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NSE4_FGT-6.4Q&As

QUESTION 1

Which three methods are used by the collector agent for AD polling? (Choose three.)

A. FortiGate polling
B. NetAPI
C. Novell API
D. WMI
E. WinSecLog

Correct Answer: BDE

Reference: https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD47732

QUESTION 2

Which of the following statements correctly describes FortiGates route lookup behavior when searching for a suitable
gateway? (Choose two)

A. Lookup is done on the first packet from the session originator
B. Lookup is done on the last packet sent from the responder
C. Lookup is done on every packet, regardless of the direction
D. Lookup is done on the trust reply packet from the responder

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit to view the application control profile.

Users who use Apple FaceTime video conferences are unable to set up meetings. In this scenario, which statement is
true?

A. Apple FaceTime belongs to the custom monitored filter.
B. The category of Apple FaceTime is being monitored.
C. Apple FaceTime belongs to the custom blocked filter.
D. The category of Apple FaceTime is being blocked.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

View the exhibit.

A user behind the FortiGate is trying to go to http://www.addictinggames.com (Addicting Games). Based on this
configuration, which statement is true?

A. Addicting. Games are allowed based on the Application Overrides configuration.
B. Addicting. Games are blocked on the Filter Overrides configuration.
C. Addicting. Games can be allowed only if the Filter Overrides actions are set to Exempt.
D. Addicting. Games are allowed based on the Categories configuration.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

How does FortiGate act when using SSL VPN in web mode?

A. FortiGate acts as an FDS server.
B. FortiGate acts as an HTTP reverse proxy.
C. FortiGate acts as a DNS server.
D. FortiGate acts as a router.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://pub.kb.fortinet.com/ksmcontent/Fortinet-Public/current/Fortigate_v4.0MR3/fortigatesslvpn-40-mr3.pdf

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit.

Which contains a network diagram and routing table output.
The Student is unable to access Webserver.
What is the cause of the problem and what is the solution for the problem?

A. The first packet sent from the Student failed the RPF check. This issue can be resolved by adding a static route to
10.0.4.0/24 through wan1.
B. The first reply packet for Students failed the RPF check. This issue can be resolved by adding a static route to
10.0.4.0/24 through wan1.
C. The first reply packet for Students failed the RPF check. This issue can be resolved by adding a static route to
203.0.114.24/32 through port3.
D. The first packet sent from the Student failed the RPF check. This issue can be resolved by adding a static route to
203.0.114.24/32 through port3.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Which two statements about antivirus scanning mode are true? (Choose two.)

A. In proxy-based inspection mode, files bigger than the buffer size are scanned.
B. In flow-based inspection mode. FortiGate buffers the file, but also simultaneously transmits it to the client.
C. In proxy-based inspection mode, antivirus scanning buffers the whole file for scanning, before sending it to the client.
D. In flow-based inspection mode, files bigger than the buffer size is scanned.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8

Examine the exhibit, which contains a virtual IP and firewall policy configuration.

The WAN (port1) interface has the IP address 10.200.1.1/24. The LAN (port2) interface has the IP address
10.0.1.254/24. The first firewall policy has NAT enabled on the outgoing interface address. The second firewall policy is
configured with a VIP as the destination address. Which IP address will be used to source NAT the Internet traffic
coming from a workstation with the IP address 10.0.1.10/24?

A. 10.200.1.10
B. Any available IP address in the WAN (port1) subnet 10.200.1.0/24
C. 10.200.1.1
D. 10.0.1.254

Correct Answer: B

https://help.fortinet.com/fos50hlp/54/Content/FortiOS/fortigate-firewall-52/Firewall%20Objects/Virtual% 20IPs.htm

QUESTION 9

View the exhibit.

Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. This setup requires at least two firewall policies with the action set to IPsec.
B. Dead peer detection must be disabled to support this type of IPsec setup.
C. The TunnelB route is the primary route for reaching the remote site. The tunnel route is used only if the Tunnell
VPN is down.
D. This is a redundant IPsec setup.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10

What devices form the core of the security fabric?

A. Two FortiGate devices and one FortiManager device
B. One FortiGate device and one FortiManager device
C. Two FortiGate devices and one FortiAnalyzer device
D. One FortiGate device and one FortiAnalyzer device

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.0/cookbook/425100/components

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the administrator profile settings, what permissions must the administrator set to run the diagnosed firewall
auth list CLI command on FortiGate?

A. Custom permission for Network
B. Read/Write permission for Log and Report
C. CLI diagnostics commands permission
D. Read/Write permission for Firewall

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

Which two inspection modes can you use to configure a firewall policy on a profile-based next-generation firewall
(NGFW)? (Choose two.)

A. Proxy-based inspection
B. Certificate inspection
C. Flow-based inspection
D. Full Content inspection

Correct Answer: AC

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Exam   Code
Exam   Name
Exam   Platform
Exam   Duration
Qualified   Score/Total
H12-821
HCIP-Datacom-Core   Technology V1.0
Pearson   VUE
90   min
600/1000

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HCIP-Datacom-Core Technology V1.0 Q&As

QUESTION 1

As shown in the following figure, a new AP is deployed In dual-link MSB networking (load balancing mode). Which AC
will they connect to?

A. AC1
B. Random access
C. None
D. AC2

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

Which of the following statements regarding an IP prefix are true?

