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QUESTION 09 Consider a FileMaker Pro 11 database with the following tables and fields: Assuming only the above relationships between table occurrences, using sorting if necessary, which two
actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. create a value list that shows all Invoices for a chosen Customer
B. create a value list on a Product layout which displays all Customers
C. find all of the Customers who have ever ordered a specific Product
D. create a portal to display each Product that has been ordered by a Customer
E. display all records from the Customer table in a portal on a layout for an Invoice Item record 210-250 exam Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 10 Given the following relationship graph: Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event ID has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID.
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records… nor the Delete
related records… settings to be enabled for the Event table. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11 On the RSTP network as shown in the figure, what RSTP operations will occur after the E1 port of SWB
fails? (Select 3 Answers)
A. SWB deletes the MAC address entries with the E1 port as the destination interface.
B. The spanning tree is recalculated and the E2 port is elected as the new root port.
C. All the interfaces in forwarding state send topology change notifications (TCNs) to notify other switches
of the topology change.
D. All the non-edge ports in forwarding state send TCNs to notify other switches of the topology change. 210-250 dumps Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 12 Which is the port state defined in RSTP?
A. Discarding
B. Learning
C. Forwarding
D. All of the above Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13 RSTP has all functions that STP has and it is backward compatible with STP.
A. True B. False
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14 RSTP adopts fast convergence mechanism. So, there is no Forward Delay interval in RSTP.
A. True
B. False Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15 Two switches are directly connected to each other and they are working in full duplex mode. By default,
RSTP will consider the link between the switches as point-to-point link.
A. True
B. False 210-250 vce Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16 In RSTP network environment, a port can be set as edge port when it is directly connected with terminal.
A. True
B. False Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17 Which of the following statements about RSTP and STP is true?
A. STP has more port states than RSTP.
B. The port roles used in RSTP is less than the port roles used in STP.
C. Since RSTP adopts fast convergence mechanism, it does not have Learning state which is available in
STP.
D. Same as STP, the ports will enter into Listening state once the RSTP has been enabled. Then, the
ports can receive BPDU and calculate the spanning tree. 210-250 exam Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18 In a switching network that runs RSTP, the topology change notification message will not be sent when the
switch detects that the Alternate Port is failed.
A. True
B. False Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19 When the topology of a network running RSTP changes, what happens after the change?
A. Flooding on the entire network.
B. The aging time of MAC address entries is changed.
C. Some MAC address entries are deleted.
D. All of the above 210-250 dumps Correct Answer: C QUESTION 20 Which ports defined by RSTP cannot work in Forwarding state? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Root Port
B. Designated Port
C. Backup Port
D. Alternate Port Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 21 On an RSTP network, when an edge port is in protected state, what operation is performed after the edge
port receives BPDUs?
A. The edge port forwards BPDUs.
B. The edge port discards BPDUs.
C. The edge port is shut down.
D. The edge port obtains required information from BPDUs. 210-250 pdf Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22 In RSTP, the port status can be discarding and learning. Which statements about the port status are true?
(Select 2 Answers)
A. The port in discarding or learning state does not forward data frames.
B. The port in discarding state does not learn MAC addresses.
C. The port in learning state does not learn MAC addresses.
D. All of the above Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 23 On the RSTP network as shown in the figure, what is the port role of SWC E0/1 according to the
configuration? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Designated port
B. Root port
C. Alternate port D. Edge port 210-250 vce Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 24 As shown in the figure, when the link between SWC and LAND is faulty, through which path are TCA
BPDUs sent?
A. From SWA to SWB
B. From SWB to SWC
C. From SWB to SWA
D. From SWC to SWB Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25 As shown in the figure, when the STP network runs properly, which device does the designated port of
LANC reside?
A. SWA
B. SWB
C. SWC
D. None of the above 210-250 exam Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26 In STP configuration, which statement about BPDUs is true?
A. BPDUs cannot be sent from the designated port.
B. BPDUs can be sent only from the designated port.
C. BPDUs can be sent from any port.
D. None of the above. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27 On an STP network, after the network topology changes, which BPDUs are sent during flooding of
topology change information on the entire network?
A. BPDUs with the TCN flag
B. BPDUs with the TCA flag
C. BPDUs with the TC flag
D. All of the above 210-250 dumps Correct Answer: D QUESTION 28 After an STP switch starts, it considers itself as the root switch. Which statements about BDPU parameter
setting are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The switch is the designated root.
B. The designated cost is 0. C. The switch is the designated bridge.
D. The designated port is 0. Correct Answer: ABC
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Exam Code: 70-357
Exam Name: Developing Mobile Apps
Updated: Aug 08, 2017
Q&As: 66
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Free Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-357 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:
QUESTION 1. Which of the following device communication methods is used by MIB Tools?
A. SNMPv1
B. SNMPv3 Credential
C. SNMPv3 Profile
D. Max Access/Super User
E. All of the above
F.A and C only
70-357 exam Answer: E
QUESTION 2. Which of the following definition(s) best describes the difference between managers and agents in
SNMPv1 and SNMPv3?
A. In SNMPv1, the manager and agent were distinctly different but performed overlapping functions.
Managers resided on workstations; agents on remote devices.
B. In SNMPv3, a distributed interacting collection of SNMP entities can reside on both management
workstations and remote devices. Because each entity implements a portion of SNMP capability, an entity
can act as an agent, a manager, or a combination of the two.
C. In SNMPv1, the manager and agent were distinctly different and performed discrete functions: the
manager ran applications; the agent provided functionality. Managers resided on workstations; agents on
remote devices.
D.Aand B
E.B and C
F.All of the above
Answer: E
QUESTION 3. A MIB not supported on all devices should be assigned to which SNMP Request Group, when defining
a FlexView?
A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4 E. All of the above F. B or C only 70-357 dumps Answer: F
QUESTION 4. What are the three predefined groups in Inventory Manager Network Elements?
A. Chassis, Device Type and IP
B. Chassis, Matrix and X-Pedition
C. Matrix, SmartSwitch and X-Pedition
D. Matrix, X-Pedition and IP
Answer:A
QUESTION 5. How can network masks be displayed in CIDR notation in Router Services Manager?
A. By selecting CIDR in the Network Mask option of Tools > Options
B. By selecting CIDR in the device properties window
C. By selecting Dot Delimited in the Display option of Tools > Options
D. It is not possible to have network masks displayed in CIDR notation
70-357 pdf Answer:A
QUESTION 6. The MIB Tools Utility allows you to do all of the following, EXCEPT
A. View object definitions
B. Set object values
C. Change IP addresses on devices
D. Search for objects
E. Browse the MIB database
Answer: C
QUESTION 7. Which of the following statements are true about FlexViews?
A. You can use the FlexView editor to define as many FlexViews as you want.
B. You can create custom tabs to display desired MIB information.
C. The FlexView Wizard is not available with Atlas Lite.
D. All of the above
E. A and C only
70-357 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 8. What is the name of the file that defines the absolute path to your NetSight Plug-In applications?
A. PlugIn.details
B. common
C. NetSight.properties
D. Atlas.config
Answer: C
QUESTION 9. The relationship among remote devices in each map is automatically generated by Console when you
click the Retrieve button.
A. True
B. False
70-357 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 10. What are the three tabs in the left panel of Inventory Manager?
A. Devices, Traps, Archives
B. Network Elements, Firmware Management, Configuration Management
C. Details View, Archives, Chassis
D. Properties, VLAN, Compass
Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Which of the following password cracking techniques is used when the attacker has some information
about the password?
A. Hybrid Attack
B. Dictionary Attack
C. Syllable Attack
D. Rule-based Attack 70-357 dumps Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12 Which of the following is an application alert returned by a web application that helps an attacker guess a
valid username?
A. Invalid username or password
B. Account username was not found
C. Incorrect password
D. Username or password incorrect Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13 A pen tester has extracted a database name by using a blind SQL injection. Now he begins to test the
table inside the database using the below query and finds the table:
http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (LEN(SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=’U’)=3)
WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′–
http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects
where xtype=char(85)),1,1)))=101) WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′– http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF
(ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=char(85)),2,1)))=109)
WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′– http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT
TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=char(85)),3,1)))=112) WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′–
What is the table name?
A. CTS
B. QRT
C. EMP
D. ABC 70-357 pdf Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14 When you are running a vulnerability scan on a network and the IDS cuts off your connection, what type of
IDS is being used?
A. Passive IDS
B. Active IDS
C. Progressive IDS
D. NIPS Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15 HTTP protocol specifies that arbitrary binary characters can be passed within the URL by using %xx
notation, where ‘xx’ is the
A. ASCII value of the character
B. Binary value of the character
C. Decimal value of the character
D. Hex value of the character 70-357 vce Correct Answer: C QUESTION 16 Which of the following appendices gives detailed lists of all the technical terms used in the report?
A. Required Work Efforts
B. References
C. Research
D. Glossary Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17 An external intrusion test and analysis identify security weaknesses and strengths of the client’s systems
and networks as they appear from outside the client’s security perimeter, usually from the Internet. The
goal of an external intrusion test and analysis is to demonstrate the existence of known vulnerabilities that
could be exploited by an external attacker.During external penetration testing, which of the following scanning techniques allow you to determine a
port’s state without making a full connection to the host?
A. XMAS Scan
B. SYN scan
C. FIN Scan
D. NULL Scan 70-357 exam Correct Answer: B QUESTION 18 Passwords protect computer resources and files from unauthorized access by malicious users. Using
passwords is the most capable and effective way to protect information and to increase the security level
of a company. Password cracking is the process of recovering passwords from data that have been stored in or
transmitted by a computer system to gain unauthorized access to a system. Which of the following password cracking attacks tries every combination of characters until the password
is broken?
A. Brute-force attack
B. Rule-based attack
C. Hybrid attack
D. Dictionary attack Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19 Rules of Engagement (ROE) document provides certain rights and restriction to the test team for
performing the test and helps testers to overcome legal, federal, and policy-related restrictions to use
different penetration testing tools and techniques. What is the last step in preparing a Rules of Engagement (ROE) document?
A. Conduct a brainstorming session with top management and technical teams B. Decide the desired depth for penetration testing
C. Conduct a brainstorming session with top management and technical teams
D. Have pre-contract discussions with different pen-testers 70-357 dumps Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20 Which of the following is a framework of open standards developed by the Internet Engineering Task
Force (IETF) that provides secure transmission of the sensitive data over an unprotected medium, such as
the Internet?
A. DNSSEC
B. Netsec
C. IKE
D. IPsec Correct Answer: D QUESTION 21 Mason is footprinting an organization to gather competitive intelligence. He visits the company’s website
for contact information and telephone numbers but does not find any. He knows the entire staff directory
was listed on their website 12 months. How can he find the directory?
A. Visit Google’s search engine and view the cached copy
B. Crawl and download the entire website using the Surfoffline tool and save them to his computer
C. Visit the company’s partners’ and customers’ website for this information
D. Use WayBackMachine in Archive.org web site to retrieve the Internet archive 70-357 pdf Correct Answer: D QUESTION 22 Application security assessment is one of the activity that a pen tester performs in the attack phase. It is
designed to identify and assess threats to the organization through bespoke, proprietary applications or
systems. It checks the application so that a malicious user cannot access, modify, or destroy data or
services within the system. Identify the type of application security assessment which analyzes the application-based code to confirm
that it does not contain any sensitive information that an attacker might use to exploit an application.
A. Web Penetration Testing
B. Functionality Testing C. Authorization Testing
D. Source Code Review Correct Answer: D QUESTION 23 Which of the following is not a characteristic of a firewall?
A. Manages public access to private networked resources
B. Routes packets between the networks
C. Examines all traffic routed between the two networks to see if it meets certain criteria
D. Filters only inbound traffic but not outbound traffic 70-357 vce Correct Answer: B
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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 210-260 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:
QUESTION NO: 16 A text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 12 is set to auto-enter the following formula: FirstName & ” ” & LastNarne
FirstName and LastNarne are text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all
referenced fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any
is checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field
(Choose two.) A. a record is first created B. each time the value of the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified C. a user selects the menu item Records > Relookup Field Contents D. any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty E. the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty 210-260 exam Answer: A,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17 Consider a FileMaker Pro 12 database with the following tables:
And the relationship is configured as follows:
Which two statements are true about this situation? (Choose two.) A. It is possible to create new Salesperson records by importing data into the Order table. B. Users may create new Order records by entering data into a portal on a Salesperson Detail
layout. C. A merge field can be used on layouts based on the Salesperson table occurrence to show a list
of all of a salesperson’s orders. D. Removing the sort from the Order side of the relationship will not change the way that Order
records are displayed in a portal on a Salesperson Detail layout. E. List (Salesperson:: Salesperson ID) calculated from the context of the Order table returns a list
containing the Salesperson ID for the current order. Answer: B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18 Given the following relationship graph: Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database? A. In the Event table, the Event id has no index. B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record. C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records … nor the
Delete related records … settings to be enabled for the Event table. 210-260 dumps Answer:: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19 Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an
External ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL? A. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation B. These fields may be indexed unless they are of type Summary. C. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL when the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used. D. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button
in the FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used. Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20 A FileMaker Pro 12 database has two tables called Company and Customer. Both tables have a
number field called CompanyID. The two tables have a relationship between them formed by the
condition Company:: CompanyID = Customer:: CompanyID. Each table also has a text field called
CompanyName. The CompanyName field in the Customer table is defined to Auto-enter
calculated value, with the formula: Company:: CompanyName and the option Do not replace
existing value of field unchecked.
Under which circumstances will the value of the CompanyName field on a Customer record be
refreshed with data from the related Company record? A. any time the Customer record is modified B. any time the index of the Company:: CompanyID field is rebuilt C. any time the related Company:: CompanyName field is modified D. any time the CompanyID field on the Customer record is modified E. any time a user chooses Refresh Window from the Records menu while viewing the Customer record 210-260 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21 Which statement is true about container fields in FileMaker Pro 12? A. If one container field in a given database file is set to Store container data externally, all
container fields in that file must store their data externally B. If a file larger than a database’s Maximum container file size value is inserted into a container
field. FileMaker Pro 12 will automatically compress the inserted file. C. If a container field is set to Store container data externally, then the Store only a reference to
the file option is automatically selected for any file inserted into that field. D. If the setting Generate and store thumbnails for images is chosen in the Manage Containers
dialog for a given database file, all container fields in that file will have thumbnails generated. Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22 Which two are directly selectable options in the Validation tab of the field options dialog in
FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two.) A. Existing value B. Strict data type: Integer C. Strict data type: Time of Day D. Strict datatype: Alphanumeric E. Minimum number of characters 210-260 vce Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23 Which two statements are true about fields using global storage in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose
two.) A. Globally stored fields are always empty at the start of a user’s session. B. Fields using global storage can be used as match fields in a relationship. C. A container field using global storage may not be configured to store its data externally. D. Globally stored fields can only be accessed from within the file in which they are defined. E. Changes to data in globally stored fields in a shared file are stored when the server cache is
flushed. Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24 What is possible when working with shadow fields from an External ODBC Data Source? A. creating a two-column value list B. saving formatted text (bold, italic, etc.) C. checking the Auto-complete using previously entered values checkbox in the Field/Control
Setup dialog D. inserting binary data such as a PDF file, provided the field options are set to Store container
data externally 210-260 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25 Which three field options may be set for a shadow field from an External ODBC Data Source?
(Choose three.) A. Validation: not empty B. Validation: unique value C. Validation: existing value D. Auto-enter creation timestamp E. Auto-enter serial number, on creation F. Storage: automatically create indexes as needed Answer: A,D,E
Explanation: QUESTION NO: 26 A table in a FileMaker Pro 12 database has a text field CompanyName. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
– Validate data in this field only during data entry
– Allow user to override during data entry
– Require not empty
– Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName
field. What will occur? A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed. B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides
the error. C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see the specified
custom message. D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog
from the FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors,
along with a count of those records. 210-260 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27 Given a text field Full Name, Auto-Enter by Calculated value has been selected in the field
options, using the following formula:
Name First &.” “& Name Last
The developer then disables (unchecks) the option Do not replace existing value of field (if any).
For which two cases will the results of the specified formula be inserted into the field Full Name?
(Choose two.) A. When the record is first created B. When the field Full Name itself is modified C. Only when the field Full Name was previously empty D. When either of the fields Name First or Name Last is modified E. When the field Full Name itself is modified and the record is committed Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28 A new database is created with two tables, Client and Contracts. The only modification made on
the Relationships Graph is to establish a relationship between them which is set to delete related
records in Contracts when a record in Client is deleted. What happens when the Client table occurrence is deleted from the Relationships Graph? A. Since it is the only occurrence of the Client table on the graph, it can not be deleted. B. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records are deleted. C. The formula in the calculation field Name Full (defined as Name First & ” ” & Name Last) will be
broken. D. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records will have values
in the client id field deleted. 210-260 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29 Consider two FileMaker files, Collection and Item, where tables from Item are included in the
Relationships Graph of Collection.
Which method will preserve all functionality in the Relationships Graph of Collection after
renaming the Item file to Artifact? A. Choose File > Manage > External Data Sources… for Collection and reset the file path B. Click the Repair Reference button in the Relationships Graph for Collection and reset the file
path C. Delete referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and
recreate them for Artifact D. Select referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and right
click to choose Rename File Source… Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30 Which two FileMaker Pro 12 objects will display data contents even when unrelated to the current
layout’s table occurrence? (Choose two.) A. Merge variable B. Indexed tirnestarnp field C. A text field from a shadow table D. Globally stored number field placed in a portal E. A container field defined with the Store as reference only option enabled Answer: A,D
210-260 vce Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31 Given the following relationship graph: Without inspecting the data, what is known about this database? A. The Event table occurrence references a table from an external ODBC Data Source B. There can be zero or one, but no more than one, Event record related to any Task record. C. The corner arrows indicate all three table occurrences reference tables from external data
sources. D. From a layout based on the Event table occurrence, a portal could be drawn showing both
related Task and Volunteer data. 210-260 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
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