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[Free New Dumps Version] New Release Cisco 700-501 Dumps PDF Proctored Exams Video for Validating Knowledge 50Q&As Practice Questions Online Q1-Q32

Which cisco certification should you take Cisco 700-501 dumps? 700-501 dumps, SMB Specialization for Engineers exam is consists of different types of multiple choice questions and answers. The https://www.pass4itsure.com/700-501.html dumps exam is crucial to be prepared effectively that certifies the Cisco knowledge and skills of successful candidates. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of SMB Specialization for Engineers. The course, SMB Specialization for Engineers, pass4itsure will help candidates prepare for this exam, as the content is aligned with the exam topics.

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 700-501 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-32)

QUESTION 1
Which two options are advantages of Cisco Data Center solutions over the competition? (Choose two.)
A. Embedded self service
B. Endtoend optimization
C. Scalability without complexity
D. Seamless installation
700-501 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
Which design practice is the best to reduce wireless CCI?
A. Place adjacent access points on different channels.
B. Place adjacent access points on the same channel.
C. Eliminate all signal overlap between access points.
D. Configure access points with the lowest supported data rate.
E. Place adjacent access points on nonoverlapping channels.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
Which two collaboration products are accessible (and relevant) to Express Collaboration Specialized partners? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Telepresence EX/90
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise
C. Cisco CRSX D
D. Cisco ASA 5510
E. Cisco Business Edition 6000
700-501 dumps Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
Which three options are business benefits of increased reliability? (Choose three)
A. Protects revenue streams
B. Enhances career paths
C. Promotes independence
D. Increases business resilience
E. Reduces maintenance and network operation costs
F. Validates business decisions
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 5
Which three competitive advantages does the Cisco Unified Computing System provide? (Choose three.)
A. Ease of planning via the CSIM capacity modeling tool.
B. Supports only rack server models to reduce cost.
C. Greater virtual desktop density without performance impact.
D. Supports only blade server models to reduce system complexity.
E. Lower cost for compute plus network infrastructure.
F. Simple operation; start in minutes, scale in seconds.
700-501 pdf Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 6
Which statement about TrustSec is true?
A. It provides defense against denial of service attacks
B. It provides a policybased, scalable platform that offers integrated posture, profiling, and guest services to make
contextaware access control decisions.
C. It monitors all the devices on the network, and turns them off when they are not needed.
D. It provides secure richmedia and collaboration services to optimize realtime voice and video applications.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which three options are features of the Cisco Validated Design Program? (Choose three.)
A. Onsite consulting from Cisco Advanced Services engineers.
B. Design guides organized by solution, technology, and architecture.
C. Details on guidelines and practices for different customer scenarios.
D. Specific guidance based on your customer\’s current environment.
E. System and solution designs that are documented and tested.
F. 24×7 phone support on network design questions.
700-501 vce Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 8
Which three decision makers should you focus on when proposing Cisco architectural solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Individual contributors
B. Operations managers
C. Purchasing officers
D. Technical decision makers
E. Business decision makers
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 9
When you design a customer network that is composed only of a pure Layer 2 switch and a router, which feature should
you enable to support communication among VLANs?
A. VLANs cannot communicate when only a router and a Layer 2 switch are used in the design.
B. Spanning Tree on the Layer 2 switch
C. Static routes on the Layer 2 switch
D. Trunking between the Layer 2 switch and the router
E. Uplink port aggregation on the router
700-501 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which three components are in Cisco ExpressPod? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Application Server Engine
B. Cisco UCS CSeries Servers
C. EMC Storage
D. HP Servers
E. NetApp Storage
F. Cisco Nexus Switches
G. Fujitsu Storage
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 11
Which two components are required for a Cisco centralized wireless deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Centralized AirNet
B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco SIO
D. Cisco AiroNet Access Point
E. Cisco Prime
F. Cisco ISR
700-501 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
Which statement about the Cisco Meraki cloud architecture is true?
A. Devices are configured in the cloud on first use and then managed locally after they are set up.
B. All Meraki devices are managed locally by default
C. Management data flows to the Cisco Meraki cloud and user traffic flows directly to its destination on the LAN or across the WAN.
D. All data flows through the Cisco Meraki cloud.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which two Cisco ISR series are needed to support a Cisco ServicesReady Engine to deploy services on demand?
(Choose two.)
A. 2900 Series
B. 2800 Series
C. 3900 Series
D. 800 Series
700-501 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
Which three switching technology components distinguish Cisco from competing products? (Choose three.)
A. Gigabit Ethernet
B. Flexible NetFlow
C. Medianet
D. Universal PoE
E. RSTP 802.1w
F. Multiprotocol Label Switching
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 15
Which three options are best security practices for VLANs? (Choose three.)
A. Disable Spanning Tree on all switches.
B. Disable all unused ports and put them in an unused VLAN
C. Always use a dedicated VLAN ID for all trunk ports.
D. Do not use VLAN 1 for anything.
E. Enable all unused ports for seamless configuration.
F. Put all user data traffic in VLAN 1.
700-501 vce Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 16
Which two benefits are delivered by Cisco Telepresence? (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration Experience is integrated.
B. Large files can be delivered between locations.
C. User experiences are unified.
D. Any endpoint can be used.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 17
Which option is a function of the Cisco MultiGigabit Fabric in a Cisco ISR router?
A. Provides connectivity between Cisco EHWIC, PVDM3, SM, and ISM modules through the Backplane.
B. Provides connectivity only to the Cisco EHWIC modules.
C. Provides connectivity to the Cisco Nexus fabric switch through the uplink.
D. Provides connectivity to legacy interface modules.
E. Provides connectivity to the Cisco Enhanced EtherSwitch Service Module uplink ports.
700-501 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which option is the backend security ecosystem that detects threat activity, researches and analyzes those threats, and
provides realtime updates along with best practices to allow organizations to be informed and protected?
A. Monitor Analysis Response System
B. Secure Infrastructure Optimization
C. Threat Operation Center
D. Security Intelligence Operations
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which option is a competitive advantage of Cisco security solutions?
A. Lowest priced offering
B. Stateful firewall capability
C. SpeedNet services
D. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
700-501 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Which three customer challenges do Cisco architectures help to solve? (Choose three.)
A. Increase ROI
B. Reduce independence
C. Provide creative solutions
D. Lower costs
E. Boost productivity
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 21
When LAN connectivity is designed which option increases high availability and minimizes network administration?
A. integrated switch in WAN router
B. stacked switch design
C. multiple switch design
D. single external switch design
700-501 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which two product portfolios help make up the Cisco Office in a Box solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS ESeries Servers
B. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900 and 3900 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 5000
D. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series
E. Cisco UCS CSeries Servers
F. Cisco Nexus 3048
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 23
Which two capabilities are found on the Cisco ASA 5512X that are not found on the Cisco ASA 5510? (Choose two.)
A. 50 VLANs
B. 250 sitetosite IPsec sessions
C. 6 Gigabit Ethernet
D. Multicore CPU
700-501 vce Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 24
Your customer is considering migrating to a Cisco Borderless Routing solution from their current vendor. Which best practice can close the sale?
A. Demonstrate how the Cisco solution saves money by consolidating devices and integrating management.
B. Mention that promotions and incentives are available through Cisco
C. Go through a check list and compare the performance capabilities between Cisco and the other vendor.
D. Show the customer a Cisco television commercial.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which best practice should be used to calculate PoE requirements for Cisco collaboration endpoints?
A. Attach all endpoints first and then use a power reporting tool to document the power requirements.
B. Assume that all ports with PoE endpoints attached will require 7 watts.
C. Assume that all ports will require 15.4 watts regardless of attached endpoints.
D. Select the endpoint device that requires the most power and assume that all endpoint devices will require the same amount.
E. Determine the power requirements of each of your endpoints and plan to support that amount.
700-501 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
A customer wants to deploy a solution that requires highquality video for full multimedia applications. Which two Cisco Unified Communication endpoint solutions should you recommend? (Choose two.)
A. 6900 Series
B. 8900 Series
C. 5900 Series
D. 9900 Series
E. 3900 Series
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 27
Which two statements about Collaborative Services are true? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco sells the service to the partner
B. They are sold to the customer by Cisco.
C. They enable the partner to deliver their own brand of service.
D. They are sold by the partner, and are delivered by Cisco.
700-501 dumps Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 28
Which three options can be connected directly to a Cisco Nexus switch? (Choose three.)
A. Token ring network
B. Storage area network
C. Server cluster
D. Local area network
E. 4G network
F. Wide area network
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 29
Which two customer benefits can be realized with Cisco Unified Data Center? (Choose two.)
A. 50 percent faster disaster recovery.
B. 60 percent less cost for cooling and power.
C. 15 percent faster in application performance, 40 percent less in infrastructure costs.
D. 50 percent less time in application deployment.
700-501 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco ASA 5500X Series over the Cisco ASA 5500 Series? (Choose two.)
A. Firewall throughput up to 12 Gb/s is provided.
B. The Cisco Content Security does not require an additional hardware module.
C. Cisco IPS throughput up to 650 Mb/s is provided
D. The Cisco IPS does not require an additional hardware module.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 31
Which three options are pillars of the Cisco Security Intelligence Operations? (Choose three.)
A. Dynamic updates
B. OpenBTS Database
C. Cloud base
D. Threat Operations Center
E. Sensor base
F. Manual updates
700-501 vce Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 32
Which two product portfolios help make up the FlexPod Express solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5000
B. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900, and 3900 Series
C. Cisco UCS ESeries Servers
D. Cisco Nexus 3048 Switch
E. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series
F. Cisco UCS CSeries Server
Correct Answer: DF

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Exam Code: 700-501
Exam Name: SMB Specialization for Engineers
Q&As: 50

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[Free New Dumps Version] Latest Release Cisco 700-260 Dumps ASSAM Exam Video Q&As Cisco Specialist Certification Covers All Key Points Q1-Q35

Which cisco certification should you take Cisco 700-260 dumps? 700-260 dumps, Advanced Security Architecture for Account Manager exam is consists of different types of multiple choice questions and answers. The https://www.pass4itsure.com/700-260.html dumps exam is crucial to be prepared effectively that certifies the Cisco knowledge and skills of successful candidates. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of Advanced Security Architecture for Account Manager. The course, Advanced Security Architecture for Account Manager, pass4itsure will help candidates prepare for this exam, as the content is aligned with the exam topics.

Pass4itsure Cisco 700-260 dumps ASSAM exam focuses on knowledge and expertise to tests a candidate’s knowledge of Advanced Security Architecture for Account Manager. The Cisco certification covers the Cisco video topics. The pass4itsure 700-260 dumps Cisco Advanced Security Architecture for Account Manager exam allows students to understand and realize the benefits of certification area. Students who complete Cisco 700-260 dumps ASSAM may get Cisco certification.

Do you provide free updates?

Thirdly, Pass4itsure exam dumps ensures the candidate will pass their exam at the first attempt. Yes, once there are some changes on 700-260 dumps exam, we will update the study materials timely to make sure that our customer can download the latest edition. If the candidate fails the exam, Pass4itsure will give him FULL REFUND. The updates are provided free for 120 days.

Free Pass4itsure Cisco 700-260 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-35)

QUESTION 1
Which Cisco network security solution helps protect against threats by monitoring and responding to any network
anomalies, continually analyzing for potential threats and reacting to them in real time?
A. Cisco Security Manager
B. Cisco ASA Firewall Services
C. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
D. Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
E. Cisco Web Security Appliance
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance
G. Cisco Identity Services Engine
H. Cisco Site-to-Site VPN
700-260 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Why might companies need Cisco Cyber Threat Defense?
A. They need cost-effective security management outsourcing.
B. They have increased bandwidth needs and allow BYOD
C. They need to add and provision servers faster than ever.
D. They have a lack of segmented or differentiated access.
E. They are being inundated with advanced, persistent threats.
F. They have an infrastructure of overlapping rule sets, complex inheritance, and oversubscription
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
Cutting IT administrative costs and leveraging current hardware are features that demonstrate which Cisco business
value?
A. Completeness
B. Cost effectiveness
C. Flexibility
D. Control
E. Protection
700-260 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
In addition to protection, control, and flexibility, which two business values are included in Cisco value propositions?
(Choose two.)
A. Low cost
B. Completeness
C. Cost effectiveness
D. Scalability
E. Integration
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
End-to-end protection and protection across the attack continuum are features that demonstrate which two Cisco
business values? (Choose two.)
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Protection
C. Control
D. Flexibility
E. Completeness
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
The unmatched security that Cisco offers is demonstrated by its long-standing experience in which two options?
(Choose two.)
A. Mobile solutions
B. Networks
C. Software
D. Security
E. Devices
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Reputation analysis and recommended remediation steps are examples of which customer cost saver?
A. Flexible licensing
B. Faster integration
C. Fewer resources to manage
D. Less time scoping a breach
700-260 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which two options benefit a partner who is selling Cisco security solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Incentives programs
B. Lower total cost of ownership
C. Simplified architecture solution
D. Opportunities for new revenue
E. Partner referrals
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Secure Access Control Server solution technology would you recommend to a corporation that is trying to connect computers, smart phones, and tablets in different locations to a customer network?
A. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
B. Cisco AnyConnect
C. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection
D. Cisco Identity Services Engine
E. Cisco TrustSec
700-260 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What is the first stage of the Cisco software lifecycle.where sellers engage with customers to create a strategy and
development plan?
A. upsell and cross sell
B. asset management
C. plan
D. activate
E. adopt
F. renew
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
The fact that Cisco network security offers unmatched visibility and control of network and application traffic is a prime example of which Cisco value?
A. Scalability
B. Time-to-value
C. Protection
D. Control
E. Flexibility
F. Agility
700-260 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Upon which component are security solutions directly built in the Cisco future solutions architecture framework?
A. Security intelligence operations
B. Third-party applications
C. Management and intelligence capabilities
D. Cisco security platforms
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
700-260 dumps
Consolidating platforms and appliances under a single provider is an example of which customer cost saver?
A. Less time scoping a breach
B. Fewer resources to manage
C. Faster integration
D. Flexible licensing
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which solution should you suggest to a company that wants to prevent employees from inadvertently sending
confidential information?
A. Cisco ASA Firewall Services
B. Cisco Security Manager
C. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection
D. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
E. Cisco Email Security Appliance
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 15
Leveraging current infrastructures without buying new appliances and avoiding lengthy customizations are examples of which customer cost saver?
A. Less time scoping a breach
B. Faster integration
C. Flexible licensing
D. Fewer resources to manage
700-260 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which option would be the primary concern of a CIO who is focused on advanced protection in the advanced protection use case?
A. Integrate solutions seamlessly
B. Onboard devices quickly
C. Expand into new markets
D. Reduce vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
The fact that Cisco Content Security integrates seamlessly with existing security and network infrastructures is a prime example of which Cisco value?
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. scalability
E. flexibility
F. agility
700-260 exam Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 18
Increased employee productivity, confidence in data confidentiality, and increased visibility are features that
demonstrate which Cisco business value?
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Protection
C. Control
D. Flexibility
E. Completeness
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which four options are examples of Cisco network security solutions? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco Security Manager
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Web Security Appliance
D. Cisco Identity Services Engine
E. Cisco Site-to-Site VPN
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance
G. Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
H. Cisco ASA Firewall Services
700-260 dumps Correct Answer: BEGH

QUESTION 20
Why do partners often have a hard time selling their new security solutions to customers?
A. Customers have antiquated solutions.
B. Customers show a lack of concern over malware and threats.
C. Customers boast completely secure environments.
D. Customers have overcrowded portfolios of security solutions from multiple vendors.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
At which point during the attack continuum does a customer experience limited remediation tools?
A. Across the entire continuum
B. During
C. Before
D. After
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which four options are Cisco industry differentiators? (Choose four.)
A. Uncontested threat blocking
B. Best-in-class technologies
C. Lowest price
D. Unparalleled commitment to security
E. Largest selection of security solutions
F. Unmatched support and services
G. Comprehensive vision for security
Correct Answer: BDFG

QUESTION 23
Given the award-winning resources and support that Cisco offers, with what kind of customers can partners create
unique relationships?
A. Customers who can be the first to receive new innovations
B. Customers who can access 24-hour support around the world
C. Customers who can earn higher margins on each deal that is sold
D. Customers who can take advantage of incentives programs
700-260 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which option would be a primary security concern of a large, growing corporation that is trying to scale its data center growth with its growing business in the secure data center use case?
A. Inexperienced IT staff
B. Lack of scalable and flexible security options
C. No employee remote access
D. Lack of device variability
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
According to recent studies, what percentage of global companies has experienced a security breach?
A. 100 percent
B. 75 percent
C. 33 percent
D. 5 percent
E. 0 percent
700-260 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Which component of the Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure technology solution enables centralized management for the entire solution and is a primary differentiator from the Cisco Secure Data Center virtualization and cloud?
A. Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Security Manager
D. Cisco Fire SIGHT Management Center
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which two solutions are main components of Cisco Content Security? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection
B. Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
C. Cisco Web Security Appliance
D. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
E. Cisco Remote-Access VPN
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance
700-260 dumps Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 28
Which two options are features of Cisco Enterprise License Agreements? (Choose two.)
A. One agreement for each part of the business
B. Short-term lifespan under one year
C. Unforeseen costs and fees in the future
D. Organic growth up to 20 percent
E. Up-front pricing
F. Limited consumption models
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 29
What is the primary customer challenge that is created by the wide variety of security solution providers on the market?
A. Choosing the right provider
B. Contacting all providers for information
C. Finding a low-cost option
D. Determining the single best security product
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which three options describe the main problems with traditional security solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Security gaps
B. Lack of firewall
C. Pieced together
D. Missing components
E. Fragmented solutions
F. Lack of management solutions
G. Lack of cloud solution
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 31
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Identity Services Engine
D. Cisco Security Manager
E. Cisco TrustSec
700-260 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which two aspects of Cisco solutions save customers money? (Choose two.)
A. 100 percent effectiveness
B. Faster integration
C. Fewer resources to manage
D. Lowest-cost solutions
E. Incentives programs
F. Complete replacement of current infrastructure
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 33
The fact that Cisco leads the industry in Gartner\’s Magic Quadrants for email, web, NGIPS, and NGFW is a prime
example of which Cisco differentiator?
A. Comprehensive vision for security
B. One solution to fit every need
C. Unparalleled commitment
D. Best-in-class technologies
E. Lowest price points
700-260 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
Which technology solution can resolve the inability of a customer to properly restrict and authorize access to protected resources while still introducing new applications, devices, and business partnerships?
A. Cisco Secure Data Center
B. Cisco Cyber Threat Defense
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Cloud
E. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure
F. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Which Cisco security benefit is a differentiator that allows partners to plan and model their businesses?
A. Comprehensive vision for security
B. One solution to fit every need
C. Unparalleled commitment
D. Lowest price points
E. Best-in-class technologies
700-260 dumps Correct Answer: A

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700-260 dumps
You may have also seen on other sites related training materials, but will find their Source pass4itsure of you carefully compare. The pass4itsure provide more comprehensive information, including the current exam questions, with their wealth of experience and knowledge by pass4itsure team of experts to come up against Cisco certification 700-260 dumps exam.

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Exam Code: 700-260
Exam Name: Advanced Security Architecture for Account Manager
Q&As: 110

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Success:
“I passed my exam earlier this morning. You know what? I just use study materials from pass4itsure, no other books at all! It is really helpful if you do not get much time to prepare your exam. You should have a try. It won’t let you down. Why do you want to take roundabout ways if there is a shortcut? Trust me or not. Good luck to you all. Bob”

Awesome:
“This is my first time to sit a Cisco exam, so you will know how nervous I was! Thanks for your help, Kingexam! I passed. I think 95% questions are more or less the same as your guidance. Some questions with the answer are in the different sequence, and, sorry to point out that one answer of your questions is incorrect, I’ll email you to let you know, you guys need to revise it. Well, I think your kingexam’s guidance is still more accurate than others. The most important thing is I got passed?🙂?Paul Hussler”

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Which cisco certification should you take Cisco 700-039 dumps? 700-039 dumps, Advanced Collaboration Architecture Sales Engineer exam is consists of different types of multiple choice questions and answers. The https://www.pass4itsure.com/700-039.html dumps exam is crucial to be prepared effectively that certifies the Cisco knowledge and skills of successful candidates. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of Advanced Collaboration Architecture Sales Engineer. The course, Advanced Collaboration Architecture Sales Engineer, pass4itsure will help candidates prepare for this exam, as the content is aligned with the exam topics.

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 700-039 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-24)

QUESTION 1
Which two characteristics are differentiators for the Cisco ISR router compared to the competition? (Choose two.)
A. Decoupling the delivery of software from hardware on optional service modules
B. Integration of WLAN access points
C. Routes network traffic down alternative paths to avoid congestion, which switches cannot do
D. Support of analog voice connections
E. Operational simplicity through a single, universal Cisco IOS Software image. Services Ready Engine, EnergyWise
innovations, and investment protection
700-039 exam Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 2
Which tool offers a blueprint for designing and deploying a full-service, comprehensive network to support business needs?
A. Cisco Smart Business Roadmap
B. Cisco Collaboration Use Case Tool
C. Cisco Steps to Success
D. Cisco Smart Business Architecture
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
In which layer of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture do you find session and content management?
A. Collaboration applications layer
B. Endpoint device layer
C. Infrastructure layer
D. Collaboration services layer
700-039 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
The customer satisfaction index is an important business Key Performance Indicator Which building block of the business model references that KPI?
A. Channels
B. CRM
C. Key activities
D. Customer segments
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which three statements are benefits of a financial analysis? (Choose three.)
A. It uses ROI measures that are always accepted by other stakeholders or the CFO.
B. It increases the size of the deal and the potential services revenue
C. It highlights strategic and tactical benefits.
D. It requires minimal resources and is risk-free
E. It encourages the customer to examine Cisco Unified Communications in more detail.
F. It is a simple process and it can be completed in time, well within the sales cycle.
700-039 pdf Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 6
Which two statements describe how Cisco Validated Designs help to build BOM faster? (Choose two)
A. They help a presales engineer to better understand a customer\’s business
B. They help to verify any BOM that is created
C. Cisco architects use Cisco Validated Designs to attach a network diagram to a BOM.
D. Cross-architectural aspects assist with proper design.
E. Proven, tested designs ensure BOM will not change frequently.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
Which three options are benefits of Cisco Prime Collaboration? (Choose three.)
A. It enables automatic monitoring and repair of Cisco devices and software applications.
B. It enables comprehensive monitoring and diagnostics for Cisco Unified Communications and Cisco Telepresence systems.
C. It provides historical reporting and trending on Collaboration business metrics.
D. It verifies whether the network is secure and efficient.
E. It reduces the expertise needed to manage changes that occur when the network is operational.
F. It ensures consistent configurations by increasing the per-user configuration time.
700-039 vce Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 8
Cisco supply chain agility solutions are addressing a crucial part within the manufacturing industry. Which of the following is the main driver of that branch of industry?
A. Adopt the supply chain to changing markets
B. Achieve lower unit costs
C. Achieve stronger competitive position in the marketplace
D. Increase utilization of manufacturing plants
E. Ensure quality standards to customers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which three roles belong to an informal buying center that the account manager must be aware of? (Choose three)
A. Dealer
B. Gatekeeper
C. Buyer
D. Seller
E. Initiator
F. Partner
700-039 exam Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 10
Security plays an essential role in the Cisco Collaboration Architecture In which layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture is security implemented?
A. Advanced Cisco security solutions are implemented in all layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture model.
B. Security is implemented in all the layers except in the medianet services interface layer.
C. Cisco security solutions are integrated into the infrastructure layer and partially into the collaboration services layer
D. Cisco provides advanced security solutions in the infrastructure and collaboration services layers while the
collaboration applications layer security is ensured by third-party solutions.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You are discussing Cisco Collaboration Architecture with the IT manager of an organization. Which three statements are
effective responses that relate to the IT manager\’s concerns? (Choose three)
A. Collaboration tools improve upon ways in which corporations can enforce employee accountability.
B. The Collaboration Architecture, by design, ensures the highest availability.
C. Improved collaboration tools improve the end-user experience and will make the IT manager more popular
D. A centralized Collaboration Architecture deployment will ease management and save money.
E. Initial costs may be higher, but comparing the Total Cost of Ownership over a five-year period will show that the
Cisco product is less expensive.
F. A fully-deployed Collaboration Architecture supports efficient training in a variety of ways
700-039 dumps Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 12
Which two reasons make the Cisco Collaboration Architecture important for the marketing manager? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco Collaboration Architecture provides real-time call detail records.
B. Cisco Collaboration Architecture can support the sales force to achieve higher productivity.
C. The marketing manager is interested in how the Cisco Collaboration Architecture will help provide a better corporate image.
D. The Cisco Collaboration Architecture improves the means by which a company can stay in touch with customers.
E. Transition to Collaboration Architecture is easier than transition to a closed, legacy system
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
Which statement about Medianet is true?
A. Medianet enables integration of video infrastructure with network infrastructure.
B. Medianet enables Cisco Collaboration network management
C. Medianet is an intelligent network that is optimized for rich media
D. Medianet is the network infrastructure layer of video networks
700-039 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which two of the following are concerns that an operations manager may have in making a decision on Cisco Collaboration? (Choose two.)
A. Fast adoption of organizational changes
B. Changing customer demands
C. Reliability of the company infrastructure
D. Go-to-market time of new products or services
E. How to engage with external suppliers quickly
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
Once you define the customer\’s value chain, you will be able to identify departments managing core processes where the Cisco Collaboration Architecture will bring highest business value. Which two of the following departments typically manage core processes? (Choose two.)
A. Procurement
B. Sales and Marketing
C. Logistics and Operations
D. HR Management
E. Research and Development
700-039 vce Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 16
Which two statements indicate that the customer needs an infrastructure that can efficiently accommodate organizational changes? (Choose two.)
A. We need technology to dictate and lead business processes.
B. Collaboration applications must be flexible to quickly adapt to changes in user demand.
C. Collaboration equipment must be deployed at several locations and data centers.
D. The lifetime of any technology in our company is approximately two to three years
E. Future success of our company depends on operational agility.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 17
Which option represents an organizational change objection?
A. We are expanding and acquiring new business. This is the wrong time to switch to collaboration.
B. How can we justify the fact that it is far more expensive than upgrading our existing solution?
C. How can a collaboration architecture help reduce our operating expenses?
D. A migration is impossible without high costs or operational fallouts.
700-039 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which two options are examples of partner services that involve addressing the culture of an organization so that collaboration applications are adopted more readily? (Choose two.)
A. Development of collaboration maps
B. Analysis of communication process workshops
C. End-user education and training
D. Application-readiness assessment
E. Internal marketing
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 19
Which of the following is a main business requirement in the financial services industry?
A. Reduce time to market for new innovative financial products
B. Integration of financial trading applications at the desktop
C. Customer retention
D. High-performance trading
E. Lower IT expenses through virtualization
700-039 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Which three building blocks of the business model canvas help to achieve efficiency? (Choose three.)
A. key partners
B. key resources
C. revenue streams
D. channels
E. cost structure
F. customer segments
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 21
Which three options are ways that customers benefit from the Cisco Technology Developer Program? (Choose three.)
A. Opportunity to participate in Cisco research and development to develop next-generation Cisco Collaboration solutions
B. Exponentially expands the number and quality of rich, new business solutions
C. Display the Cisco Compatible logo in association with their product offering
D. Faster more successful deployments
E. Complete access to Cisco technologies and support resources
700-039 pdf Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 22
The Finance manager of an organization is concerned about switching their existing PBX to IP. Which response
describes the value of the Collaboration Architecture?
A. Cisco and Cisco Partners have vast experience in smooth migration scenarios. Deployment has no risks
B. Collaboration Architecture is much more than just IP telephony. A fully-deployed solution optimizes business
processes and enhances customer satisfaction.
C. Our competitors are sticking to PBX solution and are losing market share Collaboration is a risk-free approach.
D. Our solutions create a satisfied workforce, which results in higher productivity.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
What is the outcome of mapping the collaboration maps to the Cisco Collaboration Architecture?
A. Identify the completion of an architecture roadmap
B. Identify sources for additional revenue
C. Identify the starting point of an architecture roadmap
D. Identify which elements of the Cisco solutions are needed to build an architectural roadmap for customer requirements
700-039 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which two options are differentiators of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture? (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration tools are set up all at once
B. Ability of Cisco to integrate with many other collaboration solutions
C. Integration of Cisco Presence into the solution
D. Business-to-business extensibility
E. Prestige of the solution
Correct Answer: BD

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Exam Name: Advanced Collaboration Architecture Sales Engineer
Q&As: 60

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 600-460 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-18)

