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QUESTION 116
Match the corresponding terms and OSI layer.(Not all options are used.) 1.bits 2.packets 3.UDP 4.IP addresses 5.segments 6.MAC addresses 7.windowing 8.routing 9.switching
A. Network Layer II.Transprot Layer
B. I(2,4,9),II(5,7,3)
C. I(1,4,9),II(5,3,7)
D. I(1,4,8),II(2,7,3)
E. I(2,4,8),II(5,7,3)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 117
Three of the following are types of flow control. Which are them? (Choose three.)
A. windowing
B. buffering
C. cut-through
D. congestion avoidance
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 118
The following exhibit displays every device attached to the network. How many collision domains are shown in this network?

A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 15
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 119
What do you think is the data structure that is described in the graphic?

A. TCP segment
B. FDDI frame
C. Ethernet frame
D. Token Ring frame
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 120
For the following Layer 4 protocols, which one is used for a Telnet connection?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. ICMP
D. DNS
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 121
Which option is correct about the relationship between the definition and the term? Not all definitions will be used.
1.a protocol that converts human-readable names into machine-readable addresses 2.used to assign IP addresses automatically and set parameters such as subnet mask and default gateway 3.a protocol for using HTTP or HTTPS to exchange XML-based messages over computer networks 4.a connectionless service that uses UDP to transfer files between systems 5.a protocol used to monitor and manage network devices
6.a reliable. Connection-oriented service that uses TCP to transfer files between systems
A. SNMP II.FTP III.TFTP IV.DNS
B. DHCP
C. I-5;II-6;III-4;IV-1;V-2
D. I-5;II-6;III-1;IV-2;V-4
E. I-6;II-5;III-4;IV-1;V-2
F. I-6;II-5;III-4;IV-2;V-1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 122
Look at the following exhibit. To interconnect the devices, which types of cables are needed? (Choose three.)

A. rollover cable
B. V.35 cable
C. crossover cable
D. straight-through cable
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 123
Look at the following exhibit. You are a network administrator for certways. You have added Host A to the network. A certain kind of cable should be used between P4S-S2 and host A. Which is it?

A. console cable
B. crossover cable
C. rollover cable
D. straight-through cable
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 124
Look at the following exhibit. To make the following connections ,what types of cables are recommended?

A. A-crossover B-straight-through C-crossover D-straight-through E-crossover
B. A-rollover B-straight-through C-straight-through D-rollover E-crossover
C. A-straight-through B-straight-through C-rollover D-straight-through E-straight-through
D. A-crossover B-straight-through C-rollover D-straight-through E-straight-through
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 125
From which of the following does a small network get its IP network address?
A. Internet Service Provider (ISP)
B. Internet Architecture Board (IAB)
C. Internet Domain Name Registry (IDNR)
D. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 126
You are a network administrator for certways. By using the Ethernet interfaces as shown in the graphic,
you connect PC hosts certwaysA and certwaysB directly. You ping certwaysB from
certwaysA, and fails. You are required to enable the connectivity between the two hosts. What can be
done? (Choose two.)
A. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
B. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.
C. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
D. The hosts must be reconfigured to use private IP addresses for direct connections of this type.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 127
Part of the certways network is shown below:
Please study the exhibit shown above carefully, how many collision domains are shown
A. three
B. two

C. four
D. one
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 128
What is a necessary to allow host A to ping host B according to the exhibit?

A. a straight-through cable connecting the switches
B. a crossover cable connecting the switches
C. a router connected to the switches with straight-through cables
D. a CSU/DSU connected to the switches with straight-through cables
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 129
You work as a network technician for the P4S company. The displayed wire scheme is terminated at each end with an RJ-45 connector. Which type of cables does the wire diagram represent?

A. a rollover cable
B. an Ethernet straight-through cable
C. a serial crossover cable
D. an Ethernet crossover cable
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 130
On the basis of the exhibit below. When packets travel from Sara to Bill, which three devices will determine a forwarding path by using the destination MAC address of the packet? (Choose three.)

A. P4S-S1
B. P4S-S2
C. P4S-R2
D. P4S-S3
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 131
Study the exhibit carefully. P4S-Host A is forwarding a packet to P4S-Host B for the first time. Which destination MAC address will be used by P4S-Host A in the ARP request?

A. 255.255.255.255
B. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
C. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
D. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
Refer to the following exhibit, Host A should communicate with the email server. Which address will be put in the destination address field of the frame when it leaves Host A?

A. the MAC address of Host A
B. the MAC address of P4S-S1
C. the MAC address of E0 of P4S-R
D. the MAC address of E1 of P4S-R
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 133
The following exhibit shows a planned network. Which three descriptions are true about the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)

A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device
C. Network Device B is a hub.
D. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 134
Refer to the graphic. Workstation A in the Sales location is communicating with the server in the Production location. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by workstation A from the server?

A. the MAC address of router interface e0
B. the MAC address of the server network interface
C. the MAC address of host A D. the MAC address of router interface e1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 135
All devices will be connected through Ethernet according to the exhibit from labeled A to E . Which three
device-to-device configurations most likely require the use of a crossover connection?
(Choose three.)
A. exhibit A
B. exhibit B
C. exhibit C
D. exhibit D
E. exhibit E
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 136
Your company has just installed the mail server and P4S-SW2. UDP packets are not permitted outbound on the Fa0/1 router interface due to security reasons. Bob is now examining the new installation at his workstation and can’t establish SMTP communication to the mail server. Which item is the reason for lack of communication between Bob’s workstation and the mail server?

A. The crossover cable should be a straight-through cable.
B. The IP addresses are all on the same network. No router is required.
C. UDP is blocked coming out of the Fa0/1 interface on the router.
D. The server should be directly connected to the router.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 137
Which two statements best describe the interface configuration according to the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. The encapsulation in use on this interface is PPP.
B. This interface is connected to a LAN.
C. The address mask of this interface is 255.255.255.0.
D. The default serial line encapsulation is in use on this interface.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 138
Refer to the exhibit. What could be possible causes for the “Serial0/0 is down” interface status? (Choose two.)

