Category: CCNA
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which command would you use to determine if device aliases in VSAN 5 are configured for fabriC.wide distribution?
A. show zoneset name alias vsan 5
B. show cfs application name device-alias
C. showfcalias distribution vsan 5
D. show vsan 5 device-alias status
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Drop
Drag the Cisco analysis tool on the left to its appropriate description on the right.
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
A. 1=3 , 2=2, 3=4, 4=3
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 2 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Explanation:
QUESTION 3
The MDS 9000 family switches use what three technologies to protect against unauthorized management access? (Choose three.)
A. SNMPV3
B. SSH
C. RBAC
D. RMON
E. ses
F. WEBM
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 3 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
QUESTION 4
What is a benefit of enhanced zoning?
A. fabric locked during configuration changes
B. larger zoning database size
C. database rollback in case of failure
D. zones allowed to span VSANs
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which two of these environments suggest the use of FCIP Write Acceleration? (Choose two.)
A. remote tape backup
B. Port Channel links between sites
C. applications that support multiple outstanding l/Os
D. fast network with minimal delays
E. DWDM links
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which three of the following are possible reasons why a line card module does not come online? (Choose three.)
A. Port indexes have been taken offline.
B. Available port indexes are noncontiguous.
C. Not enough power is available in the chassis.
D. An invalid interoperability mode has been configured.
E. Unsupported SFPs have been installed.
F. Not enough port indexes are available.
Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 4 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Which two options from the Tools menu would you select to verify connectivity and latency to a Fibre Channel end device? (Choose two.)
A. Switch Health
B. Fabric Configuration
C. End to End Connectivity
D. Ping
E. Device Manager
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
During initial switch configuration, the administrator elects to enable full zoneset distribution. What is the impact of this choice during zoneset activation?
A. only the active zoneset is distributed to all switches in the fabric
B. both the full zone database and active zoneset are distributed to all switches in the fabric
C. both FCID and WWN information are distributed to all switches in the fabric
D. only the full zone database is distributed to all switches in the fabric
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
You are asked to review the running configuration of a switch that a junior administrator has prepared to be placed in a heterogeneous SAN environment. This environment includes three different brands of Fibre Channel switches. In this particular environment, only VSAN 1 is being used.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 5 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Which of these attributes suggests that the switch has been incorrectly configured?
A. Astatic domain ID has been set to 0x21.
B. The srC.dst-ox load balancing has been selected.
C. Interop mode 1 has been selected.
D. FCC has been enabled.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Drop
Drag the correct compression mode on the left to its appropriate bandwidth on the right.
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
A. mode1=2 , mode2=3 , mode3=1 , auto=4
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 6 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Explanation:
QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Drop
Click and drag each item on the left to its correct security description on the right.
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
A. 1=6 , 2=2 , 3=3 , 4=5 , 5=4 , 6=1
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 7
QUESTION 12
When configuring FCIP, packet fragmentation should be avoided in order to achieve optimal throughput. Fragmentation can be avoided by knowing which of the following?
A. MTU of the source IP interface
B. largest MTU in the path
C. smallest MTU in the path
D. MTU of the destination IP interface
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
When configuring FCIP, packet fragmentation should be avoided in order to achieve optimal throughput. Fragmentation can be avoided by knowing which of the following?
A. MTU of the source IP interface
B. largest MTU in the path
C. smallest MTU in the path
D. MTU of the destination IP interface
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
For purposes of granting restricted access to statically configure iSCSI virtual targets, which three of these can be used to identify iSCSI initiators? (Choose three.)
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 8 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
A. iSCSI node name
B. hostname
C. IPv4 address and subnet
D. MAC address
E. IPv6 address
F. iSCSIWWN
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
You have been asked to convert three existing ISLs into a PortChannel as nondisruptively as possible.
Which approach will best accomplish this?
A. Place all three ISLs into a PortChannel, because PortChannel creation is a nondisruptive operation.
B. Convert the ISLs into an EISL and then place them into a PortChannel.
C. Place one link into a single-link PortChannel and then add the other two links to the PortChannel.
D. Ensure that the VSAN allowed lists on both ends of each link are identically configured, then create the three-link PortChannel.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 9 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Which three statements describe automatically supported, basic zone features (no additional configuration required) in the Cisco MDS 9000 Family of switches? (Choose three.)
A. A VSAN contains the zone sets.
B. Zone reactivation can disrupt existing traffic.
C. A zone or zone set with the same name can exist in each VSAN.
D. Hard zoning can be disabled.
E. Active zone sets are preserved across switch reboots
F. Default zoning behavior is to distribute the Full Zone Database.
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which three options allow or enable nondisruptive upgrades? (Choose three.)
A. IPS module software upgrades
B. dual supervisor modules on a Cisco MDS 9500 Series switch
C. using the install-all command
D. upgrading the loader
E. installing a license F – using the reload command
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which services are supported by a Cisco SAN-OS AAA configuration?
A. Telnet, SSH, FM and DM logins
B. console login, FC.SP authentication, FTP
C. FC.SP authentication, FM and DM logins, TFTP
D. iSCSI authentication, FTP, FC.SP authentication
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
How many ports are addressable on a fabric arbitrated loop?
A. 126 “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 10 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
B. 127
C. 255
D. 256
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
A customer with multiple vendor switches establishes an ISL between a non-Cisco switch and an E_Port
on a Cisco MDS 9000 switch.
Which three statements are true about the interop behavior between the two switches? (Choose three.)
