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[100% FREE] Latest Oracle Exam Dumps: To Nail Your 1z0-952, 1z0-1004, 1z0-1046, 1z0-1047 Exam 2020

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Practice for the Oracle 1z0-952 exam questions 1-5

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QUESTION 1
Your customer, Alpha Corp, wants to collect data from their global brand website (alpha-corp.com, m.alpha-corp.com),
their marketing subdomains (go.alpha-corp.com, products.alpha-corp.com), and their mobile app (available on Android
and iOS).
How many domains do they have?
A. 6
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two are attributes of third-party data? (Choose two.)
A. Can be confirmed from multiple outside sources
B. Often billed directly by the media partner
C. Offered on a private marketplace, via direct sales to marketers
D. Free to use for activation, targeting, and analytics
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
You are working with a client to help guide their seat governance structure. After discussing their company policies and
procedures, you discover that each region follows its own protocols, operations are for the most part independent and
they might benefit from discretionary data-sharing between regions.
Based on what you have learned, which seat governance option should you recommend?
A. Horizontal regional empowerment
B. Global DMP nerve center
C. Global template with local nuances
D. Full agency control
E. A single seat shared by all regions
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Identify the dependencies and data sources for a local campaign.
A. Dependency: Custom audiences pixel, Data Sources: 1st party offline data
B. Dependency: Execution partner must accept mobile and IDs, Data Sources: 2nd party data
C. Dependency: Ensure the Blue Kai tag is on the site, Data Sources: 1st and 3rd party unbranded data
D. Dependency: Signed Data Usage Agreement for 3rd party data, Data Sources: 1st and 3rd party data
E. Dependency: Submit reporting for use of 3rd party data, Data Sources: 2nd and 3rd party data
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
What is the CPS pricing model?
A. This model allows clients to purchase data each time the campaign wins a unique customer attribute.
B. This model allows clients to purchase data based on the overall win rate of the campaign.
C. This model allows clients to purchase data on a cost per category agreement.
D. This model allows clients to purchase data on a cost per 1,000 impressions basis.
E. This model allows clients to purchase data according to the specific terms in their contract for acquiring third-party
data from a particular App Partner.
Correct Answer: D

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Practice for the Oracle 1z0-1004 exam questions 1-5

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QUESTION 1
Encumbrance accounting is enabled for your ledger. An encumbrance journal dated 3/15/16 was recorded for a
purchase order. The invoice was entered on 5/5/16, but the invoice accounting date was 4/20/16. The encumbrance
journal for
liquidating the purchase order encumbrance is dated 5/5/16.
What is causing this?
A. The actual accounting date was set up under the encumbrance accounting Default Date Rule
B. The current transaction accounting date was set up under the encumbrance accounting Default Date Rule
C. The subledger accounting option is set to system date
D. The system date was set up under the encumbrance accounting Default Date Rule
E. The prior related transaction accounting date was set up under the encumbrance accounting Default Date Rule
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You want to automatically post journal batches imported form subledger sources to prevent accidental edits or deletions
of the subledger sources journals, which could cause an out-of-balance situation between your subledgers and general
ledger. Which two aspects should you consider when defining your AutoPost Criteria? (Choose two.)
A. Use the All option for category and accounting period to reduce maintenance and ensure that all imported journals
are included in the posting process
B. Create your AutoPost criteria using minimal sources and categories
C. Include all of your subledger sources in the AutoPost Criteria. Divide up criteria sets by subledger source only if you
need to schedule different posting times
D. Schedule your AutoPost Criteria set to run during off-peak hours only
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
When working with Essbase, versions of the tree hierarchy as defined in the General Ledger Cloud are not available in
the Essbase balances cube. What should you do to correct this situation?
A. Make sure to flatten the rows of the tree version
B. Make sure the tree is active
C. Make sure the tree version was published successfully
D. Redeploy the chart of accounts
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Before implementing Financials Cloud, your customer used to manually reconcile their intercompany payables and
receivables accounts. What is a more automated approach to do this?
A. Use Oracle Hyperion Close Manager to automatically reconcile intercompany account balances
B. In Financials Cloud, you must manually reconcile your intercompany account balances
C. Run the BI Publisher reports called Intercompany Transaction Summary and Account Details to automatically
reconcile intercompany balances
D. Run the Intercompany Reconciliation report, which shows pairs of intercompany receivables and payables accounts
that are out of balance
E. Create a query using Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence (OTBI) that will match the intercompany payables
and receivables balances
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Your customer is implementing budgetary control with encumbrance accounting. Your customer has businesses in
Australia, New Zealand, and Singapore with a ledger in each country with a Corporate chart of account instance that
has four segments. Which three statements are true regarding the creation of a control budget? (Choose three.)
A. The control budget structure has all the chart of account segments as budget segments
B. Control budgets are always absolute to generate encumbrance accounting
C. A control budget is associated with a ledger and creates three control budgets for Australia, New Zealand, and
Singapore
D. A control budget can allow override rules only if the control level is absolute
E. A control budget can be associated with a different calendar than the accounting calendar
Correct Answer: BDE

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 Practice for the Oracle 1z0-1046 exam questions 1-5

