Discover tips, strategies, and resources for passing Cisco CCNP certification exams such as CCNP Enterprise, CCNP Security, and CCNP Collaboration, perfect for networking professionals looking to advance.
The Cisco 350-401 exam—120 minutes, 100 questions—sounds tough, right? Don’t worry, this isn’t a scare-off; it’s a “toolkit” built just for you to nail the CCNP in 6 weeks. Packed with strategies, 15 free practice questions, and the ultimate gem—my recommended Pass4itsure with a full question and answers. Ready to turn the tables? Open the toolkit and grab your weapons!
Toolkit 1: 350-401 Exam—Aim at these test points
First, understand the battlefield: Cisco 350-401 (ENCOR) has 6 key points and 100 questions waiting for you to conquer:
Architecture (15%): SD-WAN and EVN, don’t mix up the logical layers.
Virtualization (10%): VXLAN encapsulation, focusing on key configurations.
Infrastructure (35%): OSPF and BGP have the most questions, and practice convergence optimization.
Network assurance (15%): BFD detection, detailed inspection of traffic.
Security (20%): ACL priority needs to be understood.
Automation (15%): Python script, don’t write the wrong loop.
Self-test: Can BGP neighbors be configured? If you don’t know, just check it from the Cisco official website (cisco.com/training).
Toolkit 2: 6-week exam preparation checklist – fast pace
6 weeks is not enough? Enough! This list gets you straight to the point:
Week 1: Starting Line
Use Packet Tracer (netacad.com) to practice OSPF, 1 hour/day.
Week 2: Core Breakthrough
Take infrastructure questions (35%), 5 questions per day from Cisco Learning (learningnetwork.cisco.com).
Week 3: Scenario Walkthrough
Configure VXLAN and BGP and fix one error every day.
Week 4: Security + Automation
Practice ACL and scripts until they are 80% correct.
Simulate 100 questions, 1.2 minutes per question, adjust the pace. Weekly checkpoint: Less than 70%? Practice that more!
Toolkit 3: “Secrets to Speeding Up” on Exam Day – Don’t panic for 100 questions
The exam is a tough battle, these tips will help you win:
Time cutting: Scan 60 multiple-choice questions first, and leave 40 minutes for Lab questions.
Scan for clues: Look for “bandwidth” and “routing” in the question stem to lock in the answer range.
Eliminate quick cuts: Cut out obviously wrong options (such as static routing and fix dynamic ones) and choose the best one.
Example: “OSPF does not converge”? Check neighbor status in 10 seconds. Save time and score points.
Toolkit 4: 350-401 ENCOR 15 free practice questions
Want to test the waters? I have shared 15 of the latest Cisco 350-401 practice questions for free: covering high-frequency points such as BGP and VXLAN. You can understand the details by practicing casually.
Question 1:
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must configure a SPAN session. What is the effect of the configuration?
A. Traffic sent on VLANs 10 and 12 only is copied and sent to interface g0/1
B. Traffic received on VLANs 10, 11, and 12 is copied and sent to interface g0/1
C. Traffic received on VLANs 10 and 12 only is copied and sent to interface g0/1.
D. Traffic sent on VLANs 10, 11 , and 12 is copied and sent to interface g0/1
Correct Answer: B
Question 2:
An engineer must configure a new WLAN that supports 802.11r and requires users to enter a passphrase. What must be configured to support this requirement?
A. 802.1X and Fast Transition
B. FT PSK and Fast Transition
C. 802.1X and SUITEB-1X
D. FT PSK and SUITEB-1X
Correct Answer: B
Question 3:
A client with IP address 209.165.201.25 must access a web server on port 80 at 209.165.200.225. To allow this traffic, an engineer must add a statement to an access control list that is applied in the inbound direction on the port connecting to the web servers. Which statement allows this traffic?
C. permit tcp host 209.165.200 225 It 80 host 209.165.201.25
D. permit tcp host 209.165.200.225 host 209.165.201.25 eq 80
Correct Answer: A
Question 4:
Refer to the exhibit.
On which interfaces should VRRP commands be applied to provide first hop redundancy to PC-01 and PC-02?
A. G0/0 and G0/1 on Core
B. G0/0 on Edge-01 and G0/0 on Edge-02
C. G0/1 on Edge-01 and G0/1 on Edge-02
D. G0/0 and G0/1 on ASW-01
Correct Answer: C
Correct as the FRRP protocol should be configured on interfaces that have the end nodes network.
Question 5:
Refer to the exhibit.
What does the snippet of code achieve?
A. It creates a temporary connection to a Cisco Nexus device and retrieves a token to be used for API calls.
B. It opens a tunnel and encapsulates the login information, if the host key is correct.
C. It opens an ncclient connection to a Cisco Nexus device and maintains it for the duration of the context.
D. It creates an SSH connection using the SSH key that is stored, and the password is ignored.
Correct Answer: C
ncclient is a Python library that facilitates client-side scripting and application development around the NETCONF protocol. The above Python snippet uses the ncclient to connect and establish a NETCONF session to a Nexus device (which is also a NETCONF server).
Question 6:
An engineer must enable a login authentication method that allows a user to log in by using local authentication if all other defined authentication methods fail Which configuration should be applied?
A. aaa authentication login CONSOLE group radius local-case enable aaa
B. authentication login CONSOLE group radius local enable none
C. aaa authentication login CONSOLE group radius local enable
D. aaa authentication login CONSOLE group tacacs+ local enable
Correct Answer: D
Question 7:
Which TCP setting is tuned to minimize the risk of fragmentation on a GRE/IP tunnel?
A. MTU
B. Window size
C. MRU
D. MSS
Correct Answer: D
The TCP Maximum Segment Size (TCP MSS) defines the maximum amount of data that a host is willing to accept in a single TCP/IP datagram. This TCP/IP datagram might be fragmented at the IP layer.
The MSS value is sent as a TCP header option only in TCP SYN segments. Each side of a TCP connection reports its MSS value to the other side.
Contrary to popular belief, the MSS value is not negotiated between hosts. The sending host is required to limit the size of data in a single TCP segment to a value less than or equal to the MSS reported by the receiving host.
TCP MSS takes care of fragmentation at the two endpoints of a TCP connection, but it does not handle the case where there is a smaller MTU link in the middle between these two endpoints. PMTUD was developed in order to avoid fragmentation in the path between the endpoints. It is used to dynamically determine the lowest MTU along the path from a packet\’s source to its destination.
Note: IP fragmentation involves breaking a datagram into a number of pieces that can be reassembled later.
Question 8:
Which two statements about IP SLA are true? (Choose two)
A. It uses NetFlow for passive traffic monitoring
B. It can measure MOS
C. The IP SLA responder is a component in the source Cisco device
D. It is Layer 2 transport-independent correct
E. It uses active traffic monitoring correct
F. SNMP access is not supported
Correct Answer: DE
IP SLAs allows Cisco customers to analyze IP service levels for IP applications and services, to increase productivity, to lower operational costs, and to reduce the frequency of network outages. IP SLAs uses active traffic monitoringhe generation of traffic in a continuous, reliable, and predictable manneror measuring network performance. Being Layer-2 transport independent, IP SLAs can be configured end-to- end over disparate networks to best reflect the metrics that an end-user is likely to experience.
