Category: cisco 200-301 exam questions

Buying 200-301 Dumps Questions (2024): A Critical Decision for Cisco 200-301 CCNA Exam PreparationBuying 200-301 Dumps Questions (2024): A Critical Decision for Cisco 200-301 CCNA Exam Preparation

200-301 CCNA dumps 2024

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What’s new in Cisco CCNA certification 2024

Over the years, Cisco has been looking for changes to keep up with the market.

In 2022 and 2024, Cisco made a complete change to its certification process, eliminating many areas of expertise such as Cisco CCNA voice and security, and controversially molding some CCIE courses, resulting in many experts in areas such as voice and collaboration no longer being certified!

Reading the chart entries for service providers and CCNAs, you’ll see that as of today (April 15, 2024), there aren’t any announcements yet, and the bottom tab of the CCNA shows that nothing will change this year, so you can safely assume it will remain as it is until the end of 2024.

You can try here first, free Cisco 200-301 CCNA exam questions, practice below.

Free 200-301 dumps questions shared online Q16-Q30:

The Cisco CCNA (200-301) exam is 120 minutes long and consists of 100-120 questions. Questions can be multiple-choice, drag-and-drop, mock, and other types.

Pick up where you shared last time (200-301 exam questions Q1-Q15) and share 15 more latest exam questions (total questions 1450)

Question 16:

A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the hostname on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

A. password Password

B. crypto key generates rsa modulus 1024

C. ip domain-name domain

D. ip ssh authentication-retries 2

Correct Answer: C

Question 17:

Which command must be entered so that the default gateway is automatically distributed when DHCP is configured on a router?

A. DNS-server

B. default-router

C. ip helper-address

D. default-gateway

Correct Answer: B

Question 18:

Why is a first-hop redundancy protocol implemented?

A. to enable multiple switches to operate as a single unit

B. to provide load-sharing for a multilink segment

C. to prevent loops in a network

D. to protect against default gateway failures

Correct Answer: D

Question 19:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right.

Select and Place:

200-301 dumps questions 19

Correct Answer:

200-301 dumps questions 19-2

This subnet question requires us to grasp how to subnet very well. To quickly find out the subnet range, we have to find out the increment and the network address of each subnet. Let\’s take an example with the subnet 172.28.228.144/18:

From the /18 (= 1100 0000 in the 3rd octet), we find out the increment is 64. Therefore the network address of this subnet must be the greatest multiple of the increment but not greater than the value in the 3rd octet (228).

We can find out the 3rd octet of the network address is 192 (because 192 = 64 * 3 and 192 < 228) -> The network address is 172.28.192.0. So the first usable host should be 172.28.192.1 and it matches with the 5th answer on the right. In this case, we don’t need to calculate the broadcast address because we found the correct answer.

Let\’s take another example with subnet 172.28.228.144/23 -> The increment is 2 (as /23 = 1111 1110 in 3rd octet) -> The 3rd octet of the network address is 228 (because 228 is the multiply of 2 and equal to the 3rd octet) -> The network address is 172.28.228.0 -> The first usable host is 172.28.228.1. It is not necessary but if we want to find out the broadcast address of this subnet, we can find out the next network address, which is 172.28. (228 + the increment number).0 or

172.28.230.0 then reduce 1 bit -> 172.28.229.255 is the broadcast address of our subnet. Therefore the last usable host is 172.28.229.254.

Question 20:

What is the expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?

A. A distributed management plane must be used.

B. Software upgrades are performed from a central controller

C. Complexity increases when new device configurations are added

D. Custom applications are needed to configure network devices

Correct Answer: B

Question 21:

Which two IPv6 addresses are used to provide connectivity between two routers on a shared link? (Choose two)

A. FF02::0001:FF00:0000/104

B. ff06:bb43:cc13:dd16:1bb:ff14:7545:234d

C. 2002::512:1204b:1111::1/64

D. 2001:701:104b:1111::1/64

E. ::ffff:10.14.101.1/96

Correct Answer: DE

the IPv6 address “::ffff:10.14.101.1/96” is a valid representation of an IPv6 address with an embedded IPv4 address. This format is known as an IPv4-mapped IPv6 address.

In this case, “::ffff:10.14.101.1” represents the IPv4 address “10.14.101.1” embedded within an IPv6 address. The “::ffff:” prefix indicates that the following part of the address is an IPv4 address. The “/96” suffix indicates the network prefix length, specifying that the first 96 bits represent the network portion of the address.

Question 22:

What is a DHCP client?

A. a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

B. a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

C. a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

D. a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

Correct Answer: B

Question 23:

Refer to the exhibit. A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:

City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0

After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)

200-301 dumps questions 23

A. FastEthernet0 /0

B. FastEthernet0 /1

C. Serial0/0

D. Serial0/1.102

E. Serial0/1.103

F. Serial0/1.104

Correct Answer: BCD

The “network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 equals to network 192.168.12.64/26. This network has:

1.

Increment: 64 (/26= 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.1100 0000) + Network address:192.168.12.64

2.

Broadcast address: 192.168.12.127

Therefore all interfaces in the range of this network will join OSPF.