A. An IP prefix filter is used to filter IP address prefixes and cannot match an IP prefix number and a prefix length at the
same time.
B. An IP prefix filter cannot be used to filter data packets.
C. An IP prefix filter is used to filter IP address prefixes and can match an IP prefix number and a prefix length at the
same time.
D. An IP prefix filter can be used to filter data packets.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

Which Of the following IEEE 802.11 standards is also known as Wi-Fi 6?

A. 802.11ac
B. 802.11n
C. 802.11ax
D. 802.11b

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

When two routers exchange LSDB information using DD packets, a master/slave relationship is formed first, the router
with a larger router ID is the master, and determine the MS bit.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

Which of the following statements is false?

A. If the current DR fails, the current BDR automatically becomes a new DR, and a BDR will be elected again.
B. A device with a higher router priority has a higher election priority.
C. When a router with the highest router priority joins an OSPF network, this router will become the new DR.
D. If two devices have the same router priority, the device with a larger router ID has a higher election priority.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

DRAG-DROP
Drag the following VRRP states to the corresponding working mechanisms.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 7

Which of the following TLVs is used by ISIS to describe the IP address of an interface?

A. 129
B. 131
C. 128
D. 132

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

An engineer sets the CAPWAP heartbeat detection interval to 20 of the active link before an active/standby switchover
occurs?

A. 75s
B. the 20s
C. the 60s
D. the 90s

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

In a route policy, which of the following BGP attributes can be used in applying clauses?

A. MED
B. AS_Path
C. Tag
D. Local-Preference

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 10

Which of the following statements regarding the BGP error display of a router is false?

A. The error may be caused by the incorrect neighbor address.
B. The neighbor address of this router is 10.1.1.5.
C. Error Type indicates that the BGP error is caused by the neighbor relationship error.
D. The error occurred at 12:40:39 on March 22, 2010.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

The traffic limiting policy feature only supports the number of connections initiated by the specified IP or the number of connections received.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

Which of the following PIM protocol packets have unicast destination addresses.

A. Register-Stop
B. Bootstrap
C. Graft
D. Assert

Correct Answer: C

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CyberArk Defender

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Cyberark defender online test

QUESTION 1

The Vault administrator can change the Vault license by uploading the new license to the system Safe.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

Which of the following statements are NOT true when enabling PSM recording for a target Windows server? Choose all
that apply.

A. The PSM software must be installed on the target server.
B. PSM must be enabled in the Master Policy (either directly, or through an exception).
C. PSMConnect must be added as a local user on the target server.
D. RDP must be enabled on the target server.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

Which of the following logs contains information about errors related to PTA?

A. ITAlog.log
B. diamond.log
C. pm_error.log
D. WebApplication.log

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

The Password upload utility can be used to create safes.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.cyberark.com/Product-Doc/OnlineHelp/PAS/Latest/en/Content/PASIMP/Password-UploadUtility.htm

QUESTION 5

If a user is a member of more than one group that has authorizations on a safe, by default that user is
granted____________________.

A. the vault will not allow this situation to occur.
B. only those permissions that exist on the group added to the safe first.
C. only those permissions that exist in all groups to which the user belongs.
D. the cumulative permissions of all the groups to which that user belongs.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

PSM for Windows (previously known as “RDP Proxy”) supports connections to the following target systems

A. Windows
B. UNIX
C. Oracle
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://knowhow.tajco-group.com/knowledge-base/using-a-standard-rdp-client-application/

QUESTION 7

Your organization has a requirement to allow users to “check out passwords” and connect to targets with the same
account through the PSM. What needs to be configured in the Master policy to ensure this will happen?

A. Enforce check-in/check-out exclusive access = active; Require privileged session monitoring and isolation = active
B. Enforce check-in/check-out exclusive access = inactive; Require privileged session monitoring and isolation =
inactive
C. Enforce check-in/check-out exclusive access = inactive; Record and save session activity = active
D. Enforce check-in/check-out exclusive access = active; Record and save session activity = inactive

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

DRAG-DROP
Match the built-in Vault User with the correct definition.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.cyberark.com/Product-Doc/OnlineHelp/PAS/Latest/en/Content/PASIMP/Predefined-Users-andGroups.htm?TocPath=Administration%7CUser%20Management%7C_____7

QUESTION 9

Which type of automatic remediation can be performed by the PTA in case of a suspected credential theft security
event?

A. Password change
B. Password reconciliation
C. Session suspension
D. Session termination

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

A new HTML5 Gateway has been deployed in your organization. Where do you configure the PSM to use HTML5?
Gateway?

A. Administration > Options > Privileged Session Management > Configured PSM Servers > Connection Details > Add
PSM Gateway
B. Administration > Options > Privileged Session Management > Add Configured PSM Gateway Servers
C. Administration > Options > Privileged Session Management > Configured PSM Servers > Add PSM Gateway
D. Administration > Options > Privileged Session Management > Configured PSM Servers > Connection Details

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

As long as you are a member of the Vault Admins group you can grant any permission on any safe.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

The vault supports Subnet Based Access Control.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

What are the three requirements for all FlexPod Datacenter solutions? (Choose three.)

A. two NetApp storage controllers in a high-availability (HA) pair configuration
B. a separate 100 Mbps Ethernet/1 Gbps Ethernet out-of-band management network
C. a pair of Fabric Extenders in a redundant configuration
D. two Cisco UCS 6200, 6300, or 6400 Series Fabric Interconnects in a redundant configuration
E. redundant boot-from-SAN LUN paths

Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 2

Your environment currently has a 12-node NetApp cluster serving iSCSI. You need to add at least four more nodes to
serve FC to your environment. In this scenario, what should you do?