An engineer is troubleshooting an issue with client devices triggering excessive power changes on APs in the 2.4 GHz band. Which action resolves this issue?
Which network script automation option or tool is used in the exhibit?
A. EEM
B. Bash script
C. REST correct
D. NETCONF
E. Python
Correct Answer: C
Question 11:
If the maximum power level assignment for global TPC 802.11a/n/ac is configured to 10 dBm, which power level effectively doubles the transmit power?
A. 13dBm
B. 14 dBm
C. 17dBm
D. 20 dBm
Correct Answer: A
Suppose a transmitter is configured for a power level of 10 dBm. A cable with 5-dB loss connects the transmitter to an antenna with an 8-dBi gain. The resulting EIRP of the system is EIRP = 10 dBm ?5 dB + 8 dBi = 13 dBm.
Question 12:
Which A record type should be configured for access points to resolve the IP address of a wireless LAN controller using DNS?
A. CISCO.CONTROLLER.localdomain
B. CISCO.CAPWAP.CONTROLLER.localdomain
C. CISCO-CONTROLLER.localdomain
D. CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.localdomain
Correct Answer: D
Question 13:
Refer to the exhibit.
The web server is configured to listen only to TCP port 8080 for all HTTP requests. Which command is required to allow Internet users to access the web server on HTTP port 80?
A. ip nat outside static tcp 10.1.1.100 8080 10.1.1.100 80
B. ip nat inside static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 10.1.1.100 8080
C. ip nat inside static tcp 10.1.1.100 8080 10.1.1.100 80
D. ip nat outside static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 10.1.1.100 8080
Correct Answer: C
Question 14:
A wireless administrator must create a new web authentication corporate SSID that will be using ISE as the external RADIUS server. The guest VLAN must be specified after the authentication completes. Which action must be performed to allow the ISE server to specify the guest VLAN?
A. Enable AAA Override.
B. Enable Network Access Control State.
C. Set AAA Policy name.
D. Set RADIUS Profiling.
Correct Answer: A
Question 15:
Which of the following are valid statements when configuring Nonstop Forwarding (NSF) with Stateful Switchover (SSO) on a Cisco device? (Choose two.)
A. supports multicast routing protocols
B. Supports IPv4 and IPv6
C. Nonstop Forwarding requires SSO to also be configured
D. HSRP is not supported with NSF/SSO
E. Improper implementation of NSF/SSO can result in routing loops
Correct Answer: CD
NSF capability is supported for IPv4 routing protocols only. NSF capability is not supported for IPv6 routing protocols.
NSF does not support IP Multicast Routing, as it is not SSO-aware.
You must configure SSO in order to use NSF with any supported protocol.
The Hot Standby Routing Protocol (HSRP) is not supported with NSF SSO. Do not use HSRP with NSF SSO.
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QUESTION 156
Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port? switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
A. The port will shut down.
B. The host will be allowed to connect. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
C. The host will be refused access.
D. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Choose three.)
A. STP
B. CDP
C. EAP MD5
D. TACACS+
E. EAP-over-LAN
F. protocols not filtered by an ACL
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
When you issue a command show port 3/1 on an Ethernet port, you observe the Giants column has a non-zero entry. What could cause this?
A. IEEE 802.1Q
B. IEEE 802.10
C. misconfigured NIC
D. user configuration
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
Which VTP information does a Catalyst switch advertise on its trunk ports when using VTP? (Choose two.)
A. VTP mode
B. STP root status
C. negotiation status
D. management domain
E. configuration revision number
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 160
What are two benefits provided in VTP Version 2 but NOT in VTP Version 1? (Choose two.)
A. supports Token Ring VLANs
B. allows VLAN consistency checks
C. saves VLAN configuration memory
D. reduces the amount of configuration necessary
E. allows active redundant links when used with spanning tree
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
Refer to the exhibit. All network links are FastEthernet. Although there is complete connectivity throughout the network, Front Line users have been complaining that they experience slower network performance when accessing the server farm than the Reception office experiences. Based on the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Changing the bridge priority of S1 to 4096 would improve network performance.
B. Changing the bridge priority of S1 to 36864 would improve network performance.
C. Changing the bridge priority of S2 to 36864 would improve network performance.
D. Changing the bridge priority of S3 to 4096 would improve network performance. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
E. Disabling the Spanning Tree Protocol would improve network performance.
F. Upgrading the link between S2 and S3 to Gigabit Ethernet would improve performance.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Refer to the exhibit. PCs in VLAN 2 are not able to communicate with PCs in VLAN 3. What could be
the cause?
A. IP routing is not enabled.
B. VTP is not configured correctly on the interfaces.
C. The command mls rp management-interface is missing.
D. The command mls rp ip must be disabled to enable the routing.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
Which three statements are true of the Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP)? (Choose three.)
A. LACP is used to connect to non-Cisco devices.
B. LACP packets are sent with the command channel-group 1 mode desirable.
C. LACP packets are sent with the command channel-group 1 mode active.
D. Standby interfaces should be configured with a higher priority.
E. Standby interfaces should be configured with a lower priority.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 164
Refer to the exhibit. A workstation PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone access port. Based on the
configuration in the exhibit, how will the traffic be managed?
A. The IP phone access port will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
B. The IP phone access port will trust the priority of the frames received from the PC.
C. The switch port Fa0/4 will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
D. The switch port Fa0/4 will trust the priority for the frames received from the PC.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Refer to the exhibit. A trunk link is connected between switch A_SW and switch D_SW. Based on the
configuration shown in the exhibit, how would the traffic coming from the switch A_SW be managed?
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A. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from the IP phone.
B. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone.
C. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from port Fa0/1 on A_SW.
D. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the A_SW switch port Fa0/4.
E. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone port.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Which option correctly identifies the Cisco IOS switching methods in descending order from the fastest
method to the slowest method?
A. CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching, process switching
B. distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching, process switching
C. fast switching, process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
D. process switching, fast switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
E. process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching
F. process switching, CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
What will occur when a nonedge switch port that is configured for Rapid Spanning Tree does not
receive a BPDU from its neighbor for three consecutive hello time intervals?
A. RSTP information is automatically aged out.
B. The port sends a TCN to the root bridge.
C. The port moves to listening state.
D. The port becomes a normal spanning tree port.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
Refer to the exhibit. Why does the trust state of interface FastEthernet 0/3 show “not trusted”?
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A. DSCP map needs to be configured for VOIP.
B. ToS has not been configured.
C. ToS has been misconfigured.
D. The command mls qos needs to be turned on in global configuration mode.
E. There is not a Cisco Phone attached to the interface.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 169
What two things will occur when an edge port receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)
A. The port immediately transitions to the Forwarding state.
B. The switch generates a Topology Change Notification (TCN) BPDU.
C. The port immediately transitions to the err-disable state.
D. The port becomes a normal STP switch port.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
What two pieces of information will the show vlan id 5 command display? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN information on port 0/5
B. ports in VLAN 5
C. MTU and type
D. utilization
E. filters
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
Based on the network diagram and routing table output in the exhibit, which of these statements is
true?
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A. InterVLAN routing has been configured properly, and the workstations have connectivity to each other.