QUESTION 1
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise with Cisco Unified CVP, which two statements about how to increase the Cisco Unified CVP availability are true? (Choose two.)
A. Must have SIP Proxy server to pass messages between the gateways and the Cisco Unified CVP servers.
B. Must have voice gateway TCL scripts to handle conditions where the gateways cannot contact the Cisco Unified CVP Call Server to direct the call correctly.
C. Add load balancers to load balance .wav file requests across multiple Cisco Unified CVP Media Servers.
D. Dedicate duplexed VRU peripheral gateways for each Cisco Unified CVP call server.
E. For a single data center with centralized deployment, deploy Cisco Unified CVP with N:N redundancy.
600-460 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
In the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise solution, which process is responsible for peer-to-peer synchronization?
A. ccagent
B. mds
C. router
D. opc
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is the semantic meaning of the RouterCallKeyDay variable?
A. It represents a number that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could increment from 151191 to 151192.
B. It represents a string that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could advance from “Monday” to “Tuesday”.
C. It represents a number that uniquely identifies the call during the day it was taken. For example: at midnight it would reset to zero.
D. It represents a sequence number used for ordering rows for the same call.
E. It represents a string that corresponds to a Globally Unique Call Identifier.
600-460 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise is deployed with Cisco Finesse and you make changes to CTI Server, Contact Center Enterprise Administration, or cluster settings. Which service must be restarted for changes to take effect?
A. Cluster Manager
B. System Application Agent
C. Cisco DB
D. Cisco Tomcat
E. Cisco Dirsync
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Within Cisco Unified ICM, which process handles communication between the router and peripheral gateway components?
A. dbagent
B. opcs
C. ccagent
D. mds
600-460 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which option about the ICM heartbeat interval and maximum number of missed heartbeats allowed between duplexed sides over the private network is true?
A. 100 ms, 3 heartbeats
B. 100 ms, 5 heartbeats
C. 400 ms, 3 heartbeats
D. 400 ms, 5 heartbeats
E. The heartbeat interval and maximum missed heartbeats settings can be customized by a system administrator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You are about to perform a Tech Refresh upgrade for a customer. The customer wants more details about how the historical data is maintained. The customer has two sides each with a router, logger, and HDS- DDS. Which is the best explanation?
A. The loggers exchange historical data to keep themselves up to date and each logger keeps its local HDS-DDS up to date.
B. The routers exchange historical data to keep themselves up to date and each router keeps its local HDS-DDS up to date.
C. The HDS-DDSs continuously synchronized the historical data to keep themselves up to date.
D. Each side synchronized its data from the logger using SQL replication.
600-460 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
When performing an upgrade to Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, which components do not need to be upgraded together during the same maintenance window?
A. Cisco Unified ICM call router and logger
B. Cisco Unified ICM call router and administrative workstation
C. Cisco Unified ICM call router and peripheral gateway
D. administrative workstation and HDS-DDS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, if the private network fails but the visible network is still operational, which statement is true?
A. The system stops routing calls because it cannot function without a private network.
B. The private network data is rerouted automatically over the visible network.
C. Both call routers go active and attempt to split the system until the private network is restored.
D. The system continues to operate but with only one call router in simplex mode.
600-460 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which two things can cause the “Send to VRU” to fail within an ICM script for Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal? (Choose two.)
A. No network VRU is configured for the routing client.
B. VRU PIM just got out of service.
C. Incorrect media file name.
D. Send to originator is not enabled.
E. Primary VRU peripheral gateway is out of service.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
600-460 dumps
This exhibit is the setup of the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Server. Based on this configuration, which two options must be configured in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Configuration Manager tool? (Choose two.)
A. A network trunk group explorer trunk group should be configured on the Cisco Unified CVP PG peripherals with a peripheral number of 5000.
B. A network trunk group explorer trunk group should be configured on the Cisco Unified CVP PG peripherals with a peripheral number of 100.
C. A VRU PG peripheral should be configured with a peripheral ID of 5000.
D. A network VRU should be configured with a label of maximum length 10 digits.
E. A PG explorer peripheral should be configured with a peripheral ID of 200.
600-460 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution with SIP Dialer, which option lists the correct order to setup the components (assuming the agent peripheral gateway host already exists)?
A. configure media routing peripheral gateway, dialer; install media routing peripheral gateway, dialer
B. configure dialer, port map, media routing peripheral gateway; install dialer, media routing peripheral gateway
C. install dialer, media routing peripheral gateway; configure dialer, port map, media routing peripheral gateway
D. install media routing peripheral gateway, dialer; configure media routing peripheral gateway, dialer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
The customer is using Cisco Unified Intelligence Center on a virtual machine and reports that the license has become invalid. Which four options can cause this problem? (Choose four.)
A. Time zone was changed.
B. Secondary DNS was changed.
C. Hostname was changed.
D. Number of historical reports exceeded the system limits.
E. Cisco Unified Intelligence Center Publisher is not in service.
F. IP address was changed.
G. Primary NTP server was changed.
H. Number of concurrent real-time reports exceeded the system limits.
600-460 pdf Correct Answer: ACFG

QUESTION 14
Which three rules apply when configuring agent teams? (Choose three.)
A. An agent can be a member of only one agent team.
B. An agent can be a member of multiple agent teams.
C. An agent team can have only one primary supervisor.
D. An agent team can have multiple primary supervisors.
E. All agents that belong to an agent team and all supervisors for that agent team must be on the same peripheral.
F. All agents that belong to an agent team and all supervisors for that agent team can be on multiple peripherals.
G. An agent team can have only one primary supervisor but can be a member of multiple teams.
H. An agent team can have multiple primary supervisors but can only be a member of one teams.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 15
Which option describes the steps to configure a non-global Not Ready code for a Cisco Unified ICM team using Contact Center Enterprise solution with Cisco Finesse?
A. Add Not Ready reason code in Cisco Finesse (uncheck “Global?” check box), add reason code to team.
B. Add team in ICM, add Not Ready reason code in Cisco Finesse (uncheck “Global?” check box), add reason code to team in Cisco Finesse.
C. Add team in ICM, add Not Ready reason code in Cisco Finesse, add reason code to team in Cisco Finesse.
D. Add team in ICM, add Not Ready reason code in ICM, add reason code to team in Cisco Finesse.
600-460 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which option lists the settings in the registry to enable IPsec logging with Cisco Unified ICM?
A. Add Key = IPSec; DWORD Value = Enable_Logging; DWORD Value = 0
B. Add Key = Oakley; DWORD Value = EnableLogging; DWORD Value = 1
C. Add Key = Security; DWORD Value = Enable-Logging; DWORD Value = 1
D. Add Key = Oak; DWORD Value = EnableLog; DWORD Value = 1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which two options affect the Ring No Answer behavior of the agent with the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Solution and Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal? (Choose two.)
A. CVP transfer timeout timer setting
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager unattended port setting
C. Agent Desktop Ring No Answer time setting
D. Target Requery in an ICM script queue step
600-460 exam Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 18
With Cisco Finesse, which two options list the two commands to stop and start the Tomcat service? (Choose two.)
A. To stop the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service stop Tomcat
B. To start the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service start Tomcat
C. To stop the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service start Tomcat
D. To start the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils start Cisco Tomcat
E. To stop the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service stop Cisco Tomcat
F. To start the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service start Cisco Tomcat
Correct Answer: EF

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 500-005 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-10)

Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
Which TX9000 display choice is best for reducing possible issues with viewing angles for conference
participants?
A. LCD
B. plasma
C. LED
D. CRT
E. HDTV
500-005 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which two factors are crucial to the immersive Cisco TelePresence experience? (Choose two.)
A. aesthetics
B. acoustics
C. room shape
D. number of windows
E. number of active participants
F. ceiling height
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
The control cable for the 42-inch Auto Collaboration display connects to which component?
A. PS1 codec
B. presentation codec
C. LCU
D. AV expansion box
500-005 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of these determines the specific role for each codec?
A. the firmware
B. wiring position
C. software revision
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Using the following table, correctly identify the location of each component.
Where is each component located?
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 6
When using the TX9000 AV expansion box, how many total video output signals can be obtained using a
single video input?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
E. five
F. six
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which device is connected to the TX9000 AV expansion box for video input?
A. presentation (TS4) codec
B. collaboration/presentation display
C. center (TS1) codec
D. built-in video splitter
E. left (TS2) and right (TS3) codec
500-005 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which three components does the LCU control? (Choose three.)
A. the lighting fixture power
B. the primary codec AV input controls
C. the projector
D. the room HVAC controls
E. the LCD settings
F. the PTZ camera controls
G. the yaw of the camera cluster
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 9
From where does the LCU receive its instructions?
A. Cisco TelePresence Touch 12 screen
B. center (TS1) codec
C. left (TS2) codec
D. right (TS3) codec
E. presentation (TS4) codec
500-005 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
The configured speed-dial numbers are located in which section of the Cisco TelePresence Touch 12?
A. Favorites section
B. Speed Dialing section
C. Meeting section

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 400-351 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-17)

QUESTION 1
Which feature intersection of a Cisco 5760 Wireless LAN Controller with HA AP SSO is not true?
A. Switchover during AP preimage download causes the Aps to start image download all over again from the new active controller.
B. Upon guest anchor controller switchover, mobility tunnels stay active, Aps remain connected, clients rejoin at MA or MC, and clients are anchored on the new active controller.
C. wIPS information is synced to the standby unit. The standby unit does not have to relean wIPS information upon switchover.
D. Roamed clients that have their data path going through the mobility tunnel endpoint “becomed Local” in case of Layer 2 with sticky anchoring and Layer 3 roam. Layer 2 roamed clients are not affected except when roaming occurs
between Cisco Unified Wireless Network and CA controller.
400-351 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
On a Cisco autonomous AP, the maximum number of attempts to send a packet (packet retries) is set to 32 by default. Which statement about the result when the AP has tried to send a packet for that number of attempts and no response is received from the client is true?
A. The access point drops the packet.
B. The client MAC address is excluded for 60 seconds.
C. The access point resets the radio interface.
D. The access point disassociates the client.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two options are new features that are supported by IGMPv3 compared to IGMPv2.(Choose two)
A. It extends IGMP which allows for an explicit maximum response time field.
B. It adds support for source filtering.
C. Router can now send a group-specific query
D. It adds support for IGMP Leave Message.
E. It supports the link local address 224.0.0.22. which is the destination IP address for membership reports.
400-351 dumps Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 4
400-351 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. What is the best way to resolve this issue?
A. Install a server certificate signed by a well-know public CA on the WLC.
B. Disable certificate checks on the client.
C. Install a server certificate signed by a well-known public CA on the Radius Server
D. Use the certificate authority on the Cisco Identity Services Engine.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which option describes the function of the Intercloud Fabric Extender?
A. It provides the network overlay functionality between the used clouds or cloud models.
B. It establishes a secure site-to-site tunnel to the intercloud fabric agent in the private cloud.
C. It applies network policies and collects and reports VEM-related intercloud statistics.
D. It establishes a secure site-to-site tunnel to the intercloud fabric switch in the provider cloud.
400-351 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A user is presented with the underlying hardware and software needed to develop and offer applications via the Internet from a cloud service provider. Which cloud model is this user consuming?
A. Software as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Application as a Service
D. Infrastructure as a Service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
CFG autonoumous
400-351 dumps
400-351 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements about this extract of the configuration of an autonomous AP are true? (Choose three)
A. This configuration is of a non-root bridge access point.
B. The RADIUS server IP address I misconfigured. It points to the AP itself. Which creates a loop for the RADIUS packets.
C. This configuration allows bridging of VLANs 3 and 4.
D. The SSID is not visible for clients proting the wireless medium.
E. The administrator cannot access the AP via the web GUI using a secure connection.
F. The native VLAN must be VLAN 1 to match the native VLAN configured on the switch to which the AP is connecting.
400-351 vce Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 8
Which option is a feature of a Cisco Autonormous AP that prevents over-the-air direct P2P communication, which forces all traffic to hit the first-hop router where security policy is enforced?
A. Wi-Fi Direct Client Policy
B. P2P Secure Packet
C. Public Secure Packet Forwarding
D. P2P Blocking Action
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which statement about 802.11h is true?
A. DFS feature works irrespective of whether the channel setting on WLC is set to auto or manual.
B. 802.11h is not a mandatory standard under FCC regulations.
C. The FCC does not require 802.11h to be supported in the 5 GHz band.
D. When the radio detects a radar, it can use the channel for only 20 minutes at a time.
400-351 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
In a converged access deployment, which two statements about mobility agents are true? (Choose two.)
A. It maintains a client database of locally served clients.
B. It manages mobility-related configuration.
C. It handles RF functions.
D. It is the first level in the converged access hierarchy.
E. It is a mandatory element in the converged access design.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 11
Heartbeats are used to maintain the high-availability status of an application. Which factor is most important?
A. Bandwidth
B. Latency
C. Routing
D. Round-trip time
400-351 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
When a FlexConnect AP is in the “local authentication,local switching” state, it handles client authentication and switches client data packets locally. This state is valid in standalone mode and connected mode. Which three statements about a FlexConnect AP are true? (Choose three).
A. In connected mode, the AP provides minimal information about the locally authenticated client to the controller. This information is not available on the controller policy type. Access VLAN. VLAN name. supported rates. Encryption ciphter.
B. In connected mode, the access point provides minimal information about the locally authenticated client to the controller. However, this information is available to the controller policy type., access VLAN, VLAN name, supported rates, encryption cipher.
C. Local authentication is useful where you cannot maintain a remote office setup of a minimum bandwidth of 128 kbps with the round-trip latency no greater than 100 ms and the maximum transmission unit no smaller than 576 bytes.
D. Local authentication is useful where you cannot maintain a remote office setup of a minimum bandwidth of 128 kbps with the round-trip latency no greater than 150 ms and the maximum transmission unit no higher than 500 bytes.
E. Local authentication in connected mode does not require any WLAN configuration.
F. Local authentication can be enabled only on the WLAN of a FlexConnect AP that is in local switching mode.
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 13
400-351 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Your customer is testing native supplicant provisioning using Cisco ISE (192.168.1.2) and a Cisco WLC. The Cisco WLC has an ACL configured on it called onboarding. During the testing of many different client devices (Android,Apple,Windows) it appears that these devices are never redirected to the onboarding portal, though they can access the Internet. Which statement explains this behavior?
A. There is nothing wrong with ACL. The problem must exist either on the client side or on the configured ISE authorization profile.
B. The ISE ACLs have a permit statement. Redirection will not take place unless the ISE IP address is denied.
C. The ACL has a permit any at the end. Redirection does not take place unless the client hits a web site that gets denied.
D. The source and destination port in the ACL lines are not set up correctly.
400-351 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
You are setting up a Cisco access point in repeater mode with a non-Cisco access point as the parent and you use this interface configuration on your Cisco access point.
400-351 dumps
You are getting the following error message. Which reason for this issue is true?
400-351 dumps
A. “dot11 extension aironet” is missing under the interface Dot11Radio 0 interface
B. When repeater mode is used, unicast-flooding must be enabled to allow Aironet IE communications.
C. The parent AP MAC address has not been defined.
D. Repeater mode only works between Cisco access points.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
FlexConnect APs have already been deployed in a branch office for local switching. Currently the WLAN in the large auditorium is proposed to change to a high-density design and thus some low data rates are proposed to be disabled while keeping the data rates in other areas under the same Cisco WLC. Which two configuration settings must be modified in the Cisco WLC to achieve this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. RF Profiles
B. Mobility Groups
C. FlexConnect Groups
D. AP Groups
E. Fape profile.
400-351 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 16
400-351 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Which option describes what this sequence of commands achieves on a Cisco Autonomous AP?
400-351 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
You are a network administrator at ACME corporation where you have a pair of Cisco 5760 Wireless LAN Controllers deployed for HA AP SSO mode. A failover event occurs and the secondary Cisco 5760 controller moves into the active role. Which three statements about the failover event are true? (Choose three)
A. The new active controller does not need to relearn the shun list from IPS and other MCs, whch eliminates the need to redistribute it to the Mas.
B. Rogue APs and clients are not synced to the standby and are relearned upon switchover.
C. Switchover during AP preimage download causes the Aps to start image download all over again from the new active controller.
D. Netflow records are already exported upon switchover and collection starts resuming in the new active controller.
E. Witch SSO, wIPS information is already synced with the standby unit and this information need not be relearned upon switchover.
F. Upon guest anchor controller switchover, mobility tunnels stay active, Aps remain connected, clients rejoin at MA or MC, and clients are anchored on the new active controller.
400-351 exam Correct Answer: BCF

