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Free latest pass4itsure 2V0-622D practice exam (1-30)

QUESTION 1
When using “Cluster resource percentage” for host failover capacity in vSphere HA Admission Control, the total resource requirements are calculated from which
two values? (Choose two.)
A. Total vCPUs assigned to each VM.
B. Average CPU usage on each VM over time.
C. Memory reservations on each VM.
D. Total memory assigned to each VM.
E. Average active memory on each VM over time.
F. CPU reservations on each VM.
Correct Answer: CF

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
vSphere HA uses the actual reservations of the virtual machines. If a virtual machine does not have reservations, meaning that the reservation is 0, a default of
0MB memory and 32MHz CPU is applied.
Computing the Current Failover Capacity
The total resource requirements for the powered-on virtual machines is comprised of two components, CPU and memory. vSphere HA calculates these values.
The CPU component by summing the CPU reservations of the powered-on virtual machines. If you have not specified a CPU reservation for a virtual machine, it is
assigned a default value of 32MHz (this value can be changed using the das.vmcpuminmhz advanced option.)
The memory component by summing the memory reservation (plus memory overhead) of each powered-on virtual machine.

 


 

QUESTION 2
By default, how often is the vCenter vpx user password automatically changed?
A. 15 days
B. 60 days
C. 30 days
D. 45 days
Correct Answer: C

 


 

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about vCenter HA are correct? (Choose two.)
A. ESXi 5.5 or later is required.
B. vCenter HA network latency between nodes must be less than 50 ms.
C. NFS datastore is supported.
D. It must be deployed on a 3 ESXi host cluster with DRS enabled.
Correct Answer: AC

 


 

QUESTION 4
Which metric in the Exhibit would identify high latency for a storage device?

A. QAVG/cmd
B. KAVG/cmd
C. DAVG/cmd
D. GAVG/cmd
Correct Answer: C

 


 

QUESTION 5
What availability mode does vCenter HA provide?A. Active-Passive
B. Active-Standby
C. Active-Active
D. Load-balanced
Correct Answer: A

 


 

QUESTION 6
Which are the two network requirements for a VMware vSAN 6.5 cluster? (Choose two.)
A. Multicast must be enabled on the physical switches and routers that handle vSAN traffic.
B. vSAN requires IPv6 only.
C. All hosts must have a dedicated 40GbE NIC.
D. The vSAN network supported IPv4 or IPv6.
E. vSAN requires IPv4 only.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The vSAN network supports both IPv4 and IPv6.

 


 

QUESTION 7
Which three design requirements must be satisfied to enable RAID-6 objects in a VMware vSAN cluster? (Choose three.)
A. vSAN Advanced license or higher
B. vSAN stretched cluster
C. at least six hosts contributing storage
D. deduplication and compression
E. All Flash configuration
Correct Answer: ACE

 


 

QUESTION 8
What is the VMware-recommended best practice for Fibre Channel zoning?
A. soft zoning
B. single-initiator-multiple-target zoning
C. single-initiator zoning
D. single-initiator-single-target zoning
Correct Answer: D

 


 

QUESTION 9
Which two tasks should a vSphere administrator perform if the vmkernel log reports VMFS metadata errors? (Choose two.)
A. contact VMware technical support
B. reformat the datastore
C. check the device with VOMA
D. ignore the messages
Correct Answer: AC

 


 

QUESTION 10
Which is required by vCenter Converter Standalone to convert a physical Red Hat Enterprise Linux 7 machine to a virtual machine?
A. The Linux machine must be powered off.
B. The Linux machine must have the SSH daemon started.
C. The Linux machine must use a static IP address.
D. The Linux machine must have a fully-qualified domain name.
Correct Answer: B

 


 

QUESTION 11
How can a vSphere administrator ensure that a set of virtual machines run on different hosts in a DRS cluster?
A. Use a VM-Host affinity rule.
B. Add the VMs to a vApp.
C. Use a VM-VM affinity rule.
D. Place the VMs in different folders.
Correct Answer: C


 

QUESTION 12
Which three types of Content Libraries exist within vSphere 6.5? (Choose three.)
A. Remote Content Library
B. Published Content Library
C. Local Content Library
D. Shared Content Library
E. Subscribed Content Library
Correct Answer: BCE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Local Libraries
Subscribed Libraries (You subscribe to a published library by creating a subscribed library.)

 


QUESTION 13
Which statements regarding datastore clusters meets VMware’s recommended best practices?
A. Clusters should contain only datastores presented from the same storage array.
B. Clusters should contain only datastores with equal hardware acceleration capability.
C. Clusters should contain only datastores with the same capacity.
D. Clusters should contain only datastores using the same connection method (iSCSI, FC, etc.).
Correct Answer: B

 


QUESTION 14
Which Host Profile Subprofile configuration is used to configure firewall settings for ESXi hosts?
A. Advanced Configuration Settings
B. General System Settings
C. Security
D. Networking
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In the Web Client interface, you’ll find the firewall configuration under the Security and Services folder of a host profile.

 


QUESTION 15
An administrator is trying to vMotion a VM from his datacenter to a recovery site. Which is the maximum allowed RTT (Round-Trip Time) latency between source
and destination host?
A. 100 milliseconds
B. 150 milliseconds
C. 15 milliseconds
D. 10 milliseconds
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Round-Trip Time for Long-Distance vMotion Migration If you have the proper license applied to your environment, you can perform reliable migrations between
hosts that are separated by high network round-trip latency times. The maximum supported network round-trip time for vMotion migrations is 150 milliseconds.
This round-trip time lets you migrate virtual machines to another geographical location at a longer distance.

 


QUESTION 16
A vSphere administrator manages a cluster which includes critical and non-critical virtual machines. The cluster requires different permissions for contractors and
non-contractors.
How can the administrator exclude the contractor group from some of the critical VMs?
A. Apply permission for both contractors and non-contractors on the cluster level.
B. Apply permission for both contractors and non-contractors on the cluster level. Remove permission on the critical VMs for contractors.
C. Remove permission for contractors on the cluster level. Apply permission on the critical VMs for non-contractors.
D. Apply permission for both contractors and non-contractors on the VMs. Remove permission on the critical VMs for contractors.
Correct Answer: B

 


QUESTION 17
What VM Monitoring setting would ensure that the failure interval for a virtual machine is defined as 120 seconds?
A. High
B. Normal
C. Low
D. Medium
Correct Answer: C

 


QUESTION 18
A vSphere Administrator observes that the Primary VM configured with Fault Tolerance is executing slowly. After further investigation, it is determined that the
Secondary VM is on an overcommitted ESXi host.What two methods will correct the problem? (Choose two.)
A. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the Secondary VM to another datastore.
B. Use vMotion to migrate the Secondary VM to a different ESXi host.
C. Configure a CPU limit on the Primary VM which will also apply to the Secondary VM.
D. Turn off and turn on FT in order to recreate the Secondary VM on a different datastore.
Correct Answer: BD

 


QUESTION 19
Which command can be run to troubleshoot connectivity problems with vmkernal network interfaces?
A. esxcli network
B. vmkping
C. net-status
D. vicfg-vmknic
Correct Answer: B

 


QUESTION 20
A vSphere HA cluster with four hosts has admission control configured to tolerate one host failure.
Which statement is true if a fifth host is added?
A. CPU and Memory capacity will be set to 50%.
B. CPU and Memory capacity will be set to 30%.
C. CPU and Memory capacity will be set to 25%.
D. CPU and Memory capacity will be set to 20%.
Correct Answer: D

 


QUESTION 21
Which two configuration options can exclude virtual disks from snapshot operations? (Choose two.)
A. Use RDM in virtual mode for virtual disk.
B. Use virtual disks in Independent ?Persistent mode.
C. Use a virtual disk larger than 2 TB in size.
D. Use RDM in physical mode for virtual disk.
Correct Answer: BD

 


QUESTION 22
Which statement is correct when migrating from a Windows vCenter Server to the vCenter ServerAppliance 6.5?
A. Migration deployments do not migrate local OS users from the source vCenter Server.
B. Migration deployments support DHCP on the source vCenter Server.
C. Migration deployments allow the source vCenter Server to remain powered on afterwards.
D. Migration deployments support custom ports for all services on the source vCenter Server.
Correct Answer: A

 


QUESTION 23
An administrator sets the Failover Capacity for both CPU and Memory at 25%.
Based on the Exhibit below, how much of the cluster’s total CPU resources are still available to power on additional virtual machines?

A. 45%
B. 25%
C. 70%
D. 60%
Correct Answer: A

 


QUESTION 24
Which two components are part of storage I/O multipathing on ESXi? (Choose two.)
A. SATP
B. VASA
C. PSP
D. VAAI
Correct Answer: AC

 


QUESTION 25
The administrator wants to power on VM-K2, which has a 2GHz CPU reservation. VM-M1, VM-M2, and VM-K1 are all powered on. VM-K2 is not powered on.
The exhibit shows the parent and child resource reservations.

If Resource Pool RP-KID is configured with an expandable reservation, which statement is true?
A. VM-K2 will be unable to power on because there are insufficient resources.
B. VM-K2 will be able to power on since resource pool RP-KID has 2GHz available.
C. VM-K2 will be unable to power on because only 2GHz are reserved for RP-KID.D. VM-K2 will receive resource priority and will be able to power on this scenario.
Correct Answer: A

 


QUESTION 26
An administrator attempts to manually reclaim space on thin-provisioned VMFS6 volumes but finds that no additional space is being recovered.
Which could be causing this?
A. vSphere 6.5 does not support manual UNMAP.
B. The manual UNMAP operation has been moved to the vSphere web client.
C. The VASA version is use is incompatible.
D. UNMAP is automated for VMFS6.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
VMFS 6 is the new filesystem of vSphere 6.5. The new filesystem supports 512e advanced format drives and is 4098 sector (4K) aligned. It also supports
automatic UNMAP, which asynchronously tracks freed blocks and sends UNMAPs to backend storage in background.

 


QUESTION 27
Which feature facilitates the sharing of templates via vCenter Server?
A. Content Library
B. OVF
C. folders
D. vApp
Correct Answer: A

 


QUESTION 28
Which iSCSI initiator type can be used with any network interface card?
A. Software iSCSI initiator
B. Software FCoE adapter
C. Hardware Independent iSCSI initiator
D. Hardware Dependent iSCSI initiator
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Software iSCSI Adapter
A software iSCSI adapter is a VMware code built into the VMkernel. It allows your host to connect to the iSCSI storage device through standard network adapters.
The software iSCSI adapter handles iSCSI processing while communicating with the network adapter. With the software iSCSI adapter, you can use iSCSI
technology without purchasing specialized hardware.

 


QUESTION 29
What tool can capture network traffic at the uplinks, or vSwitch, or virtual port levels?
A. tcpdump-uw
B. wireshark
C. pktcap-uw
D. pcap
Correct Answer: C

 


QUESTION 30
Which are two vCenter Server two-factor authentication methods? (Choose two.)
A. RSA SecurID
B. Smart Card
C. SAML
D. Symantec VIP
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Two-Factor Authentication Methods
The two-factor authentication methods are often required by government agencies or large enterprises.
Smart card authentication
Smart card authentication allows access only to users who attach a physical card to the USB drive of the computer that they log in to. An example is Common
Access Card (CAC) authentication.
The administrator can deploy the PKI so that the smart card certificates are the only client certificates that the CA issues. For such deployments, only smart card
certificates are presented to the user. The user selects a certificate, and is prompted for a PIN. Only users who have both the physical card and the PIN that
matches the certificate can log in.
RSA SecurID Authentication
For RSA SecurID authentication, your environment must include a correctly configured RSA Authentication Manager. If the Platform Services Controller isconfigured to point to the RSA server, and if RSA SecurID Authentication is enabled, users can log in with their user name and token.
See the two vSphere Blog posts about RSA SecurID setup for details

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 700-501 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-32)

QUESTION 1
Which two options are advantages of Cisco Data Center solutions over the competition? (Choose two.)
A. Embedded self service
B. Endtoend optimization
C. Scalability without complexity
D. Seamless installation
700-501 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
Which design practice is the best to reduce wireless CCI?
A. Place adjacent access points on different channels.
B. Place adjacent access points on the same channel.
C. Eliminate all signal overlap between access points.
D. Configure access points with the lowest supported data rate.
E. Place adjacent access points on nonoverlapping channels.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
Which two collaboration products are accessible (and relevant) to Express Collaboration Specialized partners? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Telepresence EX/90
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise
C. Cisco CRSX D
D. Cisco ASA 5510
E. Cisco Business Edition 6000
700-501 dumps Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
Which three options are business benefits of increased reliability? (Choose three)
A. Protects revenue streams
B. Enhances career paths
C. Promotes independence
D. Increases business resilience
E. Reduces maintenance and network operation costs
F. Validates business decisions
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 5
Which three competitive advantages does the Cisco Unified Computing System provide? (Choose three.)
A. Ease of planning via the CSIM capacity modeling tool.
B. Supports only rack server models to reduce cost.
C. Greater virtual desktop density without performance impact.
D. Supports only blade server models to reduce system complexity.
E. Lower cost for compute plus network infrastructure.
F. Simple operation; start in minutes, scale in seconds.
700-501 pdf Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 6
Which statement about TrustSec is true?
A. It provides defense against denial of service attacks
B. It provides a policybased, scalable platform that offers integrated posture, profiling, and guest services to make
contextaware access control decisions.
C. It monitors all the devices on the network, and turns them off when they are not needed.
D. It provides secure richmedia and collaboration services to optimize realtime voice and video applications.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which three options are features of the Cisco Validated Design Program? (Choose three.)
A. Onsite consulting from Cisco Advanced Services engineers.
B. Design guides organized by solution, technology, and architecture.
C. Details on guidelines and practices for different customer scenarios.
D. Specific guidance based on your customer\’s current environment.
E. System and solution designs that are documented and tested.
F. 24×7 phone support on network design questions.
700-501 vce Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 8
Which three decision makers should you focus on when proposing Cisco architectural solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Individual contributors
B. Operations managers
C. Purchasing officers
D. Technical decision makers
E. Business decision makers
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 9
When you design a customer network that is composed only of a pure Layer 2 switch and a router, which feature should
you enable to support communication among VLANs?
A. VLANs cannot communicate when only a router and a Layer 2 switch are used in the design.
B. Spanning Tree on the Layer 2 switch
C. Static routes on the Layer 2 switch
D. Trunking between the Layer 2 switch and the router
E. Uplink port aggregation on the router
700-501 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which three components are in Cisco ExpressPod? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Application Server Engine
B. Cisco UCS CSeries Servers
C. EMC Storage
D. HP Servers
E. NetApp Storage
F. Cisco Nexus Switches
G. Fujitsu Storage
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 11
Which two components are required for a Cisco centralized wireless deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Centralized AirNet
B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco SIO
D. Cisco AiroNet Access Point
E. Cisco Prime
F. Cisco ISR
700-501 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
Which statement about the Cisco Meraki cloud architecture is true?
A. Devices are configured in the cloud on first use and then managed locally after they are set up.
B. All Meraki devices are managed locally by default
C. Management data flows to the Cisco Meraki cloud and user traffic flows directly to its destination on the LAN or across the WAN.
D. All data flows through the Cisco Meraki cloud.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which two Cisco ISR series are needed to support a Cisco ServicesReady Engine to deploy services on demand?
(Choose two.)
A. 2900 Series
B. 2800 Series
C. 3900 Series
D. 800 Series
700-501 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
Which three switching technology components distinguish Cisco from competing products? (Choose three.)
A. Gigabit Ethernet
B. Flexible NetFlow
C. Medianet
D. Universal PoE
E. RSTP 802.1w
F. Multiprotocol Label Switching
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 15
Which three options are best security practices for VLANs? (Choose three.)
A. Disable Spanning Tree on all switches.
B. Disable all unused ports and put them in an unused VLAN
C. Always use a dedicated VLAN ID for all trunk ports.
D. Do not use VLAN 1 for anything.
E. Enable all unused ports for seamless configuration.
F. Put all user data traffic in VLAN 1.
700-501 vce Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 16
Which two benefits are delivered by Cisco Telepresence? (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration Experience is integrated.
B. Large files can be delivered between locations.
C. User experiences are unified.
D. Any endpoint can be used.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 17
Which option is a function of the Cisco MultiGigabit Fabric in a Cisco ISR router?
A. Provides connectivity between Cisco EHWIC, PVDM3, SM, and ISM modules through the Backplane.
B. Provides connectivity only to the Cisco EHWIC modules.
C. Provides connectivity to the Cisco Nexus fabric switch through the uplink.
D. Provides connectivity to legacy interface modules.
E. Provides connectivity to the Cisco Enhanced EtherSwitch Service Module uplink ports.
700-501 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which option is the backend security ecosystem that detects threat activity, researches and analyzes those threats, and
provides realtime updates along with best practices to allow organizations to be informed and protected?
A. Monitor Analysis Response System
B. Secure Infrastructure Optimization
C. Threat Operation Center
D. Security Intelligence Operations
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which option is a competitive advantage of Cisco security solutions?
A. Lowest priced offering
B. Stateful firewall capability
C. SpeedNet services
D. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
700-501 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Which three customer challenges do Cisco architectures help to solve? (Choose three.)
A. Increase ROI
B. Reduce independence
C. Provide creative solutions
D. Lower costs
E. Boost productivity
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 21
When LAN connectivity is designed which option increases high availability and minimizes network administration?
A. integrated switch in WAN router
B. stacked switch design
C. multiple switch design
D. single external switch design
700-501 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which two product portfolios help make up the Cisco Office in a Box solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS ESeries Servers
B. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900 and 3900 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 5000
D. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series
E. Cisco UCS CSeries Servers
F. Cisco Nexus 3048
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 23
Which two capabilities are found on the Cisco ASA 5512X that are not found on the Cisco ASA 5510? (Choose two.)
A. 50 VLANs
B. 250 sitetosite IPsec sessions
C. 6 Gigabit Ethernet
D. Multicore CPU
700-501 vce Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 24
Your customer is considering migrating to a Cisco Borderless Routing solution from their current vendor. Which best practice can close the sale?
A. Demonstrate how the Cisco solution saves money by consolidating devices and integrating management.
B. Mention that promotions and incentives are available through Cisco
C. Go through a check list and compare the performance capabilities between Cisco and the other vendor.
D. Show the customer a Cisco television commercial.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which best practice should be used to calculate PoE requirements for Cisco collaboration endpoints?
A. Attach all endpoints first and then use a power reporting tool to document the power requirements.
B. Assume that all ports with PoE endpoints attached will require 7 watts.
C. Assume that all ports will require 15.4 watts regardless of attached endpoints.
D. Select the endpoint device that requires the most power and assume that all endpoint devices will require the same amount.
E. Determine the power requirements of each of your endpoints and plan to support that amount.
700-501 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
A customer wants to deploy a solution that requires highquality video for full multimedia applications. Which two Cisco Unified Communication endpoint solutions should you recommend? (Choose two.)
A. 6900 Series
B. 8900 Series
C. 5900 Series
D. 9900 Series
E. 3900 Series
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 27
Which two statements about Collaborative Services are true? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco sells the service to the partner
B. They are sold to the customer by Cisco.
C. They enable the partner to deliver their own brand of service.
D. They are sold by the partner, and are delivered by Cisco.
700-501 dumps Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 28
Which three options can be connected directly to a Cisco Nexus switch? (Choose three.)
A. Token ring network
B. Storage area network
C. Server cluster
D. Local area network
E. 4G network
F. Wide area network
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 29
Which two customer benefits can be realized with Cisco Unified Data Center? (Choose two.)
A. 50 percent faster disaster recovery.
B. 60 percent less cost for cooling and power.
C. 15 percent faster in application performance, 40 percent less in infrastructure costs.
D. 50 percent less time in application deployment.
700-501 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco ASA 5500X Series over the Cisco ASA 5500 Series? (Choose two.)
A. Firewall throughput up to 12 Gb/s is provided.
B. The Cisco Content Security does not require an additional hardware module.
C. Cisco IPS throughput up to 650 Mb/s is provided
D. The Cisco IPS does not require an additional hardware module.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 31
Which three options are pillars of the Cisco Security Intelligence Operations? (Choose three.)
A. Dynamic updates
B. OpenBTS Database
C. Cloud base
D. Threat Operations Center
E. Sensor base
F. Manual updates
700-501 vce Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 32
Which two product portfolios help make up the FlexPod Express solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5000
B. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900, and 3900 Series
C. Cisco UCS ESeries Servers
D. Cisco Nexus 3048 Switch
E. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series
F. Cisco UCS CSeries Server
Correct Answer: DF

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Exam Code: 700-501
Exam Name: SMB Specialization for Engineers
Q&As: 50

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 700-260 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-35)

QUESTION 1
Which Cisco network security solution helps protect against threats by monitoring and responding to any network
anomalies, continually analyzing for potential threats and reacting to them in real time?
A. Cisco Security Manager
B. Cisco ASA Firewall Services
C. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
D. Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
E. Cisco Web Security Appliance
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance
G. Cisco Identity Services Engine
H. Cisco Site-to-Site VPN
700-260 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Why might companies need Cisco Cyber Threat Defense?
A. They need cost-effective security management outsourcing.
B. They have increased bandwidth needs and allow BYOD
C. They need to add and provision servers faster than ever.
D. They have a lack of segmented or differentiated access.
E. They are being inundated with advanced, persistent threats.
F. They have an infrastructure of overlapping rule sets, complex inheritance, and oversubscription
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
Cutting IT administrative costs and leveraging current hardware are features that demonstrate which Cisco business
value?
A. Completeness
B. Cost effectiveness
C. Flexibility
D. Control
E. Protection
700-260 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
In addition to protection, control, and flexibility, which two business values are included in Cisco value propositions?
(Choose two.)
A. Low cost
B. Completeness
C. Cost effectiveness
D. Scalability
E. Integration
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
End-to-end protection and protection across the attack continuum are features that demonstrate which two Cisco
business values? (Choose two.)
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Protection
C. Control
D. Flexibility
E. Completeness
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
The unmatched security that Cisco offers is demonstrated by its long-standing experience in which two options?
(Choose two.)
A. Mobile solutions
B. Networks
C. Software
D. Security
E. Devices
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Reputation analysis and recommended remediation steps are examples of which customer cost saver?
A. Flexible licensing
B. Faster integration
C. Fewer resources to manage
D. Less time scoping a breach
700-260 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which two options benefit a partner who is selling Cisco security solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Incentives programs
B. Lower total cost of ownership
C. Simplified architecture solution
D. Opportunities for new revenue
E. Partner referrals
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Secure Access Control Server solution technology would you recommend to a corporation that is trying to connect computers, smart phones, and tablets in different locations to a customer network?
A. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
B. Cisco AnyConnect
C. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection
D. Cisco Identity Services Engine
E. Cisco TrustSec
700-260 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What is the first stage of the Cisco software lifecycle.where sellers engage with customers to create a strategy and
development plan?
A. upsell and cross sell
B. asset management
C. plan
D. activate
E. adopt
F. renew
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
The fact that Cisco network security offers unmatched visibility and control of network and application traffic is a prime example of which Cisco value?
A. Scalability
B. Time-to-value
C. Protection
D. Control
E. Flexibility
F. Agility
700-260 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Upon which component are security solutions directly built in the Cisco future solutions architecture framework?
A. Security intelligence operations
B. Third-party applications
C. Management and intelligence capabilities
D. Cisco security platforms
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
700-260 dumps
Consolidating platforms and appliances under a single provider is an example of which customer cost saver?
A. Less time scoping a breach
B. Fewer resources to manage
C. Faster integration
D. Flexible licensing
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which solution should you suggest to a company that wants to prevent employees from inadvertently sending
confidential information?
A. Cisco ASA Firewall Services
B. Cisco Security Manager
C. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection
D. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
E. Cisco Email Security Appliance
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 15
Leveraging current infrastructures without buying new appliances and avoiding lengthy customizations are examples of which customer cost saver?
A. Less time scoping a breach
B. Faster integration
C. Flexible licensing
D. Fewer resources to manage
700-260 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which option would be the primary concern of a CIO who is focused on advanced protection in the advanced protection use case?
A. Integrate solutions seamlessly
B. Onboard devices quickly
C. Expand into new markets
D. Reduce vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
The fact that Cisco Content Security integrates seamlessly with existing security and network infrastructures is a prime example of which Cisco value?
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. scalability
E. flexibility
F. agility
700-260 exam Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 18
Increased employee productivity, confidence in data confidentiality, and increased visibility are features that
demonstrate which Cisco business value?
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Protection
C. Control
D. Flexibility
E. Completeness
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which four options are examples of Cisco network security solutions? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco Security Manager
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Web Security Appliance
D. Cisco Identity Services Engine
E. Cisco Site-to-Site VPN
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance
G. Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
H. Cisco ASA Firewall Services
700-260 dumps Correct Answer: BEGH

QUESTION 20
Why do partners often have a hard time selling their new security solutions to customers?
A. Customers have antiquated solutions.
B. Customers show a lack of concern over malware and threats.
C. Customers boast completely secure environments.
D. Customers have overcrowded portfolios of security solutions from multiple vendors.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
At which point during the attack continuum does a customer experience limited remediation tools?
A. Across the entire continuum
B. During
C. Before
D. After
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which four options are Cisco industry differentiators? (Choose four.)
A. Uncontested threat blocking
B. Best-in-class technologies
C. Lowest price
D. Unparalleled commitment to security
E. Largest selection of security solutions
F. Unmatched support and services
G. Comprehensive vision for security
Correct Answer: BDFG

QUESTION 23
Given the award-winning resources and support that Cisco offers, with what kind of customers can partners create
unique relationships?
A. Customers who can be the first to receive new innovations
B. Customers who can access 24-hour support around the world
C. Customers who can earn higher margins on each deal that is sold
D. Customers who can take advantage of incentives programs
700-260 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which option would be a primary security concern of a large, growing corporation that is trying to scale its data center growth with its growing business in the secure data center use case?
A. Inexperienced IT staff
B. Lack of scalable and flexible security options
C. No employee remote access
D. Lack of device variability
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
According to recent studies, what percentage of global companies has experienced a security breach?
A. 100 percent
B. 75 percent
C. 33 percent
D. 5 percent
E. 0 percent
700-260 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Which component of the Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure technology solution enables centralized management for the entire solution and is a primary differentiator from the Cisco Secure Data Center virtualization and cloud?
A. Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Security Manager
D. Cisco Fire SIGHT Management Center
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which two solutions are main components of Cisco Content Security? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection
B. Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
C. Cisco Web Security Appliance
D. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
E. Cisco Remote-Access VPN
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance
700-260 dumps Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 28
Which two options are features of Cisco Enterprise License Agreements? (Choose two.)
A. One agreement for each part of the business
B. Short-term lifespan under one year
C. Unforeseen costs and fees in the future
D. Organic growth up to 20 percent
E. Up-front pricing
F. Limited consumption models
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 29
What is the primary customer challenge that is created by the wide variety of security solution providers on the market?
A. Choosing the right provider
B. Contacting all providers for information
C. Finding a low-cost option
D. Determining the single best security product
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which three options describe the main problems with traditional security solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Security gaps
B. Lack of firewall
C. Pieced together
D. Missing components
E. Fragmented solutions
F. Lack of management solutions
G. Lack of cloud solution
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 31
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Identity Services Engine
D. Cisco Security Manager
E. Cisco TrustSec
700-260 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which two aspects of Cisco solutions save customers money? (Choose two.)
A. 100 percent effectiveness
B. Faster integration
C. Fewer resources to manage
D. Lowest-cost solutions
E. Incentives programs
F. Complete replacement of current infrastructure
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 33
The fact that Cisco leads the industry in Gartner\’s Magic Quadrants for email, web, NGIPS, and NGFW is a prime
example of which Cisco differentiator?
A. Comprehensive vision for security
B. One solution to fit every need
C. Unparalleled commitment
D. Best-in-class technologies
E. Lowest price points
700-260 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
Which technology solution can resolve the inability of a customer to properly restrict and authorize access to protected resources while still introducing new applications, devices, and business partnerships?
A. Cisco Secure Data Center
B. Cisco Cyber Threat Defense
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Cloud
E. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure
F. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Which Cisco security benefit is a differentiator that allows partners to plan and model their businesses?
A. Comprehensive vision for security
B. One solution to fit every need
C. Unparalleled commitment
D. Lowest price points
E. Best-in-class technologies
700-260 dumps Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 700-260
Exam Name: Advanced Security Architecture for Account Manager
Q&As: 110

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 700-039 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-24)