A. A Layer 1 problem exists.
B. A protocol mismatch exists.
C. The bandwidth is set too low.
D. An incorrect cable is being used.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 139
Which two statements best describe ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. They can provide hosts with information about network problems.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 140
The certways network topology exhibit is shown below:
Please study the exhibit carefully. A technician is troubleshooting a host connectivity problem. The host is
unable to ping a server connected to Switch certwaysA. Based on the result of the testing, what could be
the problem?
A. A remote physical layer problem exists.
B. The host NIC is not functioning.
C. TCP/IP has not been correctly installed on the host.
D. A local physical layer problem exists.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 141
Examine the following options carefully, which line from the output of the show ip interface command indicates that there is a Layer 1 problem?
A. Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is up
B. Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down
C. Serial0/1 is down, line protocol is down
D. Serial0/1 is administratively down, line protocol is down
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 142
What does flow control accomplish?
A. to ensure data is retransmitted if an acknowledgment is not received
B. to reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device
C. to provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender
D. to regulate the size of each segment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 143
For the following transport layer protocols, which one is most suitable for the transport of VoIP data?
A. HTTP
B. UDP
C. RIP
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 144
Which three statements correctly describe the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 145
According to the following exhibit. Which two output fields will be helpful when you determine if a broadcast storm has occurred? (Choose two.)

A. collisions
B. no buffer
C. dribble condition
D. ignored
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 146
You are a network technician at P4S, study the exhibit carefully. The ports displayed are the only active ports on the P4S-S. The MAC address table is displayed in its entirety. The Ethernet frame presented reaches the P4S-S. When receiving this frame, which two operations will the P4S-S perform? (Choose two.)

A. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table.
B. The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.
C. The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/3 only.
D. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 147
Which two characteristics belong to Telnet? (Choose two.)
A. It sends data in clear text format.
B. It is no longer supported on Cisco network devices.
C. It is more secure than SSH.
D. It requires that the destination device be configured to support Telnet connections.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 148
Which error condition could be removed at once when troubleshooting a LAN interface operating in full duplex mode?
A. dribble condition
B. giants
C. collisions
D. no buffers
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 149
Refer to the exhibit.
P4S-PCA is sending packets to the FTP server. Consider the packets as they leave P4S-RA interface
Fa0/0 forwards P4S-RB.Drag the correct frame and packet address to their place in the table.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 150
Choose from the following two statements that describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method. (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 151
Topic – Implement a small switched network.
Select the appropriate media, cables, ports, and connectors to connect switches to other network devices and hosts Explain the technology and media access control method for Ethernet technologies Explain network segmentation and basic traffic management concepts Explain the operation of Cisco switches and basic switching concepts Perform, save and verify initial switch configuration tasks including remote access management Verify network status and switch operation using basic utilities (including: ping, traceroute,telnet,SSH,arp, ipconfig), SHOW DEBUG commands Implement and verify basic security for a switch (port security, deactivate ports) Identify, prescribe, and resolve common switched network media issues, configuration issues, autonegotiation, and switch hardware failures
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 152
You are a network administrator for the P4S company, study the exhibit carefully. Your company has just configured a Catalyst 2950 switch for remote management by pasting into the console the configuration commands displayed in the exhibit. However, a Telnet session is not able to be successfully established from a remote host. How to fix this problem?

A. Change the fifth line to ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.17.1.
B. Change the first line to interface fastethernet 0/1.
C. Change the fifth line to ip default-gateway 192.168.17.241.
D. Change the sixth line to line con 0.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 153
You are a network administrator at P4S, study the exhibit below carefully. You substitute the NIC in a desktop PC with a new NIC. The NIC in the PC configuration is set to “100 Mb Half.” Now the PC has intermittent connectivity and loss of communication so you start troubleshooting on the switch. According to the switch output displayed, which is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. Fast Ethernet is incompatible with a megabit NIC.
B. The counters were not cleared after the hardware was replaced.
C. The switch is set to full-duplex.
D. Input flow control is off.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 154
The following graphic displays the topology and switching table. Host P4S-B forwards a frame to Host P4S-C. What would the switch do with the frame?

A. send an ARP request for Host P4S-C
B. send the frame out all ports except port 0/2
C. send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host P4S-B
D. record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host P4S-C
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 155
You work as a network technician for P4S Ltd. Study the exhibit carefully. After the power-on self test
(POST), the system LED of a Cisco 2950 switch becomes amber.
What is the status of the
switch?
A. The switch has experienced an internal problem but data can still be forwarded at a slower rate.
B. The POST was successful.
C. POST failed and there is a problem that prevents the operating system of the switch from being loaded.
D. The switch passed POST, but all the switch ports are busy.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 156
As it is shown in the following exhibit, P4S-SWA receives the frame with the addressing. Based on the command output shown, how will P4S-SWA handle this frame?

A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will flood the frame out all ports.
C. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 157
Which of the following command will set the default gateway to 192.168.12.1 on a Cisco switch?
A. P4S-SW(config)# ip route-default 192.168.12.1
B. P4S-SW(config)# ip route 192.168.12.1 0.0.0.0
C. P4S-SW(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.12.1
D. P4S-SW(config)# ip default-network 192.168.12.1
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 158
Study the exhibit carefully. Two 2950 switches use a straight-through cable to connect through ports fa0/24. What can be concluded about this network according to the output provided in the exhibit and the information that is given?

