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QUESTION 1

Which of the following would be a reason for implementing rewrites?

A. Page has been moved to a new URL
B. Page has been moved to a new IP address
C. Replace vulnerable functions.
D. Send connection to secure channel

QUESTION 2

What can an administrator do if a client has been incorrectly Period Blocked?

A. Disconnect the client from the network
B. Manually release the IP from the temporary Blacklist
C. Nothing, it is not possible to override a Period Block
D. Force a new IP address to the client.

QUESTION 3

How does an ADOM differ from a VDOM?

A. ADOMs do not have virtual networking
B. ADOMs improve performance by offloading some functions.
C. ADOMs only affect specific functions and do not provide full separation as VDOMs do.
D. Allows you to have 1 administrator for multiple tenants

QUESTION 4

What capability can FortiWeb add to your Web App that your Web App may or may not already have?

A. Automatic backup and recovery
B. High Availability
C. HTTP/HTML Form Authentication
D. SSL Inspection

QUESTION 5

You are deploying FortiWeb 6.0 in an Amazon Web Services cloud. Which 2 lines of this initial setup via CLI are
incorrect? (Choose two.)

NSE6 FWB-6.1 q5

A. 6
B. 9
C. 3
D. 2

QUESTION 6

Which of the following is true about Local User Accounts?

A. Must be assigned regardless of any other authentication
B. Can be used for Single Sign-On
C. Can be used for site publishing
D. Best suited for large environments with many users

QUESTION 7

What other considerations must you take into account when configuring Defacement protection

A. Use FortiWeb to block SQL Injections and keep regular backups of the Database
B. Also incorporate a FortiADC into your network
C. None. FortiWeb completely secures the site against defacement attacks
D. Configure the FortiGate to perform Anti-Defacement as well

QUESTION 8

A client is trying to start a session from a page that should normally be accessible only after they have
logged in. When a start page rule detects invalid session access, what can FortiWeb do? (Choose three.)

A. Reply with a “403 Forbidden” HTTP error
B. Allow the page access but log the violation
C. Automatically redirect the client to the login page
D. Display an access policy message, then allow the client to continue, redirecting them to their requested page
E. Prompt the client to authenticate

QUESTION 9

When generating a protection configuration from an auto-learning report what critical step must you do before
generating the final protection configuration?

A. Restart the FortiWeb to clear the caches
B. Drill down in the report to correct any false positives.
C. Activate the report to create t profile
D. Take the FortiWeb offline to apply the profile

QUESTION 10

In Reverse proxy mode, how does FortiWeb handle the traffic that does not match any defined policies?

A. Non-matching traffic is allowed
B. non-Matching traffic is held in the buffer
C. Non-matching traffic is Denied
D. Non-matching traffic is rerouted to FortiGate

QUESTION 11

Under what circumstances would you want to use the temporary uncompress feature of FortiWeb?

A. In the case of compression being done on the FortiWeb, to inspect the content of the compressed file
B. In the case of the file being a .MP3 music file
C. In the case of compression is done on the webserver, inspect the content of the compressed file.
D. In the case of the file being an .MP4 video

QUESTION 12

Which of the following FortiWeb features is part of the mitigation tools against OWASP A4 threats?

A. Sensitive info masking
B. Poison Cookie detection
C. Session Management
D. Brute Force blocking

QUESTION 13

When the FortiWeb is configured in Reverse Proxy mode and the FortiGate is configured as a SNAT device, what IP
address will the FortiGate\’s Real Server configuration point at?

A. Virtual Server IP on the FortiGate
B. Server\’s real IP
C. FortiWeb\’s real IP
D. IP Address of the Virtual Server on the FortiWeb

The answer is posted here:

q1q2q3q4q5q6q7q8q9q10q11q12q13
ABDDACADABCBCCCA

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QUESTION 1 #

You have an ESXi cluster with VMware VMFS LUNs on an AFF A400 system. After troubleshooting performance
issues, you determine that timeout best practices are not set on the hosts.

In this scenario, which NetApp tool would apply the best practice settings?

A. SnapManager
B. SAN Host Utilities
C. SnapCenter Plug-in for VMware vSphere
D. Virtual Storage Console (VSC)

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/vapp-96/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.vsc-dsg%2FGUIDEAD6C97BA9E4-4C07-BAD8-790ACEE0897B.html

QUESTION 2

Which two statements are true about NVMe? (Choose two.)

A. NQNs are added to namespaces
B. LUNs are mapped to initiator groups
C. Namespaces are mapped to subsystems
D. NQNs are added to subsystems

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: http://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.dot-cmsanag%2FGUID52A6B6A1-61F8-4845-91CB-B13A1526CC30.html

QUESTION 3

You want to enable the internal ONTAP engine that quickly identifies the file and directory differences between two
Snapshot copies. In this scenario, which feature would accomplish this task?

A. SnapCenter
B. SnapDiff
C. SnapVault
D. SnapLock

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1196874/html/GUIDC2793E0D-0AB5-40FD-9F36324F3178FF6F.html

QUESTION 4

Your company has purchased two NetApp AFF A400 HA pairs. During deployment, how many root aggregates are
created?

A. 8
B. 6
C. 2
D. 4

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.netapp.com/fr/media/13482-tr4375.pdf

QUESTION 5

You want to add SSDs to existing HDD aggregates.
Which NetApp tool helps you to validate how many SSDs would improve performance?

A. OnCommand Workflow Automation
B. Active IQ Unified Manager
C. ONTAP System Manager
D. Automated Workload Analyzer

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6

Click the Exhibit button.

You have an ONTAP 9.8 cluster. After network maintenance, the LIF that is shown in the exhibit is not always on a
correct port and is unreachable by users until the LIFs are moved to port e0c or e0d on either storage node.
In this scenario, which action should you take to ensure that the LIF only fails over to the correct ports?

A. Change the LIF\\’s failover policy to sfo-partner-only
B. Split the broadcast domain
C. Create a DNS load balancing zone
D. Create an IPspace

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

A volume is set to use Adaptive QoS with the default policy.
In this scenario, which change would affect the QoS throughput ceiling?

A. The volume is resized
B. Disks are added to the volume\\’s aggregate
C. Data is added to the volume
D. More clients access the volume

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.flackbox.com/netapp-storage-qos-tutorial

QUESTION 8

You need to configure data-at-rest encryption for your NetApp ONTAP 9.8 cluster. Your company does not have Key
Management Interoperability Protocol (KMIP) services are available but must require a passphrase to be entered when a node is rebooted.

In this scenario, which two actions should be performed to satisfy these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Enable onboard key management
B. Enable common criteria mode
C. Configure an external key management server
D. Enable cluster-wide FIPS-compliant mode

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/topic/com.netapp.doc.pow-nve/Encryption%20of%20data%
20at%20rest.pdf

QUESTION 9

You are asked to deploy a 2-node ONTAP Select cluster. The physical hardware is located in two different locations and
you want the aggregates mirrored synchronously between the two data centers. You must ensure high availability and
automated switchover.

In this scenario, which two steps would you take to fulfill this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Use the ONTAP Mediator service to make sure that you have a quorum for the two nodes
B. Use ONTAP Select Deploy to install the nodes on the physical hardware
C. Ensure that the ONTAP Select Deploy VM resides at a third location other than the two data centers
D. Install the SnapMirror Sync license on the cluster

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10

Click the Exhibit button.

You are adding a NetApp AFF A400 system to an existing 4-node cluster and want to know which ports you would use
to expand your cluster.

Referring to the exhibit, which tool would you use to accomplish this task?

A. NetApp Interoperability Matrix (IMT)
B. NetApp Hardware Universe (HWU)
C. Active IQ Unified Manager
D. Active IQ Config Advisor

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

Click the Exhibit button.

You are caching on-premises ONTAP volumes into the cloud with Cloud Volumes ONTAP as shown in the exhibit.
In this scenario, which two protocols are supported? (Choose two.)

A. NVMe
B. SMB
C. NFS
D. iSCSI

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/us-en/occm/pdfs/sidebar/Manage_Cloud_Volumes_ONTAP.pdf

QUESTION 12

You are attempting to establish a SnapMirror relationship between your ONTAP cluster (AcmeClus01) and a partner
company\\’s ONTAP cluster (WidgetsClus01). The clusters are unable to establish a peering relationship. You perform a
packet capture on WidgetsClus01 and do not see any packets from AcmeClus01. You also discover that the IP subnet
that is used for WidgetsClus01\\’s intercluster LIFs overlaps with a local subnet at your company.

In this scenario, which feature would enable AcmeClus01 and WidgetsClus01 to peer with each other?

A. VLANs
B. broadcast domains
C. IPspaces
D. ONTAP subnets

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.google.com/url?sa=tandrct=jandq=andesrc=sandsource=webandcd=andved=2ahUKEwj0166P
sY3yAhVKAWMBHbxDCkQFjAFegQIBBADandurl=https%3A%2F%2Fdownload.lenovo.com%2Fstorage%2Fsnapmirror_configuration_and_best_practices_guide_for_ontap_9.pdfandusg=AOvVaw19DXzCszrQCTXEWGtrbRQ7

QUESTION 13

You want to configure Active Directory domain controller access for NetApp ONTAP cluster administration.
In this scenario, which two actions would accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. Configure an authentication tunnel through an admin SVM
B. Use the server active-directory create command to create a computer account on the domain for a CIFS SVM
C. Configure an authentication tunnel through an existing CIFS SVM
D. Use the server active-directory create command to create a computer account on the domain for a non-CIFS SVM

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/topic/com.netapp.doc.pow-adm-auth-rbac/Administrator%
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QUESTION 1 #


Which of the following forms of DUID can be configured when DHCPv6 is configured in the VRP system? (multiple
choice)

A. DUID-LL
B. DUID-LLT
C. DUID-EN
D. DUID-LLC

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2 #

The STP switch sends BPDUs. The correct statement about BPDU is (). (multiple choice)

A. BPDU is a frame using the IEEE802.3 standard
B. BPDU is a frame using the Ethernet II standard
C. The Control field value of the BPDU frame is 3
D. The destination MAC address of the BPDU frame is the broadcast address

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3 #

What benefits does port aggregation yield? (Choose three)

A. Improves link bandwidth
B. Implements load sharing
C. Improves network reliability
D. Facilitates data copy for analysis

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 4 #

A layer 2 LAN switch generates CAM table entries according to the ( ) of the received frame.