A. You can safely add up to 4 more storage controllers in the current cluster
B. You can safely add up to 6 more storage controllers in the current cluster
C. You must create a new cluster with the new storage controllers
D. You can safely add up to 12 more storage controllers in the current cluster

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

You want to ensure the uniqueness of the Cisco UCS WWNNs and WWPNs in the SAN for a FlexPod solution. In this
the situation, Cisco recommends using which WWN prefix for all blocks in a pool?

A. 30:00:00:25:B5:XX:XX:XX
B. 40:00:00:25:B5:XX:XX:XX
C. 20:00:00:25:B5:XX:XX:XX
D. 60:00:00:25:B5:XX:XX:XX

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User-Guides/Storage
Mgmt/4-0/b_UCSM_GUI_Storage_Management_Guide_4_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Storage_Management_Guide_4_0_chapter_0111.html

QUESTION 4

A customer wants to use a Cisco Nexus 93180YC-FX switch to support the FC protocol for booting from SAN without
having to deploy additional Cisco 900 Series MDS switches in their FlexPod Datacenter configuration. In this scenario,
what is required for this solution?

A. The customer must enable the FC license on the 93180YC-FX switch
B. The customer must deploy the 93180YC-FX switch as part of a Cisco ACI fabric
C. The customer must directly connect the NetApp AFF system to the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects
D. The customer must add an expansion FC module to the 93180YC-FX switch

Correct Answer: C

Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/UCS_CVDs/fp_vmware_vsphere_7_0_ontap_9_7.html

QUESTION 5

A customer is verifying that they have separation on their FC switch fabric to protect their FlexPod solution from their
other storage devices. Which two technologies enable the customer to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. WWPN zoning
B. VASN
C. IQN igroup
D. VLAN

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6

A customer with a FlexPod solution wants to expand their NetApp ONTAP 9.7 switchless cluster. The new hardware
must support expansion slots. In addition, they will also upgrade to a 100 Gbps-capable cluster interconnect switch for
future growth.

In this scenario, which two additional components will satisfy the requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Nexus 3232C
B. Nexus N3132Q-V
C. NetApp FAS2720
D. NetApp AFF A400

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/us-en/flexpod/pdfs/sidebar/FlexPod_Datacenter_Technical_Specifications.pdf (26)

QUESTION 7

During a design meeting, a customer states that their goal is to deliver continuous availability across both network and
storage during business continuity events. The customer has two data centers that are 80 km apart, and they want the
configuration to be as logically unified across both sites as possible.

In this scenario, which FlexPod data protection solution achieves this goal?

A. FlexPod with NetApp Cloud Sync
B. FlexPod with NetApp SnapCenter
C. FlexPod with NetApp MetroCluster IP
D. FlexPod with NetApp FabricPool

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

A customer is performing a server refresh of their FlexPod solution to accommodate business growth. The customer is
interested in using Cisco C-Series servers, and supporting multiple 40 Gbps links to each server, upgrading from the
existing 10 Gbps links.

Which two VICs support these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco UCS 1480 VIC
B. Cisco UCS 1497 VIC
C. Cisco UCS 1495 VIC
D. Cisco UCS 1440 VIC

Correct Answer: AD

Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/UCS_CVDs/flexpod_sap_ucsm40_fcsan_design.html

QUESTION 9

You have taken over the management of an existing FlexPod system as part of a new job role. You want to find details of existing support and service contracts available for the system. Which two resources would you use to find this
information? (Choose two.)

A. NetApp Interoperability Matrix Tool
B. Cisco Device Coverage Checker Tool
C. NetApp Support website
D. FlexPod.com website

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10

A customer wants to replace their Cisco UCS 6248UP with the current Cisco UCS 6454. They are currently using six 16
Gbit uplinks per Fabric Interconnect for FC and do not want to change the speed and number of ports used. In this
scenario, what is the minimum number of unified ports that must be configured for FC for a comparable configuration?

A. 8
B. 6
C. 16
D. 12

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User-Guides/NetworkMgmt/4-0/b_UCSM_Network_Mgmt_Guide_4_0/b_UCSM_Network_Mgmt_Guide_4_0_chapter_0100.html

QUESTION 11

A customer has decided to deploy Red Hat OpenShift on a FlexPod solution, based on a published Cisco Validated
Design. The customer intends to use the NetApp Trident to attach persistent storage to the customer\\’s containers from the customer\\’s NetApp AFF controllers.

In this scenario, which two storage protocols are supported? (Choose two.)

A. iSCSI
B. FC
C. NFS
D. SMB

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12

Which two support account levels are minimally required when you deploy a FlexPod Datacenter solution? (Choose
two.)

A. NetApp SupportEdge Expert NBD
B. Cisco SmartNet Total Care 24x7x4
C. NetApp SupportEdge Advisor 24x7x4
D. Cisco Solution Support 24x7x4

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 13

You are asked to evaluate SaaS-based monitoring solutions for your FlexPod environment. Other than being SaaSdelivered, selection criteria include full lifecycle management, environment automation, and the ability to monitor third-party storage that is slated for retirement.

In this scenario, which product satisfies the requirements?

A. NetApp Cloud Insights
B. NetApp OnCommand Insight
C. Cisco UCS Manager
D. Cisco Intersight

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://cloud.netapp.com/hubfs/WP-7302-Cloud-Insights-Monitoring-Guide.pdf

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QUESTION 1

An administrator would like to review, approve, or reject all the firewall policy changes made by the junior
administrators.

How should the Workspace mode be configured on FortiManager?

A. Set to workflow and use the ADOM locking feature
B. set to read/write and use the policy locking feature
C. Set to normal and use the policy locking feature
D. Set to disable and use the policy locking feature

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

What are the factory default settings on FortiManager? (Choose three.)

A. Username is admin
B. Password is fortinet
C. FortiAnalyzer features are disabled
D. Reports and Event Monitor panes are enabled
E. port1 interface IP address is 192.168.1.99/24

Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 3

What configuration setting for FortiGate is part of a device-level database on FortiManager?

A. VIP and IP Pools
B. Firewall policies
C. Security profiles
D. Routing

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

What does a policy package status of Modified indicate?

A. FortiManager is unable to determine the policy package status
B. The policy package was never imported after a device was registered on FortiManager
C. Policy configuration has been changed on a managed device and changes have not yet been imported into
FortiManager
D. Policy package configuration has been changed on FortiManager and changes have not yet been installed on the
managed device.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

View the following exhibit.

An administrator has created a firewall address object, Training, which is used in the Local-FortiGate policy package.
When the install operation is performed, which IP Netmask will be installed on the Local-FortiGate, for the Training
firewall address object?

A. 10.0.1.0/24
B. It will create a firewall address group on Local-FortiGate with 192.168.0.1/24 and 10.0.1.0/24 object values
C. 192.168.0.1/24
D. Local-FortiGate will automatically choose an IP Network based on its network interface settings.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

View the following exhibit.

When using the Install Config option to install configuration changes to managed FortiGate, which of the following
statements are true? (Choose two.)


A. Once initiated, the install process cannot be canceled and changes will be installed on the managed device
B. Will does not create new revisions in the revision history
C. Installs device-level changes to FortiGate without launching the Install Wizard
D. Provides the option to preview configuration changes prior to installing them

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7

Refer to the following exhibit:

Which of the following statements are true based on this configuration? (Choose two.)

A. The same administrator can lock more than one ADOM at the same time
B. Ungraceful closed sessions will keep the ADOM in a locked state until the administrator session times out
C. Unlocking an ADOM will submit configuration changes automatically to the approval administrator
D. Unlocking an ADOM will install configuration automatically on managed devices

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8

Which of the following conditions triggers FortiManager to create a new revision history? (Choose two.)

A. When configuration revision is reverted to previous revision in the revision history
B. When FortiManager installs device-level changes to a managed device
C. When FortiManager is auto-updated with configuration changes made directly on a managed device
D. When changes to the device-level database are made on FortiManager

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9

An administrator configures a new firewall policy on FortiManager and has not yet pushed the changes to the managed FortiGate.

In which database will the configuration be saved?
A. Device-level database
B. Revision history database
C. ADOM-level database
D. Configuration-level database

Correct Answer: C

https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD47942

QUESTION 10

An administrator wants to delete an address object that is currently referenced in a firewall policy.
Which one of the following statements is true?

A. FortiManager will not allow the administrator to delete a referenced address object
B. FortiManager will disable the status of the referenced firewall policy
C. FortiManager will replace the deleted address object with the none address object in the referenced firewall policy
D. FortiManager will replace the deleted address object with all address object in the referenced firewall policy

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit.

You are using the Quick Install option to install configuration changes on the managed FortiGate.
Which two statements correctly describe the result? (Choose two.)

A. It will not create a new revision in the revision history
B. It installs device-level changes to FortiGate without launching the Install Wizard
C. It cannot be canceled once initiated and changes will be installed on the managed device
D. It provides the option to preview configuration changes prior to installing them

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12

An administrator has assigned a global policy package to custom ADOM1. Then the administrator creates a new policy
package, Fortinet, in the custom ADOM1. Which statement about the global policy package assignment to the newly created policy package Fortinet is true?

A. When a new policy package is created, it automatically assigns the global policies to the new package.
B. When a new policy package is created, you need to assign the global policy package from the global ADOM.
C. When a new policy package is created, you need to reapply the global policy package to the ADOM.
D. When a new policy package is created, you can select the option to assign the global policies to the new package.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13

As a result of enabling FortiAnalyzer features on FortiManager, which of the following statements is true?

A. FortiManager will reboot
B. FortiManager will send the logging configuration to the managed devices so the managed devices will start sending
logs to FortiManager
C. FortiManager will enable ADOMs automatically to collect logs from non-FortiGate devices
D. FortiManager can be used only as a logging device.

Correct Answer: A

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Actual Questions Share | Huawei H13-321 Exam Practice Test

QUESTION 1

The 19 in VGG19 represents the subordinate sum of the number of layers in the network?

A. Pooling layer
B. Convolutional layer
C. Input layer
D. Fully connected layer

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2

In the vehicle detection scene of traffic law enforcement, the penalties for vehicles that violate regulations are rather
missed, instead of false alarms, so as not to produce false fines, which of the system\\’s instructions are high?

A. Recall rate
B. confidence
C. Accuracy
D. Correct rate

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

Which of the following technologies belong to the application of image segmentation?

A. Connected domain segmentation
B. Motion segmentation
C. Target segmentation
D. Threshold division

Correct Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 4

What is the correct description of the nature of the probability density function?

A. The integral of the probability density function in positive and negative infinity is 0
B. The value of the probability density function is greater than or equal to 0
C. The value of the probability density function can take any value
D. The integral of the probability density function at positive and negative infinity is 1

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5

Modifying the H component of the HSV color space will change the image?

