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QUESTION 1
The following message is displayed in the System Notification Widget on the Dashboard:

Which script should be run to help determine the cause of the dropped events?
A. /opt/qradar/support/dumpGvData.sh
B. /opt/qradar/support/dumpDSMInfo.sh
C. /opt/qradar/support/cleanAssetModel.sh
D. /opt/qradar/support/findExpensiveCustomRules.sh

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
What is used to collect netflow and jflow traffic in a QRadar Distributed Deployment?
A. QRadar 3105 Console
B. QRadar 1705 Processor
C. QRadar 1605 Processor
D. QRadar 700 Risk Manager

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
What should the format of a CSV file be while importing assets on the QRadar console?
A. ip,portweight,description
B. ip,name,weightmagnitude
C. ip.name.weight.description
D. ip.name.severity.description

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
Which option needs to be specified in the syslinux configuration file to reinstall an IBM QRadar appliance via serial port from an USB flash-drive?
A. USB to serial
B. Default serial
C. Serial to USB
D. serial redirect

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
With a Data Deletion Policy of “When storage is required”, data will remain in storage until which scenario is reached?
A. If used disk space reaches 88% for records and 85% for payloads.
B. If used disk space reaches 85% for records and 88% for payloads.
C. If used disk space reaches 85% for records and 83% for payloads.
D. If used disk space reaches 83% for records and 85% for payloads.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which two actions can be selected from the license drop-down in the system and license management screen when working with a new license? (Choose two.)
A. Apply license
B. Upload license
C. Allocate license to system
D. Allocate system to license
E. Register system to license

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
How frequently does the Automated Update Process run if Configuration files are updated on Primary and then Deploy Changes is not performed, and the updates are made on the Secondary host through an Automated Update Process?
A. Every 10 minutes
B. Every 15 minutes
C. Every 30 minutes
D. Every 60 minutes

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
What two are valid actions that a user can perform when monitoring offenses? (Choose two.)
A. Import offenses
B. Backup offenses
C. Restore offenses
D. Send email notifications
E. Hide or close an offense from any offense list
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 9
What is a valid QVM scan status?
A. Active
B. Paused
C. Scanning
D. Complete
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which NetFlow versions does QRadar SIEM support?
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4
B. 1, 4, 7, and 9
C. 1, 3, 5, and 9
D. 1, 5, 7, and 9

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11
How do you view Raw Events on the Log Activity tab?
A. Select “Raw Events” from the View list box
B. Select “Raw Events” from the Actions list box
C. Select “Raw Events” from the Display list box
D. Select “Raw Events” from the Quick Searches list box

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12
There is a requirement at the customer site to double the default QFlow Maximum Content Capture size. What would be the resulting packet size?
A. 64 bytes
B. 128 bytes
C. 256 bytes
D. 1024 bytes

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13
What is the result when adding host definition building blocks to QRadar?
A. Creates Offenses
B. Reduces false positives
C. Makes searches run faster
D. Authorizes QRadar Services

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
What is used to collect netflow and jflow traffic in a QRadar Distributed Deployment?
A. QRadar 3124 Console
B. QRadar 1624 Processor
C. QRadar 1724 Processor
D. QRadar 700 Risk Manager

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
What will be restored when restoring event data or flow data for a particular period to a MH?
A. Only data sent to the console for that time period is restored to the MH.
B. Only event data or flow data for the MH being restored will be restored to that MH.
C. Only data that was accumulated for reports and searches will be restored to the MH.
D. All data for all MHs for a specific time period is restored to its respective hosts in the deployment.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
Where do you save the “Login Message File” on the system when setting up a banner message for the authentication page?

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To ensure project success, what do teams need to pay attention to? (Choose two.)
A. creating a Use Case Diagram for the requirements
B. involving users as early as possible
C. creating a clear statement of business objectives
D. reviewing and validating requirements with stakeholders to achieve a shared vision and concurrence
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 2
What does a business process diagram represent?
A. global processes
B. enterprise processes
C. organizational processes
D. company to company processes
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 3
With the appropriate privileges, which three actions can users take to manipulate folders? (Choose three.)
A. move artifacts between folders within the same project area
B. move folders within a project within the same project area
C. copy folders from one project area to another
D. delete folders within a project within the same project area
E. link folders between project areas
Answer: B,D