A. Source MAC address
B. Destination MAC address
C. Source IP address
D. Destination IP address

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5 #

The network administrator wishes to transmit data between two end stations. The network interface cards of both
devices operate at 100Mbps however one supports half-duplex while the other uses full-duplex
mode.

What will occur as a result?

A. The end stations cannot communicate.
B. The end stations can communicate, but data may be lost during the transmission of large amounts of traffic.
C. The end stations will operate normally
D. The end stations can communicate, but speed is different during the transmission of large amounts of traffic

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6 #

InARP resolves the protocol address of the remote device on each virtual circuit, including IP addresses and IPX
addresses.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7 #

Which of the following are routing protocols? (multiple choice)

A. IP
B. OSPF
C. BGP
D. IPX

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8 #

Which of the following port status may exist on an STP-enabled switch?

A. Forwarding
B. Listening
C. Discarding
D. Disabled

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9 #

As shown in the figure, after the network administrator finishes the Telnet configuration on the router, it finds that the host cannot establish a connection with the router through Telnet. Which options can help solve this problem? (multiple choice)

A. Check if the host\’s ARP cache table overflows
B. Check if the switch is configured with the default gateway address.
C. Use ping to check the IP connectivity between the host and router G0/0/0 interface
D. Check if the Telnet configuration on the router is correct.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10 #

Which of the following protocols can be used on a Layer 2 network with redundant links to prevent loops?

A. UDP
B. VRRP
C. STP
D. ARP

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11 #

Refer to the debug output. Following the configuration of R2, the administrator discovers that the behavior is not as
expected and performs debugging. Based on the output from the debug, what is the source of the problem?

A. R2 has configured an ACL to block the route to network 1.0.0.0
B. R2 has enabled split horizon.
C. R1 is using authentication, however, R2 is not.
D. R2 is operating using RIPv2, while R1 is using RIPv1.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12 #

Which of the following regarding Frame Relay DLCI is correct? (Choose three)

A. DLCI is locally significant
B. DLCI is allocated by DTE
C. The range of DLCI values that can be used is from 16-1007
D. The same DLCI can be configured on different physical interfaces

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 13 #

SNMP packets are encapsulated in TCP packets.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1

Which two statements about distributed automatic radio resource provisioning (DARRP) are correct? (Choose two.)

A. DARRP performs continuous spectrum analysis to detect sources of interference. It uses this information to allow the
AP to select the optimum channel.

B. DARRP performs measurements of the number of BSSIDs and their signal strength (RSSI). The controller then uses
this information to select the optimum channel for the AP.

C. DARRP measurements can be scheduled to occur at specific times.

D. DARRP requires that wireless intrusion detection (WIDS) be enabled to detect neighboring devices.

Correct Answer: AD

RRP (Distributed Automatic Radio Resource Provisioning) technology ensures the wireless infrastructure is always optimized to deliver maximum performance. Fortinet APs enabled with this advanced feature continuously monitor the RF environment for interference, noise, and signals from neighboring APs, enabling the FortiGate WLAN Controller to determine the optimal RF power levels for each AP on the network.

When a new AP is provisioned, DARRP also ensures that it chooses the optimal channel, without administrator intervention.

Reference: http://www.corex.at/Produktinfos/FortiOS_Wireless.pdf

QUESTION 2

As a network administrator, you are responsible for managing an enterprise secure wireless LAN. The controller is
based in the United States, and you have been asked to deploy a number of managed APs in a remote office in
Germany.

What is the correct way to ensure that the RF channels and transmission power limits are appropriately configured for
the remote APs?

A. Configure the APs individually by overriding the settings in Managed FortiAPs
B. Configure the controller for the correct country code for Germany
C. Clone a suitable FortiAP profile and change the county code settings on the profile
D. Create a new FortiAP profile and change the county code settings on the profile

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://fortinetweb.s3.amazonaws.com/docs.fortinet.com/v2/attachments/69a8fa9c-1eaa-11e9b6f6-f8bc1258b856/fortigate-fortiwifi-and-fortiap-configuration-guide-54.pdf

QUESTION 3

Which statement is correct about security profiles on FortiAP devices?

A. Security profiles on FortiAP devices can use FortiGate subscription to inspect the traffic
B. Only bridge mode SSIDs can apply the security profiles
C. Disable DTLS on FortiAP
D. FortiGate performs inspection the wireless traffic

Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiap/6.4.0/fortiwifi-and-fortiap-configuration-guide/47321/ fortiap-sbridge-mode-security-profiles

QUESTION 4

Which two roles does FortiPresence analytics assist in generating presence reports? (Choose two.)

A. Gathering details about on site visitors
B. Predicting the number of guest users visiting on-site
C. Comparing current data with historical records
D. Reporting potential threats by guests on site

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5

Refer to the exhibits.
Exhibit A

Exhibit B

A wireless network has been created to support a group of users in a specific area of a building. The wireless network is
configured but users are unable to connect to it. The exhibits show the relevant controller configuration for the APs and the wireless network.

