem indicated by the output from HostA?
A. The routing on Router2 is not functioning properly.
B. An access list is applied to an interface of Router3.
C. The Fa0/24 interface of Switch1 is down.
D. The gateway address of HostA is incorrect or not configured.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
Which of the following are found in a TCP header, but not in a UDP header? (Choose three.)
A. sequence number
B. acknowledgment number
C. source port
D. destination port
E. window size
F. checksum

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 36
The Hub and Spoke routers are directly connected through their serial interfaces for purposes of testing. Based on the output shown in the exhibit, what must be done to make the serial line operational?
A. Start the clock on the Hub router.
B. Change the IP address on the Spoke router.
C. Configure the serial 0/0 interface on the Spoke router with a clockrate.
D. Replace the broken cable between the two devices.
E. Use the no shutdown command on the Hub router.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?
A. 172.16.0.0
B. 172.16.128.0
C. 172.16.156.0
D. 172.16.159.0
E. 172.16.159.128
F. 172.16.192.0
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
What are two advantages of Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs? (Choose two.)
A. decreasing the number of collision domains
B. filtering frames based on MAC addresses
C. allowing simultaneous frame transmissions
D. increasing the size of broadcast domains
E. increasing the maximum length of UTP cabling between devices

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 39
When files are transferred between a host and an FTP server, the data is divided into smaller pieces for transmission. As these pieces arrive at the destination host, they must be reassembled to reconstruct the original file. What provides for the reassembly of these pieces into the correct order?
A. the TTL in the IP header
B. the frame check sequence in the Ethernet frame trailer
C. the sequence number in the TCP header
D. the Start Frame Delimiter in the 802.3 Preamble
E. the acknowledgement number in the segment header
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three.)
A. buffering
B. cut-through
C. windowing
D. congestion avoidance
E. load balancing

Correct Answer: ACD

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Refer to the exhibit. The junior network support staff provided the diagram as a recommended configuration for the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project. The entire network expansion will have over 1000 users on 14 network segments and has been allocated this IP address space:
192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255
192.168.100.1 through 198.168.100.255
What are three problems with this design? (Choose three.)
A. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
B. The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
C. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space.
D. The network address space that is provided requires a single network-wide mask.
E. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.
F. The broadcast domain in AREA 1 is too large for IP to function.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 4
A network administrator is connecting PC hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet interfaces as shown in the graphic. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts? (Choose two.)

A. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
B. A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable
C. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192.
D. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
E. The hosts must be reconfigured to use private IP addresses for direct connections of this type.
F. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.

Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 5
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
C. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
D. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
E. to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which two statements best describe the wireless security standard that is defined by WPA? (Choose two.)
A. It specifies use of a static encryption key that must be changed frequently to enhance security.
B. It requires use of an open authentication method.
C. It specifies the use of dynamic encryption keys that change each time a client establishes a connection.
D. It requires that all access points and wireless devices use the same encryption key.
E. It includes authentication by PSK.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Host A needs to send data to Host B. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will be used to send the data from Host A to Host B?

A. 192.168.60.5 and 0011.43da.2c98
B. 192.168.60.5 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
C. 192.168.24.1 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
D. 192.168.24.2 and 0007.0e84.acef

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. The IP address space of 128.107.7.0/24 has been allocated for all devices on this network. All devices must use the same subnet mask and all subnets are usable. Which subnet mask is required to apply the allocated address space to the configuration that is shown?

A. 255.255.254.0
B. 255.255.255.0
C. 255.255.255.128
D. 255.255.255.192
E. 255.255.255.224

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Correct Answer: BE

Cisco 640-822 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 640-822 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the WLAN diagram? (Choose two.)

A. The area of overlap of the two cells represents a basic service set (BSS).
B. The network diagram represents an extended service set (ESS).
C. Access points in each cell must be configured to use channel 1.
D. The area of overlap must be less than 10% of the area to ensure connectivity.
E. The two APs should be configured to operate on different channels.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 12
Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, which three addresses are valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.8.0
B. 172.16.9.0
C. 172.16.16.0
D. 172.16.20.0
E. 172.16.24.0
F. 172.16.31.0
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 13
Drop A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What could be the cause of the problem?

A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
A single 802.11g access point has been configured and installed in the center of a square office. A few wireless users are experiencing slow performance and drops while most users are operating at peak efficiency. What are three likely causes of this problem? (Choose three.)
A. mismatched TKIP encryption
B. null SSID
C. cordless phones
D. mismatched SSID
E. metal file cabinets
F. antenna type or direction

Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 18
What two actions must a router take in order to route incoming packets? (Choose two.)
A. Identify the destination network address of each packet.
B. Identify the source network address of each packet.
C. Validate sources of routing information.
D. Inspect the routing table to select the best path to the destination network address.
E. Verify the receipt of routed packets by the next hop router.
F. Inspect the ARP table to verify a legitimate source MAC address for each packet.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?