Which valid system files can be uploaded to a Rational Requirements Composer project?
A. Word, Excel, CSV, and HTML only
B. Word, Excel, HTML, and images only
C. Word, Excel, CSV, HTML, and images
D. Word, Excel, HTML, and images only
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 5
Which detailed requirements do use cases contain?
A. functional requirements
B. non-functional requirements
C. testable requirements
D. feature requirements
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 6
Which two capabilities in Rational Requirements Composer allow authors to create and modify artifact content, attributes, and links in the Artifact editor? (Choose two.)
A. artifact format
B. Open Artifact checkbox
C. Edit button
D. double-clicking the artifact
E. right-clicking the artifact
Answer: B,C

Which two actions can be taken against each artifact under review? (Choose two.)
A. approve
B. pass
C. disapprove
D. reject
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 8
Which statement best describes the process of creating saved filters?
A. Saved filters are created, and then you define the filters that go into it.
B. After you have defined your collection, you can then decide which artifacts appear in the saved filter.
C. After you have created your artifacts, you can associate the artifacts to your filter.
D. After you have defined filter criteria, you can save the filter for future use.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 9
What does the use case model consists of?
A. actors and use cases
B. diagrams only
C. text only
D. diagrams and text
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 10
An administrator wants to prevent a user role from updating project and personal dashboards.
Where should the administrator manage this from?
A. Manage Project Properties
B. Open My Personal Dashboard (default)
C. Manage this Project Area
D. Lifecycle Project Administration
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 11
Where is a process performed?
A. only within a company
B. within or across companies only
C. within or across organizations only
D. within or across companies and organizations
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
When does a review reach the Finalized state?
A. when all required reviewers have marked the review complete
B. when all required reviewers have Approved, Disapproved, or Abstained on all artifacts in the review
C. when all required reviewers have marked the review complete, and the review creator has clicked the Finalize Review button
D. when all required reviewers have marked all artifacts Approved
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 13
Besides derivation and impact analysis, what does traceability support?
A. elaboration, progress analysis, and lifecycle coverage analysis
B. progress analysis and lifecycle coverage analysis only
C. elaboration and progress analysis only
D. elaboration and lifecycle coverage analysis only
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14
A business analyst on a project wants to identify which requirements were changed last week by a specific team member. Which attributes should be selected and filtered to only display those artifacts?
A. Name and Last modified on
B. Name and Status
C. Last modified on and Last modified by
D. Created on and Created by
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 15
Which three OSLC link types would be used in a Saved Filter to get Lifecycle Traceability across the Collaborative Lifecycle Management (CLM) solution from Rational Requirements Composer? (Choose three.)
A. Tracked by
B. Validated by
C. Implemented by
D. Developed by
E. Tested by
Answer: A,B,C

After an artifact is embedded in another artifact, which two controls can be used to manipulate the embedded requirement? (Choose two.)
A. hide
B. show
C. maximize
D. delete
E. minimize
Answer: C,E
QUESTION NO: 17
A requirements collection has been completed by the business analysts, and is now ready for the development team to start working. What should the business analyst link to?
A. Requirement Implementation plan
B. Development plan
C. Test plan
D. User Story
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 18
Which lifecycle states do both formal and informal reviews have?
A. New, In progress, Reviewed, Complete
B. Draft, In progress, Paused, Reviewed, Finalized
C. New, Under review, Reviewed, Finalized
D. Draft, Under review, Paused, Complete, Finalized
Answer: B

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Question No : 1
What is the annotation for local interface?
A. @local
B. @localInterface
C. @Interface
D. @ejbLocal

Answer: A
Question No : 2
Which two are Session Bean interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. local interface
B. remote interface
C. provider interface
D. external interface

Answer: A,B
Question No : 3
A developer needs to check the state of one of the JSF Managed Beans when an application is paused. Although all Managed Beans (and other scoped objects) can be found by looking at the FacesContext object available in the Variables view, finding the objects this way can be difficult and time consuming. What is the simplest way for a developer to check the state of scoped objects and view attributes?
A. create matches for scoped objects and view attributes and view the values at the Expression window
B. print the report of the scoped objects and view attributes, then filter the scoped object out of the list
C. execute the pauseTime.bat under the install_root/eclipse/plug-ins/scopedValue, which will print the values of the scoped objects and view attributes
D. enable the runtime JVMPI values for the variables

Answer: A Question No : 4
A developer needs to debug an application. What can the developer do to get the debug perspective on Rational Application Developer?
A. select Window -> Open Perspective -> (Other) -> Debug
B. select Window -> New Perspective -> Open -> Debug
C. select Window -> Debug
D. select Window -> Application -> Open -> Debug

Answer: A
Question No : 5
What is an example of an application component type?
A. Applet
B. Web Module
C. Resource Adapter
D. Deployment Descriptor

Answer: A
Question No : 6
Web 2.0 technologies improve the user interface of web-based applications and RAD8 provides support for several of these technologies. Which two technologies supported by RAD8 are provided to make Web 2.0 easier? (Choose two.)
A. Dojo Javascript library
B. Web Security Editor
C. Ajax Proxy
D. Dynamic Page Template support (Tiles)

Answer: A,C Question No : 7
A development team is starting a new web application project and building a set of servlets for the first time. Which two methods can be used to create an initial set of servlets for the project? (Choose two.)
A. take an existing Java class and select the Refactor to servlet option and follow the wizard screens to configure the project and servlet parameters
B. create a new class that extends java.com.servlet in a Java project and add the project to the web project as a Java utility project
C. create a new class that extends java.com.servlet and add a “servlet” entry to the web application deployment descriptor
D. create a new class that extends java.com.servlet and add a “servlet” annotation

Answer: C,D
Question No : 8
Which statement is true about displaying perspectives in a Rational Application Developer workbench window?
A. Multiple perspectives can be open, but you can interact with only one in each workbench window.
B. Perspectives can be arranged and viewed simultaneously in the workbench.
C. Perspectives can be tiled into a single view.
D. A single perspective per workbench can be open.

Answer: A
Question No : 9
A developer needs to debug the application RAD8EJBWeb containing redbank.jsp on the server using Rational Application Developer. What can be done to accomplish this task?
A. right-click redbank.jsp and select Debug As -> Debug on Server
B. create a software analyzer configuration and run it
C. right-click redbank.jsp and select Profile As -> Profile on Server
D. Open the Debug perspective as it automatically starts a debug session

Answer: A
Question No : 10
What is WSDL?
A. Web Service Description Language
B. Web Server Description Language
C. Web Simple Description Language
D. Web Service Data Language

Answer: A
Question No : 11
A developer wants to create a Java project in the current workspace. To accomplish this using the workbench menu options, what does the developer do?
A. selects File > New > Java class and types in the Java project name, Workspace name, Package name, and Class name
B. selects File > New > Java project, types in a project name, and selects “Use default location”
C. selects Project > Generate Java project, and types in a name for the project
D. selects Workspace > New Java project

Answer: B
Question No : 12
What are the two JMS destination types available when creating a Message Driven Bean in RAD 8? (Choose two.)
A. Queue
B. Subscription
C. Bean Managed
D. Container Managed
E. Topic

Answer: A,E
Question No : 13
A web application uses a set of Java classes, which are also used by several other web applications. The application designers want to separate out this logic into its own component to allow reuse and still give the developers the ability to edit the code in those classes as the project progresses. What is the best way to achieve this?
A. create a new Java project, export it as a JAR, and import it into the web project into the lib folder
B. copy the Java source code into the web project as into the Java folder
C. create a new Java project and add this project to the deployment assembly list
D. encapsulate the Java logic in an EJB and invoke this from the web project

Answer: C
Question No : 14
Which web services client type can you create in RAD 8?
A. Java Proxy
B. Service Proxy
C. Web Proxy
D. EJB Proxy

Answer: A
Question No : 15
A developer needs to debug a javascript on Rational Application Developer with Firefox with firebug as the default web browser. What does the developer do to debug the javascript?
A. set breakpoint on the javascript and debug on the server
B. on the Firefox window, select Preferences -> IDE -> Accept breakpoints -> Enable breakpoints C. on the Firefox window when the page loads, press F5 to enable breakpoints on the javascript
D. on the Firefox window, select Preferences -> Accept breakpoints -> Enable breakpoints

Answer: A
Question No : 16
How does a developer use the Rational Application Developer workbench capabilities to display the Javadoc comments of a class in the Java editor?
A. open a browser and use Google
B. select File > Class > Information
C. select Window > Show View > Javadoc
D. double-click the class in the editor