QUESTION 1
Which two characteristics are differentiators for the Cisco ISR router compared to the competition? (Choose two.)
A. Decoupling the delivery of software from hardware on optional service modules
B. Integration of WLAN access points
C. Routes network traffic down alternative paths to avoid congestion, which switches cannot do
D. Support of analog voice connections
E. Operational simplicity through a single, universal Cisco IOS Software image. Services Ready Engine, EnergyWise
innovations, and investment protection
700-039 exam Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 2
Which tool offers a blueprint for designing and deploying a full-service, comprehensive network to support business needs?
A. Cisco Smart Business Roadmap
B. Cisco Collaboration Use Case Tool
C. Cisco Steps to Success
D. Cisco Smart Business Architecture
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
In which layer of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture do you find session and content management?
A. Collaboration applications layer
B. Endpoint device layer
C. Infrastructure layer
D. Collaboration services layer
700-039 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
The customer satisfaction index is an important business Key Performance Indicator Which building block of the business model references that KPI?
A. Channels
B. CRM
C. Key activities
D. Customer segments
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which three statements are benefits of a financial analysis? (Choose three.)
A. It uses ROI measures that are always accepted by other stakeholders or the CFO.
B. It increases the size of the deal and the potential services revenue
C. It highlights strategic and tactical benefits.
D. It requires minimal resources and is risk-free
E. It encourages the customer to examine Cisco Unified Communications in more detail.
F. It is a simple process and it can be completed in time, well within the sales cycle.
700-039 pdf Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 6
Which two statements describe how Cisco Validated Designs help to build BOM faster? (Choose two)
A. They help a presales engineer to better understand a customer\’s business
B. They help to verify any BOM that is created
C. Cisco architects use Cisco Validated Designs to attach a network diagram to a BOM.
D. Cross-architectural aspects assist with proper design.
E. Proven, tested designs ensure BOM will not change frequently.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
Which three options are benefits of Cisco Prime Collaboration? (Choose three.)
A. It enables automatic monitoring and repair of Cisco devices and software applications.
B. It enables comprehensive monitoring and diagnostics for Cisco Unified Communications and Cisco Telepresence systems.
C. It provides historical reporting and trending on Collaboration business metrics.
D. It verifies whether the network is secure and efficient.
E. It reduces the expertise needed to manage changes that occur when the network is operational.
F. It ensures consistent configurations by increasing the per-user configuration time.
700-039 vce Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 8
Cisco supply chain agility solutions are addressing a crucial part within the manufacturing industry. Which of the following is the main driver of that branch of industry?
A. Adopt the supply chain to changing markets
B. Achieve lower unit costs
C. Achieve stronger competitive position in the marketplace
D. Increase utilization of manufacturing plants
E. Ensure quality standards to customers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which three roles belong to an informal buying center that the account manager must be aware of? (Choose three)
A. Dealer
B. Gatekeeper
C. Buyer
D. Seller
E. Initiator
F. Partner
700-039 exam Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 10
Security plays an essential role in the Cisco Collaboration Architecture In which layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture is security implemented?
A. Advanced Cisco security solutions are implemented in all layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture model.
B. Security is implemented in all the layers except in the medianet services interface layer.
C. Cisco security solutions are integrated into the infrastructure layer and partially into the collaboration services layer
D. Cisco provides advanced security solutions in the infrastructure and collaboration services layers while the
collaboration applications layer security is ensured by third-party solutions.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You are discussing Cisco Collaboration Architecture with the IT manager of an organization. Which three statements are
effective responses that relate to the IT manager\’s concerns? (Choose three)
A. Collaboration tools improve upon ways in which corporations can enforce employee accountability.
B. The Collaboration Architecture, by design, ensures the highest availability.
C. Improved collaboration tools improve the end-user experience and will make the IT manager more popular
D. A centralized Collaboration Architecture deployment will ease management and save money.
E. Initial costs may be higher, but comparing the Total Cost of Ownership over a five-year period will show that the
Cisco product is less expensive.
F. A fully-deployed Collaboration Architecture supports efficient training in a variety of ways
700-039 dumps Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 12
Which two reasons make the Cisco Collaboration Architecture important for the marketing manager? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco Collaboration Architecture provides real-time call detail records.
B. Cisco Collaboration Architecture can support the sales force to achieve higher productivity.
C. The marketing manager is interested in how the Cisco Collaboration Architecture will help provide a better corporate image.
D. The Cisco Collaboration Architecture improves the means by which a company can stay in touch with customers.
E. Transition to Collaboration Architecture is easier than transition to a closed, legacy system
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
Which statement about Medianet is true?
A. Medianet enables integration of video infrastructure with network infrastructure.
B. Medianet enables Cisco Collaboration network management
C. Medianet is an intelligent network that is optimized for rich media
D. Medianet is the network infrastructure layer of video networks
700-039 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which two of the following are concerns that an operations manager may have in making a decision on Cisco Collaboration? (Choose two.)
A. Fast adoption of organizational changes
B. Changing customer demands
C. Reliability of the company infrastructure
D. Go-to-market time of new products or services
E. How to engage with external suppliers quickly
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
Once you define the customer\’s value chain, you will be able to identify departments managing core processes where the Cisco Collaboration Architecture will bring highest business value. Which two of the following departments typically manage core processes? (Choose two.)
A. Procurement
B. Sales and Marketing
C. Logistics and Operations
D. HR Management
E. Research and Development
700-039 vce Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 16
Which two statements indicate that the customer needs an infrastructure that can efficiently accommodate organizational changes? (Choose two.)
A. We need technology to dictate and lead business processes.
B. Collaboration applications must be flexible to quickly adapt to changes in user demand.
C. Collaboration equipment must be deployed at several locations and data centers.
D. The lifetime of any technology in our company is approximately two to three years
E. Future success of our company depends on operational agility.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 17
Which option represents an organizational change objection?
A. We are expanding and acquiring new business. This is the wrong time to switch to collaboration.
B. How can we justify the fact that it is far more expensive than upgrading our existing solution?
C. How can a collaboration architecture help reduce our operating expenses?
D. A migration is impossible without high costs or operational fallouts.
700-039 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which two options are examples of partner services that involve addressing the culture of an organization so that collaboration applications are adopted more readily? (Choose two.)
A. Development of collaboration maps
B. Analysis of communication process workshops
C. End-user education and training
D. Application-readiness assessment
E. Internal marketing
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 19
Which of the following is a main business requirement in the financial services industry?
A. Reduce time to market for new innovative financial products
B. Integration of financial trading applications at the desktop
C. Customer retention
D. High-performance trading
E. Lower IT expenses through virtualization
700-039 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Which three building blocks of the business model canvas help to achieve efficiency? (Choose three.)
A. key partners
B. key resources
C. revenue streams
D. channels
E. cost structure
F. customer segments
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 21
Which three options are ways that customers benefit from the Cisco Technology Developer Program? (Choose three.)
A. Opportunity to participate in Cisco research and development to develop next-generation Cisco Collaboration solutions
B. Exponentially expands the number and quality of rich, new business solutions
C. Display the Cisco Compatible logo in association with their product offering
D. Faster more successful deployments
E. Complete access to Cisco technologies and support resources
700-039 pdf Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 22
The Finance manager of an organization is concerned about switching their existing PBX to IP. Which response
describes the value of the Collaboration Architecture?
A. Cisco and Cisco Partners have vast experience in smooth migration scenarios. Deployment has no risks
B. Collaboration Architecture is much more than just IP telephony. A fully-deployed solution optimizes business
processes and enhances customer satisfaction.
C. Our competitors are sticking to PBX solution and are losing market share Collaboration is a risk-free approach.
D. Our solutions create a satisfied workforce, which results in higher productivity.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
What is the outcome of mapping the collaboration maps to the Cisco Collaboration Architecture?
A. Identify the completion of an architecture roadmap
B. Identify sources for additional revenue
C. Identify the starting point of an architecture roadmap
D. Identify which elements of the Cisco solutions are needed to build an architectural roadmap for customer requirements
700-039 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which two options are differentiators of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture? (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration tools are set up all at once
B. Ability of Cisco to integrate with many other collaboration solutions
C. Integration of Cisco Presence into the solution
D. Business-to-business extensibility
E. Prestige of the solution
Correct Answer: BD

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Q&As: 60

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 600-460 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-18)

QUESTION 1
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise with Cisco Unified CVP, which two statements about how to increase the Cisco Unified CVP availability are true? (Choose two.)
A. Must have SIP Proxy server to pass messages between the gateways and the Cisco Unified CVP servers.
B. Must have voice gateway TCL scripts to handle conditions where the gateways cannot contact the Cisco Unified CVP Call Server to direct the call correctly.
C. Add load balancers to load balance .wav file requests across multiple Cisco Unified CVP Media Servers.
D. Dedicate duplexed VRU peripheral gateways for each Cisco Unified CVP call server.
E. For a single data center with centralized deployment, deploy Cisco Unified CVP with N:N redundancy.
600-460 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
In the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise solution, which process is responsible for peer-to-peer synchronization?
A. ccagent
B. mds
C. router
D. opc
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is the semantic meaning of the RouterCallKeyDay variable?
A. It represents a number that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could increment from 151191 to 151192.
B. It represents a string that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could advance from “Monday” to “Tuesday”.
C. It represents a number that uniquely identifies the call during the day it was taken. For example: at midnight it would reset to zero.
D. It represents a sequence number used for ordering rows for the same call.
E. It represents a string that corresponds to a Globally Unique Call Identifier.
600-460 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise is deployed with Cisco Finesse and you make changes to CTI Server, Contact Center Enterprise Administration, or cluster settings. Which service must be restarted for changes to take effect?
A. Cluster Manager
B. System Application Agent
C. Cisco DB
D. Cisco Tomcat
E. Cisco Dirsync
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Within Cisco Unified ICM, which process handles communication between the router and peripheral gateway components?
A. dbagent
B. opcs
C. ccagent
D. mds
600-460 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which option about the ICM heartbeat interval and maximum number of missed heartbeats allowed between duplexed sides over the private network is true?
A. 100 ms, 3 heartbeats
B. 100 ms, 5 heartbeats
C. 400 ms, 3 heartbeats
D. 400 ms, 5 heartbeats
E. The heartbeat interval and maximum missed heartbeats settings can be customized by a system administrator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You are about to perform a Tech Refresh upgrade for a customer. The customer wants more details about how the historical data is maintained. The customer has two sides each with a router, logger, and HDS- DDS. Which is the best explanation?
A. The loggers exchange historical data to keep themselves up to date and each logger keeps its local HDS-DDS up to date.
B. The routers exchange historical data to keep themselves up to date and each router keeps its local HDS-DDS up to date.
C. The HDS-DDSs continuously synchronized the historical data to keep themselves up to date.
D. Each side synchronized its data from the logger using SQL replication.
600-460 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
When performing an upgrade to Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, which components do not need to be upgraded together during the same maintenance window?
A. Cisco Unified ICM call router and logger
B. Cisco Unified ICM call router and administrative workstation
C. Cisco Unified ICM call router and peripheral gateway
D. administrative workstation and HDS-DDS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, if the private network fails but the visible network is still operational, which statement is true?
A. The system stops routing calls because it cannot function without a private network.
B. The private network data is rerouted automatically over the visible network.
C. Both call routers go active and attempt to split the system until the private network is restored.
D. The system continues to operate but with only one call router in simplex mode.
600-460 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which two things can cause the “Send to VRU” to fail within an ICM script for Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal? (Choose two.)
A. No network VRU is configured for the routing client.
B. VRU PIM just got out of service.
C. Incorrect media file name.
D. Send to originator is not enabled.
E. Primary VRU peripheral gateway is out of service.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
600-460 dumps
This exhibit is the setup of the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Server. Based on this configuration, which two options must be configured in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Configuration Manager tool? (Choose two.)
A. A network trunk group explorer trunk group should be configured on the Cisco Unified CVP PG peripherals with a peripheral number of 5000.
B. A network trunk group explorer trunk group should be configured on the Cisco Unified CVP PG peripherals with a peripheral number of 100.
C. A VRU PG peripheral should be configured with a peripheral ID of 5000.
D. A network VRU should be configured with a label of maximum length 10 digits.
E. A PG explorer peripheral should be configured with a peripheral ID of 200.
600-460 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution with SIP Dialer, which option lists the correct order to setup the components (assuming the agent peripheral gateway host already exists)?
A. configure media routing peripheral gateway, dialer; install media routing peripheral gateway, dialer
B. configure dialer, port map, media routing peripheral gateway; install dialer, media routing peripheral gateway
C. install dialer, media routing peripheral gateway; configure dialer, port map, media routing peripheral gateway
D. install media routing peripheral gateway, dialer; configure media routing peripheral gateway, dialer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
The customer is using Cisco Unified Intelligence Center on a virtual machine and reports that the license has become invalid. Which four options can cause this problem? (Choose four.)
A. Time zone was changed.
B. Secondary DNS was changed.
C. Hostname was changed.
D. Number of historical reports exceeded the system limits.
E. Cisco Unified Intelligence Center Publisher is not in service.
F. IP address was changed.
G. Primary NTP server was changed.
H. Number of concurrent real-time reports exceeded the system limits.
600-460 pdf Correct Answer: ACFG

QUESTION 14
Which three rules apply when configuring agent teams? (Choose three.)
A. An agent can be a member of only one agent team.
B. An agent can be a member of multiple agent teams.
C. An agent team can have only one primary supervisor.
D. An agent team can have multiple primary supervisors.
E. All agents that belong to an agent team and all supervisors for that agent team must be on the same peripheral.
F. All agents that belong to an agent team and all supervisors for that agent team can be on multiple peripherals.
G. An agent team can have only one primary supervisor but can be a member of multiple teams.
H. An agent team can have multiple primary supervisors but can only be a member of one teams.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 15
Which option describes the steps to configure a non-global Not Ready code for a Cisco Unified ICM team using Contact Center Enterprise solution with Cisco Finesse?
A. Add Not Ready reason code in Cisco Finesse (uncheck “Global?” check box), add reason code to team.
B. Add team in ICM, add Not Ready reason code in Cisco Finesse (uncheck “Global?” check box), add reason code to team in Cisco Finesse.
C. Add team in ICM, add Not Ready reason code in Cisco Finesse, add reason code to team in Cisco Finesse.
D. Add team in ICM, add Not Ready reason code in ICM, add reason code to team in Cisco Finesse.
600-460 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which option lists the settings in the registry to enable IPsec logging with Cisco Unified ICM?
A. Add Key = IPSec; DWORD Value = Enable_Logging; DWORD Value = 0
B. Add Key = Oakley; DWORD Value = EnableLogging; DWORD Value = 1
C. Add Key = Security; DWORD Value = Enable-Logging; DWORD Value = 1
D. Add Key = Oak; DWORD Value = EnableLog; DWORD Value = 1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which two options affect the Ring No Answer behavior of the agent with the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Solution and Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal? (Choose two.)
A. CVP transfer timeout timer setting
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager unattended port setting
C. Agent Desktop Ring No Answer time setting
D. Target Requery in an ICM script queue step
600-460 exam Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 18
With Cisco Finesse, which two options list the two commands to stop and start the Tomcat service? (Choose two.)
A. To stop the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service stop Tomcat
B. To start the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service start Tomcat
C. To stop the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service start Tomcat
D. To start the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils start Cisco Tomcat
E. To stop the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service stop Cisco Tomcat
F. To start the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service start Cisco Tomcat
Correct Answer: EF

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 500-005 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-10)

Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
Which TX9000 display choice is best for reducing possible issues with viewing angles for conference
participants?
A. LCD
B. plasma
C. LED
D. CRT
E. HDTV
500-005 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which two factors are crucial to the immersive Cisco TelePresence experience? (Choose two.)
A. aesthetics
B. acoustics
C. room shape
D. number of windows
E. number of active participants
F. ceiling height
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
The control cable for the 42-inch Auto Collaboration display connects to which component?
A. PS1 codec
B. presentation codec
C. LCU
D. AV expansion box
500-005 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of these determines the specific role for each codec?
A. the firmware
B. wiring position
C. software revision
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Using the following table, correctly identify the location of each component.
Where is each component located?
Hot Area:
500-005 dumps

QUESTION 6
When using the TX9000 AV expansion box, how many total video output signals can be obtained using a
single video input?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
E. five
F. six
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which device is connected to the TX9000 AV expansion box for video input?
A. presentation (TS4) codec
B. collaboration/presentation display
C. center (TS1) codec
D. built-in video splitter
E. left (TS2) and right (TS3) codec
500-005 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which three components does the LCU control? (Choose three.)
A. the lighting fixture power
B. the primary codec AV input controls
C. the projector
D. the room HVAC controls
E. the LCD settings
F. the PTZ camera controls
G. the yaw of the camera cluster
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 9
From where does the LCU receive its instructions?
A. Cisco TelePresence Touch 12 screen
B. center (TS1) codec
C. left (TS2) codec
D. right (TS3) codec
E. presentation (TS4) codec
500-005 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
The configured speed-dial numbers are located in which section of the Cisco TelePresence Touch 12?
A. Favorites section
B. Speed Dialing section
C. Meeting section

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 400-351 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-17)

QUESTION 1
Which feature intersection of a Cisco 5760 Wireless LAN Controller with HA AP SSO is not true?
A. Switchover during AP preimage download causes the Aps to start image download all over again from the new active controller.
B. Upon guest anchor controller switchover, mobility tunnels stay active, Aps remain connected, clients rejoin at MA or MC, and clients are anchored on the new active controller.
C. wIPS information is synced to the standby unit. The standby unit does not have to relean wIPS information upon switchover.
D. Roamed clients that have their data path going through the mobility tunnel endpoint “becomed Local” in case of Layer 2 with sticky anchoring and Layer 3 roam. Layer 2 roamed clients are not affected except when roaming occurs
between Cisco Unified Wireless Network and CA controller.
400-351 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
On a Cisco autonomous AP, the maximum number of attempts to send a packet (packet retries) is set to 32 by default. Which statement about the result when the AP has tried to send a packet for that number of attempts and no response is received from the client is true?
A. The access point drops the packet.
B. The client MAC address is excluded for 60 seconds.
C. The access point resets the radio interface.
D. The access point disassociates the client.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two options are new features that are supported by IGMPv3 compared to IGMPv2.(Choose two)
A. It extends IGMP which allows for an explicit maximum response time field.
B. It adds support for source filtering.
C. Router can now send a group-specific query
D. It adds support for IGMP Leave Message.
E. It supports the link local address 224.0.0.22. which is the destination IP address for membership reports.
400-351 dumps Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 4
400-351 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. What is the best way to resolve this issue?
A. Install a server certificate signed by a well-know public CA on the WLC.
B. Disable certificate checks on the client.
C. Install a server certificate signed by a well-known public CA on the Radius Server
D. Use the certificate authority on the Cisco Identity Services Engine.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which option describes the function of the Intercloud Fabric Extender?
A. It provides the network overlay functionality between the used clouds or cloud models.
B. It establishes a secure site-to-site tunnel to the intercloud fabric agent in the private cloud.
C. It applies network policies and collects and reports VEM-related intercloud statistics.
D. It establishes a secure site-to-site tunnel to the intercloud fabric switch in the provider cloud.
400-351 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A user is presented with the underlying hardware and software needed to develop and offer applications via the Internet from a cloud service provider. Which cloud model is this user consuming?
A. Software as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Application as a Service
D. Infrastructure as a Service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
CFG autonoumous
400-351 dumps
400-351 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements about this extract of the configuration of an autonomous AP are true? (Choose three)
A. This configuration is of a non-root bridge access point.
B. The RADIUS server IP address I misconfigured. It points to the AP itself. Which creates a loop for the RADIUS packets.
C. This configuration allows bridging of VLANs 3 and 4.
D. The SSID is not visible for clients proting the wireless medium.
E. The administrator cannot access the AP via the web GUI using a secure connection.
F. The native VLAN must be VLAN 1 to match the native VLAN configured on the switch to which the AP is connecting.
400-351 vce Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 8
Which option is a feature of a Cisco Autonormous AP that prevents over-the-air direct P2P communication, which forces all traffic to hit the first-hop router where security policy is enforced?
A. Wi-Fi Direct Client Policy
B. P2P Secure Packet
C. Public Secure Packet Forwarding
D. P2P Blocking Action
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which statement about 802.11h is true?
A. DFS feature works irrespective of whether the channel setting on WLC is set to auto or manual.
B. 802.11h is not a mandatory standard under FCC regulations.
C. The FCC does not require 802.11h to be supported in the 5 GHz band.
D. When the radio detects a radar, it can use the channel for only 20 minutes at a time.
400-351 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
In a converged access deployment, which two statements about mobility agents are true? (Choose two.)
A. It maintains a client database of locally served clients.
B. It manages mobility-related configuration.
C. It handles RF functions.
D. It is the first level in the converged access hierarchy.
E. It is a mandatory element in the converged access design.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 11
Heartbeats are used to maintain the high-availability status of an application. Which factor is most important?
A. Bandwidth
B. Latency
C. Routing
D. Round-trip time
400-351 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
When a FlexConnect AP is in the “local authentication,local switching” state, it handles client authentication and switches client data packets locally. This state is valid in standalone mode and connected mode. Which three statements about a FlexConnect AP are true? (Choose three).
A. In connected mode, the AP provides minimal information about the locally authenticated client to the controller. This information is not available on the controller policy type. Access VLAN. VLAN name. supported rates. Encryption ciphter.
B. In connected mode, the access point provides minimal information about the locally authenticated client to the controller. However, this information is available to the controller policy type., access VLAN, VLAN name, supported rates, encryption cipher.
C. Local authentication is useful where you cannot maintain a remote office setup of a minimum bandwidth of 128 kbps with the round-trip latency no greater than 100 ms and the maximum transmission unit no smaller than 576 bytes.
D. Local authentication is useful where you cannot maintain a remote office setup of a minimum bandwidth of 128 kbps with the round-trip latency no greater than 150 ms and the maximum transmission unit no higher than 500 bytes.
E. Local authentication in connected mode does not require any WLAN configuration.
F. Local authentication can be enabled only on the WLAN of a FlexConnect AP that is in local switching mode.
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 13
400-351 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Your customer is testing native supplicant provisioning using Cisco ISE (192.168.1.2) and a Cisco WLC. The Cisco WLC has an ACL configured on it called onboarding. During the testing of many different client devices (Android,Apple,Windows) it appears that these devices are never redirected to the onboarding portal, though they can access the Internet. Which statement explains this behavior?
A. There is nothing wrong with ACL. The problem must exist either on the client side or on the configured ISE authorization profile.
B. The ISE ACLs have a permit statement. Redirection will not take place unless the ISE IP address is denied.
C. The ACL has a permit any at the end. Redirection does not take place unless the client hits a web site that gets denied.
D. The source and destination port in the ACL lines are not set up correctly.
400-351 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
You are setting up a Cisco access point in repeater mode with a non-Cisco access point as the parent and you use this interface configuration on your Cisco access point.
400-351 dumps
You are getting the following error message. Which reason for this issue is true?
400-351 dumps
A. “dot11 extension aironet” is missing under the interface Dot11Radio 0 interface
B. When repeater mode is used, unicast-flooding must be enabled to allow Aironet IE communications.
C. The parent AP MAC address has not been defined.
D. Repeater mode only works between Cisco access points.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
FlexConnect APs have already been deployed in a branch office for local switching. Currently the WLAN in the large auditorium is proposed to change to a high-density design and thus some low data rates are proposed to be disabled while keeping the data rates in other areas under the same Cisco WLC. Which two configuration settings must be modified in the Cisco WLC to achieve this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. RF Profiles
B. Mobility Groups
C. FlexConnect Groups
D. AP Groups
E. Fape profile.
400-351 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 16
400-351 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Which option describes what this sequence of commands achieves on a Cisco Autonomous AP?
400-351 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
You are a network administrator at ACME corporation where you have a pair of Cisco 5760 Wireless LAN Controllers deployed for HA AP SSO mode. A failover event occurs and the secondary Cisco 5760 controller moves into the active role. Which three statements about the failover event are true? (Choose three)
A. The new active controller does not need to relearn the shun list from IPS and other MCs, whch eliminates the need to redistribute it to the Mas.
B. Rogue APs and clients are not synced to the standby and are relearned upon switchover.
C. Switchover during AP preimage download causes the Aps to start image download all over again from the new active controller.
D. Netflow records are already exported upon switchover and collection starts resuming in the new active controller.
E. Witch SSO, wIPS information is already synced with the standby unit and this information need not be relearned upon switchover.
F. Upon guest anchor controller switchover, mobility tunnels stay active, Aps remain connected, clients rejoin at MA or MC, and clients are anchored on the new active controller.
400-351 exam Correct Answer: BCF

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 400-251 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-17)

QUESTION 1
Drag and drop the protocols on the left onto their descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
400-251 exam Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the desktop-security terms from the left onto their right definitions on the right?
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
Drag each OSPF security feature on the left to its description on the right.
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
Drag each step in the configuration of a cisco ASA NSEL export to a NETFLOW collector on the left into the correct order of operations on the right?
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Drag each IPsec term on the left to the definition on the right?
Select and Place:
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400-251 pdf Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Drag each Management Frame Protection feature on the Left to the function it performs on the right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop step in the flow of packets on a DMVPN network using GDOI on the left into the correct sequence on the right.
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Drag each attack type on the left to the matching attack category on the right.
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
Drag each field in authentication header on the left into the order in which it appears in the header on the right?
Select and Place:
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400-251 exam Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Drag each MACsec term on the left to the right matching statement on the right?
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Drag each IPv6 extension header on the left into the recommended order for more than one extension header In the same IPv6 pack
Select and Place:
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400-251 dumps Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Drag each step in the SCEP workflow on the left into the correct order of operations on the right?
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
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QUESTION 14
DRAG DROP
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 15
DRAG DROP
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QUESTION 16
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop ESP header field on the left to the appropriate field length on the right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 17
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop each RADIUS packet field on the left onto the matching description on the right.
Select and Place:
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400-251 exam Correct Answer:
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Exam Code: 400-251
Exam Name: CCIE Security Written Exam (v5.0)
Q&As: 385

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 300-070 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-21)

QUESTION 1
Which statement about the relationship between gateways and route groups is true?
A. Each gateway can belong to only one route group and can be listed only once within that route group.
B. Each gateway can belong to only one route group and can be listed multiple times within that route group.
C. Each gateway can belong to multiple route groups and can be listed only once within each route group.
D. Each gateway can belong to multiple route groups and can be listed multiple times within each route group.
300-070 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Which dial plan function is used to restrict calls that are made by a lobby phone to internal extensions only?
A. Path selection.
B. Endpoint addressing.
C. Manipulation of dialed destination.
D. Calling privileges.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 3
Which two are enterprise parameters? (Choose two.)
A. User search limit
B. T302 parameter
C. Enable Call Detail Records
D. Enable Dependency Records
E. codecs parameters for voice media-streaming applications
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 4
A user’s phone Call Forward No Answer setting has been configured to forward to a hunt pilot. If all call hunting options have been exhausted and the Forward Hunt No Answer feature has been configured to use Personal Preference settings, to which of these will calls to this phone be forwarded?
A. the default destination configured under Service Parameters
B. any destination configured under the user’s DN Personal Settings configuration
C. the destination specified under the user’s Call Forward No Coverage settings
D. voice mail
E. no other destination; each call will continue to ring until the caller hangs up
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can implement the personal preferences option. To do so, configure a user phone so that the Forward No Answer field redirects the call to a hunt pilot, which searches for someone else to answer the call. If call hunting fails because all the hunting options are exhausted or because a timeout period expires, the call can be sent to a personalized destination for the person who was originally called. For example, if you set the Forward No Coverage field in the Directory Number Configuration page to a voice-mail number, the call will be sent to the voice mailbox of that person if hunting fails.

QUESTION 5
Which three are functions of Cisco Unified Border Element? (Choose three.)
A. client registration
B. H.323 and SIP interworking
C. Lync interworking
D. transcoding
E. phone proxy
F. mobile and remote access
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which configuration output indicates a properly configured T1 digital voice interface?
A. controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zspri-group timeslots 1-24!
B. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zs!
C. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zspri-group timeslots 1-24isdn switch-type primary-ni!
D. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zs!dial-peer voice 1 potsdestination-pattern 54….direction-inward.dialport 0/0/0:23
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
Which option is the most highly recommended option to install Cisco TelePresence Conductor on the virtual machine?
A. Thick Provision Eager Zeroed
B. Thick Provision Lazy Zeroed
C. Thick Provision
D. Thin Provision
300-070 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 8
Callers inform you that they hear a second dial tone after dialing the number 4085550123. Which dial-peer configuration command resolves this issue?
A. answer-address 408555….
B. destination-pattern 91[2-9]..[2-9]…..
C. forward digits all
D. direct-inward dial
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 9
An organization has built their video infrastructure to perform ad hoc video calls, but they also need to conduct managed video conference calls. Which hardware component is needed to conduct these calls?
A. VCS-E
B. IOS gateway
C. MCU
D. TelePresence server
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 10
Which command is used to enter the DSP farm profile configuration mode?
A. dspfarm-profile 100 transcode
B. dspfarmprofile 100 transcode
C. dspfarm profile 100 transcode
D. dspfarm 100 profile transcode
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Refer to Exhibit:
300-070 dumps
If the user at extension 1001 dials the user at extension 2002, which dial peer is used to route the call?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 12
You are a Network Engineer at ABC Company. You want to ensure that when the contact center agent for the company makes an external call, the extension 897 654 300 is displayed. How do you resolve this issue?
A. Configure a Line Text Label on the Directory Number configuration page.
B. Configure an external phone number mask on the Directory Number configuration page.
C. Configure a translation pattern with the pattern 897654300.
D. Configure an external phone number mask on the Device configuration page.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 13
Which three CLI commands allow you to verify the correct VoIP dial-peer matching? (Choose three.)
A. debug ccsip messages
B. debug voip ccapi inout
C. debug dialpeer match
D. debug voip dialpeer inout
E. show dialplan number
300-070 exam Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit and configuration output.
300-070 dumps
A user in New York (5001) is trying to call a user in London (6001), but the call cannot be completed. Assuming that the WAN uplink is failing and the voice traffic has to go out toward the PSTN, which command do you need to add to dial peer to solve this issue?
dial-peer voice 3 pots
destination-pattern 6…
preference 1
port 0/0/0:23
dtmf-relay sip-notify
A. num-exp 512602 6001
B. prefix 757385
C. forward-digits 2
D. forward-digits 4
E. prefix 5126
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 15
Which two of these describe where phone services can appear on an IP phone and who can subscribe to phone services? (Choose two.)
A. end user
B. administrator
C. end user and administrator
D. Services button
E. Services and Directories buttons
F. Services, Directories, and Messages buttons
Correct Answer: CF
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
A Cisco Unified Communications Manager group is configured with the subscriber (10.1.5.3) listed first and the publisher (10.1.5.2) listed second. Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager is used for incoming calls through an MGCP gateway?
A. the publisher
B. both the publisher and subscriber in a round-robin format
C. the first server listed in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager group list
D. the subscriber
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 17
Which two of the following DSPs can be used in heterogeneous conferencing to achieve the required trans-sizing and transcoding functionality? (Choose two.)
A. PVDM3-256
B. PVDM2-256
C. PVDM-192
D. PVDM3-32
E. PVDM3-192
F. PVDM2-128
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Managers have asked to be able to have an extension call them back if it is busy when they try to call it. In what two places can this feature be assigned to the Managers phone? (Choose two.)
A. Device Settings > Softkey Template
B. Device Settings > Default Device Profile Configuration
C. Device Settings > Phone Button Template
D. Device Settings > Device Profile
E. Device Settings > Device Defaults
F. Device Settings > Firmware Load Information
300-070 exam Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 19
Which three elements are used to configure calling privileges? (Choose three)
A. Route pattern.
B. Calling search space.
C. Replica.
D. User.
E. Partition
F. Time schedule.
Correct Answer: BEF
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which two statements describe the function of the off-net option in a route pattern? (Choose two.)
A. The off-net option indicates that if a call is not routed through this route pattern, it is considered off the local network, or “off-net”.
B. This option could be used to block an external call from transferring to an internal party.
C. This option could be used to block an external call from transferring to an external party.
D. The off-net option indicates that if a call is routed through this route pattern, it is considered off the local network, or “off-net.”
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 21
What are two characteristics that are associated with the End User and User account types? (Choose two.)
A. They cannot use LDAP.
B. They are used to authorize applications.
C. They can utilize LDAP.
D. The Application is associated with the End User and User account types.
E. They can be listed in a directory.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

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Exam Code: 300-070
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0
Q&As: 211

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Awesome:
“This is my first time to sit a Cisco exam, so you will know how nervous I was! Thanks for your help, Kingexam! I passed. I think 95% questions are more or less the same as your guidance. Some questions with the answer are in the different sequence, and, sorry to point out that one answer of your questions is incorrect, I’ll email you to let you know, you guys need to revise it. Well, I think your kingexam’s guidance is still more accurate than others. The most important thing is I got passed?🙂?Paul Hussler”

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Free Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-697 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-15)

QUESTION 1
You are configuring two Windows 10 Enterprise client computers: A desktop computer named COMPUTER1 and a portable computer named COMPUTER2. You have the following requirements: You need to configure the computers to meet the requirements. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. From COMPUER2, connect to COMPUTER1 and configure the Data folder to always be available offline.
B. From COMPUTER1, connect to COMPUTER2 and configure the Data folder to always be available offline.
C. In Sync Center, configure a schedule for offline files.
D. From COMPUTER2, map a network drive to the Data folder onCOMPUTER1.
E. In Sync Center, set up a new sync partnership.
70-697 exam Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 2
You are an IT professional for a bank. All of the user’s files on the external drives are encrypted by using EFS. You replace a user’s computer with a new Windows 10 Enterprise computer. The user needs to connect her external hard drive to the new computer. You have the original computer’s certificate and key. You need to import the certificate and key onto the new computer. Into which certificate store should you import the certificate and key?
A. Untrusted Certificates
B. Trusted Root Certification Authorities
C. Personal
D. Trusted Publishers
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 3
You support Windows 10 Enterprise computers in a workgroup. You have configured a local AppLocker policy to prevent users from running versions of app.exe previous to v9.4. Users are still able to run app.exe. You need to block users from running app.exe by using the minimum administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Change the Application Identity service startup mode to automatic and start the service.
B. Configure enforcement for Windows Installed rules.
C. Configure a Software Restriction Policy publisher rule.
D. Run the GPupdate /force command in a relevant command prompt.
70-697 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft Intune subscription. You need to uninstall the Intune agent from a computer. What should you do?
A. From the Groups node in the Microsoft Intune administration portal, click Delete.
B. From the computer, run the provisioningutil.exe command.
C. From the computer, run the cltui.exe command.
D. From the computer, use Programs and Features in Control Panel.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer A is close but incorrect. You would need to select Retire/Wipe, not Delete.

QUESTION 5
You administer Windows 10 Enterprise tablets that are members of an Active Directory domain. Your company policy allows users to download and install only certain few Windows Store apps. You have created a new AppLocker Packaged Apps policy to help enforce the company policy. You need to test the new AppLocker Packaged Apps policy before you implement it for the entire company. What should you do?
A. Open PowerShell and run the Get–AppLockerPolicy –Effective cmdlet to retrieve the AppLocker effective policy.
B. Open Group Policy Management console and enforce the new AppLocker policy in Audit Only mode.
C. Open Group Policy Management console and run the Group Policy Modeling Wizard.
D. Open Group Policy Management console and run the Group Policy Results Wizard.
70-697 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All client computers run Windows 10 Enterprise and are joined to the domain. Corporate police prohibits homegroups on the corporate network.
You need to ensure that client computer network adapter settings do not support joining a homegroup.
What should you do?
A. Disable IPv6.
B. Disable IPv4.
C. Enable IPv6.
D. Enable IPv4.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
You have an unsecured wireless network for users to connect to from their personal Windows 10 devices. You need to prevent Wi-Fi Sense from sharing information about the unsecured wireless network. What should you do?
A. Configure the SSID of the unsecured wireless to contain _optout.
B. Instruct the users to disable Internet Protocol Version 6 (TCP/IPv6) on their wireless network adapters.
C. Configure the SSID of the guest wireless to be hidden.
D. Instruct the users to turn off Network Discovery on their devices.
70-697 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have an application named App1 installed on a computer named Computer1. Computer1 runs Windows 10. App1 saves data to %UserProfile%\App1\Data. You need to ensure that you can recover the App1 data if Computer1 fails. What should you configure?
A. share permissions
B. application control policies
C. Encrypting File System (EFS) settings
D. NTFS permissions
E. HomeGroup settings
F. Microsoft OneDrive
G. software restriction policies
H. account policies
Correct Answer: F
Explanation

QUESTION 9
You have a computer named Client1. Client1 is joined to an Active Directory domain. You need to join Client1 to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. What should you do first?
A. From the Local Group Policy Editor, modify the Add workstations to domain policy.
B. From the network adapter properties, modify the DNS suffix.
C. From System Control Panel, configure the computer to be a member of a workgroup.
D. From the System in the Settings app, modify the sign-in options.
70-697 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computers run Windows 10 Enterprise and Microsoft Office 2013. All of the computers are joined to the domain. Your company purchases a subscription to Office 365. An administrator creates an Office 365 account for each user and deploys a federated solution for Office 365. You need to prevent the users from being prompted for a user account and a password each time they access services from Office 365. Which account should you instruct the users to use when they sign in to their computer?
A. a Microsoft account
B. a local user account
C. an Office 365 account
D. a contoso.com account
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 11
You administer computers that run Windows 10 Enterprise and are members of an Active Directory domain. The computers are encrypted with BitLocker and are configured to store BitLocker encryption passwords in Active Directory. A user reports that he has forgotten the BitLocker encryption password for volume E on his computer. You need to provide the user a BitLocker recovery key to unlock the protected volume. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Ask the user for his computer name.
B. Ask the user to run the manage–bde –unlock E: –pw command.
C. Ask the user for his logon name.
D. Ask the user for a recovery key ID for the protected volume.
70-697 dumps Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: To view the recovery passwords fora computer you would need the computer name: In Active Directory Users and Computers, locate and then click the container in which the computer is located. Right-click the computer object, and then click Properties. In the Properties dialog box, click the BitLocker Recovery tab to view the BitLocker recovery passwords that are associated with the particular computer.

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have a computer that runs Windows 10 and is used by 10 users. The computer is joined to an Active Directory domain. All of the users are members of the Administrators group. Each user has an Active Directory account. You have a Microsoft Word document that contains confidential information. You need to ensure that you are the only user who can open the document. What should you configure?
A. account policies
B. application control policies
C. HomeGroup settings
D. software restriction policies
E. NTFS permissions
F. Microsoft OneDrive
G. share permissions
H. Encrypting File System (EFS) settings
Correct Answer: H
Explanation

QUESTION 13
A company has 100 Windows 10 Enterprise client computers. The client computers are members of a workgroup.
A custom application requires a Windows Firewall exception on each client computer. You need to configure the exception on the client computers without affecting existing firewall settings. Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run on each client computer?
A. Set–NetetFirewallRule
B. New–NetetFirewallRule
C. New–NetetIPSecMairModeRule
D. Set–NetetFirewallProfile
E. Set–NetetFirewallSetting
70-697 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
You administer Windows 10 Enterprise. Your network includes an Active Directory domain and a standalone server in a perimeter network that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. Your company purchases five new tablets that run Windows 8. The tablets will be used to access domain resources and shared folders located on the standalone server. You need to implement single sign-on (SSO) authentication for tablet users. You also need to ensure that you can audit personnel access to the shared folder. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create a new Microsoft account for each user.
B. Ensure that the local account for each user on the stand-alone server uses the same password as the corresponding Microsoft account.
C. Join the tablets to a domain.
D. Join the tablets to the same workgroup as the stand-alone server.
E. Enable a guest account on the stand-alone server.
F. On the stand-alone server, create user accounts that have the same logon names and passwords as the user domain accounts.
Correct Answer: CF
Explanation

QUESTION 15
You support Windows 10 Enterprise computers. Your company protects all laptops by using the BitLocker Network Unlock feature. Some employees work from home. You need to ensure that employees can log on to their laptops when they work from home. What should you do?
A. Have users run the Manage–bde.exe –unlock command before they disconnect from the company network.
B. Ensure that the Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chips in the laptops are version 1.2 or greater.
C. Enable BitLocker to Go.
D. Provide employees with their BitLocker PINs.
70-697 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam Code: 70-697
Exam Name: Configuring Windows Devices
Q&As: 186

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Do you want to take advantage of the actual Cisco 210-255 dumps test and save time and money while developing your skills to pass your Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations exam? Pass4isture first-hand Cisco 210-255 SECOPS dumps practice test with low price for CCNA Cyber Ops certification. 210-255 dumps, Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations exam is consists of different types of multiple choice questions and answers. The SECOPS 210-255 dumps exam is crucial to be prepared effectively that certifies the Cisco knowledge and skills of successful candidates. This exam is the second of the two required exams in achieving the associate-level CCNA Cyber Ops certification and prepares candidates to begin a career within a Security Operations Center (SOC), working with Cybersecurity Analysts at the associate level. The SECFND exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills needed to successfully handle the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of an associate-level Security Analyst working in a SOC. The course, Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations (SECOPS) v1.0, will help candidates prepare for this exam, as the content is aligned with the exam topics.

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Free Pass4itsure 210-255 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-20)

1. Given: John Smith often telecommutes from a coffee shop near his home. The coffee shop has an 802.11g access point with a captive portal for authentication. At this hotspot, John is susceptible to what types of WLAN attacks?
A. UDP port redirection
B. Wi-Fi phishing
C. Peer-to-peer
D. 802.11 reverse ARP
E. Eavesdropping/packet reassembly
F. Happy AP
210-255 exam Answer: BCE

2. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) allows a WLAN administrator to perform what network function?
A. Provide wireless network access to users through specific access points, based on their 802.11e priority level.
B. Allow access to specific files and applications based on the user’s IP subnet.
C. Allow specific user groups more bandwidth than others.
D. Allow simultaneous support of multiple EAP types on a single access point.
Answer: C

3. RFC 3748 specifies that the EAP-response/identity frame must comply with what criteria?
A. The EAP-response/identity frame must contain the user identity.
B. When TLS-tunneling mode is active, the EAP-response frame must have a blank user identity.
C. The EAP-response/identity frame must not contain a null identity value.
D. The user identity value must be hashed prior to insertion into the EAP-response identity frame.
210-255 dumps Answer: C

4. What option specifies how the 802.11i Group Handshake differs from the 4-Way Handshake?
A. The Group Handshake has four messages like the 4-Way Handshake, except when it is performed after a reauthentication when it exhibits only three messages.
B. The Group Handshake is a 4-Way Handshake, but does not contain EAPoL Key frames.
C. The Group Handshake requires 6 exchanges, including the TCP 3-Way handshake traffic.
D. The Group Handshake has only two messages instead of four.
E. The Group Temporal Key (GTK) is always part of the Group Handshake, but never part of the 4-Way Handshake.
Answer: D

5. Once strong authentication and encryption mechanisms are implemented and tested in a WLAN, what options are needed to maintain a secure WLAN?
A. VPN
B. Internet firewall
C. WIPS
D. Personal firewalls
E. LDAP
210-255 pdf Answer: CD

6. What protocols allow an administrator to securely transfer a new operating system image to a WLAN switch/controller?
A. SNMPv2c
B. HTTPS
C. SCP
D. TFTP
E.FTP
Answer: BC

7. Given: You manage a wireless network that services 100 wireless users. Your facility requires 7 access points, and you have installed an 802.11i-compliant implementation of 802.1X/LEAP (TKIP) as an authentication and encryption solution. In this configuration, the wireless network is susceptible to what type of attack?
A. Man-in-the-middle
B. Password dictionary
C. Layer 3 peer-to-peer
D. WEP cracking
E. Session hijacking
F. Eavesdropping
210-255 vce Answer: B

8. Given: Most of today’s lightweight (thin) access points support 802.3af and can be placed anywhere in the network infrastructure instead of directly connected to a WLAN switch/controller port. A lightweight access point can make what logical connection to its controller?
A. LLC port connection
B. GRE tunnel
C. RSVP protocol connection
D. HTTPS tunnel
E. Mobile IP connection
Answer: B

9. Given: ABC Company wants to install an 802.11g WLAN that supports fast roaming for 802.11b IP phones. A requirement is the ability to troubleshoot reassociations that are delayed or dropped during roaming. What is the most cost-effective system ABC Company can implement to meet the troubleshooting requirement?
A. WLAN protocol analyzer software on laptop computers
B. WLAN switch with integrated WIPS
C. WLAN switch with dual lightweight 802.11a/b/g radios
D. Autonomous (thick) access points with a WIDS overlay system
E. Hybrid WLAN switch with integrated RF planning tool
210-255 exam Answer: B

10. Given: This network diagram implements an 802.1X/EAP-based wireless security solution. What device functions as the EAP Authenticator?
A. LDAP database
B. Client computer
C. Access point
D. RADIUS server
E. Ethernet switch
Answer: C

11. For WIPS to describe the location of a rogue WLAN device, what requirement must be part of the WIPS installation?
A. The predictive site survey results must be imported into the WIPS.
B. A GPS system must be installed including the coordinates of the building’s corners.
C. All authorized AP radios must be placed in RF monitor mode so that the WIPS knows where the authorized APs are in relation to the WIPS sensors.
D. A graphical floor plan diagram must be imported into the WIPS.
210-255 dumps Answer: D

12. Given: XYZ Company has recently installed a WLAN switch and RADIUS server and needs to move authenticated wireless users from various departments onto their designated network segments. How should this be accomplished?
A. The RADIUS server coordinates with an authenticated DHCP server.
B. Manually map each wireless user’s MAC address to a VLAN number in the Ethernet switch.
C. Implement multiple 802.1Q VLANs in both the WLAN and Ethernet switches.
D. RADIUS will send a return list attribute with the GRE tunnel number to the WLAN switch.
E. The WLAN user must contact the network administrator at step 4 of the 802.1X/EAP authentication process to receive a network number.
Answer: C

13. Given: The Wi-Fi Alliance implemented TKIP as an upgrade to WEP as part of WPA. The illustration shows an expanded TKIP MPDU. What features were included in TKIP to enhance the security of WEP?
A. FCS
B. ICV
C. MIC
D. Extended IV
E. Encrypted PDU
210-255 pdf Answer: CD

14. Given: A new access point is connected to an authorized network segment and is detected by a WIPS. What does the WIPS apply to the new access point?
A. Default security policy
B. FIPS values
C. Site survey template
D. User property profile
E. Updated firmware
F. SNMP MIB
Answer: A

15. Given: Your company has just completed installation of a WLAN switch/controller with 10 lightweight (thin) access points. The Chief Security Officer has specified 802.11i compliant PEAPv0/EAP-MSCHAPv2 as the only authorized WLAN authentication and encryption scheme. Where must the x.509 server certificate reside in this network?
A. Supplicant devices
B. LDAP server
C. RADIUS server
D. WLAN switch/controller
E. Lightweight access points
210-255 vce Answer: AC