B. InterVLAN routing will not occur since no routing protocol has been configured.
C. Although interVLAN routing is not enabled, both workstations will have connectivity to each other.
D. Although interVLAN routing is enabled, the workstations will not have connectivity to each other.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 172
What is the default VTP advertisement for subset advertisements in Catalyst switches that are in server or client mode?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 1 minute
E. 5 minutes
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 173
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the debug output that is shown, which three statements about HSRP
are true? (Choose three.)
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A. The final active router is the router with IP address 172.16.11.111.
B. The router with IP address 172.16.11.111 has preempt configured.
C. The priority of the router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is preferred over the router with IP address
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
16.11.111.
A. The IP address 172.16.11.115 is the virtual HSRP IP address.
B. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 has nonpreempt configured.
C. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is using default HSRP priority.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
What must be configured on a Cisco switch in order to advertise VLAN information?
A. VTP password
B. VTP domain name
C. VTP revision number
D. VTP mode
E. VTP pruning
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
Which describes the default load balancing scheme used by the Gateway Load Balancing Protocol
(GLBP)?
A. per host basis using a round-robin scheme
B. per host basis using a strict priority scheme
C. per session using a round-robin scheme
D. per session using a strict priority scheme
E. per GLBP group using a round-robin scheme TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
F. per GLBP group using a strict priority scheme
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
When authentication is required, where must 802.1x be configured in order to connect a PC to a
switch?
A. client PC only
B. switch port only
C. switch port and client PC
D. switch port and local router port
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
How are STP timers and state transitions affected when a topology change occurs in an STP
environment?
A. All ports will temporarily transition to the learning state for a period equal to the max age timer plus the forward delay interval.
B. All ports will transition temporarily to the learning state for a period equal to the forward delay interval.
C. The default aging time for MAC address entries will be reduced for a period of the max age timer plus the forward delay interval.
D. The default hello time for configuration BDPUs will be reduced for the period of the max age timer.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 179
Refer to the exhibit. VTP has been enabled on the trunk links between all switches within the TEST
domain. An administrator has recently enabled VTP pruning. Port 1 on Switch 1 and port 2 on Switch 4 are
assigned to VLAN 2. A broadcast is sent from the host connected to Switch 1. Where will the broadcast
propagate?
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A. Every switch in the network receives the broadcast and will forward it out all ports.
B. Every switch in the network receives the broadcast, but only Switch 4 will forward it out port 2.
C. Switches 1, 2, and 4 will receive the broadcast, but only Switch 4 will forward it out port 2.
D. Only Switch 4 will receive the broadcast and will forward it out port 2.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 180
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 1 and VLAN 2 are configured on the trunked links between Switch A and Switch B. Port Fa 0/2 on Switch B is currently in a blocking state for both VLANs. What should be done to load balance VLAN traffic between Switch A and Switch B?
A. Lower the port priority for VLAN 1 on port 0/1 for Switch A.
B. Lower the port priority for VLAN 1 on port 0/2 for Switch A.
C. Make the bridge ID of Switch B lower than the ID of Switch A.
D. Enable HSRP on the access ports.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181
Refer to the exhibit. Which two problems are the most likely cause of the exhibited output? (Choose
two.)
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A. spanning tree issues
B. HSRP misconfiguration
C. VRRP misconfiguration
D. physical layer issues
E. transport layer issues
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
Refer to the exhibit. Initially, LinkA is connected and forwarding traffic. A new LinkB is then attached between SwitchA and HubA. Which two statements are true about the possible result of attaching the second link? (Choose two.)
A. The switch port attached to LinkB will not transistion to up.
B. One of the two switch ports attached to the hub will go into blocking mode when a BPDU is received.
C. Both switch ports attached to the hub will transition to the blocking state.
D. A heavy traffic load could cause BPDU transmissions to be blocked and leave a switching loop.
E. The switch port attached to LinkA will immediately transition to the blocking state.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 183
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration on routers R1 and R2. Hot Standby Routing Protocol (HSRP) is configured on the network to provide network redundancy for the IP traffic. The network administrator noticed that R2 does not became active when the R1 serial0 interface goes down. What should be changed in the configuration to fix the problem?
A. R2 should be configured with a HSRP virtual address.
B. R2 should be configured with a standby priority of 100.
C. The Serial0 interface on router R1 should be configured with a decrement value of 20.
D. The Serial1 interface on router R2 should be configured with a decrement value of 20.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the output?
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A. The port on switch CAT1 is forwarding and sending BPDUs correctly.
B. The port on switch CAT1 is blocking and sending BPDUs correctly.
C. The port on switch CAT2 is forwarding and receiving BPDUs correctly.
D. The port on switch CAT2 is blocking and sending BPDUs correctly.
E. The port on switch CAT3 is forwarding and receiving BPDUs correctly.
F. The port on switch CAT3 is forwarding, sending, and receiving BPDUs correctly.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 185
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true based upon the configuration of router R1 and router R2?
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A. Router R1 will become the active virtual gateway.
B. Router R2 will become the active virtual gateway.
C. The hello and hold timers are incompatible with multi-homed BGP.
D. The hello and hold timers are incompatible with OSPF type 5 LSAs.
E. Router R1 will become the master for Virtual Router 1, and router R2 will become the backup for Virtual Router 2.
F. Router R2 will become the master for Virtual Router 1, and router R1 will become the backup for Virtual Router 2.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 186
Refer to the exhibit. The switchport output in Figure 1 displays the default settings of interface
FastEthernet 0/13 on switch SW1. Figure 2 displays the desired interface settings. Which command
sequence would configure interface FastEthernet 0/13 as displayed in Figure 2?
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Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 187
Refer to the exhibit. For what purpose is the command show ip cef used?
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A. to display rewritten IP unicast packets
B. to display ARP resolution packets
C. to display ARP throttling
D. to display TCAM matches
E. to display CEF-based MLS lookups
F. to display entries in the Forwarding Information Base (FIB)
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 188
Which two statements are true about HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP? (Choose two.)
A. GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment without the different host IP configurations required to achieve the same results with HSRP.
B. GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment by utilizing the creation of multiple standby groups.
C. GLBP and VRRP allow for MD5 authentication, whereas HSRP does not.
D. Unlike HSRP and VRRP, GLBP allows automatic selection and simultaneous use of multiple available gateways.
E. HSRP allows for multiple upstream active links being simultaneously used, whereas GLBP does not.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 189
Refer to the exhibit. Host A and Host B are connected to the Catalyst 3550 switch and have been
assigned to their respective VLANs. The rest of the 3550 configuration is the default configuration. Host A is able to ping its default gateway, 10.10.10.1, but is unable to ping Host B. Given the output displayed in the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. HSRP must be configured on SW1.
B. A separate router is required to support interVLAN routing.
C. Interface VLAN 10 must be configured on the SW1 switch.
D. The global config command ip routing must be configured on the SW1 switch.
E. VLANs 10 and 15 must be created in the VLAN database mode.
F. VTP must be configured to support interVLAN routing.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 190
Refer to the exhibit and the show interfaces fastethernet0/1 switchport outputs. Users in VLAN 5 on
switch SW_A complain that they do not have connectivity to the users in VLAN 5 on switch SW_B. What
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside should be done to fix the problem?