Answer: C
Question No : 17
To create a new database connection using the Rational Application Developer, which view must be opened?
A. Connection Explorer
B. Data Source Explorer
C. Package Explorer
D. Project Explorer

Answer: B
Question No : 18
A project designer is considering using Dojo as the mechanism for building a Web 2.0 interface. What are three benefits of using the Dojo toolkit with Rational Application Developer? (Choose three.)
A. provides a large set of pre-built Dojo widgets that can be used in web pages B. provides full support for all browsers even without javascript
C. provides support for several data exchange mechanisms depending on the server side implementation
D. provides the capability to develop your own Dojo widgets
E. provides libraries for web application security

Answer: A,C,D
Question No : 19
Each server profile created with Rational Application Developer has its own what?
A. libraries
B. runtime scripts
C. administrative console
D. Java runtime environment

Answer: C
Question No : 20
Which attribute must be defined in JPA Explorer to test JPA entities within UTC?
A. JPA project name
B. JPA test project name
C. name of a created JPA entity
D. persistence-unit name

Answer: D
Question No : 21
A developer has completed a web project but has not applied any security mechanism. Currently all the pages are open for anyone to access. Which two can be configured using the RAD8 Security Editor? (Choose two.)
A. a list of roles and the resources the roles can access
B. the web page to use for login and error
C. the user authentication mechanism used for the application
D. the link between the web application and an external directory (e.g., Microsoft Active Directory)

Answer: A,C
Question No : 22
An organization is considering using Web 2.0 technologies in all projects in order to improve their web applications. Which application would benefit most from the use of Web
2.0 technologies?
A. a web services project
B. an EJB application that implements a banking backend application
C. an existing JSF-based application that has been completed but has serious performance problems
D. an existing web-based application where the user interface is being revitalized

Answer: D
Question No : 23
With Rational Application Developer workbench, what can a developer open only one at a time?
A. workspace
B. view
C. perspective
D. window

Answer: A
Question No : 24
Which term refers to the set of files that defines the runtime environment of a WebSphere Application Server?

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QUESTION 1
What element relates “what” is needed from the system to “how” the system delivers those needs?
A. Stakeholder requests
B. Use cases
C. Design constraints
D. Actors

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
What term identifies a person who is materially affected by the outcomes of a system?
A. Actor
B. Manager
C. Stakeholder
D. Customer

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
What is the purpose of a problem analysis?
A. Understand the root causes of a problem
B. Avoid customer misunderstandings
C. Identify constraints
D. Understand the stakeholder’s needs

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
Which of the following are benefits of using a standard template for a Vision document? (Select all that apply.)
A. Authors can organize sections in the document to suit the individual project.
B. Authors can reuse the work of others, rather than starting from a blank page.
C. Documents appear familiar.
D. Users with update permission can change the document.

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 5
What element relates “what” is needed from the system to “how” the system delivers those needs?
A. Design constraints
B. Use cases
C. Stakeholder requests
D. Actors

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
What does a non-functional requirement specify?
A. How the solution interacts with the outside world
B. How to fulfill stakeholder requests
C. Quality attributes of the system
D. Process used to build the system

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
What is a design constraint of a system?
A. Imposed limitation
B. Suggestion for a class or object
C. Non-functional requirement
D. Functional requirement

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which of the following are benefits of using attributes to manage requirements? (Select all that apply.)
A. Assign resources to requirements
B. Obtain status information about the requirements
C. Enforce keywords such as “shall” and “must” in the requirement text
D. Reduce the ambiguity of the requirements

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
What term is defined as “the continuing modification and addition of requirements, so that the requirements never stabilize”?
A. Scope creep
B. Scope attribute
C. Scope baseline
D. Scope of requirements
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What MUST be identified during problem analysis?
A. Features
B. Use cases
C. Stakeholders
D. Product requirements
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
In a “suspect traceability link,” what characterizes the link between the two requirements?
A. Either requirement is unstable.
B. The requirements traced to has changed.
C. The requirements traced from has changed.
D. Either requirement has changed.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
What information about a proposed system is usually found in a Supplementary Specification?
A. Non-functional requirements
B. Sub-components
C. Data values
D. Testing procedures