A. Brightness
B. Saturation
C. Hue
D. Contrast

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6

In the Huawei Cloud Face Recognition Service, users can create multiple face libraries without restrictions.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

In natural language processing, the most commonly used deep learning algorithm is CNN, because of its memory
function?

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

The various indicators of the bilinear interpolation method are better than the nearest neighbor interpolation method.
The nearest neighbor interpolation method has been eliminated by the bilinear interpolation method in practical
applications.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

Image recognition tasks can be divided into three levels, according to the abstraction of the processing content, from
low to high?

A. Image processing, image analysis, image understanding
B. Image analysis, image understanding, image processing
C. Image understanding. Image analysis. Image Processing
D. Image analysis, image processing, image understanding

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

What is the correct description of probability and likelihood?

A. If the random variable X follows a certain distribution, the likelihood refers to the possibility of X = x given the
parameters.
B. If the random variable X follows a certain distribution, the probability refers to the probability of X = x given the
parameters
C. If the random variable X follows a certain distribution, the likelihood refers to the truthfulness of a group of parameters under the condition of X = x
D. If the random variable X follows a certain distribution, the probability refers to the fact that a certain set of parameters has a truth size under the condition of X=x

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 11

Through the image algorithm, the foreground, and background of a person who takes a picture taken by an ordinary
mobile phones are segmented, and then the () operation is performed on the () part, which can achieve the same effect
as an SLR camera.

A. Background, median filtering
B. Foreground, mean filtering
C. Background, mean filtering
D. Foreground, median filter value

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

A deep neural network is a traditional multi-house perception layer with one or more hidden layers.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13

Gamma change is processed by (), histogram equalization is processed by (), and mean filtering is processed by ().
(Single choice)

A. Point processing, local processing. Overall handling
B. Local processing, point processing, overall processing
C. Point processing. Overall processing, partial processing
D. Overall processing, point processing, local processing

Correct Answer: C

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Some free Fortinet NSE6_FWB-6.1 practice test

QUESTION 1

Which of the following would be a reason for implementing rewrites?

A. Page has been moved to a new URL
B. Page has been moved to a new IP address
C. Replace vulnerable functions.
D. Send connection to secure channel

QUESTION 2

What can an administrator do if a client has been incorrectly Period Blocked?

A. Disconnect the client from the network
B. Manually release the IP from the temporary Blacklist
C. Nothing, it is not possible to override a Period Block
D. Force a new IP address to the client.

QUESTION 3

How does an ADOM differ from a VDOM?

A. ADOMs do not have virtual networking
B. ADOMs improve performance by offloading some functions.
C. ADOMs only affect specific functions and do not provide full separation as VDOMs do.
D. Allows you to have 1 administrator for multiple tenants

QUESTION 4

What capability can FortiWeb add to your Web App that your Web App may or may not already have?

A. Automatic backup and recovery
B. High Availability
C. HTTP/HTML Form Authentication
D. SSL Inspection

QUESTION 5

You are deploying FortiWeb 6.0 in an Amazon Web Services cloud. Which 2 lines of this initial setup via CLI are
incorrect? (Choose two.)

NSE6 FWB-6.1 q5

A. 6
B. 9
C. 3
D. 2

QUESTION 6

Which of the following is true about Local User Accounts?

A. Must be assigned regardless of any other authentication
B. Can be used for Single Sign-On
C. Can be used for site publishing
D. Best suited for large environments with many users

QUESTION 7

What other considerations must you take into account when configuring Defacement protection

A. Use FortiWeb to block SQL Injections and keep regular backups of the Database
B. Also incorporate a FortiADC into your network
C. None. FortiWeb completely secures the site against defacement attacks
D. Configure the FortiGate to perform Anti-Defacement as well

QUESTION 8

A client is trying to start a session from a page that should normally be accessible only after they have
logged in. When a start page rule detects invalid session access, what can FortiWeb do? (Choose three.)

A. Reply with a “403 Forbidden” HTTP error
B. Allow the page access but log the violation
C. Automatically redirect the client to the login page
D. Display an access policy message, then allow the client to continue, redirecting them to their requested page
E. Prompt the client to authenticate

QUESTION 9

When generating a protection configuration from an auto-learning report what critical step must you do before
generating the final protection configuration?

A. Restart the FortiWeb to clear the caches
B. Drill down in the report to correct any false positives.
C. Activate the report to create t profile
D. Take the FortiWeb offline to apply the profile

QUESTION 10

In Reverse proxy mode, how does FortiWeb handle the traffic that does not match any defined policies?

A. Non-matching traffic is allowed
B. non-Matching traffic is held in the buffer
C. Non-matching traffic is Denied
D. Non-matching traffic is rerouted to FortiGate

QUESTION 11

Under what circumstances would you want to use the temporary uncompress feature of FortiWeb?

A. In the case of compression being done on the FortiWeb, to inspect the content of the compressed file
B. In the case of the file being a .MP3 music file
C. In the case of compression is done on the webserver, inspect the content of the compressed file.
D. In the case of the file being an .MP4 video

QUESTION 12

Which of the following FortiWeb features is part of the mitigation tools against OWASP A4 threats?

A. Sensitive info masking
B. Poison Cookie detection
C. Session Management
D. Brute Force blocking

QUESTION 13

When the FortiWeb is configured in Reverse Proxy mode and the FortiGate is configured as a SNAT device, what IP
address will the FortiGate\’s Real Server configuration point at?

A. Virtual Server IP on the FortiGate
B. Server\’s real IP
C. FortiWeb\’s real IP
D. IP Address of the Virtual Server on the FortiWeb

The answer is posted here:

q1q2q3q4q5q6q7q8q9q10q11q12q13
ABDDACADABCBCCCA

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QUESTION 1 #

You have an ESXi cluster with VMware VMFS LUNs on an AFF A400 system. After troubleshooting performance
issues, you determine that timeout best practices are not set on the hosts.

In this scenario, which NetApp tool would apply the best practice settings?

A. SnapManager
B. SAN Host Utilities
C. SnapCenter Plug-in for VMware vSphere
D. Virtual Storage Console (VSC)

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/vapp-96/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.vsc-dsg%2FGUIDEAD6C97BA9E4-4C07-BAD8-790ACEE0897B.html

QUESTION 2

Which two statements are true about NVMe? (Choose two.)

A. NQNs are added to namespaces
B. LUNs are mapped to initiator groups
C. Namespaces are mapped to subsystems
D. NQNs are added to subsystems

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: http://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.dot-cmsanag%2FGUID52A6B6A1-61F8-4845-91CB-B13A1526CC30.html

QUESTION 3

You want to enable the internal ONTAP engine that quickly identifies the file and directory differences between two
Snapshot copies. In this scenario, which feature would accomplish this task?

A. SnapCenter
B. SnapDiff
C. SnapVault
D. SnapLock

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1196874/html/GUIDC2793E0D-0AB5-40FD-9F36324F3178FF6F.html

QUESTION 4

Your company has purchased two NetApp AFF A400 HA pairs. During deployment, how many root aggregates are
created?

A. 8
B. 6
C. 2
D. 4

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.netapp.com/fr/media/13482-tr4375.pdf

QUESTION 5

You want to add SSDs to existing HDD aggregates.
Which NetApp tool helps you to validate how many SSDs would improve performance?

A. OnCommand Workflow Automation
B. Active IQ Unified Manager
C. ONTAP System Manager
D. Automated Workload Analyzer

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6

Click the Exhibit button.

You have an ONTAP 9.8 cluster. After network maintenance, the LIF that is shown in the exhibit is not always on a
correct port and is unreachable by users until the LIFs are moved to port e0c or e0d on either storage node.
In this scenario, which action should you take to ensure that the LIF only fails over to the correct ports?

A. Change the LIF\\’s failover policy to sfo-partner-only
B. Split the broadcast domain
C. Create a DNS load balancing zone
D. Create an IPspace

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

A volume is set to use Adaptive QoS with the default policy.
In this scenario, which change would affect the QoS throughput ceiling?

A. The volume is resized
B. Disks are added to the volume\\’s aggregate
C. Data is added to the volume
D. More clients access the volume

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.flackbox.com/netapp-storage-qos-tutorial

QUESTION 8

You need to configure data-at-rest encryption for your NetApp ONTAP 9.8 cluster. Your company does not have Key
Management Interoperability Protocol (KMIP) services are available but must require a passphrase to be entered when a node is rebooted.

In this scenario, which two actions should be performed to satisfy these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Enable onboard key management
B. Enable common criteria mode
C. Configure an external key management server
D. Enable cluster-wide FIPS-compliant mode

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/topic/com.netapp.doc.pow-nve/Encryption%20of%20data%
20at%20rest.pdf

QUESTION 9

You are asked to deploy a 2-node ONTAP Select cluster. The physical hardware is located in two different locations and
you want the aggregates mirrored synchronously between the two data centers. You must ensure high availability and
automated switchover.

In this scenario, which two steps would you take to fulfill this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Use the ONTAP Mediator service to make sure that you have a quorum for the two nodes
B. Use ONTAP Select Deploy to install the nodes on the physical hardware
C. Ensure that the ONTAP Select Deploy VM resides at a third location other than the two data centers
D. Install the SnapMirror Sync license on the cluster

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10

Click the Exhibit button.

You are adding a NetApp AFF A400 system to an existing 4-node cluster and want to know which ports you would use
to expand your cluster.

Referring to the exhibit, which tool would you use to accomplish this task?

A. NetApp Interoperability Matrix (IMT)
B. NetApp Hardware Universe (HWU)
C. Active IQ Unified Manager
D. Active IQ Config Advisor

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

Click the Exhibit button.

You are caching on-premises ONTAP volumes into the cloud with Cloud Volumes ONTAP as shown in the exhibit.
In this scenario, which two protocols are supported? (Choose two.)

A. NVMe
B. SMB
C. NFS
D. iSCSI

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/us-en/occm/pdfs/sidebar/Manage_Cloud_Volumes_ONTAP.pdf

QUESTION 12

You are attempting to establish a SnapMirror relationship between your ONTAP cluster (AcmeClus01) and a partner
company\\’s ONTAP cluster (WidgetsClus01). The clusters are unable to establish a peering relationship. You perform a
packet capture on WidgetsClus01 and do not see any packets from AcmeClus01. You also discover that the IP subnet
that is used for WidgetsClus01\\’s intercluster LIFs overlaps with a local subnet at your company.

In this scenario, which feature would enable AcmeClus01 and WidgetsClus01 to peer with each other?

