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Buying 200-301 Dumps Questions (2024): A Critical Decision for Cisco 200-301 CCNA Exam PreparationBuying 200-301 Dumps Questions (2024): A Critical Decision for Cisco 200-301 CCNA Exam Preparation

200-301 CCNA dumps 2024

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Buy 200-301 dumps questions (2024) links: (Optional PDF or VCE format) All of these dumps questions and answers provide accurate and up-to-date information consistent with the exam syllabus, rest assured.

What’s new in Cisco CCNA certification 2024

Over the years, Cisco has been looking for changes to keep up with the market.

In 2022 and 2024, Cisco made a complete change to its certification process, eliminating many areas of expertise such as Cisco CCNA voice and security, and controversially molding some CCIE courses, resulting in many experts in areas such as voice and collaboration no longer being certified!

Reading the chart entries for service providers and CCNAs, you’ll see that as of today (April 15, 2024), there aren’t any announcements yet, and the bottom tab of the CCNA shows that nothing will change this year, so you can safely assume it will remain as it is until the end of 2024.

You can try here first, free Cisco 200-301 CCNA exam questions, practice below.

Free 200-301 dumps questions shared online Q16-Q30:

The Cisco CCNA (200-301) exam is 120 minutes long and consists of 100-120 questions. Questions can be multiple-choice, drag-and-drop, mock, and other types.

Pick up where you shared last time (200-301 exam questions Q1-Q15) and share 15 more latest exam questions (total questions 1450)

Question 16:

A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the hostname on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

A. password Password

B. crypto key generates rsa modulus 1024

C. ip domain-name domain

D. ip ssh authentication-retries 2

Correct Answer: C

Question 17:

Which command must be entered so that the default gateway is automatically distributed when DHCP is configured on a router?

A. DNS-server

B. default-router

C. ip helper-address

D. default-gateway

Correct Answer: B

Question 18:

Why is a first-hop redundancy protocol implemented?

A. to enable multiple switches to operate as a single unit

B. to provide load-sharing for a multilink segment

C. to prevent loops in a network

D. to protect against default gateway failures

Correct Answer: D

Question 19:


Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right.

Select and Place:

200-301 dumps questions 19

Correct Answer:

200-301 dumps questions 19-2

This subnet question requires us to grasp how to subnet very well. To quickly find out the subnet range, we have to find out the increment and the network address of each subnet. Let\’s take an example with the subnet

From the /18 (= 1100 0000 in the 3rd octet), we find out the increment is 64. Therefore the network address of this subnet must be the greatest multiple of the increment but not greater than the value in the 3rd octet (228).

We can find out the 3rd octet of the network address is 192 (because 192 = 64 * 3 and 192 < 228) -> The network address is So the first usable host should be and it matches with the 5th answer on the right. In this case, we don’t need to calculate the broadcast address because we found the correct answer.

Let\’s take another example with subnet -> The increment is 2 (as /23 = 1111 1110 in 3rd octet) -> The 3rd octet of the network address is 228 (because 228 is the multiply of 2 and equal to the 3rd octet) -> The network address is -> The first usable host is It is not necessary but if we want to find out the broadcast address of this subnet, we can find out the next network address, which is 172.28. (228 + the increment number).0 or then reduce 1 bit -> is the broadcast address of our subnet. Therefore the last usable host is

Question 20:

What is the expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?

A. A distributed management plane must be used.

B. Software upgrades are performed from a central controller

C. Complexity increases when new device configurations are added

D. Custom applications are needed to configure network devices

Correct Answer: B

Question 21:

Which two IPv6 addresses are used to provide connectivity between two routers on a shared link? (Choose two)

A. FF02::0001:FF00:0000/104

B. ff06:bb43:cc13:dd16:1bb:ff14:7545:234d

C. 2002::512:1204b:1111::1/64

D. 2001:701:104b:1111::1/64

E. ::ffff:

Correct Answer: DE

the IPv6 address “::ffff:” is a valid representation of an IPv6 address with an embedded IPv4 address. This format is known as an IPv4-mapped IPv6 address.

In this case, “::ffff:” represents the IPv4 address “” embedded within an IPv6 address. The “::ffff:” prefix indicates that the following part of the address is an IPv4 address. The “/96” suffix indicates the network prefix length, specifying that the first 96 bits represent the network portion of the address.

Question 22:

What is a DHCP client?