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Exam Code: 400-351
Exam Name: CCIE Wireless Written Exam
Q&As: 277

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 400-251 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-17)

QUESTION 1
Drag and drop the protocols on the left onto their descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
400-251 exam Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the desktop-security terms from the left onto their right definitions on the right?
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
Drag each OSPF security feature on the left to its description on the right.
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
400-251 dumps Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
Drag each step in the configuration of a cisco ASA NSEL export to a NETFLOW collector on the left into the correct order of operations on the right?
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Drag each IPsec term on the left to the definition on the right?
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
400-251 pdf Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Drag each Management Frame Protection feature on the Left to the function it performs on the right.
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop step in the flow of packets on a DMVPN network using GDOI on the left into the correct sequence on the right.
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
400-251 vce Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Drag each attack type on the left to the matching attack category on the right.
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
Drag each field in authentication header on the left into the order in which it appears in the header on the right?
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
400-251 exam Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Drag each MACsec term on the left to the right matching statement on the right?
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Drag each IPv6 extension header on the left into the recommended order for more than one extension header In the same IPv6 pack
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
400-251 dumps Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Drag each step in the SCEP workflow on the left into the correct order of operations on the right?
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Drag each ESP header field on the left into corresponding field -length category on the right?
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
400-251 pdf Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps

QUESTION 14
DRAG DROP
Drag each IP transmission and fragmentation term on the left to the matching statement on the right?
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps

QUESTION 15
DRAG DROP
Drag and Drop each Cisco Intrusion Prevention System anomaly detection event action on the left onto the matching description on the right.
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
400-251 vce Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps

QUESTION 16
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop ESP header field on the left to the appropriate field length on the right.
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps

QUESTION 17
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop each RADIUS packet field on the left onto the matching description on the right.
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
400-251 exam Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps

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Q&As: 385

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 300-070 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-21)

QUESTION 1
Which statement about the relationship between gateways and route groups is true?
A. Each gateway can belong to only one route group and can be listed only once within that route group.
B. Each gateway can belong to only one route group and can be listed multiple times within that route group.
C. Each gateway can belong to multiple route groups and can be listed only once within each route group.
D. Each gateway can belong to multiple route groups and can be listed multiple times within each route group.
300-070 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Which dial plan function is used to restrict calls that are made by a lobby phone to internal extensions only?
A. Path selection.
B. Endpoint addressing.
C. Manipulation of dialed destination.
D. Calling privileges.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 3
Which two are enterprise parameters? (Choose two.)
A. User search limit
B. T302 parameter
C. Enable Call Detail Records
D. Enable Dependency Records
E. codecs parameters for voice media-streaming applications
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 4
A user’s phone Call Forward No Answer setting has been configured to forward to a hunt pilot. If all call hunting options have been exhausted and the Forward Hunt No Answer feature has been configured to use Personal Preference settings, to which of these will calls to this phone be forwarded?
A. the default destination configured under Service Parameters
B. any destination configured under the user’s DN Personal Settings configuration
C. the destination specified under the user’s Call Forward No Coverage settings
D. voice mail
E. no other destination; each call will continue to ring until the caller hangs up
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can implement the personal preferences option. To do so, configure a user phone so that the Forward No Answer field redirects the call to a hunt pilot, which searches for someone else to answer the call. If call hunting fails because all the hunting options are exhausted or because a timeout period expires, the call can be sent to a personalized destination for the person who was originally called. For example, if you set the Forward No Coverage field in the Directory Number Configuration page to a voice-mail number, the call will be sent to the voice mailbox of that person if hunting fails.

QUESTION 5
Which three are functions of Cisco Unified Border Element? (Choose three.)
A. client registration
B. H.323 and SIP interworking
C. Lync interworking
D. transcoding
E. phone proxy
F. mobile and remote access
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which configuration output indicates a properly configured T1 digital voice interface?
A. controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zspri-group timeslots 1-24!
B. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zs!
C. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zspri-group timeslots 1-24isdn switch-type primary-ni!
D. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zs!dial-peer voice 1 potsdestination-pattern 54….direction-inward.dialport 0/0/0:23
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
Which option is the most highly recommended option to install Cisco TelePresence Conductor on the virtual machine?
A. Thick Provision Eager Zeroed
B. Thick Provision Lazy Zeroed
C. Thick Provision
D. Thin Provision
300-070 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 8
Callers inform you that they hear a second dial tone after dialing the number 4085550123. Which dial-peer configuration command resolves this issue?
A. answer-address 408555….
B. destination-pattern 91[2-9]..[2-9]…..
C. forward digits all
D. direct-inward dial
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 9
An organization has built their video infrastructure to perform ad hoc video calls, but they also need to conduct managed video conference calls. Which hardware component is needed to conduct these calls?
A. VCS-E
B. IOS gateway
C. MCU
D. TelePresence server
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 10
Which command is used to enter the DSP farm profile configuration mode?
A. dspfarm-profile 100 transcode
B. dspfarmprofile 100 transcode
C. dspfarm profile 100 transcode
D. dspfarm 100 profile transcode
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Refer to Exhibit:
300-070 dumps
If the user at extension 1001 dials the user at extension 2002, which dial peer is used to route the call?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 12
You are a Network Engineer at ABC Company. You want to ensure that when the contact center agent for the company makes an external call, the extension 897 654 300 is displayed. How do you resolve this issue?
A. Configure a Line Text Label on the Directory Number configuration page.
B. Configure an external phone number mask on the Directory Number configuration page.
C. Configure a translation pattern with the pattern 897654300.
D. Configure an external phone number mask on the Device configuration page.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 13
Which three CLI commands allow you to verify the correct VoIP dial-peer matching? (Choose three.)
A. debug ccsip messages
B. debug voip ccapi inout
C. debug dialpeer match
D. debug voip dialpeer inout
E. show dialplan number
300-070 exam Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit and configuration output.
300-070 dumps
A user in New York (5001) is trying to call a user in London (6001), but the call cannot be completed. Assuming that the WAN uplink is failing and the voice traffic has to go out toward the PSTN, which command do you need to add to dial peer to solve this issue?
dial-peer voice 3 pots
destination-pattern 6…
preference 1
port 0/0/0:23
dtmf-relay sip-notify
A. num-exp 512602 6001
B. prefix 757385
C. forward-digits 2
D. forward-digits 4
E. prefix 5126
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 15
Which two of these describe where phone services can appear on an IP phone and who can subscribe to phone services? (Choose two.)
A. end user
B. administrator
C. end user and administrator
D. Services button
E. Services and Directories buttons
F. Services, Directories, and Messages buttons
Correct Answer: CF
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
A Cisco Unified Communications Manager group is configured with the subscriber (10.1.5.3) listed first and the publisher (10.1.5.2) listed second. Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager is used for incoming calls through an MGCP gateway?
A. the publisher
B. both the publisher and subscriber in a round-robin format
C. the first server listed in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager group list
D. the subscriber
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 17
Which two of the following DSPs can be used in heterogeneous conferencing to achieve the required trans-sizing and transcoding functionality? (Choose two.)
A. PVDM3-256
B. PVDM2-256
C. PVDM-192
D. PVDM3-32
E. PVDM3-192
F. PVDM2-128
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Managers have asked to be able to have an extension call them back if it is busy when they try to call it. In what two places can this feature be assigned to the Managers phone? (Choose two.)
A. Device Settings > Softkey Template
B. Device Settings > Default Device Profile Configuration
C. Device Settings > Phone Button Template
D. Device Settings > Device Profile
E. Device Settings > Device Defaults
F. Device Settings > Firmware Load Information
300-070 exam Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 19
Which three elements are used to configure calling privileges? (Choose three)
A. Route pattern.
B. Calling search space.
C. Replica.
D. User.
E. Partition
F. Time schedule.
Correct Answer: BEF
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which two statements describe the function of the off-net option in a route pattern? (Choose two.)
A. The off-net option indicates that if a call is not routed through this route pattern, it is considered off the local network, or “off-net”.
B. This option could be used to block an external call from transferring to an internal party.
C. This option could be used to block an external call from transferring to an external party.
D. The off-net option indicates that if a call is routed through this route pattern, it is considered off the local network, or “off-net.”
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 21
What are two characteristics that are associated with the End User and User account types? (Choose two.)
A. They cannot use LDAP.
B. They are used to authorize applications.
C. They can utilize LDAP.
D. The Application is associated with the End User and User account types.
E. They can be listed in a directory.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

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Exam Code: 300-070
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0
Q&As: 211

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Free Pass4itsure 210-255 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-20)

1. Given: John Smith often telecommutes from a coffee shop near his home. The coffee shop has an 802.11g access point with a captive portal for authentication. At this hotspot, John is susceptible to what types of WLAN attacks?
A. UDP port redirection
B. Wi-Fi phishing
C. Peer-to-peer
D. 802.11 reverse ARP
E. Eavesdropping/packet reassembly
F. Happy AP
210-255 exam Answer: BCE

2. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) allows a WLAN administrator to perform what network function?
A. Provide wireless network access to users through specific access points, based on their 802.11e priority level.
B. Allow access to specific files and applications based on the user’s IP subnet.
C. Allow specific user groups more bandwidth than others.
D. Allow simultaneous support of multiple EAP types on a single access point.
Answer: C

3. RFC 3748 specifies that the EAP-response/identity frame must comply with what criteria?
A. The EAP-response/identity frame must contain the user identity.
B. When TLS-tunneling mode is active, the EAP-response frame must have a blank user identity.
C. The EAP-response/identity frame must not contain a null identity value.
D. The user identity value must be hashed prior to insertion into the EAP-response identity frame.
210-255 dumps Answer: C

4. What option specifies how the 802.11i Group Handshake differs from the 4-Way Handshake?
A. The Group Handshake has four messages like the 4-Way Handshake, except when it is performed after a reauthentication when it exhibits only three messages.
B. The Group Handshake is a 4-Way Handshake, but does not contain EAPoL Key frames.
C. The Group Handshake requires 6 exchanges, including the TCP 3-Way handshake traffic.
D. The Group Handshake has only two messages instead of four.
E. The Group Temporal Key (GTK) is always part of the Group Handshake, but never part of the 4-Way Handshake.
Answer: D

5. Once strong authentication and encryption mechanisms are implemented and tested in a WLAN, what options are needed to maintain a secure WLAN?
A. VPN
B. Internet firewall
C. WIPS
D. Personal firewalls
E. LDAP
210-255 pdf Answer: CD

6. What protocols allow an administrator to securely transfer a new operating system image to a WLAN switch/controller?
A. SNMPv2c
B. HTTPS
C. SCP
D. TFTP
E.FTP
Answer: BC

7. Given: You manage a wireless network that services 100 wireless users. Your facility requires 7 access points, and you have installed an 802.11i-compliant implementation of 802.1X/LEAP (TKIP) as an authentication and encryption solution. In this configuration, the wireless network is susceptible to what type of attack?
A. Man-in-the-middle
B. Password dictionary
C. Layer 3 peer-to-peer
D. WEP cracking
E. Session hijacking
F. Eavesdropping
210-255 vce Answer: B

8. Given: Most of today’s lightweight (thin) access points support 802.3af and can be placed anywhere in the network infrastructure instead of directly connected to a WLAN switch/controller port. A lightweight access point can make what logical connection to its controller?
A. LLC port connection
B. GRE tunnel
C. RSVP protocol connection
D. HTTPS tunnel
E. Mobile IP connection
Answer: B

9. Given: ABC Company wants to install an 802.11g WLAN that supports fast roaming for 802.11b IP phones. A requirement is the ability to troubleshoot reassociations that are delayed or dropped during roaming. What is the most cost-effective system ABC Company can implement to meet the troubleshooting requirement?
A. WLAN protocol analyzer software on laptop computers
B. WLAN switch with integrated WIPS
C. WLAN switch with dual lightweight 802.11a/b/g radios
D. Autonomous (thick) access points with a WIDS overlay system
E. Hybrid WLAN switch with integrated RF planning tool
210-255 exam Answer: B

10. Given: This network diagram implements an 802.1X/EAP-based wireless security solution. What device functions as the EAP Authenticator?
A. LDAP database
B. Client computer
C. Access point
D. RADIUS server
E. Ethernet switch
Answer: C

11. For WIPS to describe the location of a rogue WLAN device, what requirement must be part of the WIPS installation?
A. The predictive site survey results must be imported into the WIPS.
B. A GPS system must be installed including the coordinates of the building’s corners.
C. All authorized AP radios must be placed in RF monitor mode so that the WIPS knows where the authorized APs are in relation to the WIPS sensors.
D. A graphical floor plan diagram must be imported into the WIPS.
210-255 dumps Answer: D

12. Given: XYZ Company has recently installed a WLAN switch and RADIUS server and needs to move authenticated wireless users from various departments onto their designated network segments. How should this be accomplished?
A. The RADIUS server coordinates with an authenticated DHCP server.
B. Manually map each wireless user’s MAC address to a VLAN number in the Ethernet switch.
C. Implement multiple 802.1Q VLANs in both the WLAN and Ethernet switches.
D. RADIUS will send a return list attribute with the GRE tunnel number to the WLAN switch.
E. The WLAN user must contact the network administrator at step 4 of the 802.1X/EAP authentication process to receive a network number.
Answer: C

13. Given: The Wi-Fi Alliance implemented TKIP as an upgrade to WEP as part of WPA. The illustration shows an expanded TKIP MPDU. What features were included in TKIP to enhance the security of WEP?
A. FCS
B. ICV
C. MIC
D. Extended IV
E. Encrypted PDU
210-255 pdf Answer: CD

14. Given: A new access point is connected to an authorized network segment and is detected by a WIPS. What does the WIPS apply to the new access point?
A. Default security policy
B. FIPS values
C. Site survey template
D. User property profile
E. Updated firmware
F. SNMP MIB
Answer: A