Which two configuration changes will resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

A. For both interfaces in the wtp-profile, configure set vaps to be “Authors”
B. Disable intra-vap-privacy for the Authors vap-wireless network
C. For both interfaces in the wtp-profile, configure vap-all to be manual
D. Increase the transmission power of the AP radio interfaces

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6

Which administrative access method must be enabled on a FortiGate interface to allow APs to connect and function?

A. Security Fabric
B. SSH
C. HTTPS
D. FortiTelemetry

Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.9/cookbook/788897/configuring-the-rootfortigate-anddownstream-fortigates

QUESTION 7

Six APs are located in a remotely based branch office and are managed by a centrally hosted FortiGate. Multiple
wireless users frequently connect and roam between the APs in the remote office.

The network they connect to, is secured with WPA2-PSK. As currently configured, the WAN connection between the
branch office and the centrally hosted FortiGate is unreliable.

Which configuration would enable the most reliable wireless connectivity for the remote clients?

A. Configure a tunnel mode wireless network and enable split tunneling to the local network
B. Configure a bridge mode wireless network and enable the Local standalone configuration option
C. Configure a bridge mode wireless network and enable the Local authentication configuration option
D. Install supported FortiAP and configure a bridge mode wireless network

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

How are wireless clients assigned to a dynamic VLAN configured for hash mode?

A. Using the current number of wireless clients connected to the SSID and the number of IPs available in the least busy
VLAN
B. Using the current number of wireless clients connected to the SSID and the number of clients allocated to each of the
VLANs
C. Using the current number of wireless clients connected to the SSID and the number of VLANs available in the pool
D. Using the current number of wireless clients connected to the SSID and the group the FortiAP is a member of

Correct Answer: C
VLAN from the VLAN pool based on a hash of the current number of SSID clients and the number of entries in the VLAN pool.
Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiap/7.0.1/fortiwifi-and-fortiap-configuration-guide/376326/ configuringdynamic-user-vlan-assignment

QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibits.
Exhibit A.

Exhibit B.

Exhibit C.

NSE6_FWF-6.4-exam-questions-q9-3

A wireless network has been installed in a small office building and is being used by a business to connect its wireless
clients. The network is used for multiple purposes, including corporate access, guest access, and connecting point-ofsale and Io? devices.

Users connecting to the guest network located in the reception area are reporting slow performance. The network
administrator is reviewing the information shown in the exhibits as part of the ongoing investigation of the problem. They show the profile used for the AP and the controller RF analysis output together with a screenshot of the GUI showing a summary of the AP and its neighboring APs.

To improve performance for the users connecting to the guest network in this area, which configuration change is most
likely to improve performance?

A. Increase the transmission power of the AP radios
B. Enable frequency handoff on the AP to band steer clients
C. Reduce the number of wireless networks being broadcast by the AP
D. Install another AP in the reception area to improve available bandwidth

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Where in the controller interface can you find a wireless client\’s upstream and downstream link rates?

A. On the AP CLI, using the cw_diag ksta command
B. On the controller CLI, using the diag wireless-controller wlac -d sta command
C. On the AP CLI, using the cw_diag -d sta command
D. On the controller CLI, using the WiFi Client monitor

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibits.
Exhibit A Exhibit B

The exhibits show the diagnose debug log of a station connection taken on the controller CLI. Which security mode is
used by the wireless connection?

A. WPA2 Enterprise
B. WPA3 Enterprise
C. WPA2 Personal and radius MAC filtering
D. Open, with radius MAC filtering

Correct Answer: A
Best security option is WPA2-AES.
Reference: https://www.esecurityplanet.com/trends/the-best-security-for-wireless-networks/

QUESTION 12

As standard best practice, which configuration should be performed before configuring FortiAPs using a FortiGate
wireless controller?

A. Create wireless LAN specific policies
B. Preauthorize APs
C. Create a custom AP profile
D. Set the wireless controller country setting

Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiap/6.4.1/fortiwifi-and-fortiap-configuration-guide/547298/ complexwireless-network-example

QUESTION 13

Refer to the exhibit.

If the signal is set to -68 dB on the FortiPlanner site survey reading, which statement is correct regarding the coverage
area?

A. Areas with the signal strength equal to -68 dB are zoomed in to provide better visibility
B. Areas with the signal strength weaker than -68 dB are cut out of the map
C. Areas with the signal strength equal or stronger than -68 dB are highlighted in multicolor
D. Areas with the signal strength weaker than -68 dB are highlighted in orange and red to indicate that no signal was
propagated by the APs.

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1 #

After the Vault administrator configures Syslog integration on the Vault, the Vault will be able to.

A. forward ITALOG records to Security Information and Event Management (SIEM).
B. send out Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) traps.
C. forward audit records to Security Information and Event Management (SIEM).
D. forward emails to SIEM.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2 #

What are the chief benefits of PSM? Choose all that apply

A. Privileged Session Isolation
B. Automatic Password Management
C. Privileged Session Recording
D. A and C

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3 #

When working with the CyberArk Cluster, which service is considered Optional (i.e., failure of the service does not
mandate a failover)?

A. PrivateArk Server
B. PrivateArk Database
C. Event Notification Engine
D. Logic Container

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4 #

PSM requires the Remote Desktop Gateway role service.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5 #

Which Master Policy?