A. It configures SSH globally for all logins.
B. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that fails to use Telnet.
C. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
D. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the virtual terminal ports.
E. It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 21
Hotspot

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 22
Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E. The network is not subnetted.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 23
After the router interfaces shown in the diagram have been configured, it is discovered that hosts in the Branch LAN cannot access the Internet. Further testing reveals additional connectivity issues. What will fix this problem?

A. Change the address of the Branch router LAN interface.
B. Change the address of the Branch router WAN interface.
C. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router LAN interface.
D. Change the address of the HQ router LAN interface.
E. Change the address of the HQ router interface to the Internet.
F. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router interface to the Internet.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. Serial0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet0/0 LAN. How can this problem be corrected?

A. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.
B. Correct the IP address for Serial 0/0.
C. Correct the IP address for FastEthernet 0/0.
D. Change the encapsulation type on Serial 0/0.
E. Enable autoconfiguration on the Serial 0/0 interface.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit. A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?

A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is configuring RTA to connect to a non-Cisco network. Which two commands would be applied to the S0/0 WAN interface, but not to the Fa0/0 LAN interface? (Choose two.)

A. speed
B. no shutdown
C. ip address
D. authentication pap
E. encapsulation ppp

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 27
At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
E. application

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the exhibit is running the RIPv2 routing protocol. The network has converged, and the routers in this network are functioning properly. The FastEthernet0/0 interface on R1 goes down. In which two ways will the routers in this network respond to this change? (Choose two.)

A. All routers will reference their topology database to determine if any backup routes to the 192.168.1.0 network are known.
B. Routers R2 and R3 mark the route as inaccessible and will not accept any further routing updates from R1 until their hold-down timers expire.
C. Because of the split-horizon rule, router R2 will be prevented from sending erroneous information to R1 about connectivity to the 192.168.1.0 network.
D. When router R2 learns from R1 that the link to the 192.168.1.0 network has been lost, R2 will respond by sending a route back to R1 with an infinite metric to the 192.168.1.0 network.
E. R1 will send LSAs to R2 and R3 informing them of this change, and then all routers will send periodic updates at an increased rate until the network again converges.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 29
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are four collision domains in the network.
E. There are five collision domains in the network.
F. There are seven collision domains in the network.

Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 30
The administrator is unable to establish connectivity between two Cisco routers. Upon reviewing the
command output of both routers, what is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. Authentication needs to be changed to PAP for both routers.
B. Serial ip addresses of routers are not on the same subnet.
C. Username/password is incorrectly configured.
D. Router names are incorrectly configured.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. Workstation A must be able to telnet to switch SW-A through router RTA for management purposes. What must be configured for this connection to be successful?

A. VLAN 1 on RTA
B. default gateway on SW-A
C. IP routing on SW-A
D. cross-over cable connecting SW-A and RTA

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
Hotspot
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 33
This graphic shows some common router ports. Which port can be used for a WAN T1 connection?

A. AUI
B. BRI
C. Console
D. Serial 0

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit. The goal of this network design is to provide the most efficient use of IP address space in a network expansion. Each circle defines a network segment and the number of users required on that segment. An IP subnetwork number and default gateway address are shown for each segment.
What are three problems with the network design as shown? (Choose three.)

A. Interface fa0/3 has an IP address that overlaps with network 10.1.1.0/30.
B. Interface fa0/1 has an invalid IP address for the subnet on which it resides.
C. Interface fa0/2 has an invalid IP address for the subnet on which it resides.
D. Network 10.1.2.0/25 requires more user address space.
E. Network 10.1.3.128/25 requires more user address space.
F. The IP subnet 10.1.1.0/30 is invalid for a segment with a single server.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown?

A. 1 – Ethernet crossover cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – fiber optic cable 4 – rollover cable
B. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
C. 1 – Ethernet rollover cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – null modem cable
D. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
E. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – Ethernet straight-through cable

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit. For security reasons, information about RTA, including platform and IP addresses, should not be accessible from the Internet. This information should, however, be accessible to devices on the internal networks of RTA. Which command or series of commands will accomplish these objectives?

A. RTA(config)#no cdp run
B. RTA(config)#no cdp enable
C. RTA(config)#interface s0/0 RTA(config-if)#no cdp run
D. RTA(config)#interface s0/0 RTA(config-if)#no cdp enable

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Which of the following describe private IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the Internet
B. addresses that cannot be routed through the public Internet
C. addresses that can be routed through the public Internet
D. a scheme to conserve public addresses
E. addresses licensed to enterprises or ISPs by an Internet registry organization

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 38
WAN data link encapsulation types include which of the following? (Choose two.)
A. T1
B. Frame Relay
C. DSL
D. PPP
E. ISDN
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit. A technician is testing connection problems in the internetwork. What is the problem indicated by the output from HostA?

A. The routing on Router2 is not functioning properly.
B. An access list is applied to an interface of Router3.
C. The Fa0/24 interface of Switch1 is down.
D. The gateway address of HostA is incorrect or not configured.

Correct Answer: D

The Cisco 640-822 training is a vital way of becoming the best. This certification has helped the candidates to enhance their capabilities by providing a great learning platform to them so that they can polish their skills.

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