15. Given: Your company has just completed installation of a WLAN switch/controller with 10 lightweight (thin) access points. The Chief Security Officer has specified 802.11i compliant PEAPv0/EAP-MSCHAPv2 as the only authorized WLAN authentication and encryption scheme. Where must the x.509 server certificate reside in this network?
A. Supplicant devices
B. LDAP server
C. RADIUS server
D. WLAN switch/controller
E. Lightweight access points
210-255 vce Answer: AC

16. What wireless authentication technologies build a TLS-encrypted tunnel between the supplicant and the authentication server before passing client authentication credentials to the authentication server?
A. MS-CHAPv2
B. EAP-FAST
C. LEAP
D. PEAPv1/EAP-GTC
E. EAP-MD5
F. EAP-TTLS
Answer: DF

17. How does a wireless network management system (WNMS) discover WLAN usernames?
A. The WNMS finds the MAC address of the wireless client device in the authentication database and parses the username from the entry.
B. The WNMS polls access points using SNMP.
C. The client device sends the username to the WNMS on port 113 (ident service) after successful authentication.
D. The RADIUS server sends the username to the WNMS after the wireless device successfully authenticates.
E. The WNMS captures the username by sniffing the wireless network during the authentication process.
210-255 exam Answer: B

18. What is illustrated by this Wireless Intrusion Prevention System (WIPS)
A. 802.11a access points on channels 34, 38, 42, and 46
B. Wideband RF jamming attack
C. Only channels 9, 10, and 11 are enabled on the access point
D. An access point on channel 6
E. Use of channels 12-14 is not allowed
Answer: B

19. Given: A university is installing a WLAN switch/controller and one thousand 802.11a/g lightweight access points. In this environment, how should the WLAN switch/controller connect to the Ethernet network?
A. The WLAN switch/controller should connect between every Layer 3 distribution Ethernet switch and every Layer 2 access Ethernet switch by having one port in each VLAN.
B. The WLAN switch/controller should connect to the core Layer 3 switch via a gigabit (or faster) Ethernet segment.
C. The WLAN switch/controller should be connected between the Layer 3 core Ethernet switch/controller and the corporate Internet firewall using a 100 Mbps connection.
D. The WLAN switch/controller should connect to a Layer 3 distribution switch in a wireless VLAN using a gigabit (or faster) connection.
210-255 dumps Answer: B

20. What type of WLAN attack is illustrated on the 802.11 protocol analyzer screenshot?
A. Man-in-the-middle
B. Frame injection
C. RF jamming
D. Authentication flood
E. Hijacking
Answer: C
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Exam Code: 210-250
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Q&As: 80
Exam Website: https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-255.html

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Awesome
“This is my first time to sit a Cisco exam, so you will know how nervous I was! Thanks for your help, Kingexam! I passed. I think 95% questions are more or less the same as your guidance. Some questions with the answer are in the different sequence, and, sorry to point out that one answer of your questions is incorrect, I’ll email you to let you know, you guys need to revise it. Well, I think your kingexam’s guidance is still more accurate than others. The most important thing is I got passed 🙂 Paul Hussler”

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Free Pass4itsure 810-403 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-28)

QUESTION 1
According to Cisco and related to customers, which is the one and only outstanding reason and justification for business outcome-based sales approach?
A. Executives are interested in satisfying customers’ needs and requirements.
B. Managers and supervisors are committed to close the quality of service gap.
C. Stakeholders are interested in being considered when developing and assessing business outcomes.
D. Customers are interested in solutions and services that result in measurable outcomes.
810-403 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
RACI model aids can be used to understand specific aspects of stakeholders’ involvement in businesses. What does RACI stand for?
A. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
B. Reconciler, Accountable, Consulted, Independent
C. Responsible, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
D. Reconciler, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
E. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Influenced
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. Which is the goal of business outcomes?
A. To enable CXOs or Line of Business leaders to grow revenues, lower operating costs and achieve strategic business objectives
B. To help customers establish new technology or evolve current functionality
C. To help customers operate, manage and optimize technology environment more effectively
D. To take advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which two options are part of customer relationship management? (Choose two.)
A. Developing market research.
B. Moving the customer towards positive decisions about IT investments and initiatives
C. Classifying customer segments.
D. Identifying key stakeholders.

810-403 pdf Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
While troubleshooting a Sugar dashlet error in your web browser, you notice you are consistently receiving a 500 error in response to a particular REST API call. Which three actions would you perform to gain more insightinto the source of the problem?(Choose three.)
A. View the full list of browser cache contents.
B. View the Sugar log.
C. Visit status.sugarcrm.com to confirm there are no service outages.
D. Consult the Web server PHP error log.
E. Consult the JavaScript console in the Web browser.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 7
You are experiencing poor performance with your Sugar installation and want to install and configure Alternative PHP Cache (APC) and ensure it is enabled. Which two actions would help you achieve these goals? (Choose two.)
A. Install APC using the Sugar module loader and configure it from the Administration panel.
B. File a ticket with SugarCRM support requesting that APC be enabled for your instance.
C. Install the APC module from the PHP Extension Community Library (PECL) and configure it using the command line.
D. Verify the presence of the APC settings in the output of phpinfo().
810-403 vce Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
You examine a Sugar database and discover some table names that end with the moniker ~_c~. What do the database tables with these names represent?
A. custom field data for custom fields
B. custom field metadata for custom fields
C. relationship data for custom relationships
D. relationship metadata for stock and custom relationships
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
View the Exhibit.
A customization requires a developer to add a new profile action link to the MegaMenu shown in the exhibit.
  According to the Sugar Developer Guide, which directory should contain the customizations?
A. ~./custom/clients/base/views/profileactions/~
B. ~./custom/Extenslon/application/Ext/clients/base/views/profileactions/~
C. ~./custom/Extension/modules/Ext/clients/base/views/profileactions/~
D. ~./application/clients/base/views/profileactions/~
810-403 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
According to the Sugar Developer Guide, which class should be used to store and retrieve system settings stored at the database level?
A. SugarAutoLoader
B. Administration
C. Configurator
D. SugarApplication
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You are attempting to load a large custom package using Module Loader andit is failing. Which three configuration values should you verify? (Choose three.)
A. PHP upload_max_filesize setting
B. Sugar import_max_records_total_limit setting
C. Sugar upload_maxsize setting
D. PHP memory_limit setting
E. PHP post_max_size setting
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 12
You need to execute a call to the Sugar REST v10API from within a customized controller. According to the Sugar Developer Guide, what would be the recommended method toaccomplish this task?
A. ~app.api.getRequest( )~
B. ~callback( )~
C. ~app.api.call( )~
D. ~$.ajax( )~
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You are working on the RecordView for a given module. You examine the data values contained in this.model and notice a discrepancy between those values and the list of fields contained in record.php. Which statement pertaining to this.model is correct?
A. Only values from stock fields listed in record.php are available.
B. Only values from any of the fields listed in record.php are available.
C. Only values from custom fields listed in record.php are available.
D. Only values from link fields listed in record.php are available.
810-403 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
You are creating an Initial one-to-one relationship from the Accounts module to a custom module using studio, which database schema change will occur?
A. Table accounts_cstm is created or modified.
B. Table [custom_module]_cstm is created or modified.
C. Table accounts is modified.
D. A new relate table is created.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
While troubleshooting a customization, you initiate a debugger session and examine the Sidecar metadata. Which two components would you expect it to contain? (Choose two.)
A. layouts
B. global variables
C. views
D. event handler
810-403 vce Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 16
Which Sidecar component is nested within components of the same type?
A. field
B. layout
C. view
D. model
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
In which two directories do Sidecar enabled modules read theirsubpanel layouts? (Choose two.)
A. ~./modules/[module]/metadata/subpanels/default.php~
B. ~./custom/modules/[module]/Ext/Layoutdefs/layoutdefs.ext.php~
C. ~./modules/[module]/clients/base/layouts/subpanels/subpanels.php~
D. ~./custom/modules/[module]/Ext/clients/base/layouts/subpanels/subpanels.ext.php~
810-403 exam Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 18
Which Handlebars helper allows you to iterate over an array of objects?
A. models
B. for
C. foreach
D. each
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19 In the process of public key cryptography, which of the following is true?
A. Only the public key is used to encrypt and decrypt
B. Only the private key can encrypt and only the public key can decrypt
C. Only the public key can encrypt and only the private key can decrypt
D. The private key is used to encrypt and decrypt
E. If the public key encrypts, then only the private key can decrypt
810-403 dumps Answer: E

QUESTION 20. As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on Physical and Environmental Security?
A. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory, regulatory or contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance of systems with organizational security policies and standards.
B. The objectives of this section are to prevent unauthorized access, damage and interference to business premises and information; to prevent loss, damage or compromise of assets and interruption to business activities; to prevent compromise or theft of information and information processing facilities.
C. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for information security.
D. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to ensure that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized access to information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent unauthorized computer access.
Answer: B

QUESTION 21 During a one week investigation into the security of your network you work on identifying the information that is leaked to the Internet, either directly or indirectly. One thing you decide to evaluate is the information stored in the Whois lookup of your organizational website. Of the following, what pieces of information can be identified via this method?
A. Registrar

B. Mailing Address
C. Contact Name
D. Record Update
E. Network Addresses (Private)
810-403 pdf Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 22 You are aware of the significance and security risk that Social Engineering plays on your company. Of the following Scenarios, select those that, just as described, represent potentially dangerous Social Engineering:
A. A writer from a local college newspapers calls and speaks to a network administrator. On the call the writer requests an interview about the current trends in technology and offers to invite the administrator to speak at a seminar.
B. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the receptionist. On the call the caller asks the receptionist the normal business hours that the organization is open to the public.
C. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the purchaser of IT hardware and software. On the call the caller lists several new products that the purchaser may be interested in evaluating. The caller asks for a time to come and visit to demonstrate the new products.
D. An email, sent by the Vice President of Sales and Marketing, is received by the Help Desk asking to reset the password of the VP of Sales and Marketing.
E. An email is received by the Chief Security Officer (CSO) about a possible upgrade coming from the ISP to a different brand of router. The CSO is asked for the current network’s configuration data and the emailer discusses the method, plan, and expected dates for the rollover to the new equipment.
Answer: DE

QUESTION 23 During the review of the security logs you notice some unusual traffic. It seems that a user has connected to your Web site ten times in the last week, and each time has visited every single page on the site. You are concerned this may be leading up to some sort of attack. What is this user most likely getting ready to do?
A. Mirror the entire web site.
B. Download entire DNS entries.

C. Scan all ports on a web server.
D. Perform a Distributed Denial of Service attack through the Web server.
E. Allow users to log on to the Internet without an ISP.
810-403 vce Answer: A

QUESTION 24 What type of cipher is used by an algorithm that encrypts data one bit at a time?
A. 64-bit encryption Cipher
B. Block Cipher
C. Stream Cipher
D. Diffuse Cipher
E. Split Cipher
Answer: C

QUESTION 25 What encryption algorithm was selected to replace DES?
A. RC5
B. IDEA
C. AES
D. Blowfish
E. RSA
810-403 exam Answer: C

QUESTION 26 Which one of the following is an incorrect mod equation?
A. 9 mod 3 = 0
B. 40 mod 10 = 0
C. 40 mod 9 = 4
D. (6-1) mod 3 = 0
E. (2+4) mod 5 = 1
Answer: D

QUESTION 27 If you wish to change the permissions of a parent directory in your Linux system, and want the  permissions to be changed on the files and subdirectories in the parent directory to be the same, what switch must you use?
A. -G
B. -R
C. -P
D. -S
E. -F
810-403 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION 28 You are working with some new RPM files on your Linux system. You know there are several options when dealing with RPM files. Which of the following answers lists proper RPM commands, with the correct description of the command?
A. rpm -q <package name> This command performs software verification.
B. rpm -e <package name> This command removes the software.
C. rpm -v <package name> This command performs software verification.
D. rpm -r <package name> This command removes the software.
E. rpm -i <package name> This command installs the software.
F. rpm -in <package name> This command installs the software.
Answer: ABE

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Free Pass4itsure 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 33 A switch is added into the production network to increase port capacity. A network engineer is configuring the switch for DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard, but is unable to configure ip verify source under several of the interfaces. Which option is the cause of the problem?
A. The local DHCP server is disabled prior to enabling IP Source Guard.
B. The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.
C. No VLANs exist on the switch and/or the switch is configured in VTP transparent mode.
D. The switch is configured for sdm prefer routing as the switched database management template.
E. The configured SVIs on the switch have been removed for the associated interfaces.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34 Which command correctly configures standby tracking for group 1 using the default decrement priority value?
A. standby 1 track 100
B. standby 1 track 100 decrement 1
C. standby 1 track 100 decrement 5
D. standby 1 track 100 decrement 20
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35 Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36 RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch. Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.

B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch isoverloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37 Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, localusername, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38 You are giving the debug RHCT exam. The examiner told you that the password of root is redhat. When you tried to login displays the error message and redisplayed the login screen. You changed the root password, again unable to login as a root. How will you make Successfully Login as a root.
Answer and Explanation:
When root unable to login into the system think:
1. Is password correct?
2. Is account expired?
3. Is terminal Blocked?
Do these Steps:
. Boot the System on Single user mode.
. Change the password
. Check the account expire date by using chage -l root command.
If account is expired, set net expire date: chage -E “NEVER” root
1. Check the file /etc/securetty Which file blocked to root login from certain terminal.
2. If terminal is deleted or commented write new or uncomment.
3. Reboot the system and login as a root.
QUESTION 39 You are giving RHCT Exam and in your Exam paper there is a written, make successfully ping to 192.168.0.254.
300-115 vce Answer and Explanation:
In Network problem thinks to check:
1. IP Configuration: use ifconfig command either IP is assigned to interface or not?

2. Default Gateway is set or not?
3. Hostname is set or not?
4. Routing problem is there?
5. Device Driver Module is loaded or not?
6. Device is activated or not?
Check In this way:
1. use ifconfig command and identify which IP is assigned or not.
2. cat /etc/sysconfig/network What, What is written here. Actually here are these parameters.
NETWORKING=yes or no
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
HOSTNAME=?
NISDOMAIN=?
– Correct the file
QUESTION 40 Use vi /etc/sysconfig/network-scirpts/ifcfg-eth0 and check the proper options
DEVICE=eth0
ONBOOT=yes
BOOTPROTO=static
IPADDR=x.x.x.x
NETMAKS=x.x.x.x
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
QUESTION 41  Set the Hostname station?.example.com where ? is your Host IP Address.
300-115 exam Answer and Explanation:
1. hostname station?.example.com This will set the host name only for current session. To set hostname permanently.
2. vi /etc/sysconfig/network HOSTNAME=station?.example.com
3. service network restart

QUESTION 42 The System you are using is for NFS (Network File Services). Some important data are shared from your system. Make automatically start the nfs and portmap services at boot time.
Answer and Explanation:
We can control the services for current session and for next boot time also. For current Session, we use service servicename start or restart or stop or status. For automatically on next reboot time:
1. chkconfig servicename on or off
eg: chkconfig nfs on chkconfig portmap on or ntsysv Select the nfs and portmap services.
2. Reboot the system and identify whether services are running or not.