A. a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

B. a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

C. a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

D. a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

Correct Answer: B

Question 23:

Refer to the exhibit. A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:

City(config-router)# network area 0

After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)

200-301 dumps questions 23

A. FastEthernet0 /0

B. FastEthernet0 /1

C. Serial0/0

D. Serial0/1.102

E. Serial0/1.103

F. Serial0/1.104

Correct Answer: BCD

The “network equals to network This network has:


Increment: 64 (/26= 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.1100 0000) + Network address:


Broadcast address:

Therefore all interfaces in the range of this network will join OSPF.

Question 24:

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?

A. restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration

B. prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords

C. protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch

D. encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established

Correct Answer: A

Question 25:

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 dumps questions 25

All interfaces are configured with duplex auto and IP OSPF network broadcast. Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency and act as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

A. R14# interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address ip ospf priority 255 ip mtu 1500 router ospf 10 router-id network area 0 network area 0


interface FastEthernet0/0

ip address

ip mtu 1400

router ospf 10


network area 0

network area 0

B. R14# interface Loopback0 ip ospf 10 area 0 interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address ip ospf 10 area 0 ip mtu 1500 router ospf 10 ip ospf priority 255 router-id


interface Loopback0

ip ospf 10 area 0

interface FastEthernet0/0

ip address

ip ospf 10 area 0

ip mtu 1500

router ospf 10 router-id

C. R14# interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address ip ospf priority 0 ip mtu 1500 router ospf 10 router-id network area 0 network area 0


interface FastEthernet0/0

ip address

ip mtu 1500

router ospf 10


network area 0

network area 0

D. R14# interface Loopback0 ip ospf 10 area 0 interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address

ip ospf priority 255

ip ospf 10 area 0

ip mtu 1500

router ospf 10



interface Loopback0

ip ospf 10 area 0

interface FastEthernet0/0

ip address

ip ospf 10 area 0

ip mtu 1500

router ospf 10


Correct Answer: D

A router with “priority 0” and another with “priority default (1)” formed adjacency and exchanged LSAs and LSDBs normally (I tested it in P.Trace and OSPF dynamic routing works normally), the difference is that there will not be a DR Backup in case fail (that\’s all). One will be DR Other (neighbor Full/DR) and one DR (neighbor Full/DROther), and BDR appears written that it does not exist because priority 0 cannot be either DR or BDR.

(Observation: “point-to-point type” is recommended for this type of connection.)

However, the exercise asks them to act as a central point for exchanging information, in this case, “it gives the impression” that he asked us to select a “DR”. Letter “D” would be the most correct because using “ip ospf priority 255” (in the interface) we define R14 as DR.

Question 26:

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 dumps questions 26

Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?

A. lp route

B. ip default-gateway

C. ip route 10

D. ip route 10

Correct Answer: D

Question 27:

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 dumps questions 27

Router R4 is dynamically learning the path to the server. If R4 is connected to R1 via OSPF Area 20, to R2 via R2 BGP, and to R3 via EIGRP 777, which path is installed in the routing table of R4?

A. the path through R1, because the OSPF administrative distance is 110

B. the path through R2. because the IBGP administrative distance is 200

C. the path through R2 because the EBGP administrative distance is 20

D. the path through R3. because the EIGRP administrative distance is lower than OSPF and BGP

Correct Answer: C

Question 28:

In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?

A. traffic policing

B. round-robin scheduling

C. low-latency queuing

D. expedited forwarding

Correct Answer: D

Question 29:

Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two.)

A. It supports protocol discovery.

B. It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets.

C. It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity.

D. It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up.

E. It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets.

Correct Answer: DE

Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED) is just a congestion avoidance mechanism. WRED drops packets selectively based on IP precedence. Edge routers assign IP precedences to packets as they enter the network. When a packet arrives, the following events occur:

1. The average queue size is calculated.

2. If the average is less than the minimum queue threshold, the arriving packet is queued.

3. If the average is between the minimum queue threshold for that type of traffic and the maximum threshold for the interface, the packet is either dropped or queued, depending on the packet drop probability for that type of traffic.

4. If the average queue size is greater than the maximum threshold, the packet is dropped.

WRED reduces the chances of tail drop (when the queue is full, the packet is dropped) by selectively dropping packets when the output interface begins to show signs of congestion (thus it can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up).

By dropping some packets early rather than waiting until the queue is full, WRED avoids dropping large numbers of packets at once and minimizes the chances of global synchronization. Thus, WRED allows the transmission line to be used fully at all times.