A. Configure the same number of VLANs on both switches.
B. Create switch virtual interfaces (SVI) on both switches to route the traffic.
C. Define VLAN 5 in the allowed list for the trunk port on SW_A.
D. Disable pruning for all VLANs in both switches.
E. Define VLAN 5 in the allowed list for the trunk port on SW_B
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 191
What does the Catalyst switch interface configuration command switchport trunk native vlan 7
accomplish?
A. configures the interface to be a trunking port and causes traffic on VLAN 7 to be 802.1q tagged
B. causes the interface to apply ISL framing for traffic on VLAN 7
C. configures the trunking interface to send traffic from VLAN 7 untagged
D. configures the trunking interface to forward traffic from VLAN 7
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
QUESTION 192
Refer to the exhibit. The show port-security interface fa0/1 command was issued on switch SW1.
Given the output that was generated, which two security statement are true? (Choose two.)
A. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security aging command.
B. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security protect command.
C. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security violation restrict command.
D. When the number of secure IP addresses reaches 10, the interface will immediately shut down.
E. When the number of secure MAC addresses reaches 10, the interface will immediately shut down and an SNMP trap notification will be sent.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 193
Which two statements about the various implementations of STP are true? (Choose two.)
A. Common Spanning Tree maintains a separate spanning-tree instance for each VLAN configured in the network.
B. The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is an evolution of the IEEE 802.1w standard.
C. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) supports 802.1Q trunking. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
D. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus(PVST+) is an enhancement to 802.1Q specification and is supported only on Cisco devices.
E. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) includes features equivalent to Cisco PortFast, UplinkFast, and BackboneFast for faster network reconvergence.
F. Multiple Spanning Tree (MST) assumes one spanning-tree instance for the entire Layer 2 network, regardless of the multiple number of VLANs.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 194
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration of switch SW_A and SW_B. STP is configured on all
switches in the network. SW_B receives this error message on the console port:
00:06:34:
%CDP-4-DUPLEX_MISMATCH: duplex mismatch discovered on FastEthernet0/5 (not half
duplex),
with SW_A FastEthernet0/4 (half duplex) ,
with TBA05071417(Cat6K-B) 0/4 (half duplex).
What would be the possible outcome of the problem?
A.
The root port on switch SW_A will automatically transition to full-duplex mode.
B.
The root port on switch SW_B will fallback to full-duplex mode.
C.
The interfaces between switches SW_A and SW_B will transition to a blocking state.
D.
Interface Fa 0/6 on switch SW_B will transition to a forwarding state and create a bridging loop. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 195
Which two statements are true about BPDU port-guard and BPDU filtering? (Choose two.)
A. BPDU port-guard can be enabled globally, whereas BPDU filtering must be enabled on a per-interface basis.
B. When globally enabled, BPDU port-guard and BPDU filtering apply only to PortFast enabled ports.
C. When globally enabled, BPDU port-guard and BPDU filtering apply only to trunking-enabled ports.
D. When a BPDU is received on a BPDU port-guard enabled port, the interface goes into the err-disabled state.
E. When a BPDU is received on a BPDU filtering enabled port, the interface goes into the err-disabled state.
F. When a BPDU is received on a BPDU filtering enabled port, the interface goes into the STP blocking state.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 196
Refer to the exhibit. Switch 15 is configured as the root switch for VLAN 10 but not for VLAN 20. If the
STP configuration is correct, what will be true about Switch 15?
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
A. All ports will be in forwarding mode.
B. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode.
C. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in blocking mode.
D. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in standby mode.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 197
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. IP traffic matching access list ABC is forwarded through VLANs 5-10.
B. IP traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all other traffic will be dropped.
C. All VLAN traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all traffic matching access list ABC is dropped.
D. All VLAN traffic in VLANs 5-10 that match access list ABC will be forwarded, and all else will be dropped.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 198
Refer to the exhibit. Switch P1S1 is not applying VLAN updates from switch P2S1. What are three
reasons why this is not occurring? (Choose three.)
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
A. Switch P2S1 is in server mode.
B. Switch P1S1 is in transparent mode.
C. The MD5 digests do not match.
D. The passwords do not match.
E. The VTP domains are different.
F. VTP trap generation is disabled on both switches.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 199
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about
interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
A. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplex mismatch with another switch
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 200
What must be the same to make multiple switches part of the same Multiple Spanning Tree (MST)?
A. VLAN instance mapping and revision number
B. VLAN instance mapping and member list
C. VLAN instance mapping, revision number, and member list
D. VLAN instance mapping, revision number, member list, and timers
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 159
Which two Cisco router functional planes are protected by Control Plane Policing (CoPP)? (Choose two.)
A. Data plane
B. Control plane
C. Service plane
D. Management plane
E. Hyper plane
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
QoS preclassification is a term used to describe what Cisco IOS feature?
A. AutoQoS
B. Modular QoS Command-Line Interface
C. QoS for VPNs
D. AutoSecure
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 161
Question: 161
What are two steps to define a QoS policy? (Choose two.)
A. Set a minimum bandwidth guarantee.
B. Increase bandwidth.
C. Determine a specific transfer rate.
D. Establish timers.
E. Configure CBWFQ for best-effort traffic.
F. Set a maximum bandwidth limit.
Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Using the SDM output from the Edit QoS Policy Tab in the Quality of Service Tasks under the Configure
button, answer the following questions:
Case Study# 1 (Questions)
Question:1
Which DSCP value will the Branch router apply to voice traffic destined for the Central from the IP Phone
on the local network?
A. 46 (ef)
B. 48 (vs6)
C. 50
D. 56 (cs7)
E. 70
Answer: A
Question: 2 Which DSCP value will the Branch router apply to voice traffic destined for the IP Phone on the local network from the Central site?
A. 46 (ef)
B. 48 (cs6)
C. 50
D. 56 (cs7)
E. 70 Answer: A
Question: 3 Which QoS model has been implemented on the Branch router by the SDM wizard for the various expected traffic types?
A. Best Effort
B. IntServ
C. DiffServ
D. Priority Queuing
Answer: C
Question: 4 During periods of congestion which queuing method will be applied to outbound traffic on the Serial0/3/0 interface?
A. Low Latency Queuing
B. Class-based Weighted Fair Queuing
C. Weighted Round Robin
D. Round Robin
E. No queuing is applied to outbound traffic on this interface. Answer: A
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
Scenario:
Law Solutions, Inc. is a large, worldwide law firm. Using the AutoQoS feature of IOS, the company recently
implemented QoS policies at one of their Branch locations. As a recent addition to the network engineering
team, you have been tasked with documenting the active QoS configuration at the branch router.
Additionally, the firm is experiencing poor video quality with newly installed video-conferencing equipment.
The video problems at the branch location seem to occur only during peak hours when some network
congestion is expected.
Output:
Topology
Using the show run output of the branch router, answer the following questions:
Case Study# 2 (Questions)
Question: 1
Which DSCP value will the Branch router apply to video traffic destined for the Central site from the video
equipment on the local network?
A. 8 (cs1)
B. 10 (af11)
C. 18 (af21)
D. 24 (cs3)
E. 46 (ef)
F. no value
Answer: E
Question: 2 Which two statements most accurately identify what has caused the occasional poor video quality experienced by the Law Solutions, Inc.? (Choose two.)