QUESTION 43
Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?
A. Control Quality
B. Control Scope
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule
compared to the contract is known as:
A. Work performance information.
B. Inspections and audits.
C. Payment systems.
D. Procurement performance reviews.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?
A. Project Communications Management
B. Project Integration Management
C. Project Risk Management
D. Project Scope Management
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate
Costs process?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk register
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
A. Organizational process assets.
B. Enterprise environmental factors updates.
C. Project staff assignments.
D. Organizational charts and position descriptions.
300-115 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete
project activities is known as:
A. Plan Human Resource Management.
B. Acquire Project Team.
C. Manage Project Team.
D. Develop Project Team.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
Which item is an example of personnel assessment?
A. Resource calendar
B. Tight matrix
C. Team-building activity
D. Focus group
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Initiating
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 51
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can
best be involved in a project?
A. Feedback analysis
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Communication management plan
D. Stakeholder management plan
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected
product before actually building is known as:
A. Benchmarking.
B. Context diagrams.
C. Brainstorming.
D. Prototyping.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 53
Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?
A. Power/influence grid
B. Power/interest grid
C. Influence/impact grid
D. Salience model
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?
A. Facilitation techniques
B. Expert judgment
C. Analytical techniques
D. Variance analysis
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?
A. Control charts
B. Pareto diagrams
C. Ishikavva diagrams

D. Checksheets
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:
A. Collect Requirements.
B. Conduct Procurements.
C. Estimate Activity Durations.
D. Estimate Activity Resources.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?
A. Procurement documents
B. Communications plan
C. Project charter
D. Stakeholder register
300-115 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Executing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:
A. Business case.
B. Activity list.
C. Project management plan.
D. Cost forecast.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?
A. Change request
B. Requirements documentation
C. Scope baseline
D. Risk urgency assessment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?
A. Control Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Identify Risks
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:
A. Nominal group technique.
B. Majority.
C. Affinity diagram.
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:
A. mitigate
B. accept
C. transfer
D. avoid
300-115 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:
A. A process improvement plan,
B. Quality control measurements.
C. Work performance information,
D. The project management plan.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 65
A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:
A. Change control plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Risk log
D. Communications management plan
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?
A. Enhance
B. Share
C. Exploit
D. Accept
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:
A. Expert judgment.
B. Analytical techniques.
C. Earned value management.
D. Group decision-making techniques.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?
A. Timing
B. Methodology
C. Risk categories
D. Budgeting
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?
A. Negative
B. Zero
C. Positive
D. Free
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
A reward can only be effective if it is:
A. Given immediately after the project is completed.
B. Something that is tangible.
C. Formally given during project performance appraisals.
D. Satisfying a need valued by the individual.
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and
analysis?
A. Nominal group technique
B. Idea/mind mapping
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 73
Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and
complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement
for a current project describes which type of estimating?
A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric
C. Analogous
D. Three-point
300-115 exam Correct Answer: C
300-115 dumps

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Free Pass4itsure 700-260 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 1
Increased employee productivity, confidence in data confidentiality, and increased visibility are features that demonstrate which Cisco business value?
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Protection
C. Control
D. Flexibility
E. Completeness
700-260 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which licensing feature enables customers to better manage their software assets and optimize their IT spending?
A. Cisco ONE
B. Smart Accounts
C. Enterprise License Agreements
D. License Bundling
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which Cisco network security solution helps protect against threats by monitoring and responding to any network anomalies, continually analyzing for potential threats and reacting to them in real time?
A. Cisco Security Manager
B. Cisco ASA Firewall Services
C. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
D. Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
E. Cisco Web Security Appliance
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance
G. Cisco Identity Services Engine
H. Cisco Site-to-Site VPN
700-260 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Identity Services Engine
D. Cisco Security Manager
E. Cisco TrustSec
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Upon which component are security solutions directly built in the Cisco future solutions architecture framework?
A. Security intelligence operations
B. Third-party applications

C. Management and intelligence capabilities
D. Cisco security platforms
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
At which point during the attack continuum does a customer experience limited remediation tools?
A. Across the entire continuum
B. During
C. Before
D. After
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which technology solution can resolve the inability of a customer to properly restrict and authorize access to protected resources while still introducing new applications, devices, and business partnerships?
A. Cisco Secure Data Center
B. Cisco Cyber Threat Defense
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Cloud
E. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure
F. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
700-260 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Utilizing the Cisco software lifecycle generates which two benefits for partners? (Choose two.)
A. Adaptable deployment
B. Software portability
C. Improved sales performance
D. Cisco incentives
E. Increased efficiencies
F. Sales promotions
G. Customer support
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 9
Which Cisco security benefit is a differentiator that allows partners to plan and model their businesses?
A. Comprehensive vision for security
B. One solution to fit every need
C. Unparalleled commitment
D. Lowest price points
E. Best-in-class technologies
700-260 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What is the primary customer challenge that is created by the wide variety of security solution providers on
the market?
A. Choosing the right provider

B. Contacting all providers for information
C. Finding a low-cost option
D. Determining the single best security product
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Automatic updates and post-attack guidance are features that demonstrate which Cisco business value?
A. Completeness
B. Cost effectiveness
C. Flexibility
D. Control
E. Protection
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
End-to-end protection and protection across the attack continuum are features that demonstrate which two Cisco business values? (Choose two.)
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Protection
C. Control
D. Flexibility
E. Completeness
700-260 dumps Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 13
The unmatched security that Cisco offers is demonstrated by its long-standing experience in which two
options? (Choose two.)
A. Mobile solutions
B. Networks
C. Software
D. Security
E. Devices
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 14
Click the exhibit button.
Given the diagram in the exhibit, what would be the correct static route configuration on the router on the right, if it is an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. config> static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.1.2.2
B. config>router> static-route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 next-hop 10.1.2.1
C. config>router> static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.1.2.2
D. config>router> static-route 0 0.0 0/0 next-hop 10.1.2.1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements regarding link state protocols are true? (Choose two)
A. When a router receives updates from its neighbors, it adds them to its link state database, performs an SPF computation, and sends the results to its neighbors.
B. An SPF computation is done by each router to determine the best path to destination networks. All the best paths determined by the SPF calculation will be seen in the route table.
C. Each router constructs its own link state database with updates received from neighbors.
D. An SPF computation is done by each router to determine the best path to destination networks. All the
best paths determined by the SPF calculation will be offered to the route table manager.
700-260 vce Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 16
Which of the following OSPFv3 LSAs have an AS scope?
A. Link Local LSA
B. Router LSA
C. Network LSA
D. Inter-Area Router LSA
E. Intra-Area Prefix LSA
F. None of the above LSAs have an AS scope.
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 17
An operator configures an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR with a loopback interface and IPv6 address. The
operator then configures a routing policy to redistribute the loopback prefix into OSPFv3. What type of LSA
is used to advertise the route to other OSPFv3 routers in the same area?
A. Router LSA
B. AS External LSA
C. Intra-Area Prefix LSA
D. Inter-Area Prefix LSA
E. Network LSA
F. None of the statements are correct.
700-260  exam Correct Answer: B

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Free Pass4itsure 400-101 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 1
Which statement about a type 4 LSA in OSPF is true?
A. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR,that is flooded throughout the AS,and that describes a route to the ASBR.
B. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR,that is flooded throughout the AS,and that describes a route to the ABR.
C. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR,that is flooded throughout the AS,and that describes a route to the ASBR.
D. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR,that is flooded throughout the area,and that describes a route to the ASBR.
E. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR,that is flooded throughout the area,and that describes a route to the ASBR.
Pass4itsure 400-101 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which ISAKMP feature can protect a GDOI from a hacker using a network sniffer while a security
association is established?
A. An ISAKMP phase 1 security association
B. An ISAKMP phase 2 security association
C. The Proof of Possession(POP)
D. A ISAKMP phase 2 GROUPKEY-PUSH exchange
E. An ISAKMP phase 2 GROUPKEY-PULL exchange
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which three statements about Ansible are true? {Choose three.)
A. Ansible by default manages remote machines over SSL.
B. No ports other than the SSH port are required ; there is no additional PKI infrastructure to maintain.
C. Ansible requires remote agent software.
D. Ansible by default manages remote machines over SSH.
E. Ansible does not require specific SSH keys or dedicated users.
F. Ansible requires server software running on a management machine.
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which statement is true about conditional advertisements?
A. Conditional advertisements create routes when a predefined condition is met.
B. Conditional advertisements create routes when a predefined condition is not met.

C. Conditional advertisements delete routes when a predefined condition is met.
D. Conditional advertisements create routes and withhold them until a predefined condition is met.
E. Conditional advertisements do not create routes, they only withhold them until a predefined condition is met.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which two options are benefits of moving the application development workload to the cloud?(Choose two.)
A. The application availability is not affected by the loss of a single virtual machine.
B. The workload can be moved or replicated easily.
C. it provides you full control over the software packages and vendor used.
D. :High availability and redundancy is handled by the hypervisor.
E. it provides a more secure environment.
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which two statements about DMVPN with NHRP are true? (Choose two)
A. NHRP shortens the configuration of the hub router.
B. NHRP dynamically provides information about the spoke routers to the hub.
C. NHRP disables multicast
D. The hub router uses NHRP to initiate the GRE tunnel with spokes.
E. The spoke routers act as the NHRP servers.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 7
When is it useful to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface?
A. Disable it when you want to provide additional backup paths in your network.
B. Disable it when you want to send routes that are learned from another routing protocol to peer on the same interface.
C. Disable it when you need to send updates to peers on the interface on which the updates were received.
D. It is never advisable to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface.
400-101 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 8

400-101 dumps

Refer to the exhibit. Which two route types advertised by a router with this configuration? (Choose two)
A. connected
B. summary
C. static
D. redistributed
E. external
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which feature can you implement to most efficiently protect customer traffic in a rate-limited WAN Ethernet service?
A. IntServ with RSVP
B. DiffServ
C. Q-in-Q
D. The IPsec VTI qos pre-classify command
E. HCBWFQ
400-101 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label information table
C. the label forwarding information base
D. the IP routing table
E. the adjacency table
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Which command can you enter to allow a multicast-enabled router to advertise itself to the BSR router as PIMv2 c-RP?
A. ip pim autorp listener
B. ip pim send-rp-announce
C. ip pim rp-candidate
D. ip pim rp-address
E. ip pim send-rp- discovery
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding are true? (Choose two)
A. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when distributed Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
B. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the adjacency table.
C. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
D. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the FIB table.
E. The FIB table resides on the route processor and the adjacency table resides on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION NO: 13
Given the following formula in a calculation field that returns a Text result: Let (tmp = “2 * 5” ; Evaluate (Quote (tmp)))
What will be returned?
A. The value 10
B. The value tmp
C. The value 2 *5
D. The value “10”, quotes included
E. The value “tmp”, quotes included
F. The value “2 * 5”, quotes included
400-101 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
Given the following formula;
Substitute (“JoHn” ; [“J” ; “0”] ; [“0” ; “H”] ; [“H” ; “N”] ; [“N” ; “n”]) What is the result?
A. nonn
B. nnnn
C. OoNn
D. OHNn
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 15
Given a text field myText that contains “red-blue-green”, which two formulas could be used to extract the word “blue” from the field? (Choose two.)
A. Filter(myText ; “blue”)
B. MiddleWords(myText; 2 ; 2)
C. PatternMatch(myText ; “blue”)
D. GetValue(Substitute { myText ; “-” ; “¶” ); 2)
E. Middle(myText; Position(myText ; “-” ; 1 ; 1)+ 1 ; 4)
400-101 vce Answer: D,E
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION 51
An internal auditor for a large automotive parts retailer wishes to perform a risk analysis and wants to use an appropriate statistical tool to help identify stores that
would be out of line compared to the majority of stores. The most appropriate statistical tool to use is:
A. Lineartime series analysis.
B. Cross-sectional regression analysis.
C. Cross tabulations with chi-square analysis of significance

D. Time series multiple regression analysis to identify changes in individual stores over time.
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Time series data pertain to a given entity over a number of prior time periods. Cross-sectional data, however, pertain to different entities for a given time period or
at a given time. Thus, cross-sectional regression analysis is the most appropriate statistical tool because it compares attributes of all stores’ operating statistics at
one moment in time.
QUESTION 52
What coefficient of correlation results from the following data?
A. 0
B. -1
C. +1
D. Cannot be determined from the data given.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The coefficient of correlation (in standard notation, r) measures the strength of the linear relationship. The magnitude of ris independent of the scales of
measurement of x and y. Its range is -1 to +1. A value of -1 indicates a perfectly inverse linear relationship between x and y. A value of zero indicates no linear
relationship between x and y. A value of 1 indicates a perfectly direct relationship between x and y As x increases by 1, y consistently decreases by 2. Hence, a
perfectly inverse relationship exists, and r must be equal to -1.
QUESTION 53
In regression analysis, which of the following correlation coefficients represents the strongest relationship between the independent and dependent variables?
A. 1.03
B. -.02
C. -.89
D. .75
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Because the range of values is between-1 and 1.-89 suggests a very strong inverse relationship between the independent and dependent variables. A value of –1
signifies a perfect inverse relationship, and a value of 1 signifies a perfect direct relationship.
QUESTION 54
The following data on variables x and y was collected from June to October.
The correlation coefficient between variables x and y is nearest to:
A. 1.0
B. -1.0
C. 0.5
D. 0.0
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The simplest way to solve this problem is to use a scatter diagram:

The data points appear to form a straight line with a negative slope. Thus,-1 is the best estimate of the coefficient of correlation.
QUESTION 55
The correlation coefficient that indicates the weakest linear association between two variables is:
A. -0.73
B. -0.11
C. 0.12
D. 0.35
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The correlation coefficient can vary from -1 to +1. A–1 relationship indicates a perfect inverse correlation, and a +1 relationship indicates a perfect direct
correlation. A zero correlation coefficient indicates no linear association between the variables. Thus, the correlation coefficient that is nearest to zero would
indicate the weakest linear association. Of the options given in the question, the correlation coefficient that is nearest to zero is -0.11.
QUESTION 56
Correlation is a term frequently used in conjunction with regression analysis and is measured by the value of the coefficient of correlation, r. The best explanation
of the value r is that it:
A. Is always positive.
B. Interprets variances in terms of the independent variable.
C. Ranges in size from negative infinity to positive infinity.
D. Is a measure of the relative relationship between two variables.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The coefficient of correlation (r) measures the strength of the linear relationship between the dependent and independent variables. The magnitude of r is
independent of the scales of measurement of xand y. The coefficient has a range of-1 to +1. A value of zero indicates no linear relationship between the x and y
variables. A value of+1 indicates a perfectly direct relationship, and a value of –1 indicates a perfectly inverse relationship.
QUESTION 57
In preparing the annual profit plan for the coming year.
Based upon the data derived from the regression analysis, 420 maintenance hours in a month would mean the maintenance costs (rounded to the nearest US
dollar) would be budgeted at:
A. US$3,780
B. US$3,600
C. US$3,790
D. US$3,746
200-155  vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Substituting the given data into the regression equation results in a budgeted cost of US $3,746 (rounded to the nearest US dollar).
y=a + bx
= 684.65 + 7.2884(420)
= US $3,746
Answer:
QUESTION 58
In preparing the annual profit plan for the coming year.
What is the percentage of the total variance that can be explained by the regression equation?
A. 99.724%
B. 69.613%
C. 80.982%
D. 99.862%
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The coefficient of determination (r2) measures the percentage of the total variance in cost that can be explained by the regression equation. If the coefficient of
determination is .99724,99.724% of the variance is explained by the regression equation. Thus, the values in the regression equation explain virtually the entire
amount of total cost.
QUESTION 59
The internal auditor of a bank has developed a multiple regression model that has been used for a number of years to estimate the amount of interest income from
commercial loans. During the current year, the auditor applies the model and discovers that the r2 value has decreased dramatically, but the model otherwise
seems to be working.
Which of the following conclusions is justified by the change?
A. Changing to a cross-sectional regression analysis should cause r2to increase.
B. Regression analysis is no longer an appropriate technique to estimate interest income.
C. Some new factors not included in the model are causing interest income to change.
D. A linear regression analysis would increase the model’s reliability.
200-155  exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The coefficient of determination (r2) is the amount of variation in the dependent variable (interest income) that is explained by the independent variables. In this
case, less of the change in interest income is explained by the model. Thus, some other factor must be causing interest income to change.
This change merits audit investigation.