A. An IP address and default gateway must be configured on each switch.
B. The switches do not share the same VTP domain.
C. Port fa0/24 must be configured as a trunk in order for the switches to share neighbor information.
D. The switches are cabled incorrectly.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 159
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the P4S-S are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected P4S-R and P4S-S ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Reseat all cables.
D. Ensure the P4S-S has power.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 160
What does it indicate when the system LED is amber on a Cisco Catalyst 2950 series switch?
A. The system is not powered up.
B. The system is malfunctioning.
C. The system is forwarding traffic.
D. The system is powered up and operational.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 161
P4S-SWA receives the frame with the addressing displayed in the exhibit. How will P4S-SWA deal with this frame according to the command output shown in the exhibit?

A. It will flood the frame out all ports.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
D. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 162
The following output was displayed on a certways device:
Study the exhibit above. Switch-certways1 needs to send data to host with a MAC address of
00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-certways1 do with this data?
A. certways1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.
B. certways1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.
C. certways1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 163
The following graphic displays the topology and MAC address table. Host P4S-A sends a data frame to host P4S-D. When receiving the frame from host P4S-A, what will the P4S-SWA do?

A. The P4S-SWA will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host P4S-D.
B. The P4S-SWA will flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3.
C. The P4S-SWA will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host P4S-D.
D. The P4S-SWA will discard the frame and send an error message back to host P4S-A.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 164
Examine the following options, which two are effects on network performance of configuring a switch to store an entire frame before forwarding it to the destination? (Choose two.)
A. increase in switch operating speed
B. increased latency
C. filtering of all frame errors
D. filtering of collision fragments only
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 165
The part of certways network is shown below:
According to the diagram, which of the following is true about the internetwork?
A. certways2 is the root bridge.
B. Spanning Tree is not running.
C. No collisions can occur in traffic between certwaysB and certwaysC.
D. certwaysD and certways Server 1 are in the same network.
E. If Fa0/0 is down on certways-R, Pass4usreA cannot access certways Server 1
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 166
Topic- Implement an IP addressing scheme and IP services to meet network requirements for a small branch office.
Describe the need and role of addressing in a network ” Create and apply an addressing scheme to a network Assign and verify valid IP addresses to hosts, servers, and networking devices in a LAN environment Explain the basic uses and operation of NAT in a small network connecting to one ISP Describe and verify DNS operation Describe the operation and benefits of using private and public IP addressing Enable NAT for a small network with a single ISP and connection using SDM and verify operation using CLI and ping Configure, verify and troubleshoot DHCP and DNS operation on a router.(including: CLI/SDM) Implement static and dynamic addressing services for hosts in a LAN environment Identify and correct IP addressing issues
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 167
Match the corresponding command sequence and configure an IP address on a serial interface.(Not all options are used) 1.P4S# interface s0/0 2.P4S(config)# interface s0/0 3.P4S(config-if)# no shutdown 4.P4S(config-if)# enable interface 5.P4S(config)# ip address 172.16.20.21 255.255.255.0 6.P4S(config-if)# ip address 10.8.5.255 255.255.252.0 7.P4S(config-if)# ip address 198.18.2.63 255.255.255.224 8.P4S(config-if)# description T1 to WAN 9.P4S(config)# banner motd! T1 to WAN! 10.P4S# configure terminal
A. enable the interface II.label the interface III.enter global configuration mode IV.enter interface configuration mode
B. configure the interface IP address
C. I-3,II-8,III-10,IV-2,V-6
D. I-3,II-8,III-10,IV-1,V-6
E. I-3,II-9,III-10,IV-2,V-5
F. I-3,II-9,III-10,IV-1,V-5
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 168
Look at the following exhibit. The diagram is provided by the certways network support staff as a recommended configuration for the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project. The entire network expansion will have over 1000 users on 14 network segments. The following IP address space has been allocated for this network:
192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255

192.168.100.1 through 198.168.100.255
There are three problems with this design. What are them? (Choose three.)
A. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.
B. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space.
C. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
D. The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 169
You are a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit above carefully, as the first step in verifying a local host configuration, you perform the ipconfig/all command on a computer. Answer the following questions by using the results of the command. Which destination addresses does not need the use of the default gateway for a packet from this local host?

A. 10.69.2.88
B. 10.4.8.2
C. 10.5.2.27
D. 172.16.236.4
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 170
Refer to the exhibit. Host P4S-A needs to send data to Host P4S-B. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will be used to send the data from Host P4S-A to Host P4S-B?

A. 192.168.24.1 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
B. 192.168.60.5 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
C. 192.168.24.2 and 0007.0e84.acef
D. 192.168.60.5 and 0011.43da.2c98
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 171
You are a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit above carefully, as the first step in verifying a local host configuration, you perform the ipconfig/all command on a computer. Answer the following questions by using the results of the command. Which IP address represents the first server that this computer is trying to contact to resolve an Internet web site URL to an IP address?

A. 10.4.8.1
B. 10.69.2.87
C. 172.16.3.2
D. 172.16.236.1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 172
You are a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit above carefully, as the first step in verifying a local host configuration, you perform the ipconfig/all command on a computer. Answer the following questions by using the results of the command. You can successfully ping to the IP address of the primary DNS server configured on the computer. What can you determine concerning the network?

A. The names of all of the routers in the path can be resolved by the configured DNS servers
B. The DNS server is able to resolve domain names to IP addresses.
C. The router with the address 172.16.3.2 has the correct route to the 10.0.0.0 network
D. The router with the address 172.16.236.1 has a route it can use to reach network of the DNS server
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 173
What can be drawn about traffic on the router interface from the statement “The only UDP port allowed on this router interface is 53.” issued by the network manager?
A. DNS traffic is allowed.
B. Telnet traffic is allowed.
C. RIP traffic is allowed.
D. SMTP traffic is allowed.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 174
Please study the exhibit, and answer the following question. Choose from the following the subnet broadcast address of the LAN connected to P4S-R.
A. 192.168.200.15
B. 192.168.200.31
C. 192.168.200.63
D. 192.168.200.127
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 175
On the LAN to which P4S-R is connected, how many hosts can have IP addresses (Including the address on the P4S-R FastEthernet interface)?
A. 6
B. 14
C. 62
D. 126
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 176
Choose from the following two statements that describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
C. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
D. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 177
According to the following exhibit. A customer is not able to reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the department have no problem. What most likely causes this problem?