WRED generally drops packets selectively based on IP precedence. Packets with a higher IP precedence are less likely to be dropped than packets with a lower precedence. Thus, the higher the priority of a packet, the higher the probability that the packet will be delivered


Question 30:

Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

200-301 dumps questions 30

A. Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.

B. Configure the ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.

C. Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

D. Configure the Ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

Correct Answer: C

If a Layer 2 LAN port is connected to a DHCP server, configure the port as trusted by entering the ip dhcp snooping trust interface configuration command.

More Cisco exam questions…

In addition to the help of the 200-301 dumps, you will need Cisco official training to prepare for your certification exam to pass the exam or take advantage of the self-study resources on the Cisco Learning Network for self-study.

This prepares you for a new collection of 200-301 learning resources (with links):




  1. CCNA Certification Training Videos
  2. CCNA Prep Program Webinars
  3. CCNA Prep Program – Learning Map
  4. CCNA Prep Program Practice Quiz

Of course, there are many more good study materials, and I have listed here only what I think is good, and others are welcome to add.

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Does someone say that CCNP is harder than CCNA? Is this correct?

Yes, the CCNA exam is easier than the CCNP exam. One of the reasons why the CCNA exam is considered easier is that it covers a smaller range of topics than the CCNP exam.

Do I have to take more practice exercises to pass the Cisco CCNA (200-301) exam?

Yes, trying mock exams is a smart way to change the way you study and ensure that you do well on the actual exam. When you practice, it helps you identify weak points and strengthen them.


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350-401 Dumps Update [Exam Lifesaver Cheats]350-401 Dumps Update [Exam Lifesaver Cheats]

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Question 1:

Which access control feature does MAB provide?

A. user access based on IP address

B. allows devices to bypass authenticate*

C. network access based on the physical address of a device

D. simultaneous user and device authentication

Correct Answer: C

Question 2:

What does the Cisco DNA Center use to enable the delivery of applications through a network and to yield analytics for innovation?

A. process adapters

B. Command Runner

C. intent-based APIs

D. domain adapters

Correct Answer: C

The Cisco DNA Center open platform for intent-based networking provides 360- degree extensibility across multiple components, including:

+ Intent-based APIs leverage the controller to enable business and IT applications to deliver intent to the network and to reap network analytics and insights for IT and business innovation. These enable APIs that allow Cisco DNA Center to

receive input from a variety of sources, both internal to IT and from line-of-business applications, related to application policy, provisioning, software image management, and assurance.


Question 3:

Which network devices secure API platform?

A. next-generation intrusion detection systems

B. Layer 3 transit network devices

C. content switches

D. web application firewalls

Correct Answer: D

Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

350-401 exam questions 4

A network engineer is configuring OSPF between router R1 and router R2. The engineer must ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur on the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in area 0.

Which configuration set accomplishes this goal?

A. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point

R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0

R2(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point

B. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast

R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0

R2(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast

C. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out

R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0

R2(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out

D. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf priority 1

R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0

R2(config-if)ip ospf priority 1

Correct Answer: A

Broadcast and Non-Broadcast networks elect DR/BDR while Point-to-point/multipoint do not elect DR/BDR. Therefore we have to set the two Gi0/0 interfaces to a point-to-point or point-to-multipoint network to ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur.

Question 5:

Which of the following are the three components of the three-tier hierarchical networking model used in the classical Cisco networks design? (Choose three.)

A. Distribution

B. Core

C. Access

D. Leaf

E. Spine

Correct Answer: ABC

Question 6:

In Cisco DNA Center, what is the integration API?

A. southbound consumer-facing RESTful API. which enables network discovery and configuration management

B. westbound interface, which allows the exchange of data to be used by ITSM. IPAM and reporting

C. an interface between the controller and the network devices, which enables network discovery and configuration management

D. northbound consumer-facing RESTful API, which enables network discovery and configuration management

Correct Answer: B!cisco-dna-center-platform-overview/integration-api-westbound

Question 7:

In a Cisco SD-Access fabric architecture, which of the following are valid device roles (Choose three.)

A. Control Plane Node

B. Access routing device

C. Edge Node

D. Border Node

E. Distributed Node

Correct Answer: ACD

Question 8:

When is an external antenna used inside a building?

A. only when using Mobility Express

B. when it provides the required coverage

C. only when using 2 4 GHz

D. only when using 5 GHz

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:

You have configured router R1 with multiple VRFs \’s in order to support multiple customer VPN networks. If you wanted to see the best path for the route in VRF Green, what command would you use?

A. show ip route vrf Green

B. show ip route vrf Green

C. show route all

D. show ip route Green

Correct Answer: A

#show ip route vrf mgmt % IP routing table vrf mgmt does not exist

Question 10:

A firewall address of 192 166.1.101 can be pinged from a router but, when running a traceroute to It, this output is received.

350-401 exam questions 10

What is the cause of this issue?

A. The firewall blocks ICMP traceroute traffic.

B. The firewall rule that allows ICMP traffic does not function correctly

C. The firewall blocks ICMP traffic.

D. The firewall blocks UDP traffic

Correct Answer: D

Question 11:


Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to create an EEM script that adds an entry to a locally stored text file with a timestamp when a configuration change is made. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

350-401 exam questions 11

Correct Answer:

350-401 exam questions 11-2
Question 12:

A customer deploys a new wireless network to perform location-based services using Cisco DNA Spaces The customer has a single WLC located on-premises in a secure data center. The security team does not want to expose the WLC to the public Internet.

Which solution allows the customer to securely send RSSI updates to Cisco DNA Spaces?

A. Implement Cisco Mobility Services Engine

B. Replace the WLC with a cloud-based controller.

C. Perform tethering with Cisco DNA Center.

D. Deploy a Cisco DNA Spaces connector as a VM.

Correct Answer: D

Question 13:

A customer wants to use a single SSID to authenticate loT devices using different passwords. Which Layer 2 security type must be configured in conjunction with Cisco ISE to achieve this requirement?

A. Fast Transition

B. Central Web Authentication

C. Cisco Centralized Key Management

D. Identity PSK

Correct Answer: D

With the advent of the Internet of things, the number of devices that connect to the Internet is increased multifold. Not all of these devices support 802.1x supplicant and need an alternate mechanism to connect to the internet.

One of the security mechanisms, WPA-PSK could be considered as an alternative. With the current configuration, the pre-shared key is the same for all clients that connect to the same WLAN.

In certain deployments such as Educational Institutions, this results in the key being shared with unauthorized users resulting in security breaches. Therefore, above mentioned and other requirements lead to the need for provisioning unique pre-shared keys for different clients on a large scale.

Identity PSKs are unique pre-shared keys created for individuals or groups of users on the same SSID.

No complex configuration is required for clients. The same simplicity of PSK makes it ideal for IoT, BYOD, and guest deployments.

Supported on most devices, where 802.1X may not, enabling stronger security for IoT.

Easily revoke access, for a single device or individual, without affecting everyone else.

Thousands of keys can easily be managed and distributed via the AAA server.

Question 14:

How does QoS traffic shaping alleviate network congestion?

A. It drops packets when traffic exceeds a certain bitrate.

B. It buffers and queues packets above the committed rate.

C. It fragments large packets and queues them for delivery.

D. It drops packets randomly from lower-priority queues.

Correct Answer: B

Traffic shaping retains excess packets in a queue and then schedules the excess for later transmission over increments of time. The result of traffic shaping is a smoothed packet output rate.

350-401 exam questions 14


Question 15:


Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the infrastructure deployment models on the right.

Select and Place:

350-401 exam questions 15

Correct Answer:

350-401 exam questions 15-2


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latest questions 1
IPv6 introduces the Solicited-Node address, which is described correctly below (multiple choice)

A. This is a specific address that is used for resolution in ARPv6 The MAC address.
B. The Solicited-Node address on the router interface is automatically generated and can have multiple.
C. If the Solicited-Node address is not configured, the router automatically generates one on each interface.
D. IPv6 introduced the Solicited-Node address to support IPv6 multicast.

Correct Answer: B

latest questions 2

Regarding the description of the permanent multicast address, the error is?

A. All routers running the PIM protocol listen on 22400100
B. All routers listen on 224002
C. All hosts and routers in the network segment listen on 224001
D. All routers running the OSPF protocol listen to 224005

Correct Answer: A

latest questions 3

Regarding the description of the BGP neighbor, the error is:

A. BGP routers that support autodiscovery neighbors
B. BGP establishing neighbors must be configured with MD5 authentication
C. BGP needs to establish a UDP connection before establishing a neighbor
D. BGP to establish a neighbor relationship needs to first interact with the link state information

Correct Answer: ABCD

latest questions 4

The following about BGP routing, describing the error, is?