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QUESTION 1
As an implementation consultant, you are required to define a legal entity. Which three options are correct about a legal
entity? (Choose three.)
A. A legal entity must comply with regulations and local jurisdictions.
B. A legal entity can be identified as a legal employer in Human Capital Management.
C. Legal entities are not responsible for payment of social insurance.
D. A legal entity may act as a virtual organization.
E. A legal entity can own assets, record sales, pay taxes, and perform transactions.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 2
A client requires that promotion approvals should go to a static set of three users in a sequential manner, with the
approval process continuing to the next user if the prior approver is not available. What setup is required to meet this
requirement?
A. While configuring Approval Group List Builder, select “Allow empty groups” as True.
B. While configuring Approval Group List Builder, select “Allow empty groups” as False.
C. All approves must be present in the system; else, the promotion transaction fails.
D. The default functionality is that if any approver is not present, then the transaction gets auto-approved.
E. Enable a descriptive flex field to capture the approvers in the required sequence and create Approval Group List
Builder.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An HR representative enters employee details in the application as part of the hiring process. On the Review page, the
HR representative notices that Person Number does not show any number, but indicates “Generated Automatically”
Identify the option that relates to this intended behavior.
A. Person Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Manual.
B. Person Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Automatic after final save.
C. Worker Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Manual.
D. Person Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Automatic before submission.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You are an HR specialist and want to add new values to a lookup. You have access to the specific work area, but are
unable to perform the activity.
Identify the correct statement about this.
A. You cannot add new lookup codes and meanings to the existing lookup types.
B. You can access the task for profile options from the Setup and Maintenance menu.
C. The system administrator must enable the lookup before it is modified in the work area.
D. Oracle applications contain certain predefined system lookups that are locked for editing.
E. You can create new lookup types but cannot modify the existing ones.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which Approval Types are supported while configuring the Managing Approval Rules: Promote transaction?
A. Application Role, Approval Groups, Management Hierarchy, Position Hierarchy, Representative, Self Auto Approve,
User
B. Application Role, Approval Groups, Management Hierarchy, Parent Position, Representative, User, Self Auto
Approve
C. Enterprise Role, Application Role, Approval Groups, Parent Position, Representative, User, Self Auto Approve
D. Data Role, Application Role, Approval Groups, Management Hierarchy, Position Hierarchy, Self Auto Approve, User
Correct Answer: A

Youtu.be: Oracle 1z0-1046 exam questions

Practice for the Oracle 1z0-1047 exam questions 1-5

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QUESTION 1
A customer set up the certification requirement for art absence. After scheduling the absence for a subordinate, the line
manager wants to add a certification requirement as an action item, but is unable to do it.
What is the reason for this?
A. You can add the certification requirement to appear as an action item only during the manual absence enrollment
process.
B. Line managers can add the certification requirement, on demand, as an action item when they approve the absence;
C. Only HR Specialists can add the certification requirement, on demand, as an action item when they schedule an
absence.
D. Only workers can add the certification requirement, on demand, as an action item when they schedule an absence.
E. Line managers can configure the certification requirement to appear as an action item after completion of the
absence.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
When setting the expiration details for a Compensatory Plan, which of the following is a valid option?
A. Employee Termination
B. Worked Period
C. Ongoing
D. End of Acquisition Week
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which three are true statements about Absence and Payroll integration? (Choose three.)
A. The options available for configuration vary depending on the legislation chosen when creating absence plans.
B. The setup required in payroll may vary depending on payroll localization.
C. The Absence Element Template creates all of the attributes required to process absences through payroll.
D. The options available for configuration are the same for all the legislations when creating absence plans.
Correct Answer: ABC
 

QUESTION 4
Your client has a requirement that the employee will not get enrolled into the plan for first six months of hire. Enrollment
and accruals will start after the completion of six months. The plan needs to be Front-Loaded.
How will you configure this in the system?
A. Create a plan having Vesting Period with UOM as Months and duration as 6.
B. Create a rule in Accrual Matrix where you will check the length of service of an employee and if the Length of Service
is less than six months then accrual value should be 0.
C. Write partial period fast formula that enrolls the employee only after six months from hire date.
D. Create a plan having a Waiting Period with UOM as Months and duration as 6.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
After running the calculate accrual process, you notice that 100 employees\\’ balances have not been updated despite
the process running to a successful status. Your customer has requested that the process should fail if any employees
are in error.
What absence batch parameter should you decrease to achieve this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Thread Count
B. Errors
C. Chunk Size
D. Maximum Errors
E. Minimum Errors
F. Thread Size
G. Total Threads
Correct Answer: ACF

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300-625 DCSAN
Certifications: CCNP Data Center, Cisco Certified Specialist – Data Center SAN Implementation
Duration: 90 minutes

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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the mechanisms of Cisco Secure Boot from the left into the correct order on the right.
Select and Place:

Cert4sure 300-625 exam questions-q1

Correct Answer:

Cert4sure 300-625 exam questions-q1-2

QUESTION 2
A storage network engineer must install and configure a new MDS switch in a data center network. Which two
statements about available choices during the MDS switch initial setup are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The engineer can choose what will be the administrator account.
B. A secure password standard is required.
C. The engineer can configure the default zone policy.
D. The engineer can configure the default switch port trunk mode.
E. The engineer does not have the choice to enable or disable full zone set distribution.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 3
What is the function of the 0xFFFFFC address in a Fibre Channel fabric?
A. management server
B. fabric controller
C. name server
D. time server
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