Question 24:

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?

A. restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration

B. prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords

C. protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch

D. encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established

Correct Answer: A


Question 25:

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 dumps questions 25

All interfaces are configured with duplex auto and IP OSPF network broadcast. Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency and act as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

A. R14# interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 10.73.65.65 255.255.255.252 ip ospf priority 255 ip mtu 1500 router ospf 10 router-id 10.10.1.14 network 10.10.1.14 0.0.0.0 area 0 network 10.73.65.64 0.0.0.3 area 0

R86#

interface FastEthernet0/0

ip address 10.73.65.66 255.255.255.252

ip mtu 1400

router ospf 10

router-id 10.10.1.86

network 10.10.1.86 0.0.0.0 area 0

network 10.73.65.64 0.0.0.3 area 0

B. R14# interface Loopback0 ip ospf 10 area 0 interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 10.73.65.65 255.255.255.252 ip ospf 10 area 0 ip mtu 1500 router ospf 10 ip ospf priority 255 router-id 10.10.1.14

R86#

interface Loopback0

ip ospf 10 area 0

interface FastEthernet0/0

ip address 10.73.65.66 255.255.255.252

ip ospf 10 area 0

ip mtu 1500

router ospf 10 router-id 10.10.1.86

C. R14# interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 10.73.65.65 255.255.255.252 ip ospf priority 0 ip mtu 1500 router ospf 10 router-id 10.10.1.14 network 10.10.1.14 0.0.0.0 area 0 network 10.73.65.64 0.0.0.3 area 0

R86#

interface FastEthernet0/0

ip address 10.73.65.66 255.255.255.252

ip mtu 1500

router ospf 10

router-id 10.10.1.86

network 10.10.1.86 0.0.0.0 area 0

network 10.73.65.64 0.0.0.3 area 0

D. R14# interface Loopback0 ip ospf 10 area 0 interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 10.73.65.65 255.255.255.252

ip ospf priority 255

ip ospf 10 area 0

ip mtu 1500

router ospf 10

router-id 10.10.1.14

R86#

interface Loopback0

ip ospf 10 area 0

interface FastEthernet0/0

ip address 10.73.65.66 255.255.255.252

ip ospf 10 area 0

ip mtu 1500

router ospf 10

router-id 10.10.1.86

Correct Answer: D

A router with “priority 0” and another with “priority default (1)” formed adjacency and exchanged LSAs and LSDBs normally (I tested it in P.Trace and OSPF dynamic routing works normally), the difference is that there will not be a DR Backup in case fail (that\’s all). One will be DR Other (neighbor Full/DR) and one DR (neighbor Full/DROther), and BDR appears written that it does not exist because priority 0 cannot be either DR or BDR.

(Observation: “point-to-point type” is recommended for this type of connection.)

However, the exercise asks them to act as a central point for exchanging information, in this case, “it gives the impression” that he asked us to select a “DR”. Letter “D” would be the most correct because using “ip ospf priority 255” (in the interface) we define R14 as DR.

Question 26:

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 dumps questions 26

Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?

A. lp route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

B. ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

C. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

Correct Answer: D

Question 27:

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 dumps questions 27

Router R4 is dynamically learning the path to the server. If R4 is connected to R1 via OSPF Area 20, to R2 via R2 BGP, and to R3 via EIGRP 777, which path is installed in the routing table of R4?

A. the path through R1, because the OSPF administrative distance is 110

B. the path through R2. because the IBGP administrative distance is 200

C. the path through R2 because the EBGP administrative distance is 20

D. the path through R3. because the EIGRP administrative distance is lower than OSPF and BGP

Correct Answer: C

Question 28:

In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?

A. traffic policing

B. round-robin scheduling

C. low-latency queuing

D. expedited forwarding

Correct Answer: D

Question 29:

Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two.)

A. It supports protocol discovery.

B. It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets.

C. It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity.

D. It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up.

E. It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets.

Correct Answer: DE

Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED) is just a congestion avoidance mechanism. WRED drops packets selectively based on IP precedence. Edge routers assign IP precedences to packets as they enter the network. When a packet arrives, the following events occur:

1. The average queue size is calculated.

2. If the average is less than the minimum queue threshold, the arriving packet is queued.

3. If the average is between the minimum queue threshold for that type of traffic and the maximum threshold for the interface, the packet is either dropped or queued, depending on the packet drop probability for that type of traffic.

4. If the average queue size is greater than the maximum threshold, the packet is dropped.

WRED reduces the chances of tail drop (when the queue is full, the packet is dropped) by selectively dropping packets when the output interface begins to show signs of congestion (thus it can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up).

By dropping some packets early rather than waiting until the queue is full, WRED avoids dropping large numbers of packets at once and minimizes the chances of global synchronization. Thus, WRED allows the transmission line to be used fully at all times.

WRED generally drops packets selectively based on IP precedence. Packets with a higher IP precedence are less likely to be dropped than packets with a lower precedence. Thus, the higher the priority of a packet, the higher the probability that the packet will be delivered

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/qos_conavd/configuration/15-mt/qos-conavd-15-mt-book/qos-conavd-cfg-wred.html

Question 30:

Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

200-301 dumps questions 30

A. Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.