A. A DHCP server address is not reachable by the PC.
B. IP routing is not enabled.
C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC.
D. NAT has not been configured on the router that connects to the Internet.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 178
Look at the following exhibit. P4SA should be able to telnet to switch P4S-SW by using router P4S-R for management purposes. To configure this connection successfully, what should be configured?

A. VLAN 1 on P4S-R
B. IP routing on P4S-SW
C. default gateway on P4S-SW
D. cross-over cable connecting P4S-SW and P4S-R
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 179
Look at the following exhibit. The network is designed to provide the most efficient use of IP address space in a network expansion. Each circle defines a network segment and the number of users required on that segment. An IP subnetwork number and default gateway address are displayed for each segment. There are three problems with the network design. What are the problems? (Choose three.)

A. Network 10.1.2.0/25 requires more user address space.
B. Network 10.1.3.128/25 requires more user address space.
C. Interface fa0/3 has an incorrect IP address.
D. Interface fa0/1 has an invalid IP address for the subnet on which it resides.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 180
Two of the following describe private IP addresses. Which are them? (Choose two.)
A. a scheme to conserve public addresses
B. addresses that can be routed through the public Internet
C. addresses that cannot be routed through the public Internet
D. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the Internet
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 181
You are a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit above carefully, as the first step in verifying a local host configuration, you perform the ipconfig/all command on a computer. Answer the following questions by using the results of the command. Which two things can you determine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address 172.16.236.1? (Choose two)

A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly.
B. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer.
C. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured.
D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 182
Which of the following is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?
A. 172.16.0.0
B. 172.16.156.0
C. 172.16.128.0
D. 172.16.159.0
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 183
Tom works as a network technician for the P4S company. He is tasked to design a small network with redundancy according to the exhibit below which presents this design with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions could be drawn from this design?

A. The connection between switches should be a trunk.
B. This design will function as intended.
C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.
D. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 184
The P4S company has required a 300-workstation expansion of its network. These workstations will be
installed in a single broadcast domain. However, each workstation needs to have its own
collision domain. The expansion will be as cost-effective as possible while still satisfying the requirements.
Which three options can correctly fulfill the request? (Choose three).

A. one IP subnet with a mask of 255.255.254.0
B. seven 48-port hubs
C. seven 48-port switches
D. one router interface
Correct Answer: ACD

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QUESTION 86
One of the following attack is characterized by a flood of packets that are requesting a TCP connection to a server. Which is it?
A. brute force
B. Trojan horse
C. reconnaissance
D. denial of service
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 87
Match the corresponding command and configuration task. (Not all options are used.)
1.
login password certways1

2.
enable password certways2

3.
enable secret certways4

4.
service password-encryption

5.
line vty 0 4 password certways5

6.
line console 0 password certways3

A. encrypt all clear text passwords II.protect access to the user mode prompt III.set privileged mode encrypted password IV.set password to allow Telnet connections
B. set privileged mode clear text password
C. I-4,II-3,III-5,IV-2,V-6
D. I-4,II-5,III-3,IV-2,V-6
E. I-4,II-6,III-3,IV-5,V-2
F. I-4,II-6,III-5,IV-3,V-2
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 88
You need to create a security plan for the certways network. What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 89
Topic – Implement and verify WAN links.
Describe different methods for connecting to a WAN Configure and verify a basic WAN serial connection A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 90
Two of the following statements correctly describe the following network. What are them? (Choose two.)

A. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are seven collision domains in the network.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 91
You need to create a security plan for the certways network. What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. 64 Kbit/sec
B. 32 Kbit/sec
C. 512 Kbit/sec
D. 128 Kbit/sec
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 92
Look at the following exhibit. You are a network administrator for certways. You are configuring P4S-R to connect to a non-Cisco network. Which two commands would be applied to the S0/0 WAN interface, but not to the Fa0/0 LAN interface? (Choose two.)

A. ip address
B. no shutdown
C. encapsulation ppp
D. authentication pap
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 93
Look at the following exhibit. You are a network administrator for certways.You want to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown. What kind of cable should be used?

A. 1 – Ethernet crossover cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – fiber optic cable
4 – rollover cable

B. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
C. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
D. 1 – Ethernet rollover cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – null modem cable
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 94
Which of the following are included WAN data link encapsulation types? (Choose two.)
A. DSL
B. T1
C. PPP
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 95
Which item gives the correct relationship between WAN connection technology and the associated communication link type? 1.PSTN 2.ATM 3.Leased Line 4.Frame Relay
A. Point to Point II.Circuit Switched III.Packet Switched IV.Cell Switched
B. I-3;II-1;III-4;IV-2
C. I-3;II-2;III-1;IV-4
D. I-3;II-1;III-2;IV-4
E. I-3;II-2;III-4;IV-1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 96
Part of the certways WAN is shown below:
Two buildings on the Los Angeles campus of a small company must be connected to use Ethernet with a
bandwidth of at least 100 Mbps. The company is concerned about possible problems from voltage
potential differences between the two buildings. Which media type should be used for the connection?

A. coaxial cable
B. UTP cable
C. STP cable
D. fiber optic cable
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 97
For the following items, which signaling standard is in charge of managing the connection and maintaining status between the router and the local Frame Relay switch?
A. CIR
B. DLCI
C. FECN
D. LMI
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 98
John works as a network administrator. It is difficult for him to establish a serial link between a Cisco router
and a router from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation.
Which two options are correct about this configuration? (Choose two.)

A. The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary “Type” field that may not be compatible with equipment of other vendors.
B. Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link
C. PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.
D. HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 99
Which two characteristics belong to a Frame Relay point-to-point subinterface? (Choose two.)
A. requires the frame-relay map command
B. resolves NBMA split horizon issues
C. maps one IP subnet across multiple DLCIs
D. maps one IP subnet per DLCI
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 100
Examine the following technologies, which one will you use when a router connected to a LAN has only one WAN interface, but multiple virtual circuits are needed?
A. DSL
B. ADSL
C. Cable
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 101
Host P4S-F sends out an ARP request to begin communicating with the server. How do you think the devices in the topology will respond to this request?

A. Router P4S-SFX will forward the ARP request to the ILM router.
B. The P4S-ILM router will respond with the IP address of the WWW server.
C. Router P4S-SFX will respond with the MAC address of its Fa0/0 interface.
D. Switch P4S-SWB will block the request since the server is not on the LAN.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 102
As a network administrator, you will need to decide on the appropriate network devices to use. Which of the following correctly describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
C. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 103
The certways WAN connection is shown below:
Based on this diagram shown above, which two devices can be used to complete the connection between
the WAN router at the customer site and the service provider? (Choose two.)

A. multiplexer
B. ATM switch
C. CSU/DSU
D. modem
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 104
Topic – Describe the operation of data networks.
Describe the purpose and functions of various network devices Select the components required to meet a given network specification Use the OSI and TCP/IP models and their associated protocols to explain how data flows in a network Describe common networking applications including web applications Describe the purpose and basic operation of the protocols in the OSI and TCP models Describe the impact of applications (Voice Over IP and Video Over IP) on a network Interpret network diagrams Determine the path between two hosts across a network Describe the components required for network and Internet communications Identify and correct common network problems at layers 1, 2, 3 and 7 using a layered model approach Differentiate between LAN/WAN operation and features
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 105
Host P4S-F, which needs to build the packet, has received the ARP reply. Two of the following information will be placed in the header of the packet that leaves host P4S-F if host P4S-F is to communicate with the WWW server. What is it? (Choose two)

A. The source address will be the IP address of host P4S-F.
B. The destination address will be the IP address of the WWW server.
C. The destination address will be the IP address of interface Fa0/0 of router P4S-SFX.
D. The destination address will be the IP address of interface Fa0/0 of the P4S-ILM router.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 106
As it is shown in the exhibit, two World Wide Web documents from the WWW server Host are displayed by P4S-F in two browser windows at the same time. How did the data find its way to the correct browser windows?

A. The browsers track the data by the URL.
B. TCP port numbers are used to direct the data to the correct application window.
C. The OSI application layer tracks the conversations and directs them to the correct brower.
D. The IP source addresses of the packets will be used to direct the data to the correct browser window.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 107
You work in a medium-sized company .The network performance of your company has slowed to the point that users are complaining. In order to resolve this problem, You are asked to determine what the users might be doing to cause the slowdown. Which two types of network services or applications most likely cause slowdown? (Choose two.)
A. social networking web sites
B. blogs and other online browsing
C. PC-based VoIP services
D. online video sites
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 108
Before a workstation is able to exchange HTTP packets with a web server, what must occur?
A. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 109
Look at the following exhibit. Connection problems are reported in the internetwork. By the output from P4S-HostA, what is the problem indicated?

A. The routing on P4S-R2 is not functioning properly.
B. The gateway address of P4S-HostA is incorrect or not configured.
C. The Fa0/24 interface of P4S-S1 is down.
D. An access list is applied to an interface of P4S-R3.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 110
Choose from the following three that are found in a TCP header, but not in a UDP header? (Choose three.)
A. window size
B. destination port
C. sequence number
D. acknowledgment number
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 111
Match the corresponding commands and functions. (Not all options are used.) 1.ping 10.0.0.1 2.ping 127.0.0.1 3.tracert 4.ipconfig/all 5.arp -a 6.telnet
A. displays PC network configuration
II. displays the list of routers on a path to a network destination III.tests VTY configuration
IV. tests TCP/IP protocol stack
B. displays IP to MAC address mappings on a Windows PC
C. I-4,II-3,III-6,IV-2,V-5
D. I-4,II-3,III-1,IV-6,V-5
E. I-4,II-3,III-6,IV-5,V-2
F. I-4,II-3,III-5,IV-6,V-2
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 112
Choose from the following two advantages of Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs. (Choose two.)
A. filtering frames based on MAC addresses
B. increasing the size of broadcast domains
C. decreasing the number of collision domains
D. allowing simultaneous frame transmissions
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 113
Data is divided into smaller pieces for transmission when files are transferred between a host and an FTP server. After these pieces reach the destination host, they should be reassembled to reconstruct the original file. What is used for the reassembly of these pieces into the correct order?
A. the TTL in the IP header
B. the sequence number in the TCP header
C. the Start Frame Delimiter in the 802.3 Preamble
D. the frame check sequence in the Ethernet frame trailer
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 114
On the basis of the exhibit below. After adding host A to the network, Host A is unable to communicate on
the network. A ping issued on the host to address 127.0.0.1 fails.
What is the problem?

A. The remote host at 127.0.0.1 is unreachable.
B. The default gateway is incorrect.
C. The IP address of host A is incorrect.
D. The TCP/IP protocols are not loaded.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 115
Attaching an Ethernet cable to a PC NIC and then attaching to a switch port. The PC power is turned on and the switch port link LED becomes green. Which two conditions does the link light indicate? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 communication has been established between the PC and switch.
B. Traffic is being sent from the switch to the PC.
C. If flashing, the green LED indicates port speed of 100 Mb/s.
D. The Layer 1 media is functioning between the PC and switch.
Correct Answer: AD
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Exam A QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit . Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?

A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role? A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reasons that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root

Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 7
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
A. discarding
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. disabled
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 10
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
What is one benefit of PVST+?
A. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
B. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.
D. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
What are three characteristics of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. It converges quickly.
B. OSPF is a classful routing protocol.
C. It uses cost to determine the best route.
D. It uses the DUAL algorithm to determine the best route.
E. OSPF routers send the complete routing table to all directly attached routers.
F. OSPF routers discover neighbors before exchanging routing information.
Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 13
Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?
A. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.
B. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
C. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
D. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
A. Bandwidth
B. Bandwidth and Delay C. Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)
A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C. Successor routes are flagged as ‘active’ in the routing table.
D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

The network associate is configuring OSPF on the Core router. All the connections to the branches should be participating in OSPF. The link to the ISP should NOT participate in OSPF and should only be advertised as the default route. What set of commands will properly configure the Core router?
A. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
B. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.13 0.0.0.242 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
C. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.16 0.0.0.15 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
D. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.32 0.0.0.31 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 18
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 16
D. unlimited

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 21
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.

Correct Answer: BG
QUESTION 22
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?
A. ipv6 local
B. ipv6 host
C. ipv6 unicast-routing
D. ipv6 neighbor

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
A router is running three routing processes: RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP, each configured with default characteristics. Each process learns a route to the same remote network. If there are no static routes to the destination and none of the routes were redistributed, which route will be placed in the IP routing table?
A. the route learned through EIGRP
B. the route learned through OSPF
C. the route learned through RIP
D. the route with the lowest metric
E. all three routes with the router load balancing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit.

Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?
A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.154.154.1
C. 172.16.5.1
D. 192.168.5.3

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router.

Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)
A. Corp-1
B. Corp-2
C. Corp-3
D. Corp-4
E. Branch-1
F. Branch-2

Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 26
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?
A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.

The network is converged. After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
A. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthernet 0/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
B. O 208.149.23.64 [110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
C. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
D. O 208.149.23.64 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
The following configuration is applied to a Layer 2 Switch: interface fastethernet 0/4 switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security mac-address 0000.1111.1111 switchport port-security maximum 2 swithcport port-security What is the result of the above configuration being applied to the switch?
A. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and up to two other hosts can connect to FastEthernet 0/4 simultaneously
B. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and one other host can connect to Fast Ethernet 0/4 simultaneously
C. Violating addresses are dropped and no record of the violation is kept
D. The switch can send an SNMP message to the network management station
E. The port is effectively shutdown

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.

Which of these correctly describes the results of port security violation of an unknown packet?
A. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; no SNMP or syslog messages
B. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; SNMP or syslog messages
C. port disabled; no SNMP or syslog messages
D. port disabled; SNMP or syslog messages

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit.

What three actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source MAC address arrives at the interface? (Select three.)
A. Send an SNMP trap.
B. Send a syslog message.
C. Increment the Security Violation counter.
D. Forward the traffic.
E. Write the MAC address to the startup-config.
F. Shut down the port.

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 33
A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
What does the frame-relay interface-dlci command configure?
A. local DLCI on the subinterface
B. remote DLCI on the main interface
C. remote DCLI on the subinterface
D. local DLCI on the main interface
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?
A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.
B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.
C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.
D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit.

What information about the interfaces on the Main_Campus router is true?
A. The LAN interfaces are configured on different subnets.
B. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is configured as a trunk.
C. The Layer 2 protocol of interface Serial 0/1 is NOT operational.
D. The router is a modular router with five FastEthernet interfaces.
E. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is administratively deactivated.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit.

C-router is to be used as a “router-on-a-stick” to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration?
A. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router eigrp 123 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
B. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router ospf 1 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
C. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router rip C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
D. No further routing configuration is required.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit.

Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In addition, assume that OSPF has been correctly configured on router R2. How will the default route configured on R1 affect the operation of R2?
A. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be dropped.
B. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately.
C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately because of the lack of a gateway on R1.
D. The networks directly connected to router R2 will not be able to communicate with the 172.16.100.0, 172.16.100.128, and 172.16.100.64 subnetworks.
E. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit.

Assume that all of the router interfaces are operational and configured correctly. How will router R2 be affected by the configuration of R1 that is shown in the exhibit?
A. Router R2 will not form a neighbor relationship with R1.
B. Router R2 will obtain a full routing table, including a default route, from R1.
C. R2 will obtain OSPF updates from R1, but will not obtain a default route from R1.
D. R2 will not have a route for the directly connected serial network, but all other directly connected networks will be present, as well as the two Ethernet networks connected to R1.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 41
Refer to the exhibit.

The show interfaces serial 0/1 command was issued on the R10-1 router. Based on the output displayed which statement is correct?
A. The cable connected to the serial 0/1 interface of the R10-1 router is a DTE cable.
B. The R10-1 router can ping the router interface connected to the serial 0/1 interface.
C. The clock rate used for interface serial 0/1 of the R10-1 router is 1,544,000 bits per second.
D. The CSU used with the serial 0/1 interface of the R10-1 router has lost connection to the service provider.
E. The interface of the remote router connected to the serial 0/1 interface of the R10-1 router is using the default serial interface encapsulation.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 42
Refer to the exhibit.

RTA is configured with a basic configuration. The link between the two routers is operational and no routing protocols are configured on either router. The line shown in the exhibit is then added to router RTA . Should interface Fa0/0 on router RTB shut down, what effect will the shutdown have on router RTA?
A. A route to 172.16.14.0/24 will remain in the RTA routing table.
B. A packet to host 172.16.14.225 will be dropped by router RTA
C. Router RTA will send an ICMP packet to attempt to verify the route.
D. Because router RTB will send a poison reverse packet to router RTA, RTA will remove the route.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.
B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 44
The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows “PVC STATUS = INACTIVE”. What does this mean?
A. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected for more than five minutes.
B. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address of the remote router.
C. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger a call to the remote router.
D. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC
E. The PVC is not configured on the local switch.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit.

Hosts in network 192.168.2.0 are unable to reach hosts in network 192.168.3.0. Based on the output from RouterA, what are two possible reasons for the failure? (Choose two.)
A. The cable that is connected to S0/0 on RouterA is faulty.
B. Interface S0/0 on RouterB is administratively down.
C. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is configured with an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The IP address that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB is not in the correct subnet.
E. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU.
F. The encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB does not match the encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterA

Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit.

The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit.

When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?
A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers
B. Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected
C. The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C
D. Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48
Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?
A. converged
B. redundant
C. provisioned
D. spanned

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 49
What command is used to verify the DLCI destination address in a Frame Relay static configuration?
A. show frame-relay pvc
B. show frame-relay lmi
C. show frame-relay map
D. show frame relay end-to-end

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 50
Refer to the exhibit.

A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Sw11 as an access link in VLAN 1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on Sw12, what will be the result of making this change on Sw11?
A. Only the hosts in VLAN 1 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
B. The hosts in all VLANs on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
C. Only the hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 15 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
D. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Refer to the exhibit.

What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-if)# no shut down
B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# no shut down Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0
D. Switch1(config)# vlan database Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 52
Refer to the exhibit.

How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?
A. The router will drop the packet.
B. The router will return the packet to its source.
C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2.
D. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 53
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.

Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 54
What is the advantage of using a multipoint interface instead of point-to-point subinterfaces when configuring a Frame Relay hub in a hub-and-spoke topology?
A. It avoids split-horizon issues with distance vector routing protocols.
B. IP addresses can be conserved if VLSM is not being used for subnetting.
C. A multipoint interface offers greater security compared to point-to-point subinterface configurations.
D. The multiple IP network addresses required for a multipoint interface provide greater addressing flexibility over point-to-point configurations.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
Which two statistics appear in show frame-relay map output? (Choose two.)
A. the number of BECN packets that are received by the router
B. the value of the local DLCI
C. the number of FECN packets that are received by the router
D. the status of the PVC that is configured on the router
E. the IP address of the local router

Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 51
Which description is correct about the operational state of the FastEthernet 0/0 interface on the basis of the exhibit below?

A. The interface is generating protocol errors.
B. The interface has failed because of a media error.
C. The interface is operational and currently handling traffic.
D. The interface requires a no shutdown command to be issued.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
Two certways routers are connected as shown below:
certways1 configuration exhibit:
certways2 configuration exhibit:
Two routers named certways1 and certways2 are connected by their serial interfaces as shown in the
exhibit, but there is no data connectivity between them. The certways1 router is known to have a correct
configuration. Given the partial configurations shown in the exhibit, what is the problem on the certways2
router that is causing the lack of connectivity?

A. A loopback is not set.
B. The IP address is incorrect.
C. The subnet mask is incorrect.
D. The serial line encapsulations are incompatible.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
You work as a network technician at P4S. Please study the exhibit carefully.
The router console screen is rapidly displaying line after line of output similar to what is shown in the
exhibit. The help desk has called to say that users are reporting a slowdown in the network. What will solve
this problem while not interrupting network operation?
A. Enter the no debug all command.
B. Save the configuration and reboot the router.
C. Press the CTRL+C keys.
D. Use the show processes command.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
According to the exhibit below. Information about P4S-RA, including platform and IP addresses, should not be accessible from the Internet due to security reasons. However, this information needs to be accessible to devices on the internal networks of P4S-RA. Which command or series of commands will achieve these goals?

A. P4S-RA(config)#no cdp enable
B. P4S-RA(config)#interface s0/0 P4S-RA(config-if)#no cdp run
C. P4S-RA(config)#no cdp run
D. P4S-RA(config)#interface s0/0 P4S-RA(config-if)#no cdp enable
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
Which will be the result of adding this command to a router already configured for dynamic routing? ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
A. It configures the router to block routing updates from being sent to IP address 192.168.1.2.
B. It configures the router to drop all packets for which the destination network is unknown.
C. It configures the router as a firewall, blocking all packets from IP address 192.168.1.2.
D. It configures the router to send all packets to IP address 192.168.1.2 if the packets match no other entry in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Look at the picture: A.

B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 57
Look at the following exhibit. You are a network administrator for certways. You need to install a network device in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. To meet the minimum requirements for this installation, which network device and interface configuration would you use?

A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
You are a network technician for certways Ltd. Study the graphic carefully, you are tasked to connect a Cisco router to a Catalyst switch as displayed and you are also working on a computer connected to the management console of the switch. In order to configure the default gateway for the switch, you should learn the IP address of the attached router interface. Which IOS command will provide this information in the absence of Layer 3 connectivity?

A. ping switch_ip_address
B. show ip rarp
C. ping router_ip_address
D. show cdp neighbors detail
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
Which command would configure a default route to any destination network not found in the routing table?
A. P4S-R(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 s0
B. P4S-R(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 s0
C. P4S-R(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 s0
D. P4S-R(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
According to the exhibit below. P4S-PC1 pings P4S-PC2. Which three things will P4S-CORE router do with the data received from P4S-PC1? (Choose three.)

A. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet0/1 of P4S-CORE router.
B. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of P4S-CORE router
C. P4S-CORE router will place the MAC address of P4S-PC2 in the destination MAC address of the frames.
D. P4S-CORE router will put the MAC address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source MAC address.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 61
According to the exhibit below. Configuring P4S-R1 and P4S-R3 with RIPv2. What are the minimum network commands required on P4S-R2 for all networks to converge?

A. (config-router)# network 192.168.0.0
B. (config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 (config-router)# network 192.168.1.0
C. config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 (config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 (config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
D. (config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 (config-router)# network 192.168.3.0 (config-router)# network 192.168.4.0
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 20 was performed on a router. No
routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router.
Which statement
best describes this command?

A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.190 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The number 20 indicates the number of hops to the destination network.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
What does the address 192.168.2.167 stand for on the basis of the following exhibit?