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Why should the Withdraw Cash use case be implemented in the first iteration of an automatic teller machine? (Select all that apply.)
A. Is the system’s principle purpose
B. Easy to implement
C. Important to the customer
D. Includes the architecturally significant interfaces

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 14
Which of the following are artifacts in the requirements process? (Select all that apply.)
A. Vision document
B. Use-case model
C. Change control board
D. Pareto principle

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 15
Which of the following entities can interact with the boundaries of a system? (Select all that apply.)
A. Legacy systems that will be replaced by the product
B. Human users of the product
C. Systems that will interact with the product
D. Reports produced by the product
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 16
What does a non-functional requirement specify?
A. Quality attributes of the system
B. How to fulfill stakeholder requests
C. How the solution interacts with the outside world
D. Process used to build the system
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following expressions partially define “requirement”? (Select all that apply.)
A. Capability that must be performed by the software
B. Structural component that must be part of the software
C. Condition with which the software must comply
D. Test case that must be part of the test suite for the software

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 18
View the illustration by clicking here: Which of the following errors are present in the artifact state illustration? (Select all that apply.)
A. There is an unwanted functionality.
B. The test cases are incomplete.
C. There is scope creep.
D. TST3 indirectly traces to FEAT27.
E. FEAT19 does not trace to a use case.

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 19
Which of the following expressions partially define “requirement”? (Select all that apply.)
A. Structural component that must be part of the software
B. Test case that must be part of the test suite for the software
C. Condition with which the software must comply
D. Capability that must be performed by the software

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 20
What term identifies a person who is materially affected by the outcomes of a system?
A. Manager
B. Customer
C. Actor
D. Stakeholder

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
Given: A customer service system is being developed for a telephone company to record and answer questions about telephone installations. Which of the following are system features? (Select all that apply.)
A. Accommodates simultaneously entry of information from up to 100 installers
B. Includes a Phone Installer class
C. Runs on the Windows 95 operating system
D. Produces status reports about telephone installations
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 22
What is the main advantage of using brainstorming to identify software requirements?
A. Allows in-depth explanation of each requirement
B. Focuses on the usability requirements of the system
C. Gives the customer more buy-in to the requirements process
D. Encourages quick generation of many requirements
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 23
Which of the following are artifacts in the requirements process? (Select all that apply.)
A. Vision document
B. Use-case model
C. Change control board
D. Pareto principle

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 24
What term is defined as “the continuing modification and addition of requirements, so that the requirements never stabilize”?
A. Scope of requirements
B. Scope baseline
C. Scope attribute
D. Scope creep

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
Under what circumstances should a domain model be used to capture key terms?
A. Many use cases with complex relationships among them
B. Many stakeholders with complex relationships among them
C. Many requirements with complex relationships among them
D. Many business objects with complex relationships among them

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
What is the purpose of a glossary?
A. Establish a common vision
B. Establish testable requirements
C. Establish common vocabulary
D. Define universal constraints
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
What does a non-functional requirement specify?
A. How to fulfill stakeholder requests
B. How the solution interacts with the outside world
C. Process used to build the system
D. Quality attributes of the system
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
What is the best way to ensure that a URPS requirement is testable?
A. Write the requirement so that a measurement can determine if it is met.
B. Add a traceability link from it back to a feature on which it is based.
C. Place the requirement in the “Special Requirements” property of a Use Case Report.
D. Create a traceability link from the requirement to a testable functional requirement.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 29
Where are constraints such as design constraints, external constraints and other dependencies documented?
A. Design Specifications
B. Use-Case Model Survey
C. Vision Statement
D. Software Requirements Specifications

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 30
Which support characteristics are necessary in an effective process to facilitate managing project scope? (Select all that apply.)
A. Iterative development process
B. Automated testing tools
C. Requirements repository
D. Effective requirements management

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 31
What is the purpose of a problem analysis?
A. Identify constraints
B. Avoid customer misunderstandings
C. Understand the stakeholder’s needs
D. Understand the root causes of a problem

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
Which of the following are benefits of using attributes to manage requirements? (Select all that apply.)
A. Enforce keywords such as “shall” and “must” in the requirement text
B. Assign resources to requirements
C. Obtain status information about the requirements
D. Reduce the ambiguity of the requirements

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 33
When identifying root causes of a problem, resolving what percentage of the most important root causes will solve 80% of a problem?
A. 60%
B. 40%
C. 80%
D. 20%
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34

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