Cert4sure 300-625 exam questions-q4

A port-channel has been configured between a Cisco MDS and a Cisco Fabric Interconnect switch. Which interface(s) in
Does the port-channel carry the control plane traffic?
A. per-packet, balanced between interfaces fc1/9 and fc1/10
B. from interface fc1/9
C. from interface fc1/10
D. per flow, balanced between interfaces fc1/9 and fc1/10
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which feature on MDS platforms ensures that the code that is running on the hardware platform is authentic and
unmodified, while also validating the BIOS to eliminate any rootkits.
A. Cisco Secure Boot
B. UEFI Secure Boot
C. Secure Unique Device Identifier
D. BIOS Secure Boot
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
A Cisco MDS Series Switch with the POAP feature boots and does not find the startup configuration. Which location is
checked first when the switch enters POAP mode?
A. A USB device that contains the software image files and the switch configuration file
B. DHCP server to bootstrap the interface IP address, gateway, DNS server, and TFTP IP addresses
C. TFTP server where the necessary configuration files are downloaded
D. HTTP server where the URL is used to download the software image
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which configuration is always required when running the setup utility on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch?
A. administrator password
B. management IP address
C. active NTP server
D. active default gateway
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
After user account attributes are modified in Cisco NX-OS, when do changes to the user\\’s session attributes take
effect?
A. immediately
B. at the scheduled time
C. when the user logs out of a session
D. when the user creates a new session
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
What is the effect of a non-graceful virtual machine shutdown on a virtualized server that is connected to a SAN with
Fibre Channel interfaces?
A. NP Port reload connected to the upstream SAN switch
B. out-of-service Fibre Channel interfaces on the SAN switch
C. frames stuck in the storage system
D. frames stuck in the HBA buffer of the server
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

Cert4sure 300-625 exam questions-q10

A network engineer created a new user that uses the VSAN-Admin role on a Cisco MDS switch so a new colleague can
manage the VSANs configured on the switch. Which action is required for the configuration to give permission to the
new colleague?
A. permit vsan 1-1000 must be configured as rule 5.
B. permit vsan 1-1000 must be configured as rule 1.
C. permit vsan 1-1000 must be configured under the VSAN policy deny.
D. permit vsan 1-1000 must be configured under the VSAN policy allow.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A storage network engineer is implementing disk-array data replication between two SAN environments in two different
data centers not connected via Fibre Channel. Which SAN switch feature must be implemented?
A. FCIP
B. zoning merge over LAN
C. VSAN scoping
D. IVR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which benefit of upgrading to the Cisco DCNM server-based advanced feature license for a Cisco MDS switch is
correct?
A. The license can be reassigned when a switch is replaced with a newer version within the same product family.
B. The license can be assigned to either server MAC address or switch serial number.
C. An unlimited number of devices can be added to the list of licensed devices.
D. The license can be reassigned when the switch is replaced with a Cisco Nexus switch.
Correct Answer: A

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Cisco 300-620 DCACI Exam Overview

300-620 DCACI
Certifications: CCNP Data Center, Cisco Certified Specialist – Data Center ACI Implementation
Duration: 90 minutes

Free Cisco 300-620 DCACI Exam Questions

QUESTION 1
An engineer is implementing a connection that represents an external bridged network. Which two configurations are
used? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 remote fabric
B. Layer 2 outside
C. Layers 2 internal
D. Static path binding
E. VXLAN outside
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
A data center administrator is upgrading an ACI fabric. There are 3 APIC controllers in the fabric and all the servers are
dual-homed to pairs of leaf switches configured in VPC mode. How should the fabric be upgraded to minimize possible
traffic impact during the upgrade?
A. 1. Create two maintenance groups for the APIC controllers: VPC left and VPC right.
2.
Upgrade the first group of controllers.
3.
Upgrade the second group of controllers.
4.
Upgrade the leaf switches.
B. 1. Create two maintenance groups for APIC controllers: VPC left and VPC right.
2.
Upgrade the leaf switches.
3.
Upgrade the first group of controllers.
4.
Upgrade the second group of controllers.
C. 1. Create two maintenance groups for the leaf switches: VPC left and VPC right.
2.
Upgrade the APIC controllers.
3.
Upgrade the first group of leaf switches.
4.
Upgrade the second group of leaf switches.
D. 1. Create two maintenance groups for the leaf switches: VPC left and VPC right.
2.
Upgrade the first group of switches.
3.
Upgrade the second group of switches.
4.
Upgrade the APIC controllers.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

Cert4sure 300-620 exam questions-q3

Refer to the exhibit. Which two objects are created as a result of the configuration? (Choose two.)
A. application profile
B. attachable AEP
C. bridge domain
D. endpoint group
E. VRF
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2-x/rest_cfg/2_1_x/b_Cisco_APIC_REST_API_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_APIC_REST_API_Configuration_Guide_chapter_01110.html

QUESTION 4

Cert4sure 300-620 exam questions-q4

Refer to the exhibit. Which Adjacency Type value should be set when the client endpoint and the service node interface
are in a different subnet?
A. Routed
B. Unicast
C. L3Out
D. L3
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An engineer has set the VMM resolution immediacy to pre-provision in a Cisco ACI environment. No Cisco Discovery
Protocol neighborship has been formed between the hypervisors and the ACI fabric leaf nodes. How does this affect the
download policies to the leaf switches?
A. No policies are downloaded because LLDP is the only supported discovery protocol.
B. Policies are downloaded when the hypervisor host is connected to the VMM VDS.
C. Policies are downloaded to the ACI leaf switch regardless of the Cisco Discovery Protocol neighborship.
D. No policies are downloaded because there is no discovery protocol neighborship.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
An engineer is extending an EPG out of the ACI fabric using static path binding. Which statement about the endpoints is
true?
A. Endpoints must connect directly to the ACI leaf port.
B. External endpoints are in a different bridge domain than the endpoints in the fabric.
C. Endpoint learning encompasses the MAC address only.
D. External endpoints are in the same EPG as the directly attached endpoints.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Cert4sure 300-620 exam questions-q7

Refer to the exhibit. A client reports that the ACI domain connectivity to the fiber channel storage is experiencing a B2B
credit oversubscription. The environment has an SYSLOG server for state collection messages. Which value should be
chosen to clear the critical fault?
A. 300
B. 410
C. 350
D. 510
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
In the context of VMM, which protocol between ACI leaf and compute hosts ensures that the policies are pushed to the
leaf switches for immediate and on-demand resolution immediacy?
A. VXLAN
B. LLDP
C. ISIS
D. STP
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices_chapter_0101.html

QUESTION 9
Which action sets Layer 2 loop migration in an ACI Fabric with a Layer 2 Out configured?
A. Enable MCP on the ACI fabric.
B. Disable STP in the external network.
C. Disable STP on the ACI fabric.
D. Enable STP on the ACI fabric.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
On which two interface types should a user configure storm control to protect against broadcast traffic? (Choose two.)
A. APIC facing interfaces
B. port-channel on a single leaf switch
C. all interfaces on the leaf switches in the fabric
D. endpoint-facing trunk interface
E. fabric uplink interfaces on the leaf switches
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2-x/L2_config/b_Cisco_APIC_Layer_2_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_APIC_Layer_2_Configuration_Guide_chapter_01010.html

QUESTION 11
In the context of ACI Multi-Site, when is the information of an endpoint (MAC/IP) that belongs to site 1 advertised to the site
2 using the EVPN control plane?
A. Endpoint information is not exchanged across sites unless the COOP protocol is used.
B. Endpoint information is not exchanged across sites unless a policy is configured to allow communication across
sites.
C. Endpoint information is exchanged across sites as soon as the endpoint is discovered in one site.
D. Endpoint information is exchanged across sites when the endpoints are discovered in both sites.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centricinfrastructure/white-paper-c11-739609.html#CiscoACIMultiSiteoverlaydataplane

QUESTION 12
An ACI administrator notices a change in the behavior of the fabric. Which action must be taken to determine if a human
did intervention introduce the change?
A. Inspect event records in the APIC UI to see all actions performed by users.
B. Inspect /var/log/audit_messages on the APIC to see a record of all user actions.
C. Inspect audit logs in the APIC UI to see all user events.
D. Inspect the output of show command history in the APIC CLI.
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-461
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Sep 08, 2017
Q&As: 164

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Question No: 5 CORRECT TEXT  You have a view that was created by using the following code:
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✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to create an inline table-valued function named Sales.fn_OrdersByTerritory,
which must meet the following 70-461 exam requirements:
Accept the @T integer parameter.
Use one-part names to reference columns.
Filter the query results by SalesTerritoryID.
Return the columns in the same order as the order used in OrdersByTerritoryView.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:
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Question No: 6 CORRECT TEXT You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

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You deploy a new server that has SQL Server 2012 installed. You need to create a table
named Sales.OrderDetails on the new server. Sales.OrderDetails must meet the following
requirements: Write the results to a disk. Contain a new column named LineItemTotal that stores the product of ListPrice
and Quantity for each row. The code must NOT use any object delimiters.
The solution must ensure that LineItemTotal is stored as the last column in the table. Which
code segment should you use? To answer, type the correct 070-461 dumps code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:

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Question No: 7 CORRECT TEXT  You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
070-461 dumps

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to create a view named uv_CustomerFullName to meet the following
requirements:
The code must NOT include object delimiters.
The view must be created in the Sales schema.
Columns must only be referenced by using one-part names.
The view must return the first name and the last name of all customers.
The view must prevent the underlying structure of the customer table from being
changed.
The view must be able to resolve all referenced objects, regardless of the user’s
default schema.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:

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Question No: 8 CORRECT TEXT  You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

