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CyberArk CAU201 Practice Test Q1-Q13 Free Online

QUESTION 1
PSM for Windows (previously known as “RDP Proxy”) supports connections to the following target systems
A. Windows
B. UNIX
C. Oracle
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://knowhow.tajco-group.com/knowledge-base/using-a-standard-rdp-client-application/


QUESTION 2
Which onboarding method would you use to integrate CyberArk with your accounts provisioning process?
A. Accounts Discovery
B. Auto Detection
C. Onboarding RestAPI functions
D. PTA Rules
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
All of your Unix root passwords are stored in the safe UnixRoot. Dual control is enabled for some of the accounts in that
safe. The members of the AD group UnixAdmins need to be able to use the show, copy, and connect buttons on those
passwords at any time without confirmation. The members of the AD group OperationsStaff need to be able to use the
show, copy and connect buttons on those passwords on an emergency basis, but only with the approval of a member of
OperationsManagers. The members of OperationsManagers never need to be able to use the show, copy or connect
buttons themselves.
Which safe permissions do you need to grant to OperationsStaff? Check all that apply.
A. Use Accounts
B. Retrieve Accounts
C. List Accounts
D. Authorize Password Requests
E. Access Safe without Authorization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is the primary purpose of Dual Control?
A. Reduced risk of credential theft
B. More frequent password changes
C. Non-repudiation (individual accountability)
D. To force a \\’collusion to commit\\’ fraud ensuring no single actor may use a password without authorization.
Correct Answer: D
 
QUESTION 5
If a password is changed manually on a server, bypassing the CPM, how would you configure the account so that the
CPM could resume management automatically?
A. Configure the Provider to change the password to match the Vault\\’s Password
B. Associate a reconcile account and configure the platform to reconcile automatically.
C. Associate a logon account and configure the platform to reconcile automatically.
D. Run the correct auto detection process to rediscover the password.
Correct Answer: B
 
QUESTION 6
By default, members of which built-in groups will be able to view and configure Automatic Remediation and Session
Analysis and Response in the PVWA?
A. Vault Admins
B. Security Admins
C. Security Operators
D. Auditors
Correct Answer: B
 
QUESTION 7
Which of the following Privileged Session Management solutions provide a detailed audit log of session activities?
A. PSM (i.e., launching connections by clicking on the “Connect” button in the PVWA)
B. PSM for Windows (previously known as RDP Proxy)
C. PSM for SSH (previously known as PSM SSH Proxy)
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
 
QUESTION 8
What is the purpose of the HeadStartInterval setting in a platform?
A. It determines how far in advance audit data is collected for reports.
B. It instructs the CPM to initiate the password change process X number of days before expiration.
C. It instructs the AIM Provider to `skip the cache\\’ during the defined time period.
D. It alerts users of upcoming password changes x number of days before expiration.
Correct Answer: B
 
QUESTION 9
Select the best practice for storing the Master CD.
A. Copy the files to the Vault server and discard the CD
B. Copy the contents of the CD to a Hardware Security Module (HSM) and discard the CD
C. Store the CD in a secure location, such as a physical safe
D. Store the CD in a secure location, such as a physical safe, and copy the contents of the CD to a folder secured with
NTFS permissions on the Vault
Correct Answer: D
 
QUESTION 10
The Vault administrator can change the Vault license by uploading the new license to the system Safe.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
A Logon Account can be specified in the Master Policy.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
The primary purpose of exclusive accounts is to ensure non-repudiation (individual accountability).
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You have associated a logon account to one of your UNIX root accounts in the vault. When attempting to change the
root account\\’s password the CPM will…
A. Log in to the system as root, then change root\\’s password.
B. Log in to the system as the logon account, then change root\\’s password
C. Log in to the system as the logon account, run the su command to log in as root, and then change root\\’s password.
D. None of these.
Correct Answer: A
 

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New Fortinet NSE7_EFW-6.2 Practice Test Q1-Q13 Free

QUESTION 1
Examine the output of the `get router info bgp summary\\’ command shown in the exhibit; then answer the question
below.

NSE7_EFW-6.2 exam questions-q1

Which statements are true regarding the output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. BGP state of the peer 10.125.0.60 is Established.
B. BGP peer 10.200.3.1 has never been down since the BGP counters were cleared.
C. Local BGP peer has not received an OpenConfirm from 10.200.3.1.
D. The local BGP peer has received a total of 3 BGP prefixes.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
View the exhibit, which contains the partial output of an IKE real-time debug, and then answer the question below.

NSE7_EFW-6.2 exam questions-q2

Why didn\\’t the tunnel come up?
A. The pre-shared keys do not match.
B. The remote gateway\\’s phase 2 configuration does not match the local gateway\\’s phase 2 configuration.
C. The remote gateway\\’s phase 1 configuration does not match the local gateway\\’s phase 1 configuration.
D. The remote gateway is using aggressive mode and the local gateway is configured to use man mode.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A FortiGate\\’s portal is connected to a private network. Its port2 is connected to the Internet. Explicit web proxy is
enabled in port1 and only explicit web proxy users can access the Internet. Web cache is NOT enabled. An internal web
proxy user is downloading a file from the Internet via HTTP. Which statements are true regarding the two entries in the
FortiGate session table related to this traffic? (Choose two.)
A. Both session have the local flag on.
B. The destination IP addresses of both sessions are IP addresses assigned to FortiGate\\’s interfaces.
C. One session has the proxy flag on, the other one does not.
D. One of the sessions has the IP address of port2 as the source IP address.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 4
Examine the output of the `diagnose sys session list expectation\\’ command shown in the exhibit; then answer the
question below.

NSE7_EFW-6.2 exam questions-q4

Which statement is true regarding the session in the exhibit?
A. It was created by the FortiGate kernel to allow push updates from FotiGuard.
B. It is for management traffic terminating at the FortiGate.
C. It is for traffic originated from the FortiGate.
D. It was created by a session helper or ALG.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
The logs in a FSSO collector agent (CA) are showing the following error: failed to connect to registry: PIKA1026
(192.168.12.232)
What can be the reason for this error?
A. The CA cannot resolve the name of the workstation.
B. The FortiGate cannot resolve the name of the workstation.
C. The remote registry service is not running in the workstation 192.168.12.232.
D. The CA cannot reach the FortiGate with the IP address 192.168.12.232.
Correct Answer: C
https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD30548
QUESTION 6
When does a RADIUS server send an Access-Challenge packet?
A. The server does not have the user credentials yet.
B. The server requires more information from the user, such as the token code for two-factor authentication.
C. The user credentials are wrong.
D. The user account is not found on the server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Examine the output of the `get router info OSPF neighbor\\’ command shown in the exhibit; then answer the question
below.

NSE7_EFW-6.2 exam questions-q7

Which statements are true regarding the output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. The interface ToRemote is OSPF network type point-to-point.
B. The OSPF router with the ID 0.0.0.2 is the designated router for the ToRemote network.
C. The local FortiGate is the backup designated router for the wan1 network.
D. The OSPF routers with the IDs 0.0.0.69 and 0.0.0.117 are both designated routers for the wan1 network.
Correct Answer: AC
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13685-13.html


QUESTION 8
View the exhibit, which contains the output of a diagnose command, and then answer the question below.

NSE7_EFW-6.2 exam questions-q8

Which statements are true regarding the output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. FortiGate will probe 121.111.236.179 every fifteen minutes for a response.
B. Servers with the D flag are considered to be down.
C. Servers with a negative TZ value are experiencing a service outage.
D. FortiGate used 209.222.147.3 as the initial server to validate its contract.
Correct Answer: AD
A ? because the flag is Failed so FortiGate will check if a server is available every 15 min D-state is I, contact to validate
contract info

QUESTION 9
View the exhibit, which contains the output of a diagnose command, and answer the question below.

NSE7_EFW-6.2 exam questions-q9

Which statements are true regarding the Weight value?
A. Its initial value is calculated based on the round trip delay (RTT).
B. Its initial value is statically set to 10.
C. Its value is incremented with each packet lost.
D. It determines which FortiGuard server is used for license validation.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
An administrator has configured a dial-up IPsec VPN with one phase 2, extended authentication (XAuth)
and IKE mode configuration. The administrator has also enabled the IKE real-time debug:
diagnose debug application like-1
diagnose debug enable
In which order is each step and phase displayed in the debug output each time a new dial-up user is
connecting to the VPN?
A. Phase1; IKE mode configuration; XAuth; phase 2.
B. Phase1; XAuth; IKE mode configuration; phase2.
C. Phase1; XAuth; phase 2; IKE mode configuration.
D. Phase1; IKE mode configuration; phase 2; XAuth.
Correct Answer: B
https://help.fortinet.com/fos50hlp/54/Content/FortiOS/fortigate-ipsecvpn-54/IPsec_VPN_Concepts/IKE_Packet_Processing.htm

QUESTION 11
What global configuration setting changes the behavior for content-inspected traffic while FortiGate is in the system
conserve mode?
A. av-failopen
B. mem-failopen
C. utm-failopen
D. ips-failopen
Correct Answer: A
https://help.fortinet.com/fos50hlp/54/Content/FortiOS/fortigate-security-profiles- 54/Other_Profile_Considerations/Conserve%20mode.htm


QUESTION 12
When using the SSL certificate inspection method to inspect HTTPS traffic, how does FortiGate filter web requests
when the client browser does not provide the server name indication (SNI) extension?
A. FortiGate uses the requested URL from the user\\’s web browser.
B. FortiGate uses the CN information from the Subject field in the server certificate.
C. FortiGate blocks the request without any further inspection.
D. FortiGate switches to the full SSL inspection method to decrypt the data.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which two tasks are automated using the Install Wizard on FortiManager? (Choose two.)
A. Preview pending configuration changes for managed devices.
B. Add devices to FortiManager.
C. Import policy packages from managed devices.
D. Install configuration changes to managed devices.
E. Import interface mappings from managed devices.
Correct Answer: AD
https://help.fortinet.com/fmgr/50hlp/56/5-6-2/FortiManager_Admin_Guide/1000_Device%
20Manager/1200_install_to%20devices/0400_Install% 20wizard-device%20settings.htm There are 4 main wizards: Add
Device: is used to add devices to central management and import their configurations. Install: is used to install
configuration changes from Device Manager or Policies and Objects to the managed devices. It allows you to preview
the changes and, if the administrator doesn\\’t agree with the changes, cancel and modify them. Import policy: is used to
import interface mapping, policy database, and objects associated with the managed devices into a policy package
under the Policy and Object tab. It runs with the Add Device wizard by default and may be run at any time from the
managed device list. Re-install policy: This is used to perform a quick install of the policy package. It doesn\\’t gives the ability
to preview the changes that will be installed to the managed device.

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New Fortinet NSE4_FGT-6.4 Practice Test Q1-Q13 Free

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

NSE4_FGT-6.4 exam questions-q1

The exhibit shows proxy policies and proxy addresses, the authentication rule and authentication scheme,
users, and firewall address.
An explicit web proxy is configured for subnet range 10.0.1.0/24 with three explicit web proxy policies.
The authentication rule is configured to authenticate HTTP requests for subnet range 10.0.1.0/24 with a
form-based authentication scheme for the FortiGate local user database. Users will be prompted for
authentication. How will FortiGate process the traffic when the HTTP request comes from a machine with
the source IP 10.0.1.10 to the destination http://www.fortinet.com? (Choose two.)
A. If a Mozilla Firefox browser is used with User-B credentials, the HTTP request will be allowed.
B. If a Google Chrome browser is used with User-B credentials, the HTTP request will be allowed.
C. If a Mozilla Firefox browser is used with User-A credentials, the HTTP request will be allowed.
D. If a Microsoft Internet Explorer browser is used with User-B credentials, the HTTP request will be allowed.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
If Internet Service is already selected as Source in a firewall policy, which other configuration objects can be added to
the Source filed of a firewall policy?
A. IP address
B. Once Internet Service is selected, no other object can be added
C. User or User Group
D. FQDN address
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.5/cookbook/179236/using-internet-service-inpolicy

QUESTION 3
An organization\\’s employee needs to connect to the office through a high-latency internet connection. Which SSL VPN
setting should the administrator adjust to prevent the SSL VPN negotiation failure?
A. Change the session-ttl.
B. Change the login timeout.
C. Change the idle-timeout.
D. Change the udp idle timer.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

NSE4_FGT-6.4 exam questions-q4

Which contains a network diagram and routing table output.
The Student is unable to access Webserver.
What is the cause of the problem and what is the solution for the problem?
A. The first packet sent from Student failed the RPF check. This issue can be resolved by adding a static route to
10.0.4.0/24 through wan1.
B. The first reply packet for Student failed the RPF check. This issue can be resolved by adding a static route to
10.0.4.0/24 through wan1.
C. The first reply packet for Student failed the RPF check. This issue can be resolved by adding a static route to
203.0.114.24/32 through port3.
D. The first packet sent from Student failed the RPF check. This issue can be resolved by adding a static route to
203.0.114.24/32 through port3.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What inspection mode does FortiGate use if it is configured as a policy-based next-generation firewall (NGFW)?
A. Full Content inspection
B. Proxy-based inspection
C. Certificate inspection
D. Flow-based inspection
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit, which contains a session diagnostic output.

NSE4_FGT-6.4 exam questions-q6

Which statement is true about the session diagnostic output?
A. The session is a UDP unidirectional state.
B. The session is in TCP ESTABLISHED state.
C. The session is a bidirectional UDP connection.
D. The session is a bidirectional TCP connection.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Which two configuration settings are synchronized when FortiGate devices are in an active-active HA cluster? (Choose
two.)
A. FortiGuard web filter cache
B. FortiGate hostname
C. NTP
D. DNS
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 8
Examine the exhibit, which contains a virtual IP and firewall policy configuration.

NSE4_FGT-6.4 exam questions-q8

NSE4_FGT-6.4 exam questions-q8-2

The WAN (port1) interface has the IP address 10.200.1.1/24. The LAN (port2) interface has the IP address
10.0.1.254/24. The first firewall policy has NAT enabled on the outgoing interface address. The second firewall policy is
configured with a VIP as the destination address. Which IP address will be used to source NAT the Internet traffic
coming from a workstation with the IP address 10.0.1.10/24?
A. 10.200.1.10
B. Any available IP address in the WAN (port1) subnet 10.200.1.0/24
C. 10.200.1.1
D. 10.0.1.254
Correct Answer: B
https://help.fortinet.com/fos50hlp/54/Content/FortiOS/fortigate-firewall-52/Firewall%20Objects/Virtual%20IPs.htm


QUESTION 9
Examine this PAC file configuration.

NSE4_FGT-6.4 exam questions-q9

Which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Browsers can be configured to retrieve this PAC file from the FortiGate.
B. Any web request to the 172.25.120.0/24 subnet is allowed to bypass the proxy.
C. All requests not made to Fortinet.com or the 172.25.120.0/24 subnet, have to go through altproxy.corp.com: 8060.
D. Any web request fortinet.com is allowed to bypass the proxy.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 10
Which statements best describe auto discovery VPN (ADVPN). (Choose two.)
A. It requires the use of dynamic routing protocols so that spokes can learn the routes to other spokes.
B. ADVPN is only supported with IKEv2.
C. Tunnels are negotiated dynamically between spokes.
D. Every spoke requires a static tunnel to be configured to other spokes so that phase 1 and phase 2 proposals are
defined in advance.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 11
An administrator is running the following sniffer command:

NSE4_FGT-6.4 exam questions-q11

Which three pieces of Information will be Included in me sniffer output? (Choose three.)
A. Interface name B. Packet payload
C. Ethernet header
D. IP header
E. Application header
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit to view the application control profile.

NSE4_FGT-6.4 exam questions-q13

Users who use Apple FaceTime video conferences are unable to set up meetings. In this scenario, which statement is
true?
A. Apple FaceTime belongs to the custom monitored filter.
B. The category of Apple FaceTime is being monitored.
C. Apple FaceTime belongs to the custom blocked filter.
D. The category of Apple FaceTime is being blocked.
Correct Answer: A

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NetApp NS0-173 Practice Test Q1-Q13 Free

QUESTION 1
A customer with a FlexPod Express configuration is currently operating Linux servers. The company wants to move to a
The windows-centralized access method for the NetApp storage component.
In this scenario, which two ONTAP features must be configured? (Choose two.)
A. Active Directory security model
B. SVM with the SMB protocol enabled
C. Workgroup security model
D. SVM with the NFS protocol enabled
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 2
A customer is designing a FlexPod solution with VMware 6.x in a SAN boot environment using FCoE. The customer has
predetermined the WWPN values for the NetApp LIFs and the UCS vHBAs. The customer is now working on the design
workflow for the SAN boot process.
In this scenario, which three FlexPod environment objects are required for SAN connectivity? (Choose three.)
A. NetApp export policies
B. UCS boot policies
C. UCS IQN pools
D. initiator groups
E. FC zones
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 3
You are configuring Cisco UCS servers for FC SAN boot and want to perform zoning on your Cisco Nexus 5000 series
switches.
In this scenario, which statement is correct?
A. The corresponding FC ports on your NetApp storage array must be configured in LACP mode.
B. An iSCSI license on the NetApp storage controller is required.
C. SAN links are required between the Cisco Fabric Interconnects and the Nexus 5000 switches.
D. FC zoning on the Nexus series switches is not supported; zoning can be done only on the Cisco Fabric
Interconnects.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2_chapter_011011.html


QUESTION 4
A customer is using a FlexPod implementation that has 10 Gbps uplinks from the B-Series chassis to the fabric
interconnect. The customer wants to upgrade the links to 40 Gbps.
In this scenario, which model of Cisco UCS server IOM is required?
A. 2204XP.
B. 2208XP
C. 2232
D. 2304
Correct Answer: A
The Cisco UCS 2204XP Fabric Extender (Figure 7) has four 10 Gigabit Ethernet, FCoE-capable, SFP+ ports that
connect the blade chassis to the fabric interconnect. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series-blade-servers/spec_sheet_c17644224.pdf

QUESTION 5
Click the Exhibit button.

NS0-173 exam questions-q5

A customer wants to ensure that FlexPod Datacenter connections to the storage layer are highly available. Which two
configurations shown in the exhibit satisfy the customer\\’s requirements? (Choose two.)
A. I.
B. II.
C. III.
D. IV
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 6
Which command would a FlexPod administrator use to determine whether an FC initiator has logged on to the fabric?
A. MDS9148>show fcfwd
B. MDS9148>show fcdomain
C. MDS9148>show fcc
D. MDS9148>show flogi database
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2017/pdf/BRKDCN-1121.pdf

QUESTION 7
You are designing a FlexPod solution with a 2-node storage system, multiple compute chassis and ACI.
In this scenario, which two network switches are required? (Choose two.)
A. leaf switch
B. core switch
C. cluster interconnect switch D. spine switch
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/applicationcentricinfrastructure/white-paper-c11-737909.html

QUESTION 8
A customer has deployed a FlexPod Datacenter with Red Hat Enterprise Linux OpenStack Platform. The Cinder storage
volumes that are attached to the Nova instances are not available.
Based on the terms of the cooperative support model, which three companies would the customer use to open a
support case? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco
B. VMware
C. Microsoft
D. NetApp
E. Red Hat
Correct Answer: ADE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/UCS_CVDs/flexpod_openstack_osp6_design.html


QUESTION 9
Your customer has a FlexPod solution with a 2-node switchless ONTAP system, Cisco Nexus 93108 switches, and
Cisco UCS B-Series servers. The customer wants to expand to a 4-node ONTAP storage cluster.
Which configuration is valid for expansion?
A. Use the existing Nexus 93108 switches for the cluster interconnect.
B. Add two Nexus 3232C switches for the cluster interconnect.
C. Add two Nexus 93108 switches for the cluster interconnect.
D. Add one Nexus 3232C switch for the cluster interconnect.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
A customer is designing a FlexPod Datacenter with Cisco UCS C-Series servers. They intend to manage the solution
with the Cisco UCS Manager. They want to cable the servers to the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects.
In this scenario, which three configurations are supported? (Choose three.)
A. Cluster mode
B. Direct Connect mode
C. SingleConnect mode
D. DualWire Management mode
E. Multipath mode
Correct Answer: BCD
Dual-wire Management (Shared LOM): Shared LAN on Motherboard (LOM) ports on the rack server are used
exclusively for carrying management traffic. A separate cable connected to one of the ports on the PCIe card carries the
data traffic. Using two separate cables for managing data traffic and management traffic is also referred to as dual-wire
management. SingleConnect (Sideband): Using Network Controller Sideband Interface (NC-SI), the Cisco VIC card
connects one cable that can carry both data traffic and management traffic. This feature is referred to as SingleConnect.
Direct Connect Mode: Cisco UCS Manager supports an option to connect the Cisco UCS C-Series Rack-Mount Server
directly to the FIs. This option enables Cisco UCS Manager to manage the Cisco UCS C-Series Rack-Mount Servers
using a single cable for both management traffic and data traffic. The Cisco UCS VIC connects to the FI of the system.
This connection uses a single connection from each VIC to each FI.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c-series_integration/ucsm4-0/b_CSeriesIntegration_UCSM4-0/b_C-Series-Integration_UCSM4-0_chapter_01.html

QUESTION 11
Click the Exhibit button.

NS0-173 exam questions-q11

You are designing a FlexPod Datacenter solution for Microsoft Windows 2012 with Hyper-V. All hosts will boot from the
SAN, including management hosts. The management hosts are Cisco C-Series servers.
Referring to the exhibit, which adapters are required to boot the management servers from the SAN?
A. two 1GbE NICs
B. two 10GbE CNAs
C. two 10GbE NICs
D. two 8Gb HBAs
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
Which port type would you configure when you connect a chassis to the Cisco Fabric Interconnects?
A. Ethernet uplink ports
B. FC storage ports
C. server ports
D. appliance ports
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.netapp.com/media/12424-tr4036.pdf (16)


QUESTION 13
An architect is designing a FlexPod environment with Cisco Nexus 5000 switches to SAN boot all of the ESXi hosts over
FC.
In this scenario, what should the LUN ID number be?
A. LUN 2
B. LUN 3
C. LUN 0
D. LUN 1
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/UCS_CVDs/flexpod_50_M3.html

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[2021.4] New, Free | Fortinet NSE4_FGT-6.4 Practice Test, Fortinet NSE4_FGT-6.4 Pdf

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New Fortinet NSE4_FGT-6.4 Practice Test Q1-Q13 Free

QUESTION 1
An administrator has configured a strict RPF check on FortiGate. Which statement is true about the strict RPF check?
A. The strict RPF check is run on the first sent and reply packet of any new session.
B. Strict RPF checks the best route back to the sourceusingtheincoming interface.
C. Strict RPