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QUESTION 31
Neil works as a project manager for SoftTech Inc. He is working with Tom, the COO of his company, on several risks within the project. Tom understands that through qualitative analysis Neil has identified many risks in the project. Tom’s concern, however, is that the priority list of these risk events are sorted in “high-risk,” “moderate-risk,” and “low-risk” as conditions apply within the project. Tom wants to know that is there any other objective on which Neil can make the priority list for project risks. What will be Neil’s reply to Tom?
A. Risk may be listed by the responses inthe near-term
B. Risks may be listed by categories
C. Risks may be listed by the additional analysis and response
D. Risks may be listed by priority separately for schedule, cost, and performance
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
In which type of access control do user ID and password system come under?
A. Administrative
B. Technical
C. Power
D. Physical

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
You and your project team are identifying the risks that may exist within your project. Some of the risks are small risks that won’t affect your project much if they happen. What should you do with these identified risk events?
A. These risks can be accepted.
B. These risks can be added to a low priority risk watch list.
C. All risks must have a valid, documented risk response.
D. These risks can be dismissed.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
Your project uses a piece of equipment that if the temperature of the machine goes above 450 degree Fahrenheit the machine will overheat and have to be shut down for 48 hours. Should this machine overheat even once it will delay the project’s end date. You work with your project to create a response that should the temperature of the machine reach 430, the machine will be paused for at least an hour to cool it down. The temperature of 430 is called what?
A. Risk identification
B. Risk response
C. Risk trigger
D. Risk event

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35
Adrian is the project manager of the NHP Project. In her project there are several work packages that deal with electrical wiring. Rather than to manage the risk internally she has decided to hire a vendor to complete all work packages that deal with the electrical wiring. By removing the risk internally to a licensed electrician Adrian feels more comfortable with project team being safe. What type of risk response has Adrian used in this example?
A. Mitigation
B. Transference
C. Avoidance
D. Acceptance

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
James work as an IT systems personnel in SoftTech Inc. He performs the following tasks:
Runs regular backups and routine tests of the validity of the backup data. Performs data restoration from
the backups whenever required. Maintains the retained records in accordance with the established
information classification policy.
What is the role played by James in the organization?

A. Manager
B. User
C. Owner
D. Custodian

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Which of the following is an entry in an object’s discretionary access control list (DACL) that grants permissions to a user or group?
A. Access control entry (ACE)
B. Discretionary access control entry (DACE)
C. Access control list (ACL)
D. Security Identifier (SID)

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
You are the project manager for your organization. You have identified a risk event you’re your organization could manage internally or externally. If you manage the event internally it will cost your project $578,000 and an additional $12,000 per month the solution is in use. A vendor can manage the risk event for you. The vendor will charge $550,000 and $14,500 per month that the solution is in use. How many months will you need to use the solution to pay for the internal solution in comparison to the vendor’s solution?
A. Approximately 13 months
B. Approximately 11 months
C. Approximately 15 months
D. Approximately 8 months

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Which of the following refers to the ability to ensure that the data is not modified or tampered with?
A. Confidentiality
B. Availability
C. Integrity
D. Non-repudiation

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Management wants you to create a visual diagram of what resources will be utilized in the project deliverables. What type of a chart is management asking you to create?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Resource breakdown structure
C. RACI chart
D. Roles and responsibility matrix

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
You are preparing to start the qualitative risk analysis process for your project. You will be relying on some organizational process assets to influence the process. Which one of the following is NOT a probable reason for relying on organizational process assets as an input for qualitative risk analysis?
A. Information on prior, similar projects
B. Review of vendor contracts to examine risks in past projects
C. Risk databases that may be available from industry sources
D. Studies of similar projects by risk specialists
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
System Authorization is the risk management process. System Authorization Plan (SAP) is a
comprehensive and uniform approach to the System Authorization Process. What are the different phases
of System Authorization Plan?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Pre-certification
B. Certification
C. Post-certification
D. Authorization
E. Post-Authorization

Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 43
A part of a project deals with the hardware work. As a project manager, you have decided to hire a company to deal with all hardware work on the project. Which type of risk response is this?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Exploit
D. Transference

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Risks with low ratings of probability and impact are included on a ____ for future monitoring.
A. Watchlist
B. Risk alarm
C. Observation list
D. Risk register

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 45
Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system, network, or Web
application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Which of the following areas can be
exploited in a penetration test?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Social engineering
B. File and directory permissions
C. Buffer overflows
D. Kernel flaws
E. Race conditions
F. Information system architectures
G. Trojan horses

Correct Answer: ABCDEG

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following professionals plays the role of a monitor and takes part in the organization’s configuration management process?
A. Senior Agency Information Security Officer
B. Authorizing Official
C. Common Control Provider
D. Chief Information Officer

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT) director, is a job title commonly given to the most senior executive in an enterprise. What are the responsibilities of a Chief Information Officer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Preserving high-level communications and working group relationships in an organization
B. Facilitating the sharing of security risk-related information among authorizing officials
C. Establishing effective continuous monitoring program for the organization
D. Proposing the information technology needed by an enterprise to achieve its goals and then working within a budget to implement the plan

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 3
The Information System Security Officer (ISSO) and Information System Security Engineer (ISSE) play the
role of a supporter and advisor, respectively. Which of the following statements are true about ISSO and
ISSE?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. An ISSE provides advice on the impacts of system changes.
B. An ISSE manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation (C&A).
C. An ISSO manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation (C&A).
D. An ISSO takes part in the development activities that are required to implement system changes.
E. An ISSE provides advice on the continuous monitoring of the information system.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 4
Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A) process?
A. Information system owner
B. Authorizing Official
C. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
D. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following assessment methodologies defines a six-step technical security evaluation?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS 102
C. OCTAVE
D. DITSCAP

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores,
transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. What phases are
identified by DIACAP?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Accreditation
B. Identification
C. System Definition
D. Verification
E. Validation
F. Re-Accreditation

Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 7
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. He wants users to access only those resources that are required for them. Which of the following access control models will he use?
A. Mandatory Access Control
B. Role-Based Access Control
C. Discretionary Access Control
D. Policy Access Control

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which of the following refers to an information security document that is used in the United States Department of Defense (DoD) to describe and accredit networks and systems?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS
C. TCSEC
D. SSAA

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
James work as an IT systems personnel in SoftTech Inc. He performs the following tasks:
Runs regular backups and routine tests of the validity of the backup data. Performs data restoration from
the backups whenever required. Maintains the retained records in accordance with the established
information classification policy.
What is the role played by James in the organization?

A. Manager
B. Owner
C. Custodian
D. User
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
FITSAF stands for Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework. It is a methodology for assessing the security of information systems. Which of the following FITSAF levels shows that the procedures and controls have been implemented?
A. Level 4
B. Level 1
C. Level 3
D. Level 5
E. Level 2

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. Which of the following is the correct order of C&A phases in a DITSCAP assessment?
A. Definition, Validation, Verification, and Post Accreditation
B. Verification, Definition, Validation, and Post Accreditation
C. Verification, Validation, Definition, and Post Accreditation
D. Definition, Verification, Validation, and Post Accreditation

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
System Authorization is the risk management process. System Authorization Plan (SAP) is a
comprehensive and uniform approach to the System Authorization Process. What are the different phases
of System Authorization Plan?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Post-Authorization
B. Pre-certification
C. Post-certification
D. Certification
E. Authorization

Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 13
Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. It is a systematic procedure for evaluating, describing, testing, and authorizing systems prior to or after a system is in operation. Which of the following statements are true about Certification and Accreditation? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Accreditation is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system.
B. Accreditation is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system.
C. Certification is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system.
D. Certification is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 14
Which of the following requires all general support systems and major applications to be fully certified and accredited before these systems and applications are put into production? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. NIST
B. FIPS
C. FISMA
D. Office of Management and Budget (OMB)

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 15
The National Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (NIACAP) is the minimum standard process for the certification and accreditation of computer and telecommunications systems that handle U.S. national security information. What are the different types of NIACAP accreditation? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Secure accreditation
B. Type accreditation
C. System accreditation
D. Site accreditation