070-461 dumps

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to create a query that calculates the total sales of each OrderId from the
Sales.Details table. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Use one-part names to reference columns.
Sort the order of the results from OrderId.
NOT depend on the default schema of a user.
Use an alias of TotalSales for the calculated ExtendedAmount.
Display only the OrderId column and the calculated TotalSales column.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
070-461 pdf 
Answer:
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Question No: 9. A Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) the user is also a supervisor. You want to ensure that the supervisor automatically sees only his/her agents in the following: Historical reports
Real-time displays
Contact Center Manager Server
How can this be done most effectively?
A. Configure a standard partition.
B. Configure a user-defined partition.
C. The supervisor will automatically see all of the agents.
D. Link the CCMA user to the supervisor in the reporting agents partition.
Answer: D
Question No:  10. In a deployed Contact Center Rls. 7.0 network with several sites, which condition will occur if the Network Control Center (NCC) server experiences a hardware failure that drops the server from the network?
A. all call routing and call processing in the network will stop
B. calls are routed between sites but no network call-by-call data will be transferred to the NCC
C. calls will not be routed between sites in the network
D. the Contact Center Manager Servers at each site in the network will also fail
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Answer: B
Question No: 11. In Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) Rls. 7.0, which element can be configured on the Configuration component?
A. Global Settings
B. Users
C. Agents
D. Partitions
Answer: A
Question No: 12. In Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) Rls. 7.0, which set of options specifies how statistics are
treated in reports and real-time displays?
A. Activity codes
B. Call Presentation Class
C. Skillset Assignment
D. Threshold Class
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Answer: D
Question No: 13. While the Call Presentation option “After Call Break for N seconds” (break time) is in effect, which event
can cancel the break time?
A. An agent is reserved for an NACD call by the switch.
B. An agent can put directory number calls on hold for incoming ACD calls.
C. Break time between calls has been allowed and the agent returns from walk away.
D. Break time between calls has been allowed and the agent releases an individual DN call.
E. Break time between calls has been allowed and the caller abandons the call when on an agent set.
Answer: A
Question No: 14. CERTIFICATION REQUIREMENTS
(A)Obtaining Certification:
To obtain certification in any of the RSA Certified Security Professional designations, You must
successfully comply with the initial certification requirements for that designation. Certification
requirements are available on the RSA Certification Web site, or available from RSA, The Security
Division of EMC at the address specified herein. By sending You the RSA Certified Security
Professional Welcome Kit, RSA confirms that according to its 70-461 dumps records, You have complied with the initial certification requirements for the RSA Certified Security Professional designation indicated in the RSA Certified Security Professional Welcome Kit.
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To maintain Your active certification(s), You must comply with any and all continuing certification
requirements which shall be established by RSA, The Security Division of EMC and may include
periodically taking a re-certification examination that tests Your knowledge of the features and
functionality of any major product release. You acknowledge and agree that RSA may, in its sole
discretion, change the certification requirements (both initial and continuing), RSA Certified Security
Professional designations and RSA Certified Security Professional Logos and Guidelines at any time.
You are responsible for periodically checking the RSA Certified Security Professional website for
updates and compliance with any and all updates. Failure to comply with all requirements will result in
termination of this Agreement.
(C)Transfer of Certification:
You shall not transfer or share Your RSA Certified Security Professional certification and the benefits
of such certification to or with another person or entity.
Question No: 15.USE OF RSA CERTIFIED SECURITY PROFESSIONAL DESIGNATIONS and LOGOS
Your successful completion of the initial certification requirements, and so long as You remain in
compliance with all applicable continuing certification requirements, RSA, The Security Division of
EMC hereby authorizes You to use the RSA Certified Security Professional designation 070-461 exam for which You have obtained certification, as indicated in the RSA Certified Security Professional Welcome Kit which includes this RSA Certified Security Professional Agreement and the RSA Certified Security
Professional Logo Guidelines which set forth the authorized use of the RSA Certified Security
Professional Logo.
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performance as an RSA Certified Security Professional or that might otherwise be implied by law,

shall operate to give You any right, title or interest in the 070-461 pdf RSA Certified Security Professional
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not derogate from RSA’s rights in the RSA Certified Security Professional Logo and designations, and
shall take no action that may interfere with or diminish RSA’s rights in the RSA Certified Security
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Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Sep 08, 2017
Q&As: 503

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• Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
• Introduction to Active Directory Domain Services
• Managing Active Directory Domain Services Objects
• Automating Active Directory Domain Services Administration
• Implementing Networking Services
• Implementing Local Storage
• Implementing File and Print Services
• Implementing Group Policy
• Implementing Server Virtualization with Hyper-V

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Free Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-410 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION  1. In Report Studio, an author merges Query1 and Query2 into one result set (Query3) using a union set operator, Query1 contains two data items: Order method and Revenue, Query2 also contains two data items: Product line and Quantity sold. The author wants to display the data from Query3 in a list report, how can the author ensure that all the order method results appear together line results appear together in the report?
A. The author must add a sort key data item directly to Query3.
B. The author must sort the Order method data item in Query1 and the Product line data item in Query2.
C. The author must sort the data item in Query3 that retrieves both the Order method and Product line data. D.
The author must add a sort key data item to Query1 and Query2, and then add this sort key data item to
Query3.
070-410 exam Answer: C
QUESTION  2. Which member is used for dimensions in a package that are not referenced in the expression?
A. Tabular data includes a column for each data item in the query, No grouping is applied to the tabular
data.
B. Tabular data includes a column for each data item in the query. Grouping applied in the report layout is
also applied to the tabular data.
C. Tabular data can only include columns for data items that appear in the layout. No grouping is applied
to the tabular data.
D. Tabular data includes a column for a data item that appears in both the query and the layout. Grouping
applied in the report layout is also applied to tabular data.
Answer: A
QUESTION  3. In Report Studio, an author uses the tuple function to retrieve the intersection of members from two dimensions. Which member is used for dimensions in the package that are not referenced in the
expression?
A. No member is used.
B. The root member is always used.
C. The last sibling of the lowest member is always used.
D. The default member for that Dimension is always used.

70-410 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION  4. In Report Studio, an author wants to use a join object to create a relationship between two queries. Which of the following is true?
A. The author can use a join object to create either an inner or outer join between the queries.
B. The author can use a join object only if both queries contain data from OLAP data sources.
C. The author can use a join object only if both queries contain data from relational sources that have not
been modeled dimensionally.
D. Both queries must contain the same number of the data item, the data items must be compatible and must
appear in the same order.
Answer: D
QUESTION  5. In Event Studio, which of the following tasks are available to a report author?
A. Run an agent
B. Run an export
C. Run an import
D. Run an index update
070-410 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION  6. In Report Studio, an author wants to conditionally format a list report according to the revenue generated by each product line. The Revenue data item does not appear in the list report but is contained in Quety1. Which of the following must the author do in order to apply this conditional formatting?
A. Make the Revenue data item property of Queery1.
B. Make the Revenue data item property of the list object.
C. Make the Revenue data item property of the Page object.
D. Make the Revenue data item property of the Variable object.
Answer: B
QUESTION  7. In an OLAP package, the Years dimension appears as shown below:
If the expression for Year level in this dimension is [great_outdoors_company].[Years]. [Year].which

member will be retrieved by the following expression?
descendants(closing period([great_outdoors_company].[Years],2)
A. Each Month member for the latest year in the Year level.
B. The latest Month member for each year in the Year level.
C. Each Quarter member for the latest year in the Year level.
D. Each Month member from the latest quarter at the Quarter level.
070-410 exam questions Answer: A
QUESTION  8. In Report Studio, an author edits the SQL statement that a query uses to retrieve data for a crosstab. After editing the SQL, the author wants to add a new data item to the query. How can the author add the data item?
A. The author must convert the edited SQL back to a query object and then add the data item.
B. The author must edit the SQL statements so that the query retrieves an additional data item.
C. The author must add the data item to the query from the package displayed on the Source tab.
D. The author must add a query refers to the existing query and then add the data item to the
referenced query.
Answer: B
QUESTION  9. In Report Studio, an author creates a list report containing columns for Staff Name, Order Number, and Revenue. The author wants to burst this report to various sales staff members. Each member should see only data relating to the sales they have made. What must the author do to specify that the burst report output will contain only data for the appropriate sales staff member?
A. In the report layout, create a master-detail relationship on the Staff Name data item.
B. In the report layout, add the Staff Name data item as a property of the list object.
C. In the burst options for the report, use the Staff Name data item to specify the Burst Recipients.
D. In the burst options for the report, use the Staff Name data item to specify the Burst Groups.
70-410 dumps Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You add a 4-TB disk named Disk 5 to Server1. You need to ensure that you can create a
3-TB volume on Disk 5. What should you do?
A. Create a storage pool.
B. Convert the disk to a dynamic disk.
C. Create a VHD, and then attach the VHD.
D. Convert the disk to a GPT disk.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that has a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the File Server server role installed. You need to upgrade Server1 to Windows Server 2012 R2 with the graphical user interface (GUI). The solution must meet the following
requirements: Preserve the server roles and their configurations. Minimize Administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
B. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature.
C. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
D. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature
070-410 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to install the Remote Desktop Services server role
on Server2 remotely from Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. The dsadd.exe command
B. The Server Manager console
C. The Remote Desktop Gateway Manager console
D. The Install-RemoteAccess cmdlet
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
You have a server named Server1 that runs a full installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to uninstall the graphical user interface (GUI) on Server1.
You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Reinstall Windows Server 2012 R2 on the server.
B. From Server Manager, uninstall the User Interfaces and Infrastructure feature.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature PowerShell-ISE

D. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature Desktop-Experience.
070-410 exam questions Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual
machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

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You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to ensure that the next time VM2 restarts, you can
connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
Which virtual machine setting should you configure for VM2?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 15. In Report Studio, why would an author use a filter 70-410 dumps function when querying dimensional data?
A. To retrieve a set of members that meet a String condition.

B. To suppress a set of members that meet a String condition. C.
To retrieve a set of members that meet a Boolean condition. D.
To suppress a set of members that meet a Boolean condition.
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Updated: Aug 19, 2017
Q&As: 97

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Question: 1
Which of the following is an example of a taxable gift for federal gift tax purposes?
A – A father gives his 19-year-old daughter a note promising to give her his Rolls Royce when she
reaches the age of 21.
B – Instead of parents paying an outside executive $60,000, a son runs their business for 8
months without charging a fee.
C – The parents of a married son permit their son and his family to use a summer cottage that
rents for $3,000 per month on a rent-free basis.
D – A father cancels a $50,000 note his daughter gave him when he made a loan to her 2 years
ago.
070-489 exam 
Answer: D
Question: 2
The following are facts concerning a decedent’s estate:
Taxable estate $1.700, 000
Pre-1977 taxable gifts 200, 000
Post-1976 adjusted taxable gifts 50, 000
Post-1976 gifts made to a qualified charity 100, 000
The tentative tax base of this estate is
A – $1,700,000
B – $1,750,000
C – $1,850,000
D – $1,900,000
Answer: B
Question: 3
An executor elects to value the assets of the estate at the alternative valuation date 6 months
after death. Which of the following statements concerning the estate tax value of assets included
in this estate is correct?
A – An annuity included in the gross estate that diminishes with the mere passage of time is
includible at the date of death value.
B – Property sold before the alternate valuation date is valued at the alternate valuation date.
C – Property that has increased in value since the date of death may be valued at the date of
death if the executor so elects.
D – Property distributed under the will before the alternate valuation date is valued at the date of
death.
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Answer: A
Question: 4
A father and son have been farming land owned by the father for the past 12 years. Just prior to
his death, the father was offered $1200, 000 for his farm because of its possible use as a
shopping center. The son would like to continue to farm the land if it can be included in his
father’s estate at its current use value. Additional facts are:
1. Average annual gross rentals from nearby farms of similar acreage are $56,000.
2. The average annual state and local real estate taxes on the farm are $6,000.
3. The interest rate for loans from the Federal Land Sank is 8 percent.