B. Configure the ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.

C. Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

D. Configure the Ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

Correct Answer: C

If a Layer 2 LAN port is connected to a DHCP server, configure the port as trusted by entering the ip dhcp snooping trust interface configuration command. https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/general/Test/dwerblo/broken_guide/snoodhcp.html#wp1073367

More Cisco exam questions…

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This prepares you for a new collection of 200-301 learning resources (with links):

Document:

Books:

Videos:

  1. CCNA Certification Training Videos
  2. CCNA Prep Program Webinars
  3. CCNA Prep Program – Learning Map
  4. CCNA Prep Program Practice Quiz

Of course, there are many more good study materials, and I have listed here only what I think is good, and others are welcome to add.

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Do I have to take more practice exercises to pass the Cisco CCNA (200-301) exam?

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  • Don’t cram your studies.

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200-301 Free Exam Questions Answers [2023]

Last updated

Last updated:
200-301 free dumps
Q1:

Which configuration command can you apply to an HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail?

A. no additional config is required

B. standby 1 track ethernet

C. standby 1 preempt

D. standby 1 priority 250

Correct Answer: A

Simply because that will be the default behavior routers would follow in the event all other routers in the HSRP group fail, then it would not keep attributes such as priority or preemption. What preemption does in summary is to make sure that the configured Priority on all routers within the same HSRP group is always respected.

That is, if R1 is configured on the HSRP group with a priority of 150 but he stands as active since all other routers currently subscribed to that group have a priority of 150, then will router will preempt the current active router and will take over hence becoming the new active router.

With preemption disabled, the new router does not preempt the current active router, unless routers in the group have to renegotiate their roles based on each router\’s priority at the time of negotiation.


Q2:

Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?

A. active

B. on

C. auto

D. desirable

Correct Answer: B

The Static Persistence (or “on” mode) bundles the links unconditionally and no negotiation protocol is used. In this mode, neither PAgP nor LACP packets are sent or received.


Q3:

A network engineer is implementing a corporate SSID for WPA3-Personal security with a PSK. Which encryption cipher must be configured?

A. CCMP128

B. GCMP256

C. CCMP256

D. GCMP128

Correct Answer: A


Q4:

Which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?

A. facilitates communication between the controller and the applications

B. reports device errors to a controller

C. generates statistics for network hardware and traffic

D. communicates between the controller and the physical network hardware

Correct Answer: A


Q5:

Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?

A. NAT

B. 6 to 4 tunneling

C. L2TPv3

D. dual-stack

Correct Answer: B


Q6:

What is the benefit of using private IPv4 addressing?

A. to enable secure connectivity over the Internet

B. to shield internal network devices from external access

C. to provide reliable connectivity between like devices

D. to be routable over an external network

Correct Answer: B


Q7:

When the active router in a VRRP group fails, which router assumes the role and forwards packets?

A. forwarding

B. standby

C. backup

D. listening

Correct Answer: C


Q8:

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 free exam questions answers 8

A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D. What is the next hop to network 192.168 1 0/24 and why?

A. The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it uses distance vector routing

B. The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it is a link-state routing protocol

C. The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a better administrative distance

D. The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a higher metric.

Correct Answer: B


Q9:

Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?

A. ip address dhcp

B. ip dhcp client

C. ip helper-address

D. ip dhcp pool

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipaddr_dhcp/configuration/12-4/dhcp-12-4-book/config-dhcp-client.html If we want to get an IP address from the DHCP server on a Cisco device, we can use the command “ip address dhcp”.


Q10:

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?

200-301 free exam questions answers 10

A. heavy traffic congestion

B. a duplex incompatibility

C. a speed conflict

D. queuing drops

Correct Answer: C


Q11:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Q12:

A network architect is considering whether to implement Cisco DNA Center to deploy devices on a new network. The organization is focused on reducing the time it currently takes to deploy devices in a traditional campus design. For which reason would Cisco DNA Center be more appropriate than traditional management options?

A. Cisco DNA Center supports deployment with a single pane of glass.

B. Cisco DNA Center provides zero-touch provisioning to third-party devices.

C. Cisco DNA Center reduces the need for analytics on third-party access points and devices.

D. Cisco DNA Center minimizes the level of syslog output when reporting on Cisco devices.

Correct Answer: A


Q13:

Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?

A. IP SLA

B. Syslog

C. NetFlow

D. SNMPv3

Correct Answer: D


Q14:

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

A. SYIM flood

B. reflection

C. teardrop

D. amplification

Correct Answer: A


Q15:

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 free exam questions answers 15

After the election process, what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?

Switch 1: 0C:E0:38:57:24:59 Switch 2: 0C:0E:15:22:1A:61 Switch 3: 0C:0E:15:1D:3C:9A Switch 4: 0C:E0:19:A1:4D:16

A. Switch 1

B. Switch 2

C. Switch 3

D. Switch 4

Correct Answer: C


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