A. Exchange-based load balancing is supported in all interop modes.
B. Interop mode affects all VSANs.
C. Only E_Ports can be used to connect to non-Cisco MDS switches.
D. The non-Cisco switch must have matching FC timers with the VSAN containing the E_Port on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series switch.
E. Adding another ISL between the switches will allow a PortChannel to be configured for HA.
F. Interop mode 1 allows full featured communication between all combinations of MDS and non- MDS switches
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Which license is required on switches that are going to implement LUN zoning?
A. Storage Services Enabler
B. Enterprise license
C. Fabric Manager Server license
D. SAN Extension over IP license
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
DRAG DROP
Drop
Match the definition on the left with its appropriate word or phrase about switch interoperability on the right.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 11
Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
A. 1=2, 2=1, 3=4, 4=5, 5=3
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 12 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
QUESTION 23
Which two of these logging statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Call Home message level 0 is most urgent and level 7 is least urgent, whereas the syslog level 9 is most urgent and level 0 is least urgent.
B. Syslog message level 0 is most urgent and level 7 is least urgent, whereas the Call Home message level 9 is most urgent and level 0 is least urgent,
C. Syslog message level 7 is most urgent and level 0 is least urgent, whereas the Call Home message level 9 is most urgent and level 0 is least urgent.
D. Accounting logs can be stored locally and sent to remote AAA servers.
E. Go to logs > syslog > setup in Device Manager to view the local accounting log.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Which of these Cisco Fabric Manager debugging tools can compare the current configuration with a previously saved configuration file?
A. Switch Health Analysis
B. Fabric Configuration Analysis
C. EnD.to-End Connectivity Analysis
D. Zone Merge Analysis
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Choose the correct list of tasks to configure Remote Spanning.
A. Create a VSAN interface. Enable a Fibre Channel tunnel. Initiate the Fibre Channel tunnel. Configure the ST_Port in the source switch. Configure the SD_Port in the destination switch. Configure a SPAN session in the source switch.
B. Create a VSAN interface. Enable a Fibre Channel tunnel. Initiate the Fibre Channel tunnel. Configure the ST_Port in the source switch. Configure the SD_Port in the destination switch. Configure an RSPAN session in the source switch.
C. Create an RSPAN interface. Enable a Fibre Channel tunnel. Initiate the Fibre Channel tunnel. Configure the SD_Port in the destination switch. Configure the ST_Port in the source switch. Configure an RSPAN session in the source switch.
D. Create a VSAN interface. Enable a Fibre Channel tunnel. Initiate the Fibre Channel tunnel. Configure the ST_Port in the destination switch. Configure the SD_Port in the source switch. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 13 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam Configure an RSPAN session in the source switch.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
When creating an Inter-VSAN routing topology, which type of World Wide Name (WWN) must be used?
A. Port WWN
B. Switch WWN
C. Fabric Port WWN
D. VSAN WWN
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Your company has a multiswitch fabric including Switch A and Switch B. An administrator of Switch A creates the following zone set and successfully activates it: zoneset name ZoneSetl vsan 1 zone name Zonel vsan 1 pwwn 21:01:00:e0:8b:3c:03:b6 pwwn 21:01:00:e0:8b:3c:55:bb Later in the day, a second administrator creates the following zone set on Switch B: zoneset name ZoneSet2 vsan 1 zone name Zonel vsan 1 pwwn 21:01:00:e0:8b:3c:03:b6 pwwn 21:01:00:e0:8b:3c:55:aa What happens when the administrator of Switch B attempts to activate ZoneSet2?
A. ZoneSet2 becomes the active zone set for both Switches A and
B.
C. The fabric segments and ZoneSet2 become the active zone set for Switch B only.
D. The fabric segments and ZoneSet2 become the active zone set for Switch A only.
E. The fabric segments and ZoneSetl remain the active zone set for Switch B, while ZoneSet2 becomes the active zone set for Switch A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 14 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
You have been asked to configure a port on your Cisco MDS switch so that a host can join your fabric. Which of these switch port types should the port be set to?
A. N_Port
B. NL_Port
C. F_Port
D. E_Port
E. TE_Port
F. SD Port
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
DRAG DROP
Drop The IT director wants to standardize the process that the SAN team follows when troubleshooting the SAN. IT director wants to leverage the tools that are provided by Cisco Fabric Manager so that each member of the team executes the samesteps when faced with a problem in the SAN. Click and drag the Cisco Fabric Manager troubleshooting tool to the purpose it serves in the repair strategy.
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
A. 1=2, 2=4, 3=3, 4=1
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 15 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Explanation:
QUESTION 30
Which of the following tools would you use to view SCSI error count statistics?
A. Cisco Performance Manager
B. RMON
C. Cisco Traffic Analyzer
D. Cisco Fabric Analyzer
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
A customer would like to implement a low-cost traffic engineering solution that provides a primary data path, and a secondary data path that will only be used in the event of a failure in the primary path. Which of these solutions best meets the customer needs?
A. VSAN allowed list pruning
B. FCC
C. QoS “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 16 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
D. FSPF link costs
E. VOQ
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
The output from the switch show interface command indicates that the link from a host comes up as an FL_Port. The switch port is configured as auto. Which three of these HBA configurations could cause this scenario? (Choose three.)
A. the HBA is configured as an N_Port
B. the HBA is configured as an NL_Port
C. the HBA supports only NL mode
D. the HBA is configured as a TE_Port
E. the HBA supports only FC.AL technology
F. the HBA is configured as an TL_Port
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit. Which of the following statements is true?
A. All users belonging to the sangroup role are allowed to perform all configuration commands except fspf commands because the deny config feature fspf is listed first.