A. Password Expiration Time
B. Enabling and Disabling of the Connection Through the PSM
C. Password Complexity
D. The use of “One-Time-Passwords”

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6 #

Using the SSH Key Manager it is possible to allow CPM to manage SSH Keys similarly to passwords.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7 #

Which file is used to integrate the Vault with your Radius server?

A. radius.ini
B. parent in
C. ENEConf.ini
D. dbparm.ini

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8 #

A Logon Account can be specified in the Master Policy
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9 #

Which file does the Vault administrator need to edit in order to configure the integration of the Vault with the radius
server?

A. radius.ini
B. PARagent.ini
C. ENEConf.ini
D. dbparm.ini

Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.cyberark.com/Product-Doc/OnlineHelp/PAS/Latest/en/Content/PAS%20INST/RADIUSAuthentication.htm

QUESTION 10 #

Which of the following are prerequisites for installing PVWA Check all that Apply

A. Web Services Role
B. NET 4.5.1 Framework Feature
C. Remote Desktop Services Role
D. Windows BitLocker

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11 #

What is the proper way to allow the Vault to resolve hostnames?

A. Define a DNS server
B. Define a WINS server
C. Defining the local host’s file
D. The Vault cannot resolve hostnames due to security standards

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12 #

In Accounts Discovery, you can configure a Windows discovery to scan______________.

A. as many OUs as you wish
B. up to three OUs.
C. only one OU.
D. a number of OUs determined by the OUstoScan setting under the Accounts Feed section in the Administration tab

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13 #

It is impossible to override Master Policy settings for a Platform

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B

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NS0-003

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QUESTION 1

Your users require both NFS and SMB file services. You do not want to manage the storage ONTAP System Manager
or the command-line interface.

In this scenario, which two products would satisfy these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Amazon S3 Glacier
B. Azure Blob Storage
C. Azure NetApp Files
D. Cloud Volumes Service

QUESTION 2

Which two protocols are supported with an E-Series system? (Choose two.)

A. iSCSI
B. NFS
C. FC
D. SMB

QUESTION 3

Which two tools would you use to manage your NetApp SolidFire SDS storage cluster? (Choose two.)

A. NetApp Active IQ Unified Manager
B. NetApp Element UI
C. NetApp Element Plug-in for VMware vCenter Server
D. NetApp Cloud Manager

QUESTION 4

When creating a StorageGRID solution with two sites, how many storage nodes are rewired?

A. at least three nodes per site
B. at least one node per site
C. at least two nodes per site
D. at least four nodes in total

QUESTION 5

Which three benefits of using NetApp Cloud Volumes ONTAP for AWS? (Choose three.)

A. automatic tiering to Amazon S3 for cost reduction
B. automatic replication to Cloud Volumes Service with SnapMirror
C. ONTAP thin provisioning for space efficiency and over-provisioning
D. NetApp Aggregate Encryption (NAE) with Onboard Key Manager
E. ONTAP data reduction mechanisms with compression and deduplication

QUESTION 6

You are asked to create and manage working environments in NetApp Cloud Manager. In this scenario, which user role
would enable you to perform this assignment?

A. Cluster Admin
B. Compliance Viewer
C. Storage Admin
D. Account Admin

QUESTION 7

Cloud Manager would be used to manage which two NetApp storage resources? (Choose two.)

A. NetApp StorageGRID
B. NetApp Cloud Volumes ONTAP
C. NetApp All Flash FAS (AFF)
D. NetApp E-Series

QUESTION 8

Which two enable you to tier data that is stored in an ONTAP system to an object store? (Choose two.)

A. FlexGroup
B. CloudSync
C. FabricPool
D. Cloud Tiering

QUESTION 9

What provides dynamic storage orchestration services for Kubernetes workloads?

A. Ansible
B. SANtricity OS
C. Trident
D. ONTAP software

QUESTION 10

Which software references NetApp ONTAP Snapshot metadata to create writable, point-in-time copies of a volume?

A. SnapVault
B. FlexClone
C. SnapLock
D. FlexCache

QUESTION 11

Which two NetApp features encrypt the storage data? (Choose two.)

A. Trusted Platform Module (TPM)
B. Encrypted File System (EFS)
C. NetApp Volume Encryption
D. NetApp Storage Encryption

QUESTION 12

Which attribute of a host is used to route packs to a non-local subnet?

A. VLAN trunk
B. default gateway
C. NTP server
D. DNS server

QUESTION 13

You want your developers to be able to request storage on private and public cloud locations using a single API
endpoint.

In this scenario, which NetApp service provides this capability?

A. Cloud Manager
B. Cloud Sync
C. Cloud Volumes ONTAP
D. Cloud Volumes Services

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Correct Answer!

Q1,Q2, Q3, Q4,Q5,Q6,Q7,Q8,Q9,Q10,Q11,Q12,Q13
CD,AC,AB, A,ABE, D,CD,CD,C,B,CD,D,A
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-netapp-files/azure-netapp-files-faqs
https://www.netapp.com/knowledge-center/what-is-cloud-volumes/
Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/sgws-111/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.sgadmin%2FGUID4982C9E3-7D7B-460C-83E1-8514BD12C1A9.html
Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/us-en/occm38/pdfs/sidebar/Get_started_with_Cloud_Manager.pdf (page 6)Reference: https://cloud.netapp.com/hubfs/OnCommand_Cloud_Manager_solution_brief-1.pdfReference: https://thinksystem.lenovofiles.com/storage/help/topic/
managing_storage_tiers_by_using_fabricpool/M_EB611646-616F-4943-9A83-C6CBD5FFB684_.pdf
Reference: https://netapp.io/persistent-storage-provisioner-for-kubernetes/Reference: https://netapp.io/persistent-storage-provisioner-for-kubernetes/

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QUESTION 1 #

During 5G Standardization, which of the following is the SA (standalone) architecture developed in? -SC

A. Phase1.2
B. Phase 2.1
C. Phase 2.2
D. Phase 1.1

QUESTION 2

With the network slicing technology, operators can increase revenue and reduce expenditure, opening up more service
scenarios.

A. True
B. False

QUESTION 3

Which of the fowling is a solution for 5G to switch uplink transmission to the sub -3 GHz low-frequency band. Effectively compensating for insufficient uplink coverage of the C – Band? _SC

A. UL and DL decoupling
B. Carrier aggregation
C. Duplex technology
D. Multiple access technique

QUESTION 4

Which of the following is not an advantage of a thin client in the cloud X service?

A. Easy deployment and management
B. Efficient storage
C. Mobile
D. Low cost

QUESTION 5

5G can achieve reliable and controllable 5A ubiquitous communication between humans, between humans and things,
between things Other than “anytime” and “Anywhere”. Which other three options are part of the 5G concept?

A. Anyone
B. Anyhow
C. Any device
D. Anything

QUESTION 6

Which of the following services is the most suitable for terminals to implement DRX?_ SC

A. VR gaming
B. Automated driving
C. Video on-live
D. Intelligent meter reading

QUESTION 7

With control and user plane separation (CUPS) on the core network, the user can be moved closer to users to reduce
transmission delay.

A. True
B. False

QUESTION 8

Which of the following key technologies is used to improve data transmission reliability and reduce retransmission
caused by data transmission errors, thereby indirectly improving spectral efficiency? _SC

A. F-OFDMA //
B. High-order modulation
C. Channel codding
D. Massive MIMO

QUESTION 9

which of the following chips is the world\\’s first commercial single-chip multi-mode (2g/3g/4g/5g)5g modem? _SC

A. Balog 5000
B. 5X50/X55
C. CXMM-8160
D. Exynos 5510

QUESTION 10

Which of the following is the key 5G capability required by monitoring applications such as connected intelligent infusion in smart healthcare?

A. Low-power small-packet transmission.
B. Wireless ultra-broadband access.
C. Anytime, anywhere wireless
D. Contiguous coverage

QUESTION 11

Compared with traditional plat preservation which of the following advantages does drone-based plant preservation
have?_ MC

A. higher efficiency than manual operations
B. 30% less medicine is used, saving water and protecting the environment.
C. precise operation
D. high security due to man-machine separation

QUESTION 12

Which of the following coding schemes is predominantly used for traffic channels in 5G?

A. parlor code
B. turbo coding
C. convolutional code
D. LDPC

QUESTION 13

Which of the following is the 5G IoV alliance organization?

A. OTSA
B. X.lab
C. 5GAA
D. 3GPP

Post the answer:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
AAABABCDDACAAABCDDC

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QUESTION 1

Which of the following components does the Huawei Virtualization Migration Solution include? (Multiple Choice)

A. Requirement Collection Tool
B. Cloud Assessment Tool
C. Migration Implementation Tool
D. Business Upgrade Tool

QUESTION 2

Which of the description about the basic concept of FusionStorage is correct? (Multiple choice)

A. The FusionStorage data routing algorithm uses DHT (Distributed Hash Table).
B. The FusionStorage resource pool consists of a set of Partition divisions that corresponds to the DHT ring.
C. FusionStorage uses multiple copies of the data backup mechanism to ensure data reliability, that is, the same data can be copied and saved as 2 to 3 copies.
D. Volume in FusionStorage represents the application volume.

QUESTION 3

In Huawei\\’s SDN solution, which Overlay modes are supported? (Multiple choice)

A. NVE is deployed on TOR
B. NVE is deployed in FOR
C. NVE is deployed in OVS
D. NVE is deployed on EVS

QUESTION 4

Which of the following roles\\’ services are used master/standby deployment in FusionSphere OpenStack control
cluster? (Multiple choice)

A. MongoDB
B. GaussDB
C. ZooKeeper
D. RabbitMQ

QUESTION 5

In the Huawei desktop cloud solution, about the description of the full memory virtual machine, which is incorrect?

A. Full memory virtual machines do not support hot migration
B. Full memory virtual machines do not support snapshots
C. Deployed full memory virtual machine templates allow converting to virtual machines
D. Full memory virtual machine support shutdown reduction

QUESTION 6

In Huawei FusionSphere business migration solution, using offline mirror transformation function, by importing virtual
machines from third-party virtualization platforms into Huawei Virtualization Platform can support virtualized storage
and non-virtualized storage.

A. True
B. False

QUESTION 7

Which of the following methods can FusionAccess check for component service status? (Multiple choice)

A. View the status of each service in FusionAccess Portal\’s Alert Management – Status Monitoring.
B. In the Linux component server type the “stareTools” command to run the tool, select “Status” in the interface to view the local service status.
C. Windows component server can be in the start menu input “services. MSC” to view the appropriate service status.
D. Use FusionSphere SOI to view the FusionAccess component server status.

QUESTION 8

In Huawei cloud data center solutions, what are the network modes that VPC supports?

A. Directly connected networks
B. Routing network
C. Internal network
D. Expand the network

QUESTION 9

Which of the following are HA scenarios that FusionCompute supports? (Multiple choice)

A. HA after a host failure
B. HA after storage link interruption
C. HA after the network link is interrupted
D. HA after virtual machine blue screen

QUESTION 10

Which of the following network planes is not the network plane that Huawei backup planning and design needs to
consider?

A. Management plane, including backup management plane and production environment management plane
B. The internal communication plane between the backup server and agent
C. Heartbeat network plane
D. Storage plane

QUESTION 11

What virtualization platform migration does Huawei business migration tool Rainbow support? (Multiple choice)
A. UCS
B. XenServer
C. KVM
D. Hyper-V

QUESTION 12

In FusionSphere solutions, the VSA ManageDVS network is in the plane of the network with management can not be
exchanged.

A. True
B. False

QUESTION 13

FusionStorage key modules MDC, OSD, and VBS must be independently deployed as virtual machines and can not run
as a process on Huawei FusionStorage-compatible host operating systems.
A. True
B. False

Correct answer:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
ABCABCDACABDCBABCABCACDCBCDBB

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QUESTION 1

The maximum number of layers supported by the location topology in Huawei eSight is a layer.

A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10

QUESTION 2

In the 802.11 frames, what type of frame does the STA\\’s association request and authentication request belong to?

A. Data frame
B. Control frame
C. Management frame
D. Data frame, control frame, management frame have this function

QUESTION 3

Which of the following AP modes does not belong to the WDS network?

A. Root AP
B. Middle AP
C. Bridge AP
D. Leaf AP

QUESTION 4

Huawei AP6310AP is an outdoor AP that supports WDS and implements point-to-multipoint wireless bridging.

A. True
B. False

QUESTION 5

In Huawei eSight, the method of adding WLAN devices includes (Select 3 Answers).

A. Add manually
B. Add automatically
C. Add in batches
D. Add script

QUESTION 6

The following is a description of TKIP encryption. The error is.

A. The length of the IV used in A. TKIP encryption is 24bits.
B. TKIP encryption uses the same encryption algorithm as WEP encryption.
C. The motivation for developing TKIP encryption is to upgrade the security of legacy WEP hardware.
D. Added the mechanism of key generation, management, and delivery in TKIP encryption.

QUESTION 7

If an enterprise wireless network networking mode is direct forwarding, the thin AP can convert the 802.11 data packet
into an Ethernet packet, and then encapsulate the packet into a CAPWAP encapsulation and transmit the data packet to the AC through the CAPWAP tunnel.

A. True
B. False

QUESTION 8

Regarding the functional characteristics of the AP6010SN, the following statement is correct (Select 2 Answers).

A. AP6010SN is an indoor distributed AP that only supports working in the 2.4GHz band.
B. The AP6010SN has an Ethernet interface that supports 802.3af PoE power supply standards.
C. AP6010SN supports WDS function, which can realize point-to-point and point-to-multipoint wireless bridging
D. AP6010SN not only has a built-in antenna but also can be installed with an external antenna.

QUESTION 9

BSS is called Basic Service Set, and BSS can be divided into Independent BSS and Infrastructure BSS.

A. True
B. False

QUESTION 10

If an 802.11n AP supports 2*2 MIMO technology, what is the theoretical rate of this AP?

A. 150 Mbps
B. 300 Mbps
C. 450 Mbps
D. 600 Mbps

QUESTION 11

Which of the following options is the maximum rate supported by the 802.11g protocol?

A. 11Mbps
B. 22Mbps
C. 54Mbps
D. 108Mbps

QUESTION 12

For outdoor long-distance point-to-point backhaul, the antenna should be selected.

A. High gain, small lobe width
B. High gain, large lobe width
C. Omnidirectional
D. Low gain, large lobe width

QUESTION 13

The following description of the splitter and coupler is correct.

A. Power splitter and coupler are equal power allocation
B. Power splitter is equal power distribution, the coupler is an unequal power distribution
C. Power splitter is unequal power distribution, the coupler is an equal power distribution
D. Power splitter and coupler are unequal power distribution

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Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
DCCBABCABBCABCAB

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QUESTION 1

Source-Specific Multicast (SSM)is being used throughout the HW IP Multicast network. Which of the following three
statements about SSM are true? (Choose three.)

A. SSM uses Shortest-Path Trees Only

B. There are no RPs to worry about

C. SSM is best suited for applications that are of the Many-to-Many category

D. SSM uses shared Trees only

E. The use of SSM is recommended when there are many sources and it is desirable to keep the amount of route
state in the routers in the network to a minimum.

F. SSM is best suited for applications that are of the one-to-many category

QUESTION 2

Regarding the logical model of the MPLS TTL pair, is the following description correct?

A. Pipe IP MPLS IP TTL 1 In MPLS TTL mode, when the message passes through the network, it is mapped to the field
at the ingress point.

B. MPLS TTL IP TTL MPLS A label, which has the same function as the header, can prevent the network from routing
the loop (as it is)

C. Uniform IP MPLS IP TTL 1 MPLS TTL mode is simulated. When the message passes through the network, the entry
point is reduced and the field is fixed to the value.

D. In the case of the MPLS VPN MPLS Ingress uniform, the private network text can be used in the reporting mode.

QUESTION 3

HW has a Frame Relay network with two sites (a headquarters site and a remote site) connected by a single PVC. RIP
version 2 is running in the network. A new remote site is added and HW has ordered a second PVC between this site
and the headquarters site. All Frame Relay interface IP addresses are in a single subnet.

The customer configured Frame Relay DLCI mappings and can successfully ping from the new remote to the headquarters site as well as to the other remote site. However, the new router does not have a route in its route table to the other remote site\’s LAN, and cannot ping the LAN interface or any hosts on that LAN.

What is most likely causing the problem?

A. Triggered updates should be configured on the headquarters router, to directly forward routing updates between the two remote sites

B. The headquarters site router has split-horizon enabled on the frame-relay interface

C. Neighbor statements are not configured on the two remote sites, pointing to all other sites

D. The frame-relay IP to DLCI mappings are incorrectly configured


E. RIP cannot propagate routing updates over a partial mesh frame-relay configuration, so another routing protocol
should be selected

QUESTION 4

Synchronization between LDP and IGP suppresses reachable IGP route advertisement to implement network
convergence and ensure LDP and IGP are along the same path. This minimizes traffic loss and improves network
reliability.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

QUESTION 5

As shown in the figure, the R1 R2 ISIS R1 R2 ? neighbor relationship is established, and the data synchronization
the process with it is correct.

A. The message sent by the R1 R2 PSNP is a message.
B. The message sent by R1 R2 CSNP is a message.
C. The message sent by the R1 R2 LSP is a packet.
D. The message sent by R1 R2 Hello is the message.

QUESTION 6

The configurations of two routers in a company are shown. Which of the following statements regarding the routing table of R1 is true?

A. The IP routing entries whose destination network segment is 10.0.2.2/32 on R1 can be generated through OSPF only
when the IS-IS preference of R2 is changed to 5

B. If the IS-IS preference of R1 is changed of R1 is changed to 5, the IP routing entries whose destination network
the segment is 10.0.2.2/32 on R1 are generated through OSPF

C. If the IS-IS preference of R1 is changed to 5, the IP routing entries whose destination network segment is 10.0.2.2/32
on R1 are generated through IS-IS

D. If the IS-IS preference of R2 is changed to 5, the IP routing entries whose destination network segment is 10.0.2.2/32
on R1 are generated through IS-IS

QUESTION 7

Which of the following are key differences between RIP version 1 and RIP version 2? (Multiple Choice)

A. RIP version 2 uses multicasts while RIP version 1 does not

B. RIP version 1 supports authentication while RIP version 2 does not

C. RIP version 1 does not support VLSM while RIP version 2 does

D. RIP version 1 is distance vector while RIP version 2 is not

E. RIP version 1 uses hop counts as the metric while RIP version 2 uses bandwidth information

QUESTION 8

Routers and routers are running. Both routers are in R1 R2 BGP AS 65234 R2 R1 BGP. The router\\’s route
exists on the router\\’s path.
By the table, but not in the router\\’s routing table. R1 IP So what caused the problem?

A. Synchronization is turned off
B. BGP Down neighbor relationship
C. Router is not enabled R1 BGP Multi-hop
D. Routing is not the best

QUESTION 9

In the shared network, which mechanism is used to prevent duplicate traffic PIM-SM?

A. Register mechanism
B. BSR/RP mechanism
C. Assert mechanism
D. Join/Prune mechanism

QUESTION 10

LAND\\’s attack means that the attacker sends a source address and a destination address to the target host. The target is marked as the source port and the destination port. SYN-ACK TCP report text, the receiving end is waiting for the sending end of the final message, and the connection is always connected in a semi-connected state, causing the
receiver to receive limited resources. Waste

A. Correct
B. Error

QUESTION 11

In a basic network packet layer, which information can be included (more?)

A. Data Road Department Chain Head
B. Upper data layer
C. Network Department
D. Path record
E. net tail layer

QUESTION 12

One of the VXLAN BD VNIs can have multiple correspondences
A. Correct
B. Error

QUESTION 13

An OSPF router is connected to Area 0 and Area 1, and Area 1 is configured as a stub area. Which type of LSAs are in
Area 1?

A. Type 1, Type 2, and Type 5 LSAs
B. Type 1, Type 2, and Type 3 LSAs
C. Type 3 and Type 4 LSAs
D. Type 7 LSA
E. Type 1 and Type 2 LSAs

The correct answer is here:

Q1: ABF, Q2: B, Q3: B, Q4: A, Q5: B, Q6: C, Q7: AC, Q8: B, Q9: C, Q10: B, Q11: BC, Q12: B, Q13: B

Now,

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