16. What wireless authentication technologies build a TLS-encrypted tunnel between the supplicant and the authentication server before passing client authentication credentials to the authentication server?
A. MS-CHAPv2
B. EAP-FAST
C. LEAP
D. PEAPv1/EAP-GTC
E. EAP-MD5
F. EAP-TTLS
Answer: DF

17. How does a wireless network management system (WNMS) discover WLAN usernames?
A. The WNMS finds the MAC address of the wireless client device in the authentication database and parses the username from the entry.
B. The WNMS polls access points using SNMP.
C. The client device sends the username to the WNMS on port 113 (ident service) after successful authentication.
D. The RADIUS server sends the username to the WNMS after the wireless device successfully authenticates.
E. The WNMS captures the username by sniffing the wireless network during the authentication process.
210-255 exam Answer: B

18. What is illustrated by this Wireless Intrusion Prevention System (WIPS)
A. 802.11a access points on channels 34, 38, 42, and 46
B. Wideband RF jamming attack
C. Only channels 9, 10, and 11 are enabled on the access point
D. An access point on channel 6
E. Use of channels 12-14 is not allowed
Answer: B

19. Given: A university is installing a WLAN switch/controller and one thousand 802.11a/g lightweight access points. In this environment, how should the WLAN switch/controller connect to the Ethernet network?
A. The WLAN switch/controller should connect between every Layer 3 distribution Ethernet switch and every Layer 2 access Ethernet switch by having one port in each VLAN.
B. The WLAN switch/controller should connect to the core Layer 3 switch via a gigabit (or faster) Ethernet segment.
C. The WLAN switch/controller should be connected between the Layer 3 core Ethernet switch/controller and the corporate Internet firewall using a 100 Mbps connection.
D. The WLAN switch/controller should connect to a Layer 3 distribution switch in a wireless VLAN using a gigabit (or faster) connection.
210-255 dumps Answer: B

20. What type of WLAN attack is illustrated on the 802.11 protocol analyzer screenshot?
A. Man-in-the-middle
B. Frame injection
C. RF jamming
D. Authentication flood
E. Hijacking
Answer: C
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Exam Code: 210-250
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Q&As: 80
Exam Website: https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-255.html

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Awesome
“This is my first time to sit a Cisco exam, so you will know how nervous I was! Thanks for your help, Kingexam! I passed. I think 95% questions are more or less the same as your guidance. Some questions with the answer are in the different sequence, and, sorry to point out that one answer of your questions is incorrect, I’ll email you to let you know, you guys need to revise it. Well, I think your kingexam’s guidance is still more accurate than others. The most important thing is I got passed 🙂 Paul Hussler”

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Free Pass4itsure 810-403 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-28)

QUESTION 1
According to Cisco and related to customers, which is the one and only outstanding reason and justification for business outcome-based sales approach?
A. Executives are interested in satisfying customers’ needs and requirements.
B. Managers and supervisors are committed to close the quality of service gap.
C. Stakeholders are interested in being considered when developing and assessing business outcomes.
D. Customers are interested in solutions and services that result in measurable outcomes.
810-403 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
RACI model aids can be used to understand specific aspects of stakeholders’ involvement in businesses. What does RACI stand for?
A. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
B. Reconciler, Accountable, Consulted, Independent
C. Responsible, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
D. Reconciler, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
E. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Influenced
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. Which is the goal of business outcomes?
A. To enable CXOs or Line of Business leaders to grow revenues, lower operating costs and achieve strategic business objectives
B. To help customers establish new technology or evolve current functionality
C. To help customers operate, manage and optimize technology environment more effectively
D. To take advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which two options are part of customer relationship management? (Choose two.)
A. Developing market research.
B. Moving the customer towards positive decisions about IT investments and initiatives
C. Classifying customer segments.
D. Identifying key stakeholders.

810-403 pdf Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
While troubleshooting a Sugar dashlet error in your web browser, you notice you are consistently receiving a 500 error in response to a particular REST API call. Which three actions would you perform to gain more insightinto the source of the problem?(Choose three.)
A. View the full list of browser cache contents.
B. View the Sugar log.
C. Visit status.sugarcrm.com to confirm there are no service outages.
D. Consult the Web server PHP error log.
E. Consult the JavaScript console in the Web browser.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 7
You are experiencing poor performance with your Sugar installation and want to install and configure Alternative PHP Cache (APC) and ensure it is enabled. Which two actions would help you achieve these goals? (Choose two.)
A. Install APC using the Sugar module loader and configure it from the Administration panel.
B. File a ticket with SugarCRM support requesting that APC be enabled for your instance.
C. Install the APC module from the PHP Extension Community Library (PECL) and configure it using the command line.
D. Verify the presence of the APC settings in the output of phpinfo().
810-403 vce Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
You examine a Sugar database and discover some table names that end with the moniker ~_c~. What do the database tables with these names represent?
A. custom field data for custom fields
B. custom field metadata for custom fields
C. relationship data for custom relationships
D. relationship metadata for stock and custom relationships
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
View the Exhibit.
A customization requires a developer to add a new profile action link to the MegaMenu shown in the exhibit.
  According to the Sugar Developer Guide, which directory should contain the customizations?
A. ~./custom/clients/base/views/profileactions/~
B. ~./custom/Extenslon/application/Ext/clients/base/views/profileactions/~
C. ~./custom/Extension/modules/Ext/clients/base/views/profileactions/~
D. ~./application/clients/base/views/profileactions/~
810-403 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
According to the Sugar Developer Guide, which class should be used to store and retrieve system settings stored at the database level?
A. SugarAutoLoader
B. Administration
C. Configurator
D. SugarApplication
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You are attempting to load a large custom package using Module Loader andit is failing. Which three configuration values should you verify? (Choose three.)
A. PHP upload_max_filesize setting
B. Sugar import_max_records_total_limit setting
C. Sugar upload_maxsize setting
D. PHP memory_limit setting
E. PHP post_max_size setting
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 12
You need to execute a call to the Sugar REST v10API from within a customized controller. According to the Sugar Developer Guide, what would be the recommended method toaccomplish this task?
A. ~app.api.getRequest( )~
B. ~callback( )~
C. ~app.api.call( )~
D. ~$.ajax( )~
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You are working on the RecordView for a given module. You examine the data values contained in this.model and notice a discrepancy between those values and the list of fields contained in record.php. Which statement pertaining to this.model is correct?
A. Only values from stock fields listed in record.php are available.
B. Only values from any of the fields listed in record.php are available.
C. Only values from custom fields listed in record.php are available.
D. Only values from link fields listed in record.php are available.
810-403 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
You are creating an Initial one-to-one relationship from the Accounts module to a custom module using studio, which database schema change will occur?
A. Table accounts_cstm is created or modified.
B. Table [custom_module]_cstm is created or modified.
C. Table accounts is modified.
D. A new relate table is created.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
While troubleshooting a customization, you initiate a debugger session and examine the Sidecar metadata. Which two components would you expect it to contain? (Choose two.)
A. layouts
B. global variables
C. views
D. event handler
810-403 vce Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 16
Which Sidecar component is nested within components of the same type?
A. field
B. layout
C. view
D. model
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
In which two directories do Sidecar enabled modules read theirsubpanel layouts? (Choose two.)
A. ~./modules/[module]/metadata/subpanels/default.php~
B. ~./custom/modules/[module]/Ext/Layoutdefs/layoutdefs.ext.php~
C. ~./modules/[module]/clients/base/layouts/subpanels/subpanels.php~
D. ~./custom/modules/[module]/Ext/clients/base/layouts/subpanels/subpanels.ext.php~
810-403 exam Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 18
Which Handlebars helper allows you to iterate over an array of objects?
A. models
B. for
C. foreach
D. each
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19 In the process of public key cryptography, which of the following is true?
A. Only the public key is used to encrypt and decrypt
B. Only the private key can encrypt and only the public key can decrypt
C. Only the public key can encrypt and only the private key can decrypt
D. The private key is used to encrypt and decrypt
E. If the public key encrypts, then only the private key can decrypt
810-403 dumps Answer: E

QUESTION 20. As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on Physical and Environmental Security?
A. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory, regulatory or contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance of systems with organizational security policies and standards.
B. The objectives of this section are to prevent unauthorized access, damage and interference to business premises and information; to prevent loss, damage or compromise of assets and interruption to business activities; to prevent compromise or theft of information and information processing facilities.
C. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for information security.
D. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to ensure that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized access to information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent unauthorized computer access.
Answer: B

QUESTION 21 During a one week investigation into the security of your network you work on identifying the information that is leaked to the Internet, either directly or indirectly. One thing you decide to evaluate is the information stored in the Whois lookup of your organizational website. Of the following, what pieces of information can be identified via this method?
A. Registrar

B. Mailing Address
C. Contact Name
D. Record Update
E. Network Addresses (Private)
810-403 pdf Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 22 You are aware of the significance and security risk that Social Engineering plays on your company. Of the following Scenarios, select those that, just as described, represent potentially dangerous Social Engineering:
A. A writer from a local college newspapers calls and speaks to a network administrator. On the call the writer requests an interview about the current trends in technology and offers to invite the administrator to speak at a seminar.
B. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the receptionist. On the call the caller asks the receptionist the normal business hours that the organization is open to the public.
C. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the purchaser of IT hardware and software. On the call the caller lists several new products that the purchaser may be interested in evaluating. The caller asks for a time to come and visit to demonstrate the new products.
D. An email, sent by the Vice President of Sales and Marketing, is received by the Help Desk asking to reset the password of the VP of Sales and Marketing.
E. An email is received by the Chief Security Officer (CSO) about a possible upgrade coming from the ISP to a different brand of router. The CSO is asked for the current network’s configuration data and the emailer discusses the method, plan, and expected dates for the rollover to the new equipment.
Answer: DE

QUESTION 23 During the review of the security logs you notice some unusual traffic. It seems that a user has connected to your Web site ten times in the last week, and each time has visited every single page on the site. You are concerned this may be leading up to some sort of attack. What is this user most likely getting ready to do?
A. Mirror the entire web site.
B. Download entire DNS entries.

C. Scan all ports on a web server.
D. Perform a Distributed Denial of Service attack through the Web server.
E. Allow users to log on to the Internet without an ISP.
810-403 vce Answer: A

QUESTION 24 What type of cipher is used by an algorithm that encrypts data one bit at a time?
A. 64-bit encryption Cipher
B. Block Cipher
C. Stream Cipher
D. Diffuse Cipher
E. Split Cipher
Answer: C

QUESTION 25 What encryption algorithm was selected to replace DES?
A. RC5
B. IDEA
C. AES
D. Blowfish
E. RSA
810-403 exam Answer: C

QUESTION 26 Which one of the following is an incorrect mod equation?
A. 9 mod 3 = 0
B. 40 mod 10 = 0
C. 40 mod 9 = 4
D. (6-1) mod 3 = 0
E. (2+4) mod 5 = 1
Answer: D

QUESTION 27 If you wish to change the permissions of a parent directory in your Linux system, and want the  permissions to be changed on the files and subdirectories in the parent directory to be the same, what switch must you use?
A. -G
B. -R
C. -P
D. -S
E. -F
810-403 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION 28 You are working with some new RPM files on your Linux system. You know there are several options when dealing with RPM files. Which of the following answers lists proper RPM commands, with the correct description of the command?
A. rpm -q <package name> This command performs software verification.
B. rpm -e <package name> This command removes the software.
C. rpm -v <package name> This command performs software verification.
D. rpm -r <package name> This command removes the software.
E. rpm -i <package name> This command installs the software.
F. rpm -in <package name> This command installs the software.
Answer: ABE

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Where do I get trusted Cisco dumps for 300-115? The Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (300-115 SWITCH) exam is a 120 minutes (30-40 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNP Routing and Switching, CCDP certification. Latest release Cisco SWITCH 300-115 dump exam question Youtube study guide free shared. “Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 300-115 dump test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 300-115 exam. CCNP Routing and Switching SWITCH https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-115.html dump guide from Pass4itsure enables you to succeed on the exam the first time and is the only self-study resource approved by Cisco.

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Free Pass4itsure 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 33 A switch is added into the production network to increase port capacity. A network engineer is configuring the switch for DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard, but is unable to configure ip verify source under several of the interfaces. Which option is the cause of the problem?
A. The local DHCP server is disabled prior to enabling IP Source Guard.
B. The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.
C. No VLANs exist on the switch and/or the switch is configured in VTP transparent mode.
D. The switch is configured for sdm prefer routing as the switched database management template.
E. The configured SVIs on the switch have been removed for the associated interfaces.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34 Which command correctly configures standby tracking for group 1 using the default decrement priority value?
A. standby 1 track 100
B. standby 1 track 100 decrement 1
C. standby 1 track 100 decrement 5
D. standby 1 track 100 decrement 20
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35 Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36 RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch. Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.

B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch isoverloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37 Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, localusername, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38 You are giving the debug RHCT exam. The examiner told you that the password of root is redhat. When you tried to login displays the error message and redisplayed the login screen. You changed the root password, again unable to login as a root. How will you make Successfully Login as a root.
Answer and Explanation:
When root unable to login into the system think:
1. Is password correct?
2. Is account expired?
3. Is terminal Blocked?
Do these Steps:
. Boot the System on Single user mode.
. Change the password
. Check the account expire date by using chage -l root command.
If account is expired, set net expire date: chage -E “NEVER” root
1. Check the file /etc/securetty Which file blocked to root login from certain terminal.
2. If terminal is deleted or commented write new or uncomment.
3. Reboot the system and login as a root.
QUESTION 39 You are giving RHCT Exam and in your Exam paper there is a written, make successfully ping to 192.168.0.254.
300-115 vce Answer and Explanation:
In Network problem thinks to check:
1. IP Configuration: use ifconfig command either IP is assigned to interface or not?

2. Default Gateway is set or not?
3. Hostname is set or not?
4. Routing problem is there?
5. Device Driver Module is loaded or not?
6. Device is activated or not?
Check In this way:
1. use ifconfig command and identify which IP is assigned or not.
2. cat /etc/sysconfig/network What, What is written here. Actually here are these parameters.
NETWORKING=yes or no
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
HOSTNAME=?
NISDOMAIN=?
– Correct the file
QUESTION 40 Use vi /etc/sysconfig/network-scirpts/ifcfg-eth0 and check the proper options
DEVICE=eth0
ONBOOT=yes
BOOTPROTO=static
IPADDR=x.x.x.x
NETMAKS=x.x.x.x
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
QUESTION 41  Set the Hostname station?.example.com where ? is your Host IP Address.
300-115 exam Answer and Explanation:
1. hostname station?.example.com This will set the host name only for current session. To set hostname permanently.
2. vi /etc/sysconfig/network HOSTNAME=station?.example.com
3. service network restart

QUESTION 42 The System you are using is for NFS (Network File Services). Some important data are shared from your system. Make automatically start the nfs and portmap services at boot time.
Answer and Explanation:
We can control the services for current session and for next boot time also. For current Session, we use service servicename start or restart or stop or status. For automatically on next reboot time:
1. chkconfig servicename on or off
eg: chkconfig nfs on chkconfig portmap on or ntsysv Select the nfs and portmap services.
2. Reboot the system and identify whether services are running or not.

QUESTION 43
Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?
A. Control Quality
B. Control Scope
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule
compared to the contract is known as:
A. Work performance information.
B. Inspections and audits.
C. Payment systems.
D. Procurement performance reviews.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?
A. Project Communications Management
B. Project Integration Management
C. Project Risk Management
D. Project Scope Management
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate
Costs process?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk register
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
A. Organizational process assets.
B. Enterprise environmental factors updates.
C. Project staff assignments.
D. Organizational charts and position descriptions.
300-115 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete
project activities is known as:
A. Plan Human Resource Management.
B. Acquire Project Team.
C. Manage Project Team.
D. Develop Project Team.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
Which item is an example of personnel assessment?
A. Resource calendar
B. Tight matrix
C. Team-building activity
D. Focus group
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Initiating
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 51
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can
best be involved in a project?
A. Feedback analysis
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Communication management plan
D. Stakeholder management plan
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected
product before actually building is known as:
A. Benchmarking.
B. Context diagrams.
C. Brainstorming.
D. Prototyping.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 53
Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?
A. Power/influence grid
B. Power/interest grid
C. Influence/impact grid
D. Salience model
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?
A. Facilitation techniques
B. Expert judgment
C. Analytical techniques
D. Variance analysis
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?
A. Control charts
B. Pareto diagrams
C. Ishikavva diagrams

D. Checksheets
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:
A. Collect Requirements.
B. Conduct Procurements.
C. Estimate Activity Durations.
D. Estimate Activity Resources.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?
A. Procurement documents
B. Communications plan
C. Project charter
D. Stakeholder register
300-115 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Executing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:
A. Business case.
B. Activity list.
C. Project management plan.
D. Cost forecast.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?
A. Change request
B. Requirements documentation
C. Scope baseline
D. Risk urgency assessment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?
A. Control Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Identify Risks
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:
A. Nominal group technique.
B. Majority.
C. Affinity diagram.
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:
A. mitigate
B. accept
C. transfer
D. avoid
300-115 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:
A. A process improvement plan,
B. Quality control measurements.
C. Work performance information,
D. The project management plan.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 65
A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:
A. Change control plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Risk log
D. Communications management plan
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?
A. Enhance
B. Share
C. Exploit
D. Accept
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:
A. Expert judgment.
B. Analytical techniques.
C. Earned value management.
D. Group decision-making techniques.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?
A. Timing
B. Methodology
C. Risk categories
D. Budgeting
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?
A. Negative
B. Zero
C. Positive
D. Free
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
A reward can only be effective if it is:
A. Given immediately after the project is completed.
B. Something that is tangible.
C. Formally given during project performance appraisals.
D. Satisfying a need valued by the individual.
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and
analysis?
A. Nominal group technique
B. Idea/mind mapping
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 73
Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and
complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement
for a current project describes which type of estimating?
A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric
C. Analogous
D. Three-point
300-115 exam Correct Answer: C
300-115 dumps

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Latest Questions 3M0-300 exam dumps _v2011-11-09_55q_By-Ned

this dump good luck By-Ned Exam A QUESTION 1
Which of the following routers supports version 2.41 router code?
A. 5231
B. 5232
C. 5640
D. 5680
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a standard port available on the Router 5012?
A. ISDN
B. Console
C. Serial WAN
D. 10/100 Ethernet

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
True or False: The Flexible Interface Cards (FICs) in the Router 6040 can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
True or False: The RPU can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
What kind of modules does the Router 5232 use?
A. SICs only
B. MIMs only
C. SICs and MIMs
D. SICs and FICs

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
Which of the following modules is a daughter card that fits onto the RPU2?
A. ATM
B. Enhanced Serial
C. Encryption Card
D. Memory Expansion Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
How many FIC slots does a Router 6040 have?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
Which of the following features is available on both the RPU and the RPU2?
A. SFP Interface Slot
B. CF Memory Card slot
C. Gigabit Ethernet Interfaces
D. Power and Fan LED indicators

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
What does it indicate if the LEDs on the Power Supply of the Router 6000 are as follows? ALM (red) – OFF RUN (green) ON
AC OK (red) – ON
A. Power is OFF or has failed
B. A Runtime error has occurred
C. Power is ON and voltage is normal
D. Power is ON but operating voltage is not within acceptable range

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
True or False, The Router 6080 Fans have two rotational speeds.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
True or False: The RPU2 can support a daughter card.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which of the following Network Management applications does NOT support the Router 5000/6000?
A. Enterprise Management Suite
B. 3Com Network Director Firewall
C. Router Manager
D. Switch Manager

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
The default baud rate for the Router 6040 is 9600 bps. What are the other settings?
A. 7 data bits, 2 stop bits, Even Parity
B. 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, Even Parity
C. 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, No Parity
D. 8 data bits, 0 stop bits, No Parity

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
At which prompt will you receive an error if you entered the command Interface Serial 0/0?
A. <Router>
B. [Router]
C. [Router-ospf-1]
D. [Router-Eth 1/0]

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Which command will reset the router to factory defaults?
A. undo start
B. reset start
C. reset to factory
D. reset saved-configuration

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Which interface/command shows the correct syntax to configure an IP address on a serial interface of the router 5012 on slot 1 port 0?
A. [RTA-Serial 1/0] ip interface10.1.3.1 24
B. [RTA-Serial 0/1] ip address 10.1.3.1 24
C. [RTA-Serial 1/0/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24
D. [RTA-Serial 0/1/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements is true about Router 5000/6000 series routers, with regard to TFTP?
A. They can be TFTP clients only
B. They can be TFTP servers only
C. They can be either TFTP clients or TFTP Servers
D. They do not support TFTP

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
True or False, The Router 6000 series routers have boot code and main code to upgrade while the 5000 Series Routers only have main code to upgrade.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
In a Router 5012, which command lists the files in a directory?
A. ls
B. dir
C. show list
D. display directory

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20
In the command delete /unreserved name2.bin What does /unreserved specify
A. to hide the file so that it looks deleted
B. to store the file in the recycle bin after deleting
C. to delete the file and not add it to the recycle bin
D. to perform the command immediately and not to queue the operation

Correct Answer: C

 

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Free Pass4itsure 700-260 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 1
Increased employee productivity, confidence in data confidentiality, and increased visibility are features that demonstrate which Cisco business value?
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Protection
C. Control
D. Flexibility
E. Completeness
700-260 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which licensing feature enables customers to better manage their software assets and optimize their IT spending?
A. Cisco ONE
B. Smart Accounts
C. Enterprise License Agreements
D. License Bundling
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which Cisco network security solution helps protect against threats by monitoring and responding to any network anomalies, continually analyzing for potential threats and reacting to them in real time?
A. Cisco Security Manager
B. Cisco ASA Firewall Services
C. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
D. Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
E. Cisco Web Security Appliance
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance
G. Cisco Identity Services Engine
H. Cisco Site-to-Site VPN
700-260 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Identity Services Engine
D. Cisco Security Manager
E. Cisco TrustSec
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Upon which component are security solutions directly built in the Cisco future solutions architecture framework?
A. Security intelligence operations
B. Third-party applications

C. Management and intelligence capabilities
D. Cisco security platforms
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
At which point during the attack continuum does a customer experience limited remediation tools?
A. Across the entire continuum
B. During
C. Before
D. After
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which technology solution can resolve the inability of a customer to properly restrict and authorize access to protected resources while still introducing new applications, devices, and business partnerships?
A. Cisco Secure Data Center
B. Cisco Cyber Threat Defense
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Cloud
E. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure
F. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
700-260 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Utilizing the Cisco software lifecycle generates which two benefits for partners? (Choose two.)
A. Adaptable deployment
B. Software portability
C. Improved sales performance
D. Cisco incentives
E. Increased efficiencies
F. Sales promotions
G. Customer support
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 9
Which Cisco security benefit is a differentiator that allows partners to plan and model their businesses?
A. Comprehensive vision for security
B. One solution to fit every need
C. Unparalleled commitment
D. Lowest price points
E. Best-in-class technologies
700-260 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What is the primary customer challenge that is created by the wide variety of security solution providers on
the market?
A. Choosing the right provider

B. Contacting all providers for information
C. Finding a low-cost option
D. Determining the single best security product
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Automatic updates and post-attack guidance are features that demonstrate which Cisco business value?
A. Completeness
B. Cost effectiveness
C. Flexibility
D. Control
E. Protection
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
End-to-end protection and protection across the attack continuum are features that demonstrate which two Cisco business values? (Choose two.)
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Protection
C. Control
D. Flexibility
E. Completeness
700-260 dumps Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 13
The unmatched security that Cisco offers is demonstrated by its long-standing experience in which two
options? (Choose two.)
A. Mobile solutions
B. Networks
C. Software
D. Security
E. Devices
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 14
Click the exhibit button.
Given the diagram in the exhibit, what would be the correct static route configuration on the router on the right, if it is an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. config> static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.1.2.2
B. config>router> static-route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 next-hop 10.1.2.1
C. config>router> static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.1.2.2
D. config>router> static-route 0 0.0 0/0 next-hop 10.1.2.1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements regarding link state protocols are true? (Choose two)
A. When a router receives updates from its neighbors, it adds them to its link state database, performs an SPF computation, and sends the results to its neighbors.
B. An SPF computation is done by each router to determine the best path to destination networks. All the best paths determined by the SPF calculation will be seen in the route table.
C. Each router constructs its own link state database with updates received from neighbors.
D. An SPF computation is done by each router to determine the best path to destination networks. All the
best paths determined by the SPF calculation will be offered to the route table manager.
700-260 vce Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 16
Which of the following OSPFv3 LSAs have an AS scope?
A. Link Local LSA
B. Router LSA
C. Network LSA
D. Inter-Area Router LSA
E. Intra-Area Prefix LSA
F. None of the above LSAs have an AS scope.
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 17
An operator configures an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR with a loopback interface and IPv6 address. The
operator then configures a routing policy to redistribute the loopback prefix into OSPFv3. What type of LSA
is used to advertise the route to other OSPFv3 routers in the same area?
A. Router LSA
B. AS External LSA
C. Intra-Area Prefix LSA
D. Inter-Area Prefix LSA
E. Network LSA
F. None of the statements are correct.
700-260  exam Correct Answer: B

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Q&As: 828

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400-101 dumps

Free Pass4itsure 400-101 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 1
Which statement about a type 4 LSA in OSPF is true?
A. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR,that is flooded throughout the AS,and that describes a route to the ASBR.
B. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR,that is flooded throughout the AS,and that describes a route to the ABR.
C. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR,that is flooded throughout the AS,and that describes a route to the ASBR.
D. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR,that is flooded throughout the area,and that describes a route to the ASBR.
E. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR,that is flooded throughout the area,and that describes a route to the ASBR.
Pass4itsure 400-101 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which ISAKMP feature can protect a GDOI from a hacker using a network sniffer while a security
association is established?
A. An ISAKMP phase 1 security association
B. An ISAKMP phase 2 security association
C. The Proof of Possession(POP)
D. A ISAKMP phase 2 GROUPKEY-PUSH exchange
E. An ISAKMP phase 2 GROUPKEY-PULL exchange
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which three statements about Ansible are true? {Choose three.)
A. Ansible by default manages remote machines over SSL.
B. No ports other than the SSH port are required ; there is no additional PKI infrastructure to maintain.
C. Ansible requires remote agent software.
D. Ansible by default manages remote machines over SSH.
E. Ansible does not require specific SSH keys or dedicated users.
F. Ansible requires server software running on a management machine.
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which statement is true about conditional advertisements?
A. Conditional advertisements create routes when a predefined condition is met.
B. Conditional advertisements create routes when a predefined condition is not met.

C. Conditional advertisements delete routes when a predefined condition is met.
D. Conditional advertisements create routes and withhold them until a predefined condition is met.
E. Conditional advertisements do not create routes, they only withhold them until a predefined condition is met.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which two options are benefits of moving the application development workload to the cloud?(Choose two.)
A. The application availability is not affected by the loss of a single virtual machine.
B. The workload can be moved or replicated easily.
C. it provides you full control over the software packages and vendor used.
D. :High availability and redundancy is handled by the hypervisor.
E. it provides a more secure environment.
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which two statements about DMVPN with NHRP are true? (Choose two)
A. NHRP shortens the configuration of the hub router.
B. NHRP dynamically provides information about the spoke routers to the hub.
C. NHRP disables multicast
D. The hub router uses NHRP to initiate the GRE tunnel with spokes.
E. The spoke routers act as the NHRP servers.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 7
When is it useful to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface?
A. Disable it when you want to provide additional backup paths in your network.
B. Disable it when you want to send routes that are learned from another routing protocol to peer on the same interface.
C. Disable it when you need to send updates to peers on the interface on which the updates were received.
D. It is never advisable to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface.
400-101 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 8

400-101 dumps

Refer to the exhibit. Which two route types advertised by a router with this configuration? (Choose two)
A. connected
B. summary
C. static
D. redistributed
E. external
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which feature can you implement to most efficiently protect customer traffic in a rate-limited WAN Ethernet service?
A. IntServ with RSVP
B. DiffServ
C. Q-in-Q
D. The IPsec VTI qos pre-classify command
E. HCBWFQ
400-101 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label information table
C. the label forwarding information base
D. the IP routing table
E. the adjacency table
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Which command can you enter to allow a multicast-enabled router to advertise itself to the BSR router as PIMv2 c-RP?
A. ip pim autorp listener
B. ip pim send-rp-announce
C. ip pim rp-candidate
D. ip pim rp-address
E. ip pim send-rp- discovery
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding are true? (Choose two)
A. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when distributed Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
B. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the adjacency table.
C. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
D. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the FIB table.
E. The FIB table resides on the route processor and the adjacency table resides on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION NO: 13
Given the following formula in a calculation field that returns a Text result: Let (tmp = “2 * 5” ; Evaluate (Quote (tmp)))
What will be returned?
A. The value 10
B. The value tmp
C. The value 2 *5
D. The value “10”, quotes included
E. The value “tmp”, quotes included
F. The value “2 * 5”, quotes included
400-101 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
Given the following formula;
Substitute (“JoHn” ; [“J” ; “0”] ; [“0” ; “H”] ; [“H” ; “N”] ; [“N” ; “n”]) What is the result?
A. nonn
B. nnnn
C. OoNn
D. OHNn
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 15
Given a text field myText that contains “red-blue-green”, which two formulas could be used to extract the word “blue” from the field? (Choose two.)
A. Filter(myText ; “blue”)
B. MiddleWords(myText; 2 ; 2)
C. PatternMatch(myText ; “blue”)
D. GetValue(Substitute { myText ; “-” ; “¶” ); 2)
E. Middle(myText; Position(myText ; “-” ; 1 ; 1)+ 1 ; 4)
400-101 vce Answer: D,E
Explanation:

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Exam Name: Designing and Implementing Big Data Analytics Solutions
Q&As: 42

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Free Pass4itsure 70-475 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION NO: 104
An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to suffer. What imbalance does this represent?
A. Excessive focus on quality
B. Excessively reactive
C. Excessively proactive
D. Excessive focus on cost
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 105
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfillment?
A. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
C. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested
D. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
70-475 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 106
What is the definition of an Alert?
A. An error message to the user of an application
B. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
C. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
D. A type of Incident
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 107

Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services”. These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following?
A. Functions and Processes
B. Markets and Customers
C. Applications and Infrastructure
D. People, products and technology
70-475 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 108
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?
A. Business Relationship Management
B. Continual Service Improvement
C. Service Level Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 109
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
B. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
C. The definition of Process Control is “The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice”
D. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business objectives
70-475 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 110
How is the Service Catalogue used to add value to the service provider organization?
A. Providing a central source of information on the IT services delivered
B. Showing the business impact of a change
C. Displaying the relationships between configuration items
D. To predict the root cause of issues in the IT infrastructure
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 111
Which process is responsible for monitoring an IT Service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits?
A. Service Level Management
B. Performance Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Event Management
70-475 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 112
In many organizations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk. It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:
A. Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line
B. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
C. Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line
D. Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 113
Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute is?
A. Whether to buy an application or build it
B. Should application development be outsourced
C. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be
D. Where the vendor of an application is located
70-475 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 114
Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2. What services to offer and to whom?
3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. All of the above
D. 3 only
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 115
Removing or restricting rights to use an IT Service is the responsibility of which process?
A. Access Management
B. Incident Management
C. Request Fulfillment
D. Change Management
70-475 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 116
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. Delivers specific results
B. A method of structuring an organization
C. Responds to specific events
D. It is measurable
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 117
Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
A. Applications and Infrastructure
B. Services and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
70-475 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 118
Staff in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?
A. Extreme internal focus
B. Extreme focus on cost
C. Extreme focus on responsiveness
D. Vendor focused
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 119
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. Delivers specific results
B. Responds to specific events
C. It is measurable
D. A method of structuring an organization
70-475 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 120
Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in a Network Operations Centre?
A. IT Operations Management
B. Applications Management
C. Service Desk
D. Technical Management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 121
Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?
A. Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts.
B. Development, negotiation and agreement of Organizational Level Agreements
C. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements.
D. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Portfolio
70-475 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 122
Which of the following areas would not be supported by a Service Design tool?
A. Software design
B. Process design
C. Environment design
D. Strategy design
70-475 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 123
Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?
A. Governance
B. Service Level Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Service Strategy
Answer: B

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QUESTION 51
An internal auditor for a large automotive parts retailer wishes to perform a risk analysis and wants to use an appropriate statistical tool to help identify stores that
would be out of line compared to the majority of stores. The most appropriate statistical tool to use is:
A. Lineartime series analysis.
B. Cross-sectional regression analysis.
C. Cross tabulations with chi-square analysis of significance

D. Time series multiple regression analysis to identify changes in individual stores over time.
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Time series data pertain to a given entity over a number of prior time periods. Cross-sectional data, however, pertain to different entities for a given time period or
at a given time. Thus, cross-sectional regression analysis is the most appropriate statistical tool because it compares attributes of all stores’ operating statistics at
one moment in time.
QUESTION 52
What coefficient of correlation results from the following data?
A. 0
B. -1
C. +1
D. Cannot be determined from the data given.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The coefficient of correlation (in standard notation, r) measures the strength of the linear relationship. The magnitude of ris independent of the scales of
measurement of x and y. Its range is -1 to +1. A value of -1 indicates a perfectly inverse linear relationship between x and y. A value of zero indicates no linear
relationship between x and y. A value of 1 indicates a perfectly direct relationship between x and y As x increases by 1, y consistently decreases by 2. Hence, a
perfectly inverse relationship exists, and r must be equal to -1.
QUESTION 53
In regression analysis, which of the following correlation coefficients represents the strongest relationship between the independent and dependent variables?
A. 1.03
B. -.02
C. -.89
D. .75
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Because the range of values is between-1 and 1.-89 suggests a very strong inverse relationship between the independent and dependent variables. A value of –1
signifies a perfect inverse relationship, and a value of 1 signifies a perfect direct relationship.
QUESTION 54
The following data on variables x and y was collected from June to October.
The correlation coefficient between variables x and y is nearest to:
A. 1.0
B. -1.0
C. 0.5
D. 0.0
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The simplest way to solve this problem is to use a scatter diagram:

The data points appear to form a straight line with a negative slope. Thus,-1 is the best estimate of the coefficient of correlation.
QUESTION 55
The correlation coefficient that indicates the weakest linear association between two variables is:
A. -0.73
B. -0.11
C. 0.12
D. 0.35
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The correlation coefficient can vary from -1 to +1. A–1 relationship indicates a perfect inverse correlation, and a +1 relationship indicates a perfect direct
correlation. A zero correlation coefficient indicates no linear association between the variables. Thus, the correlation coefficient that is nearest to zero would
indicate the weakest linear association. Of the options given in the question, the correlation coefficient that is nearest to zero is -0.11.
QUESTION 56
Correlation is a term frequently used in conjunction with regression analysis and is measured by the value of the coefficient of correlation, r. The best explanation
of the value r is that it:
A. Is always positive.
B. Interprets variances in terms of the independent variable.
C. Ranges in size from negative infinity to positive infinity.
D. Is a measure of the relative relationship between two variables.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The coefficient of correlation (r) measures the strength of the linear relationship between the dependent and independent variables. The magnitude of r is
independent of the scales of measurement of xand y. The coefficient has a range of-1 to +1. A value of zero indicates no linear relationship between the x and y
variables. A value of+1 indicates a perfectly direct relationship, and a value of –1 indicates a perfectly inverse relationship.
QUESTION 57
In preparing the annual profit plan for the coming year.
Based upon the data derived from the regression analysis, 420 maintenance hours in a month would mean the maintenance costs (rounded to the nearest US
dollar) would be budgeted at:
A. US$3,780
B. US$3,600
C. US$3,790
D. US$3,746
200-155  vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Substituting the given data into the regression equation results in a budgeted cost of US $3,746 (rounded to the nearest US dollar).
y=a + bx
= 684.65 + 7.2884(420)
= US $3,746
Answer:
QUESTION 58
In preparing the annual profit plan for the coming year.
What is the percentage of the total variance that can be explained by the regression equation?
A. 99.724%
B. 69.613%
C. 80.982%
D. 99.862%
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The coefficient of determination (r2) measures the percentage of the total variance in cost that can be explained by the regression equation. If the coefficient of
determination is .99724,99.724% of the variance is explained by the regression equation. Thus, the values in the regression equation explain virtually the entire
amount of total cost.
QUESTION 59
The internal auditor of a bank has developed a multiple regression model that has been used for a number of years to estimate the amount of interest income from
commercial loans. During the current year, the auditor applies the model and discovers that the r2 value has decreased dramatically, but the model otherwise
seems to be working.
Which of the following conclusions is justified by the change?
A. Changing to a cross-sectional regression analysis should cause r2to increase.
B. Regression analysis is no longer an appropriate technique to estimate interest income.
C. Some new factors not included in the model are causing interest income to change.
D. A linear regression analysis would increase the model’s reliability.
200-155  exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The coefficient of determination (r2) is the amount of variation in the dependent variable (interest income) that is explained by the independent variables. In this
case, less of the change in interest income is explained by the model. Thus, some other factor must be causing interest income to change.
This change merits audit investigation.

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Exam Name: Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions
Q&As: 205

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Question No : 39 A company has an Azure subscription with four virtual machines (VM) that are provisioned in an availability set. The VMs support an existing web service. The company expects additional demand for the web service. You add 10 new VMs to the environment.
You need to configure the environment. How many Update Domains (UDs) and Fault Domains (FDs) should you create?
A. 2 UDs and 5 FDs
B. 5 UDs and 2 FDs
C. 14 UDs and 2 FDs
D. 14 UDs and 14 FDs
70-533 exam Answer: B
Question No : 40 You administer an Azure solution that uses a virtual network named FabVNet. FabVNet
has a single subnet named Subnet-1. You discover a high volume of network traffic among four virtual machines (VMs) that are part of Subnet-1. You need to isolate the network traffic among the four VMs. You want to achieve this goal with the least amount of downtime and impact on users. What should you do?
A. Create a new subnet in the existing virtual network and move the four VMs to the new subnet.
B. Create a site-to-site virtual network and move the four VMs to your datacenter.
C. Create a new virtual network and move the VMs to the new network.
D. Create an availability set and associate the four VMs with that availability set.
Answer: C
Question No : 41 Your company network includes users in multiple directories. You plan to publish a software-as-a-service application named SaasApp1 to Azure Active Directory. You need to ensure that all users can access SaasApp1. What should you do?
A. Configure the Federation Metadata URL
B. Register the application as a web application.
C. Configure the application as a multi-tenant.
D. Register the application as a native client application.
70-533 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
* When you get deeper into using Windows Azure Active Directory, you’ll run into new
terminology. For instance, is called “directory” is also referred to as a Windows Azure AD
Tenant or simply as “tenant.” This stems from the fact that WAAD ()Windows Azure Active
Directory is a shared service for many clients. In this service, every client gets its own
separate space for which the client is the tenant. In the case of WAAD this space is a
directory. This might be a little confusing, because you can create multiple directories, in
WAAD terminology multiple tenants, even though you are a single client.
* Multitenant Applications in Azure
A multitenant application is a shared resource that allows separate users, or “tenants,” to
view the application as though it was their own. A typical scenario that lends itself to a
multitenant application is one in which all users of the application may wish to customize
the user experience but otherwise have the same basic business requirements. Examples
of large multitenant applications are Office 365, Outlook.com, and visualstudio.com.
References:
QUESTION 42
In a master-detail relationship, what happens to the child records if the parent record is deleted?
A. Parent record deletion fails.
B. Child records are not deleted.
C. A subset of the child records is deleted.
D. Child records are deleted.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
Which action is available to a developer when two objects are connected by a lookup relationship? Choose
2 answers
A. create a roll-up summary field on the parent object to count child records
B. create a custom report type that allows customization of fields displayed from both parent and child
objects
C. create a cross-object formula field on the child object to reference fields on the parent object
D. create a cross-object formula field on the parent object to reference fields on the child object
70-533 pdf Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 44
Universal Containers tracks Positions as a custom object in a recruiting application. All positions with a
priority of critical should NOT be open for more than two weeks. If a position remains open for more than
14 days, the priority should be re-examined.
How would a developer automate this process?
A. Create a workflow action to clone the position, assigned to the owner of the position record, that is due
14 days after record creation
B. Create a validation rule that compares today’s date and the record’s creation date to determine if the
difference is greater than 14 days
C. Recreate a time-dependent workflow action that sends an email to the recruiter if the position is still
open 14 days after record creation
D. Create a time-dependent workflow action that updates the position status to Closed 14 days after
record creation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Given a three tier model (UI layer, business logic layer, data layer), which feature of the Force.com
platform is associated with the data layer? Choose 3 answers
A. Custom applications
B. Custom relationships
C. Custom fields
D. Custom objects
E. Custom tabs
70-533 vce Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 46
What is a Junction object?
A. A standard object with a master-detail relationship
B. A custom object with two master-detail relationships
C. A standard object with two master-detail relationships
D. A custom object with a master-detail relationship
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
A developer would like to enable end users to filter the data displayed on the related list of an object detail
page. How could a developer accomplish this?
A. Enable Advanced Search on the object’s related list
B. Customize the search filter fields layout for that object
C. Create a Visualforce page to replace the object detail view
D. Configure the object’s related list to add a filter
70-533 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
Hiring managers at Universal Containers would like a visual mechanism for determining review score
outliers. Review scores are captured as a custom field on a custom Review object and can range from l to
10. Any review score that is > 8 should be highlighted in green.
Any review score that is < 4 should be highlighted In red.
How would a developer accomplish this?
A. Use custom summary formulas
B. Use matrix reports
C. Use charts
D. Use conditional highlighting
Correct Answer: D

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[Free New Dumps Version] New Updated Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 Dumps Exam PDF Download Youtube Study Online With New Discount

Is there any paid or free android app for preparation of Cisco 210-260 dumps like a quiz app that covers all the topic? “Implementing Cisco Network Security” is the name of Cisco 210-260 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. New updated Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 dumps exam pdf download youtube study online with new discount. Pass4itsure Cisco 210-260 dumps exam questions answers are updated (310 Q&As) are verified by experts.

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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210-260 dumps

Free Pass4itsure Cisco 210-260 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 22
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
210-260 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 23
Which statement about personal firewalls is true?
A. They can protect a system by denying probing requests.
B. They are resilient against kernel attacks.
C. They can protect email messages and private documents in a similar way to a VPN.
D. They can protect the network against attacks.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 25
How does a device on a network using ISE receive its digital certificate during the new- device registration
process?
A. ISE acts as a SCEP proxy to enable the device to receive a certificate from a central CA server.
B. ISE issues a certificate from its internal CA server.
C. ISE issues a pre-defined certificate from a local database.
D. The device requests a new certificate directly from a central CA.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps

The Admin user is unable to enter configuration mode on a device with the given configuration. What
change can you make to the configuration to correct the problem?
A. Remove the autocommand keyword and arguments from the username admin privilege line.
B. Change the Privilege exec level value to 15.
C. Remove the two Username Admin lines.
D. Remove the Privilege exec line.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A
Question: 27
You are a HR Professional for your organization and your supervisor is asking you about the details of
the Civil Rights Act of 1991, and what it means to your company. He wants to know what the total
damages could be if an organization is found liable by a jury trial. What is the maximum amount that
could be awarded to a victim of discrimination if the organization is found liable?
A. There is no limited amount as the jury can determine damages
B. $50,000
C. $300,000
D. $500,000
Answer: C
Explanation:
The maximum amount that can be awarded is $300,000. This amount, however, can be lowered
based on the number of people involved in the discrimination lawsuit.
Answer options B, D, and A are incorrect. The maximum amount allowed by the Civil Rights Act of
1991, is $300,000.
Question: 28
On November 13, 2000 CFR Part 60-2 was revised to address affirmative action to make the rules
more accessible and easier to implement. Which of the following statements is not part of this
significant update to the Affirmative Action program in CFR Part 60-2?
A. Reduced the number of additional required elements of the written Affirmative Action Plan from
10 to 4
B. Reaffirmed that affirmative action isn’t to establish quotes, but to create goals
C. Granted employers with fewer than 100 employees, permission to prepare a job group analysis
that uses EEO-1 categories as job groups
D. Workforce analysis was replaced with a one-page organizational profile
210-260 vce Answer: C
Explanation:
The update to CFR Part 60-2 was revised and allowed employers with fewer than 150 employees,
not 100, permission to prepare a job group analysis that uses EEO-1 categories as job groups.
Answer options D, B, and A are incorrect. These statements are part of the CFR Part 60-2 revision.
Question: 29
Herb is the HR Professional for his organization. He is preparing to hire a new employee, Hans, to the
firm. Herb has asked Hans to agree, in writing, to mandatory arbitration as part of the employment
offer. What does this agreement mean?
A. It means that Hans and the organization must settle all disputes, if any arise, through a neutral
third party rather than through a lawsuit.
B. It means that Hans must file all legal complaints with the organization’s attorney, before filing a
lawsuit against the organization.
C. It means that Herb’s firm can research Hans to determine if he’s had any lawsuits.
D. It means that Hans cannot work for competitors without the written permission of the employer.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Mandatory arbitration helps the organization avoid lawsuits, should any arise, between the
employee and the employer, by agreeing up-front to settle potential disagreements through an
arbitrator versus a lawsuit.
Answer option D is incorrect. This answer describes a non-compete agreement.
Answer option C is incorrect. This isn’t a valid answer for the mandatory arbitration agreement.
Answer option B is incorrect. Hans doesn’t need to file legal complaints with his employer under this
agreement. The agreement means that Hans and the employer will settle the problem without a
lawsuit.

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