A. Insufficient bandwidth is creating a bottleneck transiting from the FastEthernet0/0 to the Serial0/3/0 interface.
B. Auto-Discovery did not have an opportunity to detect the video traffic.
C. AutoQoS was implemented on the incorrect interface
D. A policy matching DSCP value 46 (ef) was not applied on the outbound interface.
Answer: B, D
Question: 3 Which QoS model has been implemented on the Branch router by Auto QoS for the various expected traffic types?
A. Best Effort
B. IntServ
C. DiffServ
D. Priority Queuing
Answer: C
Question: 4 During periods of congestion, how has AutoQoS configured the router to facilitate outbound video traffic on the Serial0/3/0 interface?
A. Video traffic will be associated with the priority queue by using a DSCP value of 46 (ef).
B. Video traffic will be associated with the AutoQoS-Signaling-Se0/3/0 class and its related policy through use of the H.323 protocol.
C. Video traffic will only be queued on the local FastEthernet0/0 interface using a DSCP value of 46 (ef).
D. Video traffic will be associated with the “class-default” and use WFQ.
Answer: D
Question: 5
Network topology exhibit:
You are a network technician at PassGuide.com, examine the exhibit carefully. You need to finalize the
configuration of router PassGuide-R in this scenario. In particular you should decide which interface types
can be used for connecting router PassGuide-R to the phone and fax respective ely.
(Choose two.)
A. Connect the analog phone to an FXS port.
B. Connect the fax to an FXS port.
C. Connect the fax to an FXO port.
D. Connect the analog phone to an FXO port.
Answer: A, B
Question:164 Scenario: Ferrous Plastics,Inc.is a medium sized company,with two locations connected through a serial WAN link.The WAN routers should be configured to only see NBAR to classify traffic interface Fa0/1 prior to using low latency queuing on the outgoing interface s0/1/0.Recently configuration changes were made to the inter-connecting routers WAN-R1 and WAN-R2.The company is now experiencing QoS related problems which they believe are associated with these changes. Router WAN-R2 is not marking traffic correctly on Fa0/1 based on NBAR classification.Which of the following is correct?
Topology:
Case Study# 3 (Questions)
Questions: 1 Router WAN-R2 is not marking traffic correctly on Fa0/1 based on NBAR classification.Which of the following is correct?
A. Protocol discovery is applied to the incorrect interface.
B. CEF is not configured.
C. The service-policy is applied in the wrong direction.
D. The service-policy configured on interface Fa0/1 should be policy.
Answer: D
Question: 2 The network administrator has asked how FTP traffic is being classified on router WAN R1.Which of the following is correct?
A. FTP traffic is marked correctly,but no other active protocols are marked correctly.
B. FTP traffic is marked correctly based on NBAR classification.
C. FTP traffic is marked correctly,but is not using NBAR for classification.
D. FTP traffic is not marked correctly based on NBAR classification as protocol discovery is applied to the incorrect interface.
Answer: C
Question: 3
On router WAN-R1,which protocol is being marked as af21?
A. CITRIX
B. Exchange
C. FTP D. HTTP
E. SQLNET
Answer: E
Question: 4
On rouoter WAN-R1,which protocol is being classified as mission critical?
A. CITRIX
B. Exchange
C. FTP
D. HTTP
E. SQLNET
Answer: A
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
Question: 165 Which 802.1x Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) type supports authentication using digital certificates?
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-FAST
C. LEAP
D. WPA
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Which three configuration tasks are required to successfully deploy NBAR to recognize TCP and UDP stateful protocols? (Choose three.)
A. Over leased lines, use the multilink ppp command to reduce latency and jitter, and to create Distributed Link Fragmentation and interleaving.
B. Use the service-policy command to attach a traffic flow to an interface on the router.
C. Use the ip rsvp bandwidth command to set a strict upper limit on the bandwidth NBAR uses, and to guarantee admission of any flows.
D. Use the policy-map command to define one or more QoS policies (such as shaping, policing, and so on) to apply to traffic defined by a class map.
E. Use the random-detect dscp command to modify the default minimum and maximum thresholds for the DSCP value.
F. Use the class-map command to define one or more traffic classes by specifying the criteria by which traffic is classified.
Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Which two voice-gateway, analog-interface statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A router can use a Foreign Exchange Office (FXO) interface to connect to a PSTN.
B. A router can use a Foreign Exchange Station (FXS) interface to connect to a PBX.
C. An analog tax machine can connect to a Foreign Exchange Office (FXO) interface.
D. An analog telephone can connect to a Foreign Exchange Station (FXS) interface.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
Voice activity detection (VAD) suppresses the transmission of silence patterns. On average, and assuming that a link carries at least 24 calls, what percentage of total bandwidth could VAD save?
A. 5
B. 15
C. 25
D. 35
E. 45
F. 55
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
Which two steps are executed in the deployment of Cisco AutoQos for Eeterprise?(Choose two.)
A. The customer uses SNMP statistics to create the policy.
B. QoS policy templates are generated and installed on the interface.
C. RTP is used to generate the policy.
D. LLQ, cRTP, and LFI are used to automatically discover the policy.
E. The auto-generated policy is manually optimized before implementation.
F. Auto-discovery is used to determine what traffic is on the interface.
Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 169
A GRE tunnel is configured between a local and a remote site. Where should the service policy be applied to classify packets based on the pretunnel header?
A. In global configuration mode, apply the service policy and use the qos pre-classify command.
B. In global configuration mode, apply the service policy but do not use the qos pre- classify command.
C. Apply the service policy on the physical interface but do not use the qos pre-classify command.
D. Apply the service policy on the tunnel interface but do not use the qos pre-classify command.
E. Apply the service policy on the tunnel interface and use the qos pre-classify command.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 170
Which three statements about classification marking of traffic at Layer 2 are true? (Choose three.)
A. A Frame Relay header includes a 1-bit discard eligible (DE) bit to provide the class of service (CoS).
B. An ATM header includes a 1-bit DE field to provide the CoS.
C. An MPLS EXP field is inserted in the Layer 3 IP precedence field to identify the CoS.
D. The CoS field only exists inside Ethernet frames when 802.1Q or Inter-Switch Link (ISL) trunking is used.
E. In the IEEE 802.Ip standard, three bits are used to identify the user priority bits for the CoS.
F. In the IEEE 802.lq standard, six bits are used to identify the user priority bits for the CoS.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 171
Which functionality in the Cisco IDS software will enable a router to permanently act as a call agent for IP phones?
A. Cisco CallManage
B. Cisco CallManager Express (CME)
C. Cisco CallManager Gateway (CMG)
D. Cisco CallManager Voice Gateway (CMVG)
E. Media Gateway Control Protocol (MGCP)
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 172
What is true about Quality of Service (QoS) for VPNs?
A. QoS preclassification is only supported on generic routing encapsulation (GRE) and IPsec VPNs.
B. QoS preclassification is not required in Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP), Layer 2 Forwarding (L2F), and Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) VPNs.
C. QoS preclassification is supported on IPsec AH VPNs, but not on IPsec ESP VPNs.
D. The QoS-for-VPNs feature (QoS preclassification) is designed for VPN transport interfaces.
E. With IPsec tunnel mode, the type of service (ToS) byte value is copied automatically from the original IP header to the tunnel header.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 173
Which three traffic descriptors are typically used as QoS markings for packets or frames entering the network? (Choose three.)
A. protocol type
B. cos
C. DSCP
D. IP precedence
E. destination address
F. input interface
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 174
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the configuration an example of?
A. enabling modular QoS over Frame Relay
B. enabling Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) header compression
C. enabling distributed compressed Transmission Control Protocol
D. enabling latency and jitter reduction for Transmission Control traffic
E. enabling TCP header compression
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
Which traffic descriptor is used for marking?
A. weighted RED (WRED) orange or green labels
B. modular QoS CU (MQC) application layer tags
C. Deficit Round Robin (DRR) precedence bits
D. header compression tags
E. MPLS experimental bits
F. FIFO Layer 2 descriptor labels (L2DL)
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
Refer to the exhibit.
The auto discovery QoS command was configured on this interface 24 hours prior to the above configuration. Which statement is true about the configuration?
A. An IP address is needed on interface serial 1/2
B. The auto discovery qos command should be configured on the subinterface.
C. A generated AutoQoS policy has been applied to serial 1/2.
D. The collection of data has stopped.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
Refer to the exhibit.
On the basis of the configuration that is provided,which statement is true?
A. The Auto QoS policies will be attached to the interface.
B. Data about the network traffic will be collected via the use of NBAR-based protocol discovery,and the traffic on the network will be analyzed.
C. The class maps and policy maps will be created and installed on the basis of the information that is collected during the autodiscovery phase.
D. Templates will be created that will be used to create policy maps and class maps to configuer the QoS features on the network.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
Cisco provides two enhancements to 802.11 security which protect a WEP key from exploits. Which two technologies provide these security enhancements? (Choose two.)
A. 802.lx
B. Cisco Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (CKIP)
C. Extensible Authentication Protocol-Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling (EAP- FAST)
D. Cisco Message Integrity Check (CMIC)
E. One-Time Passwords (OTP)
F. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 179
What is the maximum number of access points that can be supported from a single Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE) console?
A. 1000
B. 1500
C. 2000
D. 2500
E. 3000
F. 3500
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 180
1) Which DSCP value will the Branch router apply to voice traffic destined for the Central from the IP Phone on the local network?
A. 46 (ef)
B. 4B(vs6)
C. 50
D. 56(cs7)
E. 70
Answer: A
2) Which DSCP value will the Branch router apply to voice traffic destined for the IP Phone on the local network from the Central site?
A. 46 (ef]
B. 48(cs6)
C. 5
D. 56(cs7)
E. 70
Answer: B
3) Which QoS model has been implemented on the Branch router by the SDM wizard for the various expected traffic types?
A. Best Effort
B. IntServ
C. DiffServ
D. Priority Queuing
Answer: C
4) During periods of congestion which queuing method will be applied to outbound traffic on the Serial O/3/0 interface?
A. Low Latency Queuing
B. Class-based Weighted Fair Queuing
C. Weighted Round Robin
D. Round Robin
E. No queuing is applied to outbound traffic on this interface.
Answer: A
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181
1)
2) Which two statements most accurately identify what has caused the occasional poor video quality experienced by the Law Solutions, Inc.? (Choose two.)
A. Insufficient bandwidth is creating a bottleneck transiting from the FastEthernetG/O to the Serial O/3/0 interface.
B. Auto-Discovery did not have an opportunity to detect the video traffic.
C. AutoQoS was implemented an the incorrect interface
D. A policy matching DSCP value 46 (ef) was not applied on the outbound interface.
Answer: BD
3) Which QoS model has been implimented on the Branch router by Auto QoS for the various expected traffic types?
A. Best Effort
B. IntServ
C. DiffServ
D. Priority Queuing
Answer: C
4) During periods of congestion, haw has AutoQoS configured the router to facilitate outbound video traffic on the SerialO/3/0 interface?
A. Video traffic will be associated with the priority queue by using a DSCP value of 46 (ef}.
B. Video traffic will be associated with the AutoQaS-Signaling-SeO/3/0 class and its related policy through use of the H.323 protocol.
C. Video traffic will only be queued on the local FastEthernetO/0 interface using a DSCP value of 46 (ef).
D. Video traffic will be associated with the “class-default” and use WFQ.
Answer: D
A.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 176
Which policy map configuration command can be used to mitigate the problem of TCP global synchronization?
A. random-detect
B. queue-limit 10
C. compression header ip tcp
D. priority 24
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
Given the above output, what is the current CIR for this VC?
A. 1000
B. 2000
C. 8000
D. 100000
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
Which command associates a map class with an interface or subinterface when configuring Frame Relay traffic shaping?
A. frame-relay map
B. frame-relay class
C. map-class frame-relay
D. frame-relay map-class
E. map frame-relay class
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 179
Given the partial configuration, what function does the command dialer watch-group 8 have?
A. Any IP traffic, except OSPF traffic, will cause interface BRI0 to dial RouterB
B. When the watched route, 172.22.53.0/24, is removed from the routing table and there is no other valid route, dialer watch then initiates a call to RouterB.
C. When the watched route, 172.22.53.0/24, is removed from the routing table, regardless of whether there is another valid route pointing to an interface other than interface BRI0, dialer watch initiates the call to RouterB
D. When the load threshold is met and any IP traffic, except OSPF traffic, is destined for 172.22.53.0/24 network, the dialer watch will initiate the call to RouterB.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 180
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the partial configuration shown, how is this router configured?
A. as a PPPoA client
B. as a PPPoE client
C. as an ISDN PRI group interface
D. as an ISDN BRI group interface
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181
A network administrator needs to provide telecommuters with access to corporate network services. For security reasons, the asynchronous interface should be configured to provide an in-band PPP connection only and not allow an EXEC connection. What must the administrator configure to accomplish this?
A. Router(config-if)# async mode dedicated
B. Router(config-if)# async mode interactive
C. Router(config-if)# async dynamic address
D. Router(config-line)# autoselect ppp during-login
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
Examine the configuration.
When using CBWFQ, what will happen to UDP packets if their destination queue is full?
A. The router will send a BECN message to the host.
B. The packet will be sent to the class-default queue.
C. The host will resend the packet if it does not receive an ACK message
D. Tail dropping will occur.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 183
Which three conditions would suggest using weighted random early detection as an alternative to tail drops when configuring class-based weighted fair queuing? (Choose three.)
A. Your network is designed for a more passive rather than active strategy in discarding packets.
B. You want to enable TCP global synchronization to avoid congestion.
C. You would like to use IP Precedence or DSCP values to make early dropping decisions.
D. The bulk of your traffic is TCP traffic.
E. You would like a chance to decide which packets will be dropped when it becomes necessary.
Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
Refer to the show ip route output of the exhibit. RIP is configured on R1, R2, and R3. All three routers are able to ping each other. However, R2 is not receiving the routes advertised by R3. What can be done to resolve this problem?
A. Configure frame-relay inverse-arp on the R1 serial0.1 subinterface.
B. Configure no frame-relay inverse-arp on the R1 serial0.1 subinterface.
C. Configure ip slit-horizon on the R1 serial0.1 subinterface.
D. Configure no ip slit-horizon on the R1 serial0.1 subinterface.
E. Configure ip slit-horizon on R2 and the R3 serial0 interfaces.
F. Configure no ip slit-horizon on R2 and the R3 serial0 interfaces.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 185
When a PPP connection is being established, which three configuration features are negotiated through the LCP? (Choose three.)
A. callback
B. multilink
C. encryption
D. compression
E. protocol multiplexing
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 186
Identify two characteristics of the RADIUS protocol when associated with AAA? (Choose two.)
A. uses TCP
B. fully encrypts the body of the packet
C. based upon open standards
D. allows router commands to be grouped on a per-user or per-group basis
E. combines the functions of authorization and authentication
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 187
Which statement best describes the following configuration ?
policy-map-Policy1 class Class1 priority 10 class Class2 bandwidth 20 queue-limit 45 class Class3 bandwidth 30 random-detect A. WRED is used in Class1 and Class3. Traffic not matching any classes will be dropped.
B. WRED is used in Class1 and Class3. Traffic not matching any classes will be best effort by a default class
C. WRED is used in Class3. Traffic not matching any classes will be dropped
D. WRED is used in Class3. Traffic not matching any classes will be handled by the class-default class
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 188
Given the above configuration commands, when will additional B channels be added to the multilink PPP bundle?
A. when the total load of outbound traffic reaches 128 k
B. when the total load of inbound traffic reaches 128 k
C. when the maximum calculated load as the larger of the outbound and inbound loads reaches 128 k
D. when the total load of inbound traffic reaches 50 percent of bandwidth utilization
E. when the total load of outbound traffic reaches 50 percent of bandwidth utilization
F. when the load of the inbound or outbound traffic reaches 50% utilization
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 189
Which two encapsulation methods require that an 827 ADSL router be configured with a PPP username and CHAP password? (Choose two.)
A. PPPoE with the 827 configured as a bridge
B. PPPoE with the 827 configured as the PPPoE client
C. PPPoA
D. RFC 1483 Bridged with the 827 configured as the PPPoE client
E. RFC 1483 Bridged with the 827 configured as a bridge
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 190
Which command will allow RTA to test its legacy DDR configuration without having any dialer map statements configured?
A. isdn test call interface bri 0 5551234 speed 56
B. ping 10.10.10.2
C. debug isdn q931
D. debug isdn q921
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 191
In Frame Relay traffic shaping, what does the term committed burst (Bc) refer to?
A. the rate, in bits per second, at which the Frame Relay switch agrees to transfer data
B. the maximum number of bits that the switch agrees to transfer during any Tc
C. the maximum number of uncommitted bits that the Frame Relay switch attempts to transfer beyond the CIR for the first time interval only
D. the number of bits, during any Tc, over the CIR that can be transmitted but will be marked DE
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 192
Given the partial configuration, what function does the command dialer watch-group 8 have?
A. Any IP traffic, except OSPF traffic, will cause interface BRI0 to dial RouterB
B. When the watched route, 172.22.53.0/24, is removed from the routing table and there is no other valid route, dialer watch then initiates a call to RouterB.
C. When the watched route, 172.22.53.0/24, is removed from the routing table, regardless of whether there is another valid route pointing to an interface other than interface BRI0, dialer watch initiates the call to RouterB.
D. When the load threshold is met and any IP traffic, except OSPF traffic, is destined for 172.22.53.0/24 network, the dialer watch will initiate the call to RouterB.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 193
How can an ISDN interface be used as a backup link for a primary interface and still use DDR to communicate with other sites?
A. By using dialer profiles.
B. An ISDN interface cannot be both.
C. With the command backup interface serial 0/0 on the bri0/0 interface along with normal DDR commands.
D. With the command backup interface bri 0/0 on the physical interface and normal DDR commands on the bri0/0 interface
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 194
How is cable broadband technology able to transmit downstream and upstream data while at the same time delivering television content?
A. The cable operator uses the VHF hyperband to transmit and receive data signals.
B. The cable operator assigns any available spectrum to data, depending on how its own television spectrum is being used.
C. The cable operator uses specific bandwidths for data signals specified by DOCSIS.
D. The cable operator places its data signals into clean areas where there is no interference from noise or other signals.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 195
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output generated by the debug dialer command, what solution can be configured on R1 to correct the problem?
A. Configure a dialer-list in global configuration mode.
B. Configure the dialer-group command on the dialer interface.
C. Configure the dialer-group command on the BRI0 physical interface.
D. Configure the dialer pool command on the dialer interface.
E. Configure the dialer pool-member command on the dialer interface.
F. Configure a local username entry for R2.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 196
In the exhibit, R1 is connected over a Frame Relay cloud to R2 and a non-Cisco device, R3. What must be configured on the R1 S0 interface to achieve full connectivity with the spoke routers?
A. encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast
B. encapsulation frame-relay ietf frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast
C. encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast ietf frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast
D. encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast ietf
E. encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast cisco frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 197
Given the output shown in the exhibit, which three statements are true about PPP compression? (Choose three.)
A. The interface is configured with TCP header compression.
B. The interface is configured with STAC compression.
C. The interface is configured with Predictor compression.
D. The actual data throughput of the router is less than what it would be if compression were not being applied.
E. The total amount of data to be transmitted before applying compression is 160,000.
F. The total amount of data to be transmitted after applying compression is 40,000.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 198
Refer to the exhibit. Which policy-map configuration will best ensure that packets classified as voice are not dropped in favor of other network traffic?
A. POLICY-1
B. POLICY-2
C. POLICY-3
D. POLICY-4
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 199
Which type of remote-user VPN has users dial in to an Internet service provider (ISP) where an ISP-owned device establishes a secure tunnel to the users’ enterprise network?
A. client initiated VPN
B. network access server (NAS) initiated VPN
C. intranet VPN
D. extranet VPN
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 200
Which set of commands will accomplish the tasks below?
-Make bri0/0 a backup interface to serial0/0.
–
Activate the backup interface 5 seconds after the primary link fails and deactivate the backup interface 10 seconds after the primary link is re-established.
A.
Router(config)#interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 5 10
B.
Router(config)#interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 5 10
C.
Router(config)#interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 10 5
D.
Router(config)#interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 10 5
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 201
When a cable modem is being provisioned to operate with a host system for Internet services, which two options must occur before Layer 1 and 2 connectivity can occur? (Choose two.)
A. The cable modem must request an IP address and core configuration information from a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server
B. The cable modem powering up must scan and lock on the RF data channel in the downstream path.
C. The modem must request a DOCSIS configuration file from a TFTP server.
D. The cable modem must register with the CMTS.
E. The modem must read specific maintenance messages in the downstream path.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 202
From the CBWFQ configuration referenced in the display, what is the queue-limit for class2?
A. no limit
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
E. 128
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 131
When QoS levels in the Cisco Wireless Control System (WCS) are entered, which profile names are used to identify the access categories?
A. platinum, gold, silver, and bronze
B. voice, gold, silver, and bronze
C. low delay, network critical, business, best effort
D. voice, video, background gold, background silver, and best effort
E. voice, video, best effort, and background F. voice, video, best effort, background, and scavenger
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct about the implementation of QoS across the WANs that are shown? (Choose two.)
A. QoS cannot be maintained across WAN A.
B. The service provider is not involved in providing QoS services in WAN A.
C. The service provider can provide QoS services through the cloud in WAN A.
D. QoS cannot be maintained across WAN B
E. The service provider is not involved in providing QoS services in WAN B.
F. The service provider can provide QoS services through the cloud in WAN B.
Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
Refer to the exhibit. The network in the diagram has contracted with a service provider for the QoS levels that are shown. Which statement is correct about the QoS requirements for the campus and remote branch?
A. Because adequate levels of service are provided across the WAN, campus and remote branch QoS will not be required.
B. The enterprise campus can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.
C. The enterprise remote branch can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.
D. The enterprise campus plus the remote branch can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
Which of the items stated is typically the most expensive method of improving QoS across WAN links?
A. advanced queuing
B. data compression
C. header compression
D. increasing link capacity
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
Which three functions can an Integrated Services Router perform in a VoIP network? (Choose three.)
A. voice stream mixing for conference calling
B. voice gateway
C. call admission control
D. analog or digital phone interfaces
E. XML application services
F. large scale dial plan application
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Using the fewest commands possible, drag the commands on the left to the blanks on the right to configure and apply a QoS policy that guarantees that voice packets receive 20 percent of the bandwidth on the S0/1/0 interface.
Answer
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
To configure Control Plan Policing(CoPP) to deny Telnet access only from 10.1.1.1, drag the commands on the left to the boxes on the right and place the commands in the proper order.
Answer
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
Drag each descriptor on the left to the QoS model on the right to which the descriptor applies. Not all descriptors apply.
Answer
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
Drag the wireless 802.1e priority level groupings on the left to the appropriate Wi-Fi Multimedia(WMM) access categories on the right.(Not all groupings will be used) Answer
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 140
Drag each term on the left to its time definition on the right. There will be one term unused.
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
Add a new wireless LAN controller (WLC) to the WCS wireless management server. From the left, drag each procedure to its step sequence on the right.
Answer A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
Drag each wireless EAP authentication protocol above to its definition below.
Answer A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
Drag each WLSE feature above to its benefit below.
Answer: A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Drag Drop Drag the steps required to convert compressed digital signals to analog signals to their correct order on the right.
Answer
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 145
Exhibit:
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Questions:162 Topology
QUESTION 147
Which three characteristics of the traffic flow are taken into consideration when the QoS-for-VPNs feature (QoS pre-classify) provides packet classification and applies appropriate QoS service on tunnel interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. IP precedence bits
B. DSCP bits
C. Original port numbers
D. DE bits
E. Source IP address
F. Destination IP address
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Which two statements about Cisco AutoQoS are true? (Choose two.)
A. A QoS service policy must already be enabled on the interface before Cisco AutoQoS can be enabled.
B. Any interface at or below 1.54 Mbps is classified as a low-speed interface.
C. AutoQoS uses Cisco network-based application recognition (NBAR) to identify various applications and traffic types
D. Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) must be enabled at the interface or ATM PVC.
E. Cisco NBAR is a prerequisite for CEF.
F. On a serial interface, before AutoQoS is enabled, the clock rate command must be used to specify a bandwidth other than the default 1.54Mbps.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 149
When a router converts analog signals to digital signals as part of the VoIP process, it performs
four steps.
Which set of steps contains the steps in their correct sequence?
A. encoding optional compression quantization sampling
B. encoding quantization optional compression sampling
C. optional compression encoding sampling quantization
D. optional compression sampling encoding quantization
E. sampling quantization encoding optional compression
F. sampling quantization optional compression encoding
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
Question: 150
What are three staid Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) types? (Choose three.)
A. LEAP
B. EAP-FAST
C. EAP-TLS
D. EAP-AES
E. WEAP
F. WEP
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
What are three benefits of the Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE)? (Choose three.)
A. The decentralized nature of WLSE helps reduce the time and resources that are required to manage a large number of WLAN devices.
B. WLSE helps simplify large-scale deployments by providing automatic configuration of new APs.
C. WLSE minimizes security vulnerabilities by providing security policy misconfiguration alerts and rogue AP detection.
D. WLSE provides AP utilization and client association reports, features which help with capacity planning.
E. WLSE can respond to required changes that are requested by APs.
F. WLSE increases productivity through customization with three possible levels of managemen lightweight, extended, and advanced.
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
What is link fragmentation and interleaving (LFI)?
A. LFI is a QoS mechanism that allots bandwidth and enables the differentiation of traffic according to a policy.
B. LFI is a Layer 2 technique in which header information is sent only at the beginning of the session, stored in a dictionary, and then referenced in later packets by a short dictionary index.
C. LFI is a Layer 3 technique in which header information is sent only at the beginning of the session, stored in a dictionary, and then referenced in later packets by a short dictionary index.
D. LFI is a Layer 2 technique in which large frames are broken into small, equal-sized fragments and transmitted over the link in an interleaved fashion.
E. LEI is a Layer 2 technique in which smaller fragments are combined into large, equal-sized frames, and transmitted over the link in an interleaved fashion.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
Which two statements about packet marking at the data link layer are true? (Choose two.)
A. Through the use of DE markings, Frame Relay QoS supports up to 10 classes of service.
B. Frames maintain their class of service (CoS) markings when transiting a non-802.1p link.
C. IEEE 802.1p supports up to 10 class of service (CoS) markings.
D. In an 802.1q frame, the 3-bit 802.1p priority field is used to identify the class of service (CoS) priority.
E. The 802.1p CoS markings are preserved through the LAN, but are not maintained end to end.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
Which two wireless security statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A TACACS+ server is required to implement 802.1x.
B. MIC protects against man-in-the-middle and replay attacks.
C. The 802.1x standard provides encryption services for wireless clients.
D. The AES (symmetric block cipher) is specified in the IEEE 802.11i specification.
E. The IEEE 802.11i specification uses RC4 as its encryption mechanism.
F. WPA requires TKIP and AES as encryption methods.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Which two statements are true about traffic shaping and traffic policing? (Choose two.)
A. Both traffic shaping and traffic policing cause retransmissions of connection-oriented protocols such as TCP.
B. Both traffic shaping and traffic policing support the marking and re-marking of traffic.
C. The effects of traffic shaping and traffic policing when configured on a router are applied to outgoing traffic.
D. Traffic shaping queues excess traffic whereas traffic policing discards excess traffic.
E. Traffic shaping allows the traffic to exceed the bit rate whereas traffic policing prevents the traffic from exceeding the bit rate.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
Which two queuing methods will allow a percentage of the available bandwidth to be allocated to each queue? (Choose two.)
A. First-in, first-out queuing (FIFO)
B. Priority queuing (PQ)
C. Custom queuing (CQ)
D. Weighted fair queuing (WFQ)
E. Class-based WFQ (CBWFQ)
F. Low latency queuing (LLQ)
Correct Answer: EF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
Which classification tool can be used to classify traffic based on the HTTP URL?
A. Class-based policing
B. Policy-based routing (PBR)
C. Committed access rate (CAR)
D. Network-based application recognition (NBAR)
E. Dial peers
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
What three types of interfaces do voice gateways use to connect to analog interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. E and M
B. E1 CCS
C. FXS
D. FXO
E. serial
F. T1 CAS
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