A. VLANs
B. broadcast domains
C. IPspaces
D. ONTAP subnets

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.google.com/url?sa=tandrct=jandq=andesrc=sandsource=webandcd=andved=2ahUKEwj0166P
sY3yAhVKAWMBHbxDCkQFjAFegQIBBADandurl=https%3A%2F%2Fdownload.lenovo.com%2Fstorage%2Fsnapmirror_configuration_and_best_practices_guide_for_ontap_9.pdfandusg=AOvVaw19DXzCszrQCTXEWGtrbRQ7

QUESTION 13

You want to configure Active Directory domain controller access for NetApp ONTAP cluster administration.
In this scenario, which two actions would accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. Configure an authentication tunnel through an admin SVM
B. Use the server active-directory create command to create a computer account on the domain for a CIFS SVM
C. Configure an authentication tunnel through an existing CIFS SVM
D. Use the server active-directory create command to create a computer account on the domain for a non-CIFS SVM

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/topic/com.netapp.doc.pow-adm-auth-rbac/Administrator%
20authentication%20and%20RBAC.pdf

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QUESTION 1 #


Which of the following forms of DUID can be configured when DHCPv6 is configured in the VRP system? (multiple
choice)

A. DUID-LL
B. DUID-LLT
C. DUID-EN
D. DUID-LLC

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2 #

The STP switch sends BPDUs. The correct statement about BPDU is (). (multiple choice)

A. BPDU is a frame using the IEEE802.3 standard
B. BPDU is a frame using the Ethernet II standard
C. The Control field value of the BPDU frame is 3
D. The destination MAC address of the BPDU frame is the broadcast address

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3 #

What benefits does port aggregation yield? (Choose three)

A. Improves link bandwidth
B. Implements load sharing
C. Improves network reliability
D. Facilitates data copy for analysis

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 4 #

A layer 2 LAN switch generates CAM table entries according to the ( ) of the received frame.

A. Source MAC address
B. Destination MAC address
C. Source IP address
D. Destination IP address

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5 #

The network administrator wishes to transmit data between two end stations. The network interface cards of both
devices operate at 100Mbps however one supports half-duplex while the other uses full-duplex
mode.

What will occur as a result?

A. The end stations cannot communicate.
B. The end stations can communicate, but data may be lost during the transmission of large amounts of traffic.
C. The end stations will operate normally
D. The end stations can communicate, but speed is different during the transmission of large amounts of traffic

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6 #

InARP resolves the protocol address of the remote device on each virtual circuit, including IP addresses and IPX
addresses.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7 #

Which of the following are routing protocols? (multiple choice)

A. IP
B. OSPF
C. BGP
D. IPX

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8 #

Which of the following port status may exist on an STP-enabled switch?

A. Forwarding
B. Listening
C. Discarding
D. Disabled

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9 #

As shown in the figure, after the network administrator finishes the Telnet configuration on the router, it finds that the host cannot establish a connection with the router through Telnet. Which options can help solve this problem? (multiple choice)

A. Check if the host\’s ARP cache table overflows
B. Check if the switch is configured with the default gateway address.
C. Use ping to check the IP connectivity between the host and router G0/0/0 interface
D. Check if the Telnet configuration on the router is correct.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10 #

Which of the following protocols can be used on a Layer 2 network with redundant links to prevent loops?

A. UDP
B. VRRP
C. STP
D. ARP

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11 #

Refer to the debug output. Following the configuration of R2, the administrator discovers that the behavior is not as
expected and performs debugging. Based on the output from the debug, what is the source of the problem?

A. R2 has configured an ACL to block the route to network 1.0.0.0
B. R2 has enabled split horizon.
C. R1 is using authentication, however, R2 is not.
D. R2 is operating using RIPv2, while R1 is using RIPv1.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12 #

Which of the following regarding Frame Relay DLCI is correct? (Choose three)

A. DLCI is locally significant
B. DLCI is allocated by DTE
C. The range of DLCI values that can be used is from 16-1007
D. The same DLCI can be configured on different physical interfaces

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 13 #

SNMP packets are encapsulated in TCP packets.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

Which two statements about distributed automatic radio resource provisioning (DARRP) are correct? (Choose two.)

A. DARRP performs continuous spectrum analysis to detect sources of interference. It uses this information to allow the
AP to select the optimum channel.

B. DARRP performs measurements of the number of BSSIDs and their signal strength (RSSI). The controller then uses
this information to select the optimum channel for the AP.

C. DARRP measurements can be scheduled to occur at specific times.

D. DARRP requires that wireless intrusion detection (WIDS) be enabled to detect neighboring devices.

Correct Answer: AD

RRP (Distributed Automatic Radio Resource Provisioning) technology ensures the wireless infrastructure is always optimized to deliver maximum performance. Fortinet APs enabled with this advanced feature continuously monitor the RF environment for interference, noise, and signals from neighboring APs, enabling the FortiGate WLAN Controller to determine the optimal RF power levels for each AP on the network.

When a new AP is provisioned, DARRP also ensures that it chooses the optimal channel, without administrator intervention.

Reference: http://www.corex.at/Produktinfos/FortiOS_Wireless.pdf

QUESTION 2

As a network administrator, you are responsible for managing an enterprise secure wireless LAN. The controller is
based in the United States, and you have been asked to deploy a number of managed APs in a remote office in
Germany.

What is the correct way to ensure that the RF channels and transmission power limits are appropriately configured for
the remote APs?

A. Configure the APs individually by overriding the settings in Managed FortiAPs
B. Configure the controller for the correct country code for Germany
C. Clone a suitable FortiAP profile and change the county code settings on the profile
D. Create a new FortiAP profile and change the county code settings on the profile

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://fortinetweb.s3.amazonaws.com/docs.fortinet.com/v2/attachments/69a8fa9c-1eaa-11e9b6f6-f8bc1258b856/fortigate-fortiwifi-and-fortiap-configuration-guide-54.pdf

QUESTION 3

Which statement is correct about security profiles on FortiAP devices?