For federal estate tax purposes, the farm method valuation formula would result in a current use
value for the farm of
A – $500,000
B – $600,000
C – $700,000
D – $820,000
Answer: B
Question: 5
Which of the following types of real property ownership will be deemed to be a tenancy in
common?
A – Two brothers own equal amounts of all the common stock in a corporation, the only asset of
which is real property.
B – Two brothers own equal undivided interests in a piece of real property, with each brother
being able to divest himself of his interest by sale, gift, or will.
C – Two brothers are equal partners in a general partnership that owns a piece of real property
used in the partnership business.
D – Two brothers own equal fractional interests in a piece of real property and at the death of one
of the brothers, the survivor will own the entire piece of property.
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Answer: B
Question: 6
Which of the following statements concerning property ownership by a married couple residing in
a community-property state is correct?
A – All property owned by the couple is community property.
B – Community property loses its identity when a couple moves from a community property state
to a common-law state.
C – Property inherited by one spouse during a marriage becomes community property
D – Income earned by one spouse becomes community property.
Answer: D
Question: 7
Which of the following statements concerning a simple trust is correct?
A – Income and principal may be distributed to a qualified charity.
B – It receives a special tax deduction for income distributed to its beneficiaries.
C – Income is accumulated at the discretion of the trustee.
D – It limits the number of permissible beneficiaries.
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Answer: B
Question: 8
On the advice of their attorney and accountant, Betsy and John have decided to make substantial
transfers. They would like to pass most of their considerable wealth to their grandchildren. Which
of the following statements concerning gifts made to their grandchildren is correct?
A – The GSTT annual exclusion may be utilized by Betsy and John for each grandchild during
lifetime and at death.

B – The value of Betsy and John’s GSTT exemption amounts are slightly increased when used at
death rather than during lifetime.
C – The GSTT annual exclusion is unavailable for years in which Betsy and John make tuition
gifts for the grandchildren.
D – Betsy and John may elect to split any GSTT transfers to the grandchildren.
Answer: D
Question: 9
The decedent, D, died this year. The facts concerning D estate are:
Gross estate $3,400,000
Marital deduction 0
Charitable deduction 600,000
Funeral & administration expenses 00,000
Gifts made after 1976 170,000
State death taxes payable 192,000
What is D taxable estate?
A – $2,138,000
B – $2,358,000
C – $2,528,000
D – $2,720,000
070-489 exam 
Answer: C
Question: 10
On January 1, 2004, a father gave his daughter a $200,000 straight (ordinary) life insurance policy
on his life. Premiums are paid annually. The pertinent facts about the policy are:
Date of issue: July 1, 1992
Premium paid on July 1, 2003, $3200
Terminal reserve on July 1, 2003, 20,000
Terminal reserve on July 1, 2004, 24,000
What is the value of the policy for federal gift tax purposes?
A – $ 21,600
B – $23,200
C – $23,600
D – $200,000
Answer: C
Question: 11
A married man has two adult sons. His entire estate is in excess of $1,500,000 and consists
entirely of probate assets. He wants to make certain that if he predeceases his wife she will
receive all estate income as long as she lives, and the assets remaining at her death will pass
equally to their two sons. He wants to pass all assets to this wife and sons as free of federal
estate taxes as possible. To best accomplish these objectives, the man should include which of
the following estate plans in his will?
A – Establish a QTIP trust for half his estate and bequeath the remainder to his wife
B – Establish a marital deduction trust with a general power of appointment for half his estate and

place the remainder in a QTIP trust
C – Establish a bypass trust equal to the applicable exclusion amount and place the remainder of
his estate in a QTIP trust
D – Establish a QTIP trust for his entire estate
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Answer: C
Question: 12
Among the assets in a decedent’s gross estate is stock in a closely held corporation that was left
to a nephew. The interest passing to the nephew is required to bear the burden of all estate taxes
and expenses. The relevant facts about this estate are:
Adjusted gross estate $1,200,000
The fair market value of stock in the
closely held corporation 500,000
Administration and funeral expenses 25,000
State inheritance taxes 40,000
Federal estate taxes 160,000
What amount of closely held corporate stock may be redeemed under IRC Section 303 so that
the redemption will be treated as a sale or exchange rather than a dividend distribution?
A – 0
B – $ 65,000
C – $225,000
D – $500,000
Answer: C
Question: 13
A married man died this year leaving a gross estate of $3,200,000. Additional facts concerning
his estate is:
Administration expenses and debts $ 250,000
Marital deduction 1,200,000
Applicable credit amount (2005) 555,800
Applicable exclusion amount (2005) 1,500,000
State death taxes payable 20,400
Under the Unified Rate Schedule for computing estate taxes if the amount with respect to which
the tentative tax to be computed is over$1,000,000 but not over $1,250,000, the tentative tax is
$345,800, plus 41 percent of the excess of such amount over $1,000,000. If the amount is over
$1,250,000 but not over $1,500,000, the tentative tax is then $448,300, plus 43 percent of the
excess of such amount over $1,250,000. If the amount is over $1,500,000 but not over
$2,000,000, the tentative tax is then $555,800 plus 45% of the excess of such amount over
$1,500,000. Based on these facts, the net federal estate tax payable is
A – 0
B – $103,320
C – $123,720
D – $128,280
070-489 pdf 
Answer: B

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Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012

  • Published: 2017-02-01
  • Languages: English, French, German, Japanese, Russian, Spanish, Portuguese (Brazil), Chinese (Simplified)
  • Audiences: IT professionals
  • Technology: Microsoft SQL Server 2012
  • Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSA, MCSE

Design and implement a data warehouse (11%)
Extract and transform data (23%)
Load data (27%)
Configure and deploy SSIS solutions (24%)
Build data quality solutions (15%)

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NO.1 You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to implement an
incremental data load strategy.
The package reads data from a source system that uses the SQL Server change data capture (CDC)
feature.
You have added a CDC Source component to the data flow to read changed data from the source
system.
You need to add a data flow transformation to redirect rows for separate processing of insert,
update, and delete
operations.
Which data flow transformation should you use?
A. CDC Splitter
B. Audit
C. Merge Join
D. Merge
Answer: A

Explanation: The CDC splitter splits a single flow of change rows from a CDC source data flow into
different data flows
for Insert, Update and Delete operations

NO.2 You are designing an enterprise star schema that will consolidate data from three independent
data marts. One of the data marts is hosted on SQL Azure.
Most of the dimensions have the same structure and content. However, the geography dimension is
slightly different in each data mart.
You need to design a consolidated dimensional structure that will be easy to maintain while ensuring
that all dimensional data from the three original solutions is represented.
What should you do?
A. Implement change tracking.
B. Create a conformed dimension for the geography dimension.
C. Create a degenerate dimension for the geography dimension.
D. Create a Type 2 slowly changing dimension for the geography dimension.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You need to recommend a fault-tolerant solution for the VPN. The solution must meet the
technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Network adapter teaming
B. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
C. Failover Clustering
D. DirectAccess
Answer: B

Explanation:
*Scenario: Core networking services in each office must be redundant if a server fails.
*The Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature distributes traffic across several servers by using the
TCP/IP networking protocol. By combining two or more computers that are running applications into
a single virtual cluster, NLB provides reliability and performance for web servers and other mission-
critical servers.
Reference: Network Load Balancing Overview

NO.4 A company has 200-125 pdf offices in multiple geographic locations. The sites have high-latency, low-
bandwidth connections. You need to implement a multisite Windows Deployment Services (WDS)
topology for deploying standard client device images to all sites.
Solution: At each site, you install a WDS Server. You apply the same configuration settings to each
WDS Server. You configure Distributed File Server Replication (DFSR) to synchronize install images.
Does this meet the goal?
A. No
B. Yes
Answer: B

Explanation:
DFS Replication is compatible with Remote Installation Services (RIS) and WDS.

QUESTION 5
The System Image Utility ________.
A. creates and scans an ASR-ready disk image
B. prepares a disk image for NetBoot or Network Install
C. configures an image to act as the default boot volume
D. configures a computer to startup from a network image

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
You are using ASR multicast to restore multiple computers with the same copy of an ASR-ready disk image. What will the result be?
A. The restorations will be performed simultaneously.
B. The restorations will be queued in the order requested.
C. Users will be prompted to specify a data rate to use for their computer.
D. The computers will start up from a network image and run asr automatically.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
Apple Remote Desktop is ________.
A. an update service provided by Mac OS X Server
B. a management tool used to control computers remotely
C. an administrative tool used to install Mac OS X on remote systems
D. the system preference for allowing remote Apple events in Mac OS X

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
In a multiple-user environment, what action must you take to assure that a user’s Classic preferences will be stored separately?
A. No action is necessary. Classic automatically stores preferences in each user’s home folder.
B. Create an alias to the Classic Preferences folder in the Library folder in each user’s home folder.
C. Under the advanced tab in the Classic System Preferences pane, check to use Mac OS 9 preferences from your home folder.
D. In the Classic System Folder, create an alias to the Library/Preferences folder of each user’s home folder and name the alias Preferences. name, where name is the username of that user.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 09
You have added packages to a custom Network Install image. To ensure that the packages are delivered to clients that startup from the image, you must ________.
A. rename the primary package or meta-package on the install image to OSInstall.pkg
B. create a meta-package named primary.pkg that includes all of the added packages
C. edit the file /private/etc/rc.cdrom.packagePath to contain the path to the main package or metapackage
D. modify /private/etc/installconfig.xml on the disk image to point to the main install package or meta-package

Correct Answer: C

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Your company has a main office that contains several servers and several users. The main office contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. The users access a large report file that is created on Server1 each day. The company plans to open a new branch office. The branch office will contain only client computers. You need to implement a solution to reduce the amount of bandwidth used by the client computers in the branch office to download the report each day. What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Install the BranchCache for network files role service on Server1. Configure the client computers to use BranchCache in hosted cache mode.
B. Configure the offline settings of the shared folder that contains the report.
C. Install the BranchCache for network files role service on Server1. Configure the client computers to use Branchcache in distributed mode.
D. Enable the Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS) feature on Server1 and on each client computer in the branch office. Move the report to a web folder.
Answer: C

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