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Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 22
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
210-260 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 23
Which statement about personal firewalls is true?
A. They can protect a system by denying probing requests.
B. They are resilient against kernel attacks.
C. They can protect email messages and private documents in a similar way to a VPN.
D. They can protect the network against attacks.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 25
How does a device on a network using ISE receive its digital certificate during the new- device registration
process?
A. ISE acts as a SCEP proxy to enable the device to receive a certificate from a central CA server.
B. ISE issues a certificate from its internal CA server.
C. ISE issues a pre-defined certificate from a local database.
D. The device requests a new certificate directly from a central CA.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps

The Admin user is unable to enter configuration mode on a device with the given configuration. What
change can you make to the configuration to correct the problem?
A. Remove the autocommand keyword and arguments from the username admin privilege line.
B. Change the Privilege exec level value to 15.
C. Remove the two Username Admin lines.
D. Remove the Privilege exec line.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A
Question: 27
You are a HR Professional for your organization and your supervisor is asking you about the details of
the Civil Rights Act of 1991, and what it means to your company. He wants to know what the total
damages could be if an organization is found liable by a jury trial. What is the maximum amount that
could be awarded to a victim of discrimination if the organization is found liable?
A. There is no limited amount as the jury can determine damages
B. $50,000
C. $300,000
D. $500,000
Answer: C
Explanation:
The maximum amount that can be awarded is $300,000. This amount, however, can be lowered
based on the number of people involved in the discrimination lawsuit.
Answer options B, D, and A are incorrect. The maximum amount allowed by the Civil Rights Act of
1991, is $300,000.
Question: 28
On November 13, 2000 CFR Part 60-2 was revised to address affirmative action to make the rules
more accessible and easier to implement. Which of the following statements is not part of this
significant update to the Affirmative Action program in CFR Part 60-2?
A. Reduced the number of additional required elements of the written Affirmative Action Plan from
10 to 4
B. Reaffirmed that affirmative action isn’t to establish quotes, but to create goals
C. Granted employers with fewer than 100 employees, permission to prepare a job group analysis
that uses EEO-1 categories as job groups
D. Workforce analysis was replaced with a one-page organizational profile
210-260 vce Answer: C
Explanation:
The update to CFR Part 60-2 was revised and allowed employers with fewer than 150 employees,
not 100, permission to prepare a job group analysis that uses EEO-1 categories as job groups.
Answer options D, B, and A are incorrect. These statements are part of the CFR Part 60-2 revision.
Question: 29
Herb is the HR Professional for his organization. He is preparing to hire a new employee, Hans, to the
firm. Herb has asked Hans to agree, in writing, to mandatory arbitration as part of the employment
offer. What does this agreement mean?
A. It means that Hans and the organization must settle all disputes, if any arise, through a neutral
third party rather than through a lawsuit.
B. It means that Hans must file all legal complaints with the organization’s attorney, before filing a
lawsuit against the organization.
C. It means that Herb’s firm can research Hans to determine if he’s had any lawsuits.
D. It means that Hans cannot work for competitors without the written permission of the employer.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Mandatory arbitration helps the organization avoid lawsuits, should any arise, between the
employee and the employer, by agreeing up-front to settle potential disagreements through an
arbitrator versus a lawsuit.
Answer option D is incorrect. This answer describes a non-compete agreement.
Answer option C is incorrect. This isn’t a valid answer for the mandatory arbitration agreement.
Answer option B is incorrect. Hans doesn’t need to file legal complaints with his employer under this
agreement. The agreement means that Hans and the employer will settle the problem without a
lawsuit.

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Updated: Sep 17, 2017
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION 8
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest resolutions to the problems.
Which of statement is true regarding STP issue identified with switches in the given topology?
A. Loopguard configured on the New_Switch places the ports in loop inconsistent state
B. Rootguard configured on SW1 places the ports in root inconsistent state
C. Bpduguard configured on the New_Switch places the access ports in error-disable
D. Rootguard configured on SW2 places the ports in root inconsistent state
300-135 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
On the new switch, we see that loopguard has been configured with the “spanning-tree guard loop” command.
The loop guard feature makes additional checks. If BPDUs are not received on a non-designated port, and loop guard is enabled, that port is moved into the STP loop-inconsistent blocking state, instead of the listening / learning / forwarding state. Without the loop guard feature, the port assumes the designated port role. The port moves to the STP forwarding state and creates a loop.
QUESTION 9
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest 300-135 dumps resolutions to the problems. You have configured PVST+ load balancing between SW1 and the New_Switch in such a way that both the links E2/2 and E2/3 are utilized for traffic flow, which component of the configuration is preventing PVST+ load balancing between SW1 and SW2 links
A. Port priority configuration on SW1
B. Port priority configuration on the New_Switch
C. Path cost configuration on SW1
D. Path cost configuration on the New_Switch
Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Here is the configuration found on the New_Switch:
This causes the port cost for link eth 1/3 to increase the path cost to 250 for all VLANs, making that link less preferred so that only eth 1/2 will be used.
QUESTION 10
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest resolutions to the problems.
Refer to the topology.
SW1 Switch Management IP address is not pingable from SW4. What could be the issue?
A. Management VLAN not allowed in the trunk links between SW1 and SW4
B. Management VLAN not allowed in the trunk links between SW1 and SW2
C. Management VLAN not allowed in the trunk link between SW2 and SW4
D. Management VLAN ip address on SW4 is configured in wrong subnet
E. Management VLAN interface is shutdown on SW4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In the network, VLAN 300 is called the Management VLAN. Based on the configurations shown below, SW1 has VLAN 300 configured with the IP address of 192.168.10.1/24, while on SW4 VLAN 300 has an IP address of 192.168.100.4/24, which is not in the same subnet.
QUESTION 11
You have been brought in to troubleshoot an EIGRP network. A network engineer has made configuration changes to the network rendering some locations unreachable. You are to locate the problem and suggest solution to resolve the issue.
R5 has become partially isolated from the remainder of the network. R5 can reach devices on directly connected networks but nothing else. What is causing the problem?
A. An outbound distribute list in R3
B. Inbound distribute lists in R5
C. An outbound distribute list in R6
D. Incorrect EIGRP routing process ID in R5
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Here we see that distribute list 3 has been applied to EIGRP on router R%, but access-list 3 contains only deny statements so this will effectively block all routing advertisements from its two EIGRP neighbors, thus isolating R5 from the rest of the EIGRP network:

QUESTION  12.If correct permissions have been setup, users can execute their own programs at a fixed time by submitting their jobs to the cron service using the crontab command.
A. True B.
False
Answer: A
QUESTION  13.The following entry appears in the /etc/crontab as follows:
30 4 * * 1 /bin/sh /home/Tom/rmcore 2>&1 /dev/null
Select the action below which best represents what it will accomplish.
A. “rmcore” will execute on April 30th for one hour
B. “rmcore” will execute on the first day of every month
C. “rmcore” will execute every Monday at 4:30 a.m.
D. None of the above

300-135 vce Answer: C
QUESTION 14.Which of the following statements about cron/crontab is NOT true?
A. each user can have his/her own personal crontab file
B. the crontab file is automatically created when a user account is created
C. the superuser can edit the cron table using the “crontab -e” command
D. cron jobs run with the permission of whomever submitted the job
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 15
You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005
as its application development platform. You have recently created an application that includes the
code shown below.
string str1 = “ABC”;
string str2 = “u”;
str2 += “Certify”;
Console.WriteLine(str1 == str2);
Console.WriteLine((Object) str1 == (Object) str2);
Console.WriteLine(str1.Equals(str2));
What will be the output of the above code?
A. False
False
False
B. False
True
False
C. True
True
True
D. True
False
True
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 16
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET

Framework 3.5. You want to use a HTTP module called on each and every request made by the
application. It is called as part of the ASP.NET request pipeline. It has right to access life-cycle
events throughout the request. You also want to ensure that the HTTP module allows a user to
inspect incoming and outgoing requests and take appropriate action based on the request. What
will be the correct order to create the HTTP module?

300-135 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 17
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET
Framework 3.5. The application contains two HTML pages named Error.htm and
PageNotFound.htm. You want to make sure that the following requirements are met:
l When any user requests a page that does not exist, the PageNotFound.htm page is
displayed.
l When any other error occurs, the Error.htm page is displayed. Which of the following code
segments will you add to the Web.config file to accomplish this task?
A. <customErrors mode=”On” defaultRedirect=”Error.htm”>
<error statusCode=”404″ redirect=”PageNotFound.htm”/>
</customErrors>
B. <customErrors mode=”Off”>
<error statusCode=”400″ redirect=”Error.htm”/>
<error statusCode=”404″ redirect=”PageNotFound.htm”/>
</customErrors>
C. <customErrors mode=”On”>
<error statusCode=”400″ redirect=”Error.htm”/>
error statusCode=”404″ redirect=”PageNotFound.htm”/
</customErrors>
D. <customErrors mode=”Off” defaultRedirect=”Error.htm”>
<error statusCode=”404″ redirect=”PageNotFound.htm”/>
</customErrors>
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 18
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You are creating an ASP.NET Web application using .NET
Framework 3.5. The application will be used to share any type of photos on Internet. All the photos
should be accessible in various sizes and formats. You need to add a download feature that can
be easily maintained. You also need to make sure that only a single version of all photos is stored
on a SQL server database. What will you do?
A. Create an HttpModule class to determine the request for the photo download. Process the
photo according to the given format and size, and after that return the processed photo in the
response.
B. Create a user control that converts the photo to the required format and size.
C. Create an HttpHandler class to determine the request for the photo download. Process the
photo according to the given format and size, and after that return the processed photo in the
response.
D. Create an ActiveX control that converts the photo to the required format and size.
300-135 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 19
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You have recently finished development of an ASP.NET Web
application using the .NET Framework 3.5. You host the application on a Web farm that consists
of three Web servers. You should configure the ASP.NET application for session state to meet the
following requirements:
l Session state data should not be lost if a server fails.
l Session state must be maintained across browser requests by the same user.
You are required to configure the Web.config file to meet these requirements. Which of the
following configurations will you use?

A. <sessionState mode=”StateServer”/>
B. <sessionState mode=”InProc”/>
C. <sessionState mode=”Custom”/>
D. <sessionState mode=”SQLServer”/>
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 210-250
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Updated: Aug 19, 2017
Q&As: 80

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QUESTION 09
Consider a FileMaker Pro 11 database with the following tables and fields:
Assuming only the above relationships between table occurrences, using sorting if necessary, which two
actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. create a value list that shows all Invoices for a chosen Customer
B. create a value list on a Product layout which displays all Customers
C. find all of the Customers who have ever ordered a specific Product
D. create a portal to display each Product that has been ordered by a Customer
E. display all records from the Customer table in a portal on a layout for an Invoice Item record
210-250 exam Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 10
Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event ID has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID.
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records… nor the Delete
related records… settings to be enabled for the Event table.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
On the RSTP network as shown in the figure, what RSTP operations will occur after the E1 port of SWB
fails? (Select 3 Answers)
A. SWB deletes the MAC address entries with the E1 port as the destination interface.
B. The spanning tree is recalculated and the E2 port is elected as the new root port.
C. All the interfaces in forwarding state send topology change notifications (TCNs) to notify other switches
of the topology change.
D. All the non-edge ports in forwarding state send TCNs to notify other switches of the topology change.
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 12
Which is the port state defined in RSTP?
A. Discarding
B. Learning
C. Forwarding
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
RSTP has all functions that STP has and it is backward compatible with STP.
A. True

B. False
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
RSTP adopts fast convergence mechanism. So, there is no Forward Delay interval in RSTP.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Two switches are directly connected to each other and they are working in full duplex mode. By default,
RSTP will consider the link between the switches as point-to-point link.
A. True
B. False
210-250 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
In RSTP network environment, a port can be set as edge port when it is directly connected with terminal.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements about RSTP and STP is true?
A. STP has more port states than RSTP.
B. The port roles used in RSTP is less than the port roles used in STP.
C. Since RSTP adopts fast convergence mechanism, it does not have Learning state which is available in
STP.
D. Same as STP, the ports will enter into Listening state once the RSTP has been enabled. Then, the
ports can receive BPDU and calculate the spanning tree.
210-250 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
In a switching network that runs RSTP, the topology change notification message will not be sent when the
switch detects that the Alternate Port is failed.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
When the topology of a network running RSTP changes, what happens after the change?
A. Flooding on the entire network.
B. The aging time of MAC address entries is changed.
C. Some MAC address entries are deleted.
D. All of the above
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which ports defined by RSTP cannot work in Forwarding state? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Root Port
B. Designated Port
C. Backup Port
D. Alternate Port
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 21
On an RSTP network, when an edge port is in protected state, what operation is performed after the edge
port receives BPDUs?
A. The edge port forwards BPDUs.
B. The edge port discards BPDUs.
C. The edge port is shut down.
D. The edge port obtains required information from BPDUs.
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
In RSTP, the port status can be discarding and learning. Which statements about the port status are true?
(Select 2 Answers)
A. The port in discarding or learning state does not forward data frames.
B. The port in discarding state does not learn MAC addresses.
C. The port in learning state does not learn MAC addresses.
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 23
On the RSTP network as shown in the figure, what is the port role of SWC E0/1 according to the
configuration? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Designated port
B. Root port
C. Alternate port

D. Edge port
210-250 vce Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 24
As shown in the figure, when the link between SWC and LAND is faulty, through which path are TCA
BPDUs sent?
A. From SWA to SWB
B. From SWB to SWC
C. From SWB to SWA
D. From SWC to SWB
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
As shown in the figure, when the STP network runs properly, which device does the designated port of
LANC reside?
A. SWA
B. SWB
C. SWC
D. None of the above
210-250 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
In STP configuration, which statement about BPDUs is true?
A. BPDUs cannot be sent from the designated port.
B. BPDUs can be sent only from the designated port.
C. BPDUs can be sent from any port.
D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
On an STP network, after the network topology changes, which BPDUs are sent during flooding of
topology change information on the entire network?
A. BPDUs with the TCN flag
B. BPDUs with the TCA flag
C. BPDUs with the TC flag
D. All of the above
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
After an STP switch starts, it considers itself as the root switch. Which statements about BDPU parameter
setting are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The switch is the designated root.
B. The designated cost is 0.