A. Non-aggregate routes take precedence over aggregate routes
B. In PrefVal, Local_ Preference is equal to the case if the route is generated locally, IBGP Routing, the BGP preference for EBGP routing, is generated effectively referring to route priority.
C. See the following entry in the BGP routing table:* 172161.11/32 000010 0? Indicates that the route is available nonoptimal
D. For next_hop unreachable routes when invalid routes, do not participate in the preferred.

Correct Answer: A

latest questions 5

The correct description of the BGP reflector is? ( Multiple choice questions).

A. IBGP neighbor relationships need to be fully interconnected without a route reflector. The introduction of route reflectors can reduce the need for full interconnection
B. The route reflector can advertise routes learned from non-clients to all clients
C. The route reflector can advertise routes learned from one client to other clients and non-clients
D. The route reflector can advertise routes learned from IBGP neighbors to all clients and non-client

Correct Answer: ABC

latest questions 6

If a Huawei switch runs the RSTP protocol, when will the BPDUs on a port on the switch be aged?

A. On the interface, RSTP does not age BPDU
B. After more than 6 seconds
C. After Ma ge times out
D. After Hello time times out
E. after the Forward Delay timeout

Correct Answer: C

latest questions 7

In the evolution from IPv4 networks to IPv6, some transition technologies have emerged, which of the following are common types of transition technologies?

A. Dual-stack technology
B. Tunneling Technology
C. Compatible with Technology
D. Conversion Technology

Correct Answer: ABCD

latest questions 8

In the city, that is, Mpls BGP VPN network, when the packet enters the public network forwarding, it will be encapsulated with two layers of MPLS tags, the following description of the two layers of tags, the error is?

A. Private network tags are carried out and distributed by MP-BGP when routing, and public network tags are distributed by the LDP protocol.
B. MPLS BGP VPN uses two layers of tags: public labels (also known as outer labels) and private network labels (also known as inner labels).
C. By default, the router assigns the same tag value to all VPNv4 routes destined for the peer
D. The egress PE uses the inner tag when determining which egress CE the message should be sent to.

Correct Answer: C

latest questions 9

The following description of LDP reliability is incorrect. ( Radio).

A. LGP GR takes advantage of the high difference between the LS forwarding plane and the control plane to realize that the device forwards without interruption when the protocol is restarted or the master standby is reversed
B. Manually configured LDP FRR policies default to 32-bit backup routes that trigger LDP to establish backup LSPs
C. LLDPFRR also allows LSPs to be generated for tag mappings from non-optimal next hops, and as a live LSP backup, supervising forwarding table entries
D. LDP and IGP linkage, the need for IGP has been routed to release, to ensure that LDP and LGP paths consistent

Correct Answer: B

latest questions 10

Regarding route introduction, what is the following description of the error?

A. BGP supports both import and network when generating routes, and the network mode is more precise.
B. By default, OSPF introduces an external route with a default metric of 1, and the level-2 network of the ingested external route type, Type2
C. ISIS, routes to Level After the 1 makes a route ingestion, if you do not manually configure the ingestion policy, a bad route will be formed.
D. Introducing IBGP routing in OSPF may cause routing loops

Correct Answer: C

latest questions 11

The CPU was attacked by malicious traffic. Here are some of the following ways to prevent an attack: Multi-select

A. USE CPCAR to rate limit messages sent up to the CPU according to the protocol type
B. Speed limiting of messages sent to the CPU on the soil.
C. Filter packets with ACL on the compromised router port
D. Turn off the remote login function of the router.
E. Analyze and count the packets sent to the CPU to find out the user of the attack source or the interface of the attack source.

Correct Answer: CD

latest questions 12

As shown in the figure,

in the context of IPv4 and IPv6, the SEL field in the NET address of ISIS is always valued as 00.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

latest questions 13

The rules for RR to publish routes break the rules for horizontal segmentation of IBGP, so it is possible to cause loops within the AS. What routing attributes does RR use to prevent loops?

A. Nexthop
B. Originator ID
D. Cluster List

Correct Answer: BD

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Exam name: Fortinet NSE 4—FortiOS 7.0
Exam series: NSE4_FGT-7.0
Time allowed: 105 minutes
Exam questions: 60 multiple-choice questions
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiOS 7.0
Official resources:
NSE 4 FortiGate Security 7.0
NSE 4 FortiGate Infrastructure 7.0
FortiOS 7.0—Administration Guide
FortiOS 7.0—New Features Guide
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Free NSE4_FGT-7.0 exam questions answers


FortiGuard categories can be overridden and defined in different categories. To create a web rating override for home page, the override must be configured using a specific syntax. Which two syntaxes are correct to configure web rating for the home page? (Choose two.)


Correct Answer: BD


Which two statements about IPsec authentication on FortiGate are correct? (Choose two.)

A. For a stronger authentication, you can also enable extended authentication (XAuth) to request the remote peer to provide a username and password
B. FortiGate supports pre-shared key and signature as authentication methods.
C. Enabling XAuth results in faster authentication because fewer packets are exchanged.
D. A certificate is not required on the remote peer when you set the signature as the authentication method.

Correct Answer: BD



Refer to the exhibit.

The Root and To_Internet VDOMs are configured in NAT mode. The DMZ and Local VDOMs are
configured in transparent mode. The Root VDOM is the management VDOM. The To_Internet VDOM allows LAN users to access the internet.

The To_lnternet VDOM is the only VDOM with internet access and is directly connected to the ISP modem.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Inter-VDOM links are required to allow traffic between the Local and Root VDOMs.
B. A static route is required on the To_Internet VDOM to allow LAN users to access the internet.
C. Inter-VDOM links are required to allow traffic between the Local and DMZ VDOMs.
D. Inter-VDOM links are not required between the Root and To_Internet VDOMs because the Root VDOM is used only as a management VDOM.

Correct Answer: AD


Which statements about the firmware upgrade process on an active-active HA cluster are true? (Choose two.)

A. The firmware image must be manually uploaded to each FortiGate.
B. Only secondary FortiGate devices are rebooted.
C. Uninterruptable upgrade is enabled by default.
D. Traffic load balancing is temporally disabled while upgrading the firmware.

Correct Answer: CD


A FortiGate is operating in NAT mode and configured with two virtual LAN (VLAN) sub-interfaces added to the physical interface. Which statements about the VLAN sub-interfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they have IP addresses in different subnets.

A. The two VLAN sub-interfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they have IP addresses in different subnets.
B. The two VLAN sub-interfaces must have different VLAN IDs.
C. The two VLAN sub-interfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they belong to different VDOMs.
D. The two VLAN sub-interfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they have IP addresses in the same subnet.

Correct Answer: B

FortiGate_Infrastructure_6.0_Study_Guide_v2-Online.pdf ?gt; page 147 “Multiple VLANs can coexist in the same physical interface, provide they have different VLAN ID”


By default, FortiGate is configured to use HTTPS when performing live web filtering with FortiGuard
servers. Which two CLI commands will cause FortiGate to use an unreliable protocol to communicate with
FortiGuard servers for live web filtering? (Choose two.)

A. set fortiguard anycast disable
B. set protocol UDP
C. set web filter-force-off to disable
D. set web filter-cache to disable

Correct Answer: AC


Refer to the exhibit, which contains a radius server configuration.

An administrator added a configuration for a new RADIUS server. While configuring, the administrator selected the Include in every user group option. What will be the impact of using Include in every user group option in a RADIUS configuration?

A. This option places the RADIUS server and all users who can authenticate against that server, into every FortiGate user group.
B. This option places all FortiGate users and groups required to authenticate into the RADIUS server, which, in this case, is FortiAuthenticator.
C. This option places all users into every RADIUS user group, including groups that are used for the LDAP server on FortiGate.
D. This option places the RADIUS server, and all users who can authenticate against that server, into every RADIUS group.

Correct Answer: A


Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibits show a network diagram and the explicit web proxy configuration. In the command diagnose sniffer packet, what filter can you use to capture the traffic between the client and the explicit web proxy?

A. host and port 8080\\' and port 80\’
C. host and port 80\\' and port 8080\’

Correct Answer: A


Which three criteria can a FortiGate use to look for a matching firewall policy to process traffic? (Choose three.)

A. Source is defined as Internet Services in the firewall policy.
B. Destination is defined as Internet Services in the firewall policy.
C. Highest to lowest priority defined in the firewall policy.
D. Services defined in the firewall policy.
E. Lowest to the highest policy ID number.

Correct Answer: ABD



Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit contains a network diagram, firewall policies, and a firewall address object configuration. An
administrator created a Deny policy with default settings to deny Webserver access for Remote- user2.
Remote-user2 is still able to access Webserver.

Which two changes can the administrator make to deny Webserver access for Remote-User2? (Choose

A. Disable match-VIP in the Deny policy.
B. Set the Destination address as Deny_IP in the Allow-access policy.
C. Enable match VIP in the Deny policy.
D. Set the Destination address as Web_server in the Deny policy.

Correct Answer: AB


Which two protocol options are available on the CLI but not on the GUI when configuring an SD-WAN Performance SLA? (Choose two.)

B. ping
C. UDP-echo

Correct Answer: AC


In an explicit proxy setup, where is the authentication method and database configured?

A. Proxy Policy
B. Authentication Rule
C. Firewall Policy
D. Authentication scheme

Correct Answer: D


What devices form the core of the security fabric?

A. Two FortiGate devices and one FortiManager device
B. One FortiGate device and one FortiManager device
C. Two FortiGate devices and one FortiAnalyzer device
D. One FortiGate device and one FortiAnalyzer device

Correct Answer: C


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Which of the following would be a reason for implementing rewrites?

A. Page has been moved to a new URL
B. Page has been moved to a new IP address
C. Replace vulnerable functions.
D. Send connection to secure channel


What can an administrator do if a client has been incorrectly Period Blocked?

A. Disconnect the client from the network
B. Manually release the IP from the temporary Blacklist
C. Nothing, it is not possible to override a Period Block
D. Force a new IP address to the client.


How does an ADOM differ from a VDOM?

A. ADOMs do not have virtual networking
B. ADOMs improve performance by offloading some functions.
C. ADOMs only affect specific functions and do not provide full separation as VDOMs do.
D. Allows you to have 1 administrator for multiple tenants


What capability can FortiWeb add to your Web App that your Web App may or may not already have?

A. Automatic backup and recovery
B. High Availability
C. HTTP/HTML Form Authentication
D. SSL Inspection


You are deploying FortiWeb 6.0 in an Amazon Web Services cloud. Which 2 lines of this initial setup via CLI are
incorrect? (Choose two.)

NSE6 FWB-6.1 q5

A. 6
B. 9
C. 3
D. 2


Which of the following is true about Local User Accounts?

A. Must be assigned regardless of any other authentication
B. Can be used for Single Sign-On
C. Can be used for site publishing
D. Best suited for large environments with many users


What other considerations must you take into account when configuring Defacement protection

A. Use FortiWeb to block SQL Injections and keep regular backups of the Database
B. Also incorporate a FortiADC into your network
C. None. FortiWeb completely secures the site against defacement attacks
D. Configure the FortiGate to perform Anti-Defacement as well


A client is trying to start a session from a page that should normally be accessible only after they have
logged in. When a start page rule detects invalid session access, what can FortiWeb do? (Choose three.)

A. Reply with a “403 Forbidden” HTTP error
B. Allow the page access but log the violation
C. Automatically redirect the client to the login page
D. Display an access policy message, then allow the client to continue, redirecting them to their requested page
E. Prompt the client to authenticate


When generating a protection configuration from an auto-learning report what critical step must you do before
generating the final protection configuration?

A. Restart the FortiWeb to clear the caches
B. Drill down in the report to correct any false positives.
C. Activate the report to create t profile
D. Take the FortiWeb offline to apply the profile


In Reverse proxy mode, how does FortiWeb handle the traffic that does not match any defined policies?

A. Non-matching traffic is allowed
B. non-Matching traffic is held in the buffer
C. Non-matching traffic is Denied
D. Non-matching traffic is rerouted to FortiGate


Under what circumstances would you want to use the temporary uncompress feature of FortiWeb?

A. In the case of compression being done on the FortiWeb, to inspect the content of the compressed file
B. In the case of the file being a .MP3 music file
C. In the case of compression is done on the webserver, inspect the content of the compressed file.
D. In the case of the file being an .MP4 video


Which of the following FortiWeb features is part of the mitigation tools against OWASP A4 threats?

A. Sensitive info masking
B. Poison Cookie detection
C. Session Management
D. Brute Force blocking


When the FortiWeb is configured in Reverse Proxy mode and the FortiGate is configured as a SNAT device, what IP
address will the FortiGate\’s Real Server configuration point at?

A. Virtual Server IP on the FortiGate
B. Server\’s real IP
C. FortiWeb\’s real IP
D. IP Address of the Virtual Server on the FortiWeb

The answer is posted here:


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