A. the router from which the file startup-config is being transferred
B. the TFTP server from which the file router-confg is being transferred
C. the TFTP server from which the file startup-config is being transferred
D. the TFTP server to which the file router-confg is being transferred
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
Tom is a network technician for the P4S company. Observe the exhibit carefully. He is trying to use
HyperTerminal to configure a new router by use of the settings presented.
Why Tom can’t
connect to the router?
A. The bits per second should be set to 9600.
B. Parity should be set to mark.
C. The stop bits should be set to 2.
D. The data bits should be set to 6.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
There are three locations in a school district of a large city: P4S-M, P4S-W and P4S-U. The network connection between two of these locations has already functioned. Configure the P4S-M router IP addresses on the E0 and S0 interfaces so that the E0 receives the first usable subnet while the S0 receives the second usable subnet from the network 192.168.160.0/28. Both interfaces would receive the last available IP address on the proper subnet.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 66
Look at the following exhibit. You are a technician for certways. The configurations in the exhibit are pasted into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. You cannot ping from P4S-Host1 to P4S-Host2, but you can ping the S0/0 interface of P4S-R2 from P4S-Host1. You have verified the configurations of the hosts and they are correct. What caused the problem?

A. The serial cable on P4S-R1 needs to be replaced.
B. P4S-R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
C. The interfaces on P4S-R2 are not configured properly.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
Topic – Explain and select the appropriate administrative tasks required for a WLAN.
Describe standards associated with wireless media (including: IEEE WI-FI Alliance, ITU/FCC)
Identify and describe the purpose of the components in a small wireless network. (including: SSID, BSS,
ESS)
Identify the basic parameters to configure on a wireless network to ensure that devices connect to the
correct access point
Compare and contrast wireless security features and capabilities of WPA security (including: open, WEP,
WPA-1/2)
Identify common issues with implementing wireless networks Answer & Explanation

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 68
The protocol that provides the information displayed by the show cdp neighbors command may operate at a layer of the OSI model. Which level is it?
A. network
B. physical
C. transport
D. data link
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 69
In an effort to increase security within the certways wireless network, WPA is being utilized. Which two statements shown below best describe the wireless security standard that is defined by WPA? (Choose two)
A. It specifies use of a static encryption key that must be changed frequently to enhance security.
B. It requires use of an open authentication method.
C. It specifies the use of dynamic encryption keys that change each time a client establishes a connection.
D. It includes authentication by PSK.
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 70
You work as a network technician for certways and are responsible for this network. And you have chosen WPA over WEP in their wireless network. What is one reason why WPA encryption is preferred over WEP in this network?
A. WPA key values remain the same until the client configuration is changed.
B. A WPA key is longer and requires more special characters than the WEP key.
C. The access point and the client are manually configured with different WPA key values.
D. The values of WPA keys can change dynamically while the system is used.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 71
While moving from one access point to another, which wireless LAN design ensures that a mobile wireless client would not lose connectivity?
A. configuring all access points to use the same channel
B. recommended overlap in cell coverage is 15 to 20%
C. utilizing MAC address filtering to allow the client MAC address to authenticate with the surrounding APs
D. using adapters and access points manufactured by the same company
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 72
The Wi-Fi logo is a registered mark of the Wi-Fi Alliance. When the Wi-Fi logo appears on a wireless access point or client adapter, which two of these does it signify? (Choose two.)
A. The Wi-Fi Alliance has tested this device and determined that it meets IEEE WLAN standards.
B. The access point or client adapter has been manufactured by the Wireless Fidelity company.
C. The manufacturer of the equipment has paid the Wi-Fi Alliance to market its products.
D. The Wi-Fi Alliance has verified that the device can interoperate with other devices using the same standards.
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 73
As the certways network administrator, you need to troubleshoot an interference issue with the certways wireless LAN. Which two devices can interfere with the operation of this network because they operate on similar frequencies? (choose two)
A. AM radio
B. microwave oven
C. toaster
D. cordless phone
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 74
Install and configure three access points to cover a small office. Which one of the following terms defines the wireless topology?
A. BSS
B. IBSS
C. ESS
D. SSID
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 75
You are a network technician. You have just installed a single 802.11g access point in the center of a square office. Some wireless users come across slow performance and drops when most users are operating at peak efficiency. Which three items most likely cause this problem? (Choose three.)
A. mismatched TKIP encryption
B. cordless phones
C. metal file cabinets
D. antenna type or direction
Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 76
Which encryption type will be used by WPA2?
A. AES-CCMP
B. PSK
C. TKIP/MIC
D. PPK via IV
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 77
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the WLAN diagram? (Choose two.)

A. The area of overlap of the two cells represents a basic service set (BSS).
B. The network diagram represents an extended service set (ESS).
C. Access points in each cell must be configured to use channel 1.
D. The two APs should be configured to operate on different channels.
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 78
Assuming that you are a network technician, can you tell me which two practices help secure the configuration utilities on wireless access points from unauthorized access? (Choose two.)
A. assigning a private IP address to the AP
B. changing the default SSID value
C. configuring a new administrator password
D. changing the mixed mode setting to single mode
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 79
Which protocol will be used by a network host to resolve a destination IPv4 address to a destination MAC address?
A. ARP
B. RARP
C. DHCP
D. DNS
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 80
Topic – Identify security threats to a network and describe general methods to mitigate those threats.
Explain today’s increasing network security threats and the need to implement a comprehensive security policy to mitigate the threats
Explain general methods to mitigate common security threats to network devices, hosts, and applications Describe the functions of common security appliances and applications Describe security recommended practices including initial steps to secure network devices
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 81
As a network administrator, you would configure port security on a switch. Why?
A. in order to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
B. in order to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
C. in order to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
D. in order to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
What objective does an IDS accomplish?
A. hide the private IP addressing structure from outside attackers
B. perform stateful firewall functions
C. detect malicious traffic and send alerts to a management station
D. block suspicious network activity from entering the network
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 83
The certways administrator is concerned with enhancing network security. To do this, what are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside security threats on the network?(Choose two.)
A. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 84
Choose from the following the effect of using the service password-encryption command.
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
C. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
D. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
To protect network device configuration files from outside network security threats, what should you do? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
D. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
Correct Answer: BC

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