C. The switch is the designated bridge.
D. The designated port is 0.
Correct Answer: ABC

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Updated: Aug 02, 2017
Q&As: 275

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 210-260 Dumps  Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION NO: 16
A text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 12 is set to auto-enter the following formula:
FirstName & ” ” & LastNarne
FirstName and LastNarne are text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all
referenced fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any
is checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field
(Choose two.)
A. a record is first created
B. each time the value of the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified
C. a user selects the menu item Records > Relookup Field Contents
D. any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
210-260 exam Answer: A,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
Consider a FileMaker Pro 12 database with the following tables:
210-260 dumps

And the relationship is configured as follows:
210-260 dumps

Which two statements are true about this situation? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible to create new Salesperson records by importing data into the Order table.
B. Users may create new Order records by entering data into a portal on a Salesperson Detail
layout.
C. A merge field can be used on layouts based on the Salesperson table occurrence to show a list
of all of a salesperson’s orders.
D. Removing the sort from the Order side of the relationship will not change the way that Order
records are displayed in a portal on a Salesperson Detail layout.
E. List (Salesperson:: Salesperson ID) calculated from the context of the Order table returns a list
containing the Salesperson ID for the current order.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event id has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records … nor the
Delete related records … settings to be enabled for the Event table.
210-260 dumps Answer:: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an
External ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation
B. These fields may be indexed unless they are of type Summary.
C. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL when the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
D. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button
in the FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
A FileMaker Pro 12 database has two tables called Company and Customer. Both tables have a
number field called CompanyID. The two tables have a relationship between them formed by the
condition Company:: CompanyID = Customer:: CompanyID. Each table also has a text field called
CompanyName. The CompanyName field in the Customer table is defined to Auto-enter
calculated value, with the formula: Company:: CompanyName and the option Do not replace
existing value of field unchecked.
Under which circumstances will the value of the CompanyName field on a Customer record be
refreshed with data from the related Company record?
A. any time the Customer record is modified
B. any time the index of the Company:: CompanyID field is rebuilt
C. any time the related Company:: CompanyName field is modified
D. any time the CompanyID field on the Customer record is modified
E. any time a user chooses Refresh Window from the Records menu while viewing the Customer
record
210-260 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
Which statement is true about container fields in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. If one container field in a given database file is set to Store container data externally, all
container fields in that file must store their data externally
B. If a file larger than a database’s Maximum container file size value is inserted into a container
field. FileMaker Pro 12 will automatically compress the inserted file.
C. If a container field is set to Store container data externally, then the Store only a reference to
the file option is automatically selected for any file inserted into that field.
D. If the setting Generate and store thumbnails for images is chosen in the Manage Containers
dialog for a given database file, all container fields in that file will have thumbnails generated.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
Which two are directly selectable options in the Validation tab of the field options dialog in
FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two.)
A. Existing value
B. Strict data type: Integer
C. Strict data type: Time of Day
D. Strict datatype: Alphanumeric
E. Minimum number of characters
210-260 vce Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
Which two statements are true about fields using global storage in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose
two.)
A. Globally stored fields are always empty at the start of a user’s session.
B. Fields using global storage can be used as match fields in a relationship.
C. A container field using global storage may not be configured to store its data externally.
D. Globally stored fields can only be accessed from within the file in which they are defined.
E. Changes to data in globally stored fields in a shared file are stored when the server cache is
flushed.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
What is possible when working with shadow fields from an External ODBC Data Source?
A. creating a two-column value list
B. saving formatted text (bold, italic, etc.)
C. checking the Auto-complete using previously entered values checkbox in the Field/Control
Setup dialog
D. inserting binary data such as a PDF file, provided the field options are set to Store container
data externally
210-260 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
Which three field options may be set for a shadow field from an External ODBC Data Source?
(Choose three.)
A. Validation: not empty
B. Validation: unique value
C. Validation: existing value
D. Auto-enter creation timestamp
E. Auto-enter serial number, on creation
F. Storage: automatically create indexes as needed
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 26
A table in a FileMaker Pro 12 database has a text field CompanyName. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
– Validate data in this field only during data entry
– Allow user to override during data entry
– Require not empty
– Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName
field. What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides
the error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see the specified
custom message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog
from the FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors,
along with a count of those records.
210-260 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
Given a text field Full Name, Auto-Enter by Calculated value has been selected in the field
options, using the following formula:
Name First &.” “& Name Last
The developer then disables (unchecks) the option Do not replace existing value of field (if any).
For which two cases will the results of the specified formula be inserted into the field Full Name?
(Choose two.)
A. When the record is first created
B. When the field Full Name itself is modified
C. Only when the field Full Name was previously empty
D. When either of the fields Name First or Name Last is modified
E. When the field Full Name itself is modified and the record is committed
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28
A new database is created with two tables, Client and Contracts. The only modification made on
the Relationships Graph is to establish a relationship between them which is set to delete related
records in Contracts when a record in Client is deleted.

What happens when the Client table occurrence is deleted from the Relationships Graph?
A. Since it is the only occurrence of the Client table on the graph, it can not be deleted.
B. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records are deleted.
C. The formula in the calculation field Name Full (defined as Name First & ” ” & Name Last) will be
broken.
D. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records will have values
in the client id field deleted.
210-260 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
Consider two FileMaker files, Collection and Item, where tables from Item are included in the
Relationships Graph of Collection.
Which method will preserve all functionality in the Relationships Graph of Collection after
renaming the Item file to Artifact?

A. Choose File > Manage > External Data Sources… for Collection and reset the file path
B. Click the Repair Reference button in the Relationships Graph for Collection and reset the file
path
C. Delete referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and
recreate them for Artifact
D. Select referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and right
click to choose Rename File Source…
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30
Which two FileMaker Pro 12 objects will display data contents even when unrelated to the current
layout’s table occurrence? (Choose two.)
A. Merge variable
B. Indexed tirnestarnp field
C. A text field from a shadow table
D. Globally stored number field placed in a portal
E. A container field defined with the Store as reference only option enabled
Answer: A,D
210-260 vce Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what is known about this database?
A. The Event table occurrence references a table from an external ODBC Data Source
B. There can be zero or one, but no more than one, Event record related to any Task record.
C. The corner arrows indicate all three table occurrences reference tables from external data
sources.
D. From a layout based on the Event table occurrence, a portal could be drawn showing both
related Task and Volunteer data.
210-260 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Updated: Jul 17, 2017
Q&As: 402

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 300-101 Dumps  Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION NO: 32
Which GSC describes the degree to which the application communicates directly with the
processor?
A. Data communications
B. Distributed data processing
C. Transaction rate
D. Online update
300-101 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 33
Which of the following statements is a characteristic of the GSC – complex processing?
A. Development of the application is influenced by how the development was carried out
B. Development of the application is influenced by the complexity of data communication
C. Development of the application is influenced by the complexity of the processing logic
D. None of the above
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 34
Which transactional function(s) has (have) the primary intent of presenting information to the user
and must reference a data function to retrieve data or control information?
A. EI
B. EO
C. EQ
D. Both B and C
300-101 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 35
The primary intent of an EQ is to:
A. alter the behavior of the application
B. maintain one or more ILFs
C. present information to a user
D. Both A and C
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 36
An External Inquiry is defined as an elementary process that:
A. Sends data outside the boundary
B. Sends Control Information outside the boundary
C. Has a primary intent to present information to a user through retrieval of data or control
information
D. All of the above
300-101 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 37
Which statement(s) is (are) true regarding mandatory processing logic for an EQ?
A. Data or control information is maintained
B. Conditions are analyzed to determine which are applicable
C. At least one ILF or EIF is referenced
D. Data or control information entering the boundary of the application is accepted
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 38
Which processing logic can be performed by an EQ?
A. Equivalent values are converted
B. Behavior of the application is altered
C. Derived data is created
D. Both A and B
300-101 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 39
The functional complexity of an EQ is based upon the number of:
A. RETs
B. FTRs
C. DETs
D. Both B and C
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 40
Which of the following forms of processing logic is mandatory that an EO perform at least one
(m*)?
A. Behavior of the application is altered
B. Equivalent values are converted
C. At least one ILF or EIF is referenced
D. Information is prepared and then presented outside the boundary
300-101 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 41
Which of the following statements is true regarding EOs?
A. An EO is an elementary process that sends data or control information outside the boundary.
B. An EO includes additional processing logic beyond that of an EQ.
C. An EO always maintains a data function.
D. Both A and B
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Processing logic is defined as any of the requirements specifically requested by the user to
complete an elementary process. Those requirements include which of the following actions?
A. Validations
B. Algorithms or calculations
C. Reading or maintaining a data function
D. All of the above
300-101 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 43
An External Output is defined as an elementary process that:
A. Includes addition processing beyond an external inquiry
B. Sends data outside the boundary
C. Has a primary intent to present information to a user though processing logic or in addition to
retrieval of data or control information.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 44
Which of the following statements about an External Output are true?
A. Processing logic must contain multiple mathematical formulas
B. Processing logic must perform at least one mathematical formula
C. Processing logic creates derived data
D. Processing logic contains derived data
300-101 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 45
An FTR is be defined as a:
A. data function maintained by a base functional component
B. data function read and/or maintained by a transactional function
C. base functional component maintained by a transactional function
D. base functional component read and/or maintained by a transactional function
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 46

What is the primary intent of an ILF?
A. Hold data maintained through system tools for use by the application being measured
B. Hold code data for use by the application being measured
C. Hold data maintained through one or more elementary processes of the application being
measured
D. Both A and C
300-101 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 47
Data Element Type is defined as?
A. Functionality provided to the user to meet internal or external data storage requirements
B. An attribute that further describes one or more attributes of another entity
C. Two types of the base functional components identified in the IFPUG International Standard
D. Unique, user recognizable, non-repeated attribute
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 200-105
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Updated: Jul 16, 2017
Q&As: 204

Study Material  for Cisco 200-105 Dumps ICND2 Outline

  1. Cisco Device Management
  2. Troubleshooting Networks
  3. Network Addressing
  4. VLANs and Trunking
  5. Spanning Tree Protocol
  6. Advanced Switch Redundancy
  7. Access Layer Security
  8. Routing Fundamentals
  9. EIGRP Configuration
  10. OSPF Configuration
  11. PPP WANs
  12. eBGP Configuration
  13. Secure VPNs and Tunneling
  14. Intelligent Networks
  15. Quality of Service

200-105

Free Pass4itsure Cisco 200-105 Dumps  Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 7
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a
server with the address of 192.168.13.26. Which commands can the administrator issue to verify that the
access list is working properly? (Choose three.)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
200-105 exam Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

200-105

Correct Answer:

200-105

QUESTION 9
Lab – Access List Simulation
A network associate is adding security to the configuration of the Corp1 router. The user on host C should
be able to use a web browser to access financial information from the Finance Web Server. No other hosts
from the LAN nor the Core should be able to use a web browser to access this server. Since there are

multiple resources for the corporation at this location including other resources on the Finance Web
Server, all other traffic should be allowed.
The task is to create and apply a numbered access-list with no more than three statements that will allow
ONLY host C web access to the Finance Web Server. No other hosts will have web access to the Finance
Web Server. All other traffic is permitted.
Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host.
All passwords have been temporarily set to “cisco”.
The Core connection uses an IP address of 198.18.196.65
The computers in the Hosts LAN have been assigned addresses of 192.168.33.1 – 92.168.33.254
Host A 192.168.33.1
Host B 192.168.33.2
Host C 192.168.33.3
Host D 192.168.33.4
The servers in the Server LAN have been assigned addresses of 172.22.242.17 – 172.22.242.30
The Finance Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172.22.242.23.
The Public Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172.22.242.17

200-105

200-105 dumps Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation
QUESTION 10
A sporting goods manufacturer has decided to network three (3) locations to improve efficiency in inventory
control. The routers have been named to reflect the location: Boston, Frankfurt, and Lancaster.
The necessary networking has been completed at each location, and the routers have been configured
with single area OSPF as the routing protocol. The Boston router was recently installed but connectivity is
not complete because of incomplete routing tables.
Identify and correct any problem you see in the configuration.
Note: The OSPF process must be configured to allow interfaces in specific subnets to participate in the
routing process.

200-105

Correct Answer: The question mentioned Boston router was not configured correctly or incomplete so we
should check this router first. Click on Host B to access the command line interface (CLI) of Boston router.
QUESTION 11
200-105

200-105

200-105

200-105

200-105

200-105

200-105

Why did Branch1 router lose WAN connectivity with R1 router?
A. The IP address is misconfigured on PPP multilink interface on the Branch1 router.
B. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the anch1 serial interfaces.
C. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the R1 serial interfaces.
D. The Branch1 serial interfaces are placed in a shutdown condition.
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a
device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
200-105 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
C. Only RADIUS uses TCP.
D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which IEEE standard does PVST+ use to tunnel information?
A. 802.1x
B. 802 1q
C. 802.1w
D. 802.1s
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client?
A. Ethernet
B. dialer
C. serial
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
200-105 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105

Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105

At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105

A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the
AcmeB router. What action does the router take?

A. forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface
B. forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface
C. forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface
D. forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
A. a backup route, stored in the routing table
B. a primary route, stored in the routing table
C. a backup route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the topology table
200-105 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE

Now the 200-105 new questions arises how to go through Pass4itsure 200-105 dumps certification. The answer is so simple do preparation for Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0) exam. Our Cisco 200-105 dumps sample questions and ICND2 dumps have designed CCNA Routing and Switching 200-105 practice test preparation materials in order to solve the problems for Pass4itsure https://www.pass4itsure.com/200-105.html dumps ICND2.

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