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 16
According to U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Instruction 8500.2, there are eight Information Assurance
(IA) areas, and the controls are referred to as IA controls. Which of the following are among the eight
areas of IA defined by DoD?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. VI Vulnerability and Incident Management
B. DC Security Design & Configuration
C. EC Enclave and Computing Environment
D. Information systems acquisition, development, and maintenance

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 17
DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores,
transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. What phases are
identified by DIACAP?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Validation
B. Re-Accreditation
C. Verification
D. System Definition
E. Identification
F. Accreditation

Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is a subset discipline of Corporate Governance focused on information security systems and their performance and risk management?
A. Lanham Act
B. ISG
C. Clinger-Cohen Act
D. Computer Misuse Act
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
Ben is the project manager of the YHT Project for his company. Alice, one of his team members, is confused about when project risks will happen in the project. Which one of the following statements is the most accurate about when project risk happens?
A. Project risk can happen at any moment.
B. Project risk is uncertain, so no one can predict when the event will happen.
C. Project risk happens throughout the project execution.
D. Project riskis always in the future.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
You are the project manager of the NKJ Project for your company. The project’s success or failure will have a significant impact on your organization’s profitability for the coming year. Management has asked you to identify the risk events and communicate the event’s probability and impact as early as possible in the project. Management wants to avoid risk events and needs to analyze the cost-benefits of each risk event in this project. What term is assigned to the low-level of stakeholder tolerance in this project?
A. Risk avoidance
B. Mitigation-ready project management
C. Risk utility function
D. Risk-reward mentality

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Where can a project manager find risk-rating rules?
A. Risk probability and impact matrix
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk management plan

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
There are five inputs to the quantitative risk analysis process. Which one of the following is NOT an input to the perform quantitative risk analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Cost management plan
C. Risk management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Your project has several risks that may cause serious financial impact should they happen. You have studied the risk events and made some potential risk responses for the risk events but management wants you to do more. They’d like for you to create some type of a chart that identified the risk probability and impact with a financial amount for each risk event. What is the likely outcome of creating this type of chart?
A. Risk response plan
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Risk response
D. Contingency reserve

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A) process?
A. Authorizing Official
B. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
C. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
D. Information system owner

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
You are working as a project manager in your organization. You are nearing the final stages of project execution and looking towards the final risk monitoring and controlling activities. For your project archives, which one of the following is an output of risk monitoring and control?
A. Quantitative risk analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Requested changes
D. Risk audits

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Which of the following DoD directives is referred to as the Defense Automation Resources Management Manual?
A. DoDD 8000.1
B. DoD 7950.1-M
C. DoD 5200.22-M
D. DoD 8910.1
E. DoD 5200.1-R

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
The phase 3 of the Risk Management Framework (RMF) process is known as mitigation planning. Which of the following processes take place in phase 3? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Identify threats, vulnerabilities, and controls that will be evaluated.
B. Document and implement a mitigation plan.
C. Agree on a strategy to mitigate risks.
D. Evaluate mitigation progress and plan next assessment.

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 28
Gary is the project manager of his organization. He is managing a project that is similar to a project his organization completed recently. Gary has decided that he will use the information from the past project to help him and the project team to identify the risks that may be present in the project. Management agrees that this checklist approach is ideal and will save time in the project. Which of the following statement is most accurate about the limitations of the checklist analysis approach for Gary?
A. The checklist analysis approach is fast but it is impossible to build and exhaustive checklist.
B. The checklist analysis approach only uses qualitative analysis.
C. The checklist analysis approach saves time, but can cost more.
D. The checklist is also known as top down risk assessment

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
What are the subordinate tasks of the Initiate and Plan IA C&A phase of the DIACAP process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Develop DIACAP strategy.
B. Assign IA controls.
C. Assemble DIACAP team.
D. Initiate IA implementation plan.
E. Register system with DoD Component IA Program.
F. Conduct validation activity.

Correct Answer: ABCDE
QUESTION 30
Information risk management (IRM) is the process of identifying and assessing risk, reducing it to an
acceptable level, and implementing the right mechanisms to maintain that level. What are the different
categories of risk?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. System interaction
B. Human interaction
C. Equipment malfunction
D. Inside and outside attacks
E. Social status
F. Physical damage

Correct Answer: BCDEF

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