A. Security profiles on FortiAP devices can use FortiGate subscription to inspect the traffic
B. Only bridge mode SSIDs can apply the security profiles
C. Disable DTLS on FortiAP
D. FortiGate performs inspection the wireless traffic

Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiap/6.4.0/fortiwifi-and-fortiap-configuration-guide/47321/ fortiap-sbridge-mode-security-profiles

QUESTION 4

Which two roles does FortiPresence analytics assist in generating presence reports? (Choose two.)

A. Gathering details about on site visitors
B. Predicting the number of guest users visiting on-site
C. Comparing current data with historical records
D. Reporting potential threats by guests on site

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5

Refer to the exhibits.
Exhibit A

Exhibit B

A wireless network has been created to support a group of users in a specific area of a building. The wireless network is
configured but users are unable to connect to it. The exhibits show the relevant controller configuration for the APs and the wireless network.

Which two configuration changes will resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

A. For both interfaces in the wtp-profile, configure set vaps to be “Authors”
B. Disable intra-vap-privacy for the Authors vap-wireless network
C. For both interfaces in the wtp-profile, configure vap-all to be manual
D. Increase the transmission power of the AP radio interfaces

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6

Which administrative access method must be enabled on a FortiGate interface to allow APs to connect and function?

A. Security Fabric
B. SSH
C. HTTPS
D. FortiTelemetry

Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.9/cookbook/788897/configuring-the-rootfortigate-anddownstream-fortigates

QUESTION 7

Six APs are located in a remotely based branch office and are managed by a centrally hosted FortiGate. Multiple
wireless users frequently connect and roam between the APs in the remote office.

The network they connect to, is secured with WPA2-PSK. As currently configured, the WAN connection between the
branch office and the centrally hosted FortiGate is unreliable.

Which configuration would enable the most reliable wireless connectivity for the remote clients?

A. Configure a tunnel mode wireless network and enable split tunneling to the local network
B. Configure a bridge mode wireless network and enable the Local standalone configuration option
C. Configure a bridge mode wireless network and enable the Local authentication configuration option
D. Install supported FortiAP and configure a bridge mode wireless network

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

How are wireless clients assigned to a dynamic VLAN configured for hash mode?

A. Using the current number of wireless clients connected to the SSID and the number of IPs available in the least busy
VLAN
B. Using the current number of wireless clients connected to the SSID and the number of clients allocated to each of the
VLANs
C. Using the current number of wireless clients connected to the SSID and the number of VLANs available in the pool
D. Using the current number of wireless clients connected to the SSID and the group the FortiAP is a member of

Correct Answer: C
VLAN from the VLAN pool based on a hash of the current number of SSID clients and the number of entries in the VLAN pool.
Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiap/7.0.1/fortiwifi-and-fortiap-configuration-guide/376326/ configuringdynamic-user-vlan-assignment

QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibits.
Exhibit A.

Exhibit B.

Exhibit C.

NSE6_FWF-6.4-exam-questions-q9-3

A wireless network has been installed in a small office building and is being used by a business to connect its wireless
clients. The network is used for multiple purposes, including corporate access, guest access, and connecting point-ofsale and Io? devices.

Users connecting to the guest network located in the reception area are reporting slow performance. The network
administrator is reviewing the information shown in the exhibits as part of the ongoing investigation of the problem. They show the profile used for the AP and the controller RF analysis output together with a screenshot of the GUI showing a summary of the AP and its neighboring APs.

To improve performance for the users connecting to the guest network in this area, which configuration change is most
likely to improve performance?

A. Increase the transmission power of the AP radios
B. Enable frequency handoff on the AP to band steer clients
C. Reduce the number of wireless networks being broadcast by the AP
D. Install another AP in the reception area to improve available bandwidth

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Where in the controller interface can you find a wireless client\’s upstream and downstream link rates?

A. On the AP CLI, using the cw_diag ksta command
B. On the controller CLI, using the diag wireless-controller wlac -d sta command
C. On the AP CLI, using the cw_diag -d sta command
D. On the controller CLI, using the WiFi Client monitor

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibits.
Exhibit A Exhibit B

The exhibits show the diagnose debug log of a station connection taken on the controller CLI. Which security mode is
used by the wireless connection?

A. WPA2 Enterprise
B. WPA3 Enterprise
C. WPA2 Personal and radius MAC filtering
D. Open, with radius MAC filtering

Correct Answer: A
Best security option is WPA2-AES.
Reference: https://www.esecurityplanet.com/trends/the-best-security-for-wireless-networks/

QUESTION 12

As standard best practice, which configuration should be performed before configuring FortiAPs using a FortiGate
wireless controller?

A. Create wireless LAN specific policies
B. Preauthorize APs
C. Create a custom AP profile
D. Set the wireless controller country setting

Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiap/6.4.1/fortiwifi-and-fortiap-configuration-guide/547298/ complexwireless-network-example

QUESTION 13

Refer to the exhibit.

If the signal is set to -68 dB on the FortiPlanner site survey reading, which statement is correct regarding the coverage
area?

A. Areas with the signal strength equal to -68 dB are zoomed in to provide better visibility
B. Areas with the signal strength weaker than -68 dB are cut out of the map
C. Areas with the signal strength equal or stronger than -68 dB are highlighted in multicolor
D. Areas with the signal strength weaker than -68 dB are highlighted in orange and red to indicate that no signal was
propagated by the APs.

Correct Answer: C

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