B. All users are allowed to perform all configuration commands because the permit config command is listed last and that will globally override all other rules.
C. All users belonging to the sangroup role to perform all configuration commands except fspf commands because it does not matter what order the rules are entered.
D. The configuration is not valid because rules are entered at the switch (config-role-vsan)# level.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
Which three types of network statistics can be captured with the Cisco Traffic Analyzer? (Choose three.)
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 17 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
A. historical reporting
B. total bandwidth used
C. Tx/Rx bandwidth per VSAN
D. Tx/Rx bandwidth per N_Port
E. class-based traffic breakdown
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Which two security protocols are supported in the Cisco iSCSI implementation? (Choose two.)
A. IPSec
B. FC.SP
C. SLAP
D. CHAP
E. PAP
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Issuing the show role command to check a defined role in an MDS 9000 Series switch will produce the following output: Role: Manage VSAN Description: Vsanpolicy: deny Permitted vsans: 2-4 Rule Type Command-type Feature 1- permit config * 2- deny config fspf 3- permit debug zone 4- permit exec fcping
Which of the following two functions can a user with role Manage undertake? (Choose two.)
A. check connectivity for VSAN 2
B. issue a debug command for a port
C. configure FC port parameters for VSAN 3
D. changefspf parameters
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which two options can be used to enable flex-attach when automatic assignment is used?
(Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. global across all NPV switches
B. per server WWN
C. per server FC-ID
D. per interface or interface range
E. global across all NPIV-enabled switches
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Match the definition on the left with its appropriate word or phrase about switch interoperability on the right.
A. 1,2,3,4,5
B. 2,1,3,4,5
C. 3,1,2,4,5
D. 2,3,4,5,1
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
When using the Cisco MDS 9000 Switches, which protocol provides in-band management? Select the best response.
A. SNMP
B. IPFC
C. FCIP
D. iSCSI
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What information does the command showflogi database provide?
A. verifies connectivity for attached devices
B. displays fabric login errors
C. displays a list of the host ports that have logged into each storage port
D. verifies that attached devices are in the correct zone
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You have set up a session to the SD_Portto enable the investigation of a problem on a particular Fibre Channel port. You need to check whether this has been correctly set up for the desired port. Which command should you use?
A. showfcanalyzer
B. show span session
C. showfcflow
D. showtlport
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
A host is unable to access the storage network after its HBA is replaced. Which of these switch configurations could be preventing access?
A. port-mode security
B. port VSAN membership
C. port-based zoning
D. port security
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which command would you use to determine if device aliases in VSAN 5 are configured for fabriC.wide distribution?
A. showcfs application name device-alias
B. showvsan 5 device-alias status
C. showzoneset name alias vsan 5
D. showfcalias distribution vsan 5
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which feature requires the Cisco MDS 9000 Series Enterprise license?
A. centralized AAA services
B. port security
C. virtual output queues
D. PortChannels
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
What is the recommended minimum clearance between chassis when installing the Cisco MDS 9500 Series in a standard telco rack?
A. 2.5 inches
B. 9 inches
C. 3 inches
D. 6 inches
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
You work as a network administrator for Company.com. You study the exhibit carefully. When
looking at the Cisco Fabric Manager, you notice that one of the switches has this symbol
superimposed on it. What is the reason?
Exhibit:
Select the best response.
A. The device is down.
B. The device is manageable but there are operational problems.
C. The device is not manageable.
D. The device is online but not working properly.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
You work as a network administrator for Company.com. You study the exhibit carefully. Which of
the following statements is true?
Exhibit:
A. All users belonging to thesangroup role to perform all configuration commands except fspf commands because it does not matter what order the rules are entered.
B. All users belonging to thesangroup role are allowed to perform all configuration commands except fspf commands because the deny config feature fspf is listed first.
C. All users are allowed to perform all configuration commands because the permitconfig command is listed last and that will globally override all other rules.
D. The configuration is not valid because rules are entered at the switch (config-role-vsan)# level.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which of the following tools would you use to view SCSI error count statistics?
A. RMON
B. Cisco Fabric Analyzer
C. Cisco Traffic Analyzer
D. Cisco Performance Manager
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which two security protocols are supported in the Cisco iSCSI implementation? (Choose two.)
A. SLAP
B. CHAP
C. IPSec
D. PAP
E. FC.SP
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
While examining the output of a show run command on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series, you notice that the statement interface GigabitEthernet2/2 appears in the output. What does this mean?
A. It refers to the second FCIP tunnel that is configured on port GigabitEthernet2/1.
B. It refers to a VLAN subinterface on port GigabitEthernet2/1.
C. It means that port GigabitEthernet2/1 is assigned to VSAN 2.
D. It is a mistake in the interface configuration.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
What is a benefit of enhanced zoning?
A. fabric locked during configuration changes
B. larger zoning database size
C. database rollback in case of failure
D. zones allowed to span VSANs
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
While examining the output of a show run command on the CiscoMDS9000Series, you notice that the statement interface GigabitEthernet2/1.2 appears in the output. What does this mean?
A. It refers to these condFCIP tunnel that is configured on port GigabitEthernet2/1.
B. It refers to a VLAN subinterface on port GigabitEthernet2/1.
C. It means that port GigabitEthernet2/1is assigned to VSAN2.
D. It is a mistake in the interface configuration.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
The HBA on your storage server only supports the NL_Port mode. Which interface type on the Cisco MDS9000Series fabrics witches can support this HBA?
A. F
B. TE
C. FL
D. N E. E
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
For purposes of granting restricted access to statically configure iSCSI virtual targets, which three of these can be used to identify iSCSI initiators?(Choose three.)
A. iSCS Inodename
B. hostname
C. IPv4 address and subnet
D. MAC address
E. IPv6 address
F. iSCSI WWN
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
What is a benefit of enhanced zoning?
A. fabriclockedduringconfigurationchanges
B. largerzoningdatabasesize
C. databaserollbackincaseoffailure
D. zonesallowedtospanVSANs
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Exam A QUESTION 1
Exhibit:
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. Which three of these are accurate description of values that you will find in the verified column for different types of products? ( Choose three.)
A. If the solution is configured and orderable, a check mark will be displayed.
B. If the configuration is incomplete, the words “Not Configured” will be displayed
C. If the part is a non-configurable part, the words “Not configurable” will be displayed
D. If the solution is not orderable, a check mark will be displayed
E. If the configuration is complete, the word Done will be displayed
F. If the solution is not configured, a check mark will be displayed
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which routing method is used to determine the forwarding paths for IP traffic in a Secure Cisco Single-Site Network foundation solution with remote teleworkers?
A. RIP
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. Static and default routes
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Exhibit:
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. In a Cisco Single-
Site Secure Network foundation implementation, which factors affect the router configuration you select?
Exhibit: image027.jpg
A. Maximum number of supported IP Phones per platform
B. Type of security scheme that is to be implemented
C. Maximum Amount of packet latency acceptable
D. Type of QoS scheme hat is being used
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in WAN
Services.
Match the appropriate WAN Services with the correct service type.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 5
The recommended WAN Access method for a simplified and cost effective Cisco Single-site Secure Network Foundation Deployment provides which type of Service?
A. Low Latency
B. Best-Effort
C. Guaranteed Quality
D. Guaranteed Bandwidth
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You are designing a solution that needs to support 30 IP phone users. Which switch model and how many switches does the Cisco Single-Site Secure Network Foundation1.1 Desing and Implementation Guide suggest for the solution?
A. 1 Catalyst Express 500G-12TC,1 Catalyst 3750G-12S-S
B. 1 Catalyst 3750G-12S-S, 1 Catalyst Express 500-24PC
C. 2 Catalyst Express 500G-12TC
D. 1 Catalyst 3750G-12S-S, 1 Catalyst Express 500-24PC
E. 2 Catalyst Express 500-24PC
F. 2 Catalyst 3750G-12S-S
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Exhibit: You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. All of the computing devices shown are on the same logical network, as if they were all connected to the same switch. Which two features make this possible? ( Choose two.)
A. PAT
B. 802.1Q
C. Spanning-tree
D. VLANs
E. QoS
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
If voice and data traffic will be sent and received via a WAN links, what must be configured to provide a certain amount of dedicated bandwidth and to prioritize the voice traffic over other types of network traffic?
A. IPSec VPN
B. QoS mechanism
C. Firewall
D. NAT
E. EIGRP routing protocol
F. Static routing
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco 642-176 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1) exam is the exam associated with the Cisco Certified Entry Network Technician (CCENT) certification and is a tangible first step in achieving an Associate-level certification Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1) course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small branch office network. The exam includes topics on the operation of IP data networks, LAN switching technologies, IPv6, IP routing technologies, IP services (DHCP, NAT, ACLs), network device security, and basic troubleshooting
QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in UTP
categories.
Match the appropriate environments with the correct UTP category.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 10
You are designing a solution that needs to support a full-rate T3 connection. Which router model does the Cisco Single-Site Secure Network Foundation 1.1 Design and Implementation Guide suggest for this solution?
A. Cisco 2821
B. Cisco 2811
C. Cisco 3845
D. Cisco 2801
E. Cisco 2851
F. Cisco 3825
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
When resetting a Catalyst Express switch to factory default settings, which three options are available from the Software Recovery window? (Choose three.)
A. Boot to a password recovery window
B. Boot with the factory default image
C. Erase the system configuration and boot with the factory default IOS image
D. Erase the system configuration and boot from a TFTP-supplied IOS image
E. Erase the System Configuration
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 12
Which statement correctly describes network security settings in Cisco Network Assistant for the Catalyst Express 500 Switch?
A. The LOW setting enables broadcast storm control, but has no effect on the number of devices that can connect to a switch port
B. The LOW setting enables broadcast storm control and limits the number of devices that can connect to a switch port.
C. The LOW setting disables broadcast storm control but limits the number of devices that can connect to a switch port
D. The default network setting is “HIGH”
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
In an environment in which multiple VLANs have been defined on Catalyst Express 500 switches, which two statements are correct for ports that have been configured with the Smartport role of “IP Phone + Desktop”? (Choose two.)
A. The names of the VLANs used by the SmartPorts are case insensitive
B. The ports may belong to a configurable data VLAN
C. The names of the VLANs used by the Smartports are not relevant
D. The ports may belong to many VLANs, depending on how many PCs are connected to each port.
E. The names of the VLANs used by the Smartports are case sensitive
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
DRAG DROP You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in SMB wireless solutions. You are required to produce the correct order for performing a Technology Strategy Development. Choose only steps that apply.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Exhibit: You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. Which Cisco SDM Configuration task would you use to enable access and inspection rules on the WAN interface, preventing any external traffic from entering the network unless that traffic is a reply to a session that originated in the internal network?
A. Additional Task
B. Interface and Connections
C. Routing
D. NAT
E. Firewall and ACL
F. VPN
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
When enabling IPS on an ISR using the Cisco SDM IPS Wizard, in what location can the SDF be placed?
A. On the RAM of the ISR
B. On the USB memory stick of the ISR
C. On the NVRAM of the ISR
D. On the IPS Module of the ISR E. On the Flash memory of the ISR
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
During which phase of the Steps to Success methodology for Cisco SMB Security Solutions would the Security Technology Requirements document be used to determine a customer’s security requirements?
A. Perform
B. Position
C. Develop
D. Prepare
E. Plan
F. Design
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Exhibit:
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. The exhibit is an example of which technology being implemented?
A. Spanning-tree
B. 802.1Q
C. VLANs
D. PAT
E. QoS
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 19
Exhibit:
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. Which two statements correctly identify the reasons why there is only one static route and there are no dynamic protocols for the configuration shown?(Choose two.)
A. The configuration has not been completed yet on the router
B. There is only one entry and exit path to the service provider, so one static route is sufficient
C. The LAN functions at L3, so dynamic routing does not need to be enabled
D. Switch Agg 1 and R1 have not achieved L3 adjacency yet, thus whatever routing protocol has been configuration on R1 is not completely up
E. There is only one L3 device, thus dynamic routing is not needed
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
During which phase of the steps to success methodology for Cisco SMB security solutions would the Network Readiness Assessment be used to assess the readiness of an existing network infrastructure and determine which, if any, modification should be made prior to implementation?
A. Position
B. Prepare
C. Design
D. Perform
E. Plan
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
When determining a customer’s security requirements using the security site survey from the steps for success methodology, which three of theses should be included in the customer’s security policy and procedures? (Choose three.)
A. Third-party due diligence policy review
B. Remote Access Policy
C. Encryption Policy
D. Application change control policy
E. Security Personnel policy
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
DRAG DROP You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested network security mechanisms. You are required to match the correct mechanism with the proper description.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 23
DRAG DROP You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested Success Methodology phases steps. You are required to produce the correct in which the appropriate phases takes place Use only steps that apply.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
When using the steps to success methodology, where does Quote Builder fit into the deal process flow?
A. It encompasses the validate and solve steps
B. It encompasses the Discovery, Validate and Solve steps
C. It encompasses the Discover, Validate, Solve and Present Steps
D. It encompasses the Discovery, Solve and Close steps
E. It encompasses the Discovery, Validate and Present Steps
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Which three of these pre-requisite for resetting a Catalyst Express 500 switch when Cisco Network Assistant is unavailable? (Choose three.)
A. At Least one enabled switch port that is unconnected to any device
B. A PC pre-configured with a specific IP Address and Mask
C. A PC or laptop with Windows 2000 or Windows XP installed and a web browser that has Java Script enabled
D. Physical Access to Switch
E. A Switch with no connected devices
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
To protect the network from external and internal threats, where should Cisco IPS be enabled on an ISR?
A. Globally on the ISR
B. On the Console and Auxiliary Ports of the ISR
C. On the untrusted (Outside) interface of the ISR
D. On the trusted (Inside) interface of the ISR
E. On the WAN and LAN interfaces of the ISR
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Which two WAN access methods are specified for a simplified and cost-effective Cisco Single-Site Secure Network Foundation Deployment Design? (Choose two.)
A. Frame-Relay
B. Leased Line
C. MPLS
D. DSL
E. Cable
F. Wireless
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
DRAG DROP
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in WAN
devices.
Match the appropriate WAN device with the correct description.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
DRAG DROP
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in port types.
Match the appropriate port type with the correct function.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 30
During which phase of the steps to success methodology for Cisco SMB Security Solutions would the Network Readiness Assessment be used to assess the readiness of an existing network infrastructure and determine which, if any modification should be prior to implementation?
A. Prepare
B. Design
C. Position
D. Develop
E. Plan
F. Perform
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Exhibit.
Please study the exhibit.
Which Cisco SDM configuration task is used to enable the translation of the inside network private IP
address to the public IP address?
A. Firewall and ACL
B. NAT
C. Routing
D. Interface and connections
E. VPN
F. Security Audit
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
Please study the exhibit.
What are two options available when using the Security Audit Configuration task in Cisco SDM? ( Choose two.)
A. Perform a One-step lockdown on the Router
B. Perform a Virus Scan
C. Perform a Secure audit on the Router
D. Perform a Denial Of Service attack on the Router to verify that it is protected
E. Perform a real-time inspection of incoming traffic destined for the router
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
When determining a customer’s technical requirements for a Cisco Unified Communications solution, which important tool can be used to determine the bandwidth used by different codecs with various protocols over different media?
A. Network Codec Aggregator Tool
B. Bandwidth Estimator Tool
C. Unified Communication Bandwidth Tool
D. Voice Bandwidth Calculator
E. Voice Codec Bandwidth Calculator
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
Exhibit:
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. What does “locking Down” the router entail?
A. Disabling HTTPS access to Cisco SDM
B. Prohibiting console access to Router
C. Preventing any alterations to the router’s running configuration
D. Disabling all vulnerable Services on the Router
E. Shutting down all the router’s interfaces
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Your Customer has 21 users, each requiring both PC and IP Phone connectivity. Which is the correct configuration for this customer?
A. 1 Cisco 2811 ISR, 1 Catalyst Express 500G-12TC, 2 Catalyst Express 500-24PC
B. 1 Cisco 2851 ISR, Catalyst Express 500G-12TC, 3 catalyst Express 500-24PC
C. 1 Cisco 2821 ISR, Catalyst Express 500G-12TC, 2 Catalyst Express 500-24PC
D. 1 Cisco 2801 ISR, 1 Catalyst Express 500-24PC
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 36
When using Cisco Network Assistant to configure a WS-CE500-24LC switch, which three are available choices in the port settings window? (Choose three.)
A. Duplex mode selections
B. Auto MDIX selections
C. Status Selections
D. Group mode selections
E. Port security selections
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
Which statements describes the remote sites in a Cisco Single-Site Secure Network Foundation solution with remote teleworkers?
A. They are separate from the central site and use NAT to route through the Internet to the Central Site
B. They are part of the VLANs at the Central Site; they are in the same subnets
C. They use public IP Addresses that are routable through the Internet
D. They are in separate subnets but are part of the private address space of the network
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
Which two statements about 802.1Q trunking in Secure Network Foundation Design Guide for Single Site Deployments are correct?
A. The Cisco Control VLAN carries only Layer 2 control traffic
B. 802.1Q trunking is used between the access switch and the router
C. There is no 802.1Q trunking used in these designs
D. When 802.1Q trunks are configured, they are also called Native VLANs
E. Trunking Ensures that traffic from only one VLAN is carried on that trunk
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
Exhibit: You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. Which Cisco SDM configuration task would you select to configure a static route to the Service Provider?
A. NAC
B. Routing
C. Intrusion Protection
D. Quality Of Service
E. NAT
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
Which WAN connection requires a different interface than the standard interface provided in the Cisco Single-Site Secure Network Foundation deployment design?
A. Metro Ethernet
B. DSL
C. VPN
D. Cable
E. Frame-Relay
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CCNA Cisco 642-176 Exam Certification Guide is part of a recommended study program from Cisco 642-176 that includes simulation and hands-on training from authorized Cisco 642-176 Learning Partners and self-study products from Cisco 642-176.Find out more about instructor-led, e-learning, and hands-on instruction offered by authorized Cisco 642-176 Learning Partners worldwide
This volume is part of the Exam Certification Guide Series from Cisco 642-176.Cisco 642-176 in this series provide officially developed exam preparation materials that offer assessment, review, and practice to help Cisco 642-176 Certification candidates identify weaknesses, concentrate their study efforts, and enhance their confidence as Cisco 642-176 exam day nears.
Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. What could be possible causes for the “Serial0/0 is down” interface status? (Choose two.)
A. A Layer 1 problem exists.
B. The bandwidth is set too low.
C. A protocol mismatch exists
D. An incorrect cable is being used.
E. There is an incorrect IP address on the Serial 0/0 interface.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 2
Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two.)
A. the amount of available ROM
B. the amount of available flash and RAM memory
C. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router
D. show version
E. show processes
F. show running-config
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
“Everything is under control” – www.pass4sure.com 3
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 5
If you are a network administrator, how will you explain VTP configuration to a new technician? (Choose three.)
A. In the VTP client mode, a switch is unable to update its local VLAN database.
B. Configure a trunk link between the switches to forward VTP updates.
C. In the VTP server mode, a switch is able to update a switch in the VTP transparent mode.
D. In the VTP transparent mode, a switch will forward the received updates to other switches.
E. A switch in the VTP server mode only updates switches in the VTP client mode that have a higher VTP revision number.
F. A switch in the VTP server mode will update switches in the VTP client mode regardless of the configured VTP domain membership.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 6
Cisco IOS (originally Internetwork Operating System) is the software used on the vast majority of Cisco Systems routers and all current Cisco network switches. Which two of the following devices could you configure as a source for the IOS image in the boot system command? (Choose two.)
A. RAM
B. NVRAM
C. flash memory
D. HTTP server
E. TFTP server
F. Telnet server
Correct Answer: CE
CCNA Composite Exam:Cisco 642-176 CCNAX is the composite exam associated with the Cisco CCNA Routing and Switching certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices: Accelerated (CCNAX) course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The topics include all the areas covered under ICND 1 and ICND2 Exams.
QUESTION 7
What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.)
A. to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches
B. to determine the status of network services on a remote device
C. to determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers
D. to verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices
E. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails “Everything is under control” -www.pass4sure.com 5
F. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device
Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are using a default configuration. Which two destination addresses will host 4 use to send data to host 1? (Choose two.)
“Everything is under control” – www.pass4sure.com 6
A. the IP address of host 1
B. the IP address of host 4
C. the MAC address of host 1
D. the MAC address of host 4
E. the MAC address of the Fa0/0 interface of the R1 router
F. the MAC address of the Fa0/1 interface of the R1 router
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 9
Exhibit:
“Everything is under control” – www.pass4sure.com 7
Refer to the exhibit. The router has been configured with these commands:
What are the two results of this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. The default route should have a next hop address of 64.100.0.3.
B. Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 are using public IP addressing.
C. The address of the subnet segment with the WWW server will support seven more servers.
D. The addressing scheme allows users on the Internet to access the WWW server.
E. Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 will not be able to access the Internet “Everything is under control” – www.pass4sure.com 8 without address translation.
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 10
Your Company has installed IP phones. Both the phones and the office computers connect to the same device. The phone traffic and the office computer data traffic must be on different networks to ensure maximum throughput for the phone data. Which network device can be best connected to the phones and computers, and which technology will be performed on this device? (Choose two.)
A. hub
B. router
C. switch
D. stp
E. subinterfaces
F. VLAN
Correct Answer: CF
The VVJHV contains more than 400 practice questions for the Cisco 642-176 exams, including simulation-based questions. Also contains hands-on exercises and a customized copy of the Cisco 642-176 exams network simulation software.
Cisco 642-165 Exam Certification Guide presents you with an organized test preparation routine through the use of proven series elements and techniques.“Do I Know This Already?”quizzes open each chapter and allow you to decide how much time you need to spend on each section.Cisco 642-165 lists and Foundation Summary tables make referencing easy and give you a quick refresher whenever you need it.Challenging Cisco 642-165 review questions help you assess your knowledge and reinforce key concepts.Cisco 642-165 exercises help you think about exam objectives in real-world situations, thus increasing recall during exam time.
Exam A
QUESTION 1
You are designing a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express system with four requirements:
250 configured agents
150 agents maximum logged in at any given time
30 agents able to make outbound calls
20 agents able to answer emails
How many premium seats should be purchased?
A. 150 seats
B. 180 seats
C. 200 seats
D. 250 seats
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
In Cisco Unified Contact Center Express, where is wrap-up data enabled?
A. in the Cisco Supervisor Desktop
B. in CSQ configuration on Application Administration
C. in workflow groups on Cisco Desktop Work Flow Administrator
D. in resource configuration on Application Administration
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 3
Which criterion can be used to control supervisor workflows?
A. length of time an agent is in the NotReady state
B. number of agents logged in
C. number of calls abandoned
D. duration of oldest call in queue
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 4
In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express deployment with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, which feature is disabled on the Cisco Agent Desktop?
A. recording
B. monitoring
C. embedded browser
D. call-control buttons
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 4 Cisco 642-165 Exam
QUESTION 5
Where are Cisco Unified CCX users managed and their data stored when deployed with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express?
A. in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express database
B. in Application Administration with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express database
C. in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express database
D. in Application Administration with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express database
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 6
How is the default eMail address in the eMail Subsystem Configuration page used?
A. It receives all mail sent in the Send eMail step as a bcc.
B. It is the From address for emails sent by agents using Agent E-mail.
C. It is used if no email contact is specified in the Create eMail step.
D. It becomes the From address in the Send eMail step if no address is specified.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 7
Which configuration object can have skills assigned to it in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. Contact Service Queue
B. Skill Groups
C. Resource Groups
D. competence levels
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 8
Which three fields are used in defining a CSQ in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Enhanced? (Choose three.)
A. Agent Name
B. WrapUp Time
C. Service Level
D. Overflow CSQ
E. Automatic Work
F. CCX Application
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 5 Cisco 642-165 Exam
QUESTION 9
Which type of information is available from the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Control Center?
A. database replication status
B. system parameters configuration
C. date and time of most recent failure
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster status
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 10
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express platform set supports the use of an embedded Internet browser within the Cisco Agent Desktop?
A. Premium only
B. Enhanced and Premium only
C. Standard, Enhanced, and Premium
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express does not support an embedded Internet browser
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 11
Which deployment option is invalid for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. a two-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster
B. a one-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to two Cisco Unified Communications Manager clusters
C. a one-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router
D. two Cisco Unified Contact Center Express clusters, each with two nodes, connected to the same Cisco Unified Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 12
Which three features are included in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Supervisor Desktop? (Choose three.)
A. graphical reports
B. dockable windows
C. access to chat logs
D. URL push to agents
E. send an email to an agent
F. send a call in queue to a specific agent
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 6 Cisco 642-165 Exam
QUESTION 13
Which three Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Application Administration tasks may be performed by a supervisor who does not have administrative privilege? (Choose three.)
A. Delete a resource group.
B. Remove a skill from a CSQ.
C. Enable automatic work on a CSQ.
D. Modify the skill competence level of an agent.
E. Create a resource.
F. Delete a skill.
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 14
Which three statements describe the importing of contacts into a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express campaign? (Choose three.)
A. Phone1 is the only mandatory field.
B. Up to three custom fields can be added.
C. List filtering for “Do Not Call” is unsupported.
D. When records have matching phone numbers, only one record is created.
E. Imports can be automatically executed on a weekly basis.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 15
In Cisco Unified CCX Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Telephony group?
A. CTI Ports
B. CTI Route Point
C. Cisco Unified CCX Call Control Group
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Call Control Group
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 16
Which codec should be selected when a Cisco Unified CCX cluster uses ASR?
A. G.711
B. G.723
C. G.729
D. Any codec works fine with ASR.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 17
Select a statement about the Call Subflow step that is not true.
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 7 Cisco 642-165 Exam
A. A subflow can access all variables in the calling script.
B. When the Call Subflow step executes, you can transfer values of variables from the calling flow to the subflow.
C. After the Call Subflow step executes, you can transfer values of variables from the subflow to the calling flow.
D. The same subflow can be invoked from different scripts.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 18
Which three of the following tasks can be performed using Cisco Unified Real-Time Monitoring Tool? (Choose three.)
A. collect trace files
B. stop and start Cisco Unified CCX services
C. view syslog messages
D. perform backup and restore functions
E. monitor the health of the Cisco Unified CCX system
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 19
Which tool is used to size Cisco Unified CCX?
A. Analysis Manager
B. Cisco Unified Communications Sizing Tool
C. Expert Advisor
D. Cisco Unified Real-Time Monitoring Tool
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 20
Which two releases require physical media to be ordered and received prior to patching or upgrading Cisco Unified Contact Center Express? (Choose two.)
A. minor release
B. major release
C. service update
D. engineering special
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 21
Which step library is included in the license for Cisco Unified CCX Standard?
A. ICM steps
B. email steps
C. document steps “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 8 Cisco 642-165 Exam
D. database steps
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 22
Which three tasks can an agent perform on the Cisco Agent Desktop? (Choose three.)
A. chat with an SME
B. send an email to an SME
C. send enterprise data to an SME
D. transfer a call to an SME
E. start a Cisco WebEx session with an SME
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 23
Which three tasks can an agent perform using email? (Choose three.)
A. save the response as a draft
B. send the response to the supervisor for review
C. transfer the email to another CSQ
D. transfer the email to another agent
E. mark the email as urgent
F. mark the email as junk
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 24
Where are CTI route points added or configured for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Media Subsystem
B. Cisco Unified CallManager Device Configuration
C. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Directory Management
D. Cisco Supervisor Desktop
E. Cisco CRS Administration, JTAPI Trigger Creation
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 25
Which three components are installed from the Cisco CRS Installer media? (Choose three.)
A. iPlanet Web Server
B. Cisco CRS Engine
C. Cisco Recording
D. Cisco IP Telephony Windows 2000 Server OS
E. Cisco Unified CallManager
F. MS SQL Server “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 9 Cisco 642-165 Exam
Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 26
What is the maximum number of CTI ports that can be supported by a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 8.0 Standard deployment?
A. 150
B. 200
C. 300
D. 400
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 27
Which two items are automatically installed on the Cisco Unified CCX server by the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Installer? (Choose two.)
A. IVR System Prompts
B. Cisco Supervisor Desktop
C. Unified Communications Operating System
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. Workforce Management
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 28
Where can you start, stop, and restart Cisco Unified Contact Center Express services?
A. Control Center on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Serviceability
B. System page on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Administration
C. Cisco Desktop Administrator
D. Cisco Unified Communications Operating System Administration
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 29
Which tool is used to estimate the hardware server resources that are required for a Cisco Unified CCX deployment?
A. IPC Resource Calculator
B. CTI Port Calculator
C. Cisco Unified Communications Sizing Tool
D. Cisco Unified CCX Applications Administration
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 30
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 10 Cisco 642-165 Exam
How many languages can be installed for the Cisco Agent Desktop (CAD) and the Cisco Supervisor Desktop (CSD)?
A. one language for both the CAD and the CSD
B. one language for the CAD and a different language for the CSD
C. two languages for the CAD and one language for the CSD
D. two languages for both the CAD and the CSD
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 31
Which statement is true about the default script field when adding an application?
A. When a caller does not enter a choice in a Menu step, it will execute the default script.
B. Any problems running the configured script will cause the default script to be executed.
C. When the caller enters a digit in the Menu step that is not defined, the default script will be executed.
D. When the caller enters a digit that is not checked in the filter of the Get Digit String step, the default script will be executed.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 32
Which step can be used to trap runtime script errors and recover gracefully?
A. Set
B. Call Subflow
C. On Exception Goto
D. Get Reporting Statistic
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 33
Which two steps check out a database connection from the connection pool? (Choose two.)
A. DB Get
B. DB Read
C. DB Write
D. DB Release
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 34
If the Call Redirect step sends a caller to a device that does not exist in the CallManager, which branch of the step is executed?
A. Busy
B. Invalid
C. Successful “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 11 Cisco 642-165 Exam
D. Unsuccessful
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 35
Which step is designed to prompt a user to press or say a single-digit number to perform a specific function?
A. Menu
B. Get Digit String
C. Get Call Contact Info
D. Extended Get Digit String
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 36
Which step would you use to get information about the number of contacts currently in queue?
A. Get Contact Info
B. Get Session Info
C. Get Call Contact Info
D. Get Reporting Statistics
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 37
How can you configure the Prompt step to play different prompts following subsequent timeouts or retries?
A. Configure it as a Generated Prompt.
B. Configure it as a Random Container Prompt.
C. Configure it as an Escalating Container Prompt.
D. Configure it as a Concatenated Container Prompt.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 38
What formula do you use to calculate the number of agents in a Call Center?
A. Erlang B
B. Erlang C
C. AHT * BHCA
D. VG ports + IVR ports
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 39
What formula do you use to calculate the number of Voice Gateway ports?
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 12 Cisco 642-165 Exam
A. Erlang A
B. Erlang B
C. Erlang C
D. IVR ports + agent phones
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Cisco 642-165 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 642-165 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification
QUESTION 40
What does it mean for a variable in the Application Editor to be defined as a parameter?
A. The variable can be used to pass data to and from subflows.
B. The value for that variable can be supplied via Application Configuration in Application Administration.
C. The value for that variable is defined by the calling application.
D. The variable can be used in conditional steps.
E. The variable can be used to pass data to and from VoiceXML applications.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 41
What can help expose problems with script logic or validity by simulating the execution of a script?
A. Alarm and Trace Configuration
B. debug session
C. script validation
D. script refresh
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 42
What is the maximum number of agents supported on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express deployment?
A. 10 agents
B. 50 agents
C. 100 agents
D. 300 agents
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 43
Which configuration enables a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express server to fail over to a secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager server when the primary server fails?
A. No special configuration is needed.
B. Configure LDAP with a secondary profile. “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 13 Cisco 642-165 Exam
C. Configure a second Cisco Unified Communications Manager telephony user with an alternate range of CTI ports.
D. Configure the telephony provider with a primary and secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager IP address.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 44
Presence integration is a Cisco Unified CCX feature available in which of these packages?
A. Premium, Enhanced, and Standard
B. Premium only
C. Premium with high availability only
D. Premium and Enhanced
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 45
Which two tasks must an administrator perform on Cisco Desktop Administrator to support presence integration? (Choose two.)
A. Assign a contact list to a CSQ.
B. Assign a contact list to a workflow group.
C. Assign an SME to a contact list.
D. Assign a contact list to a skill.
E. Assign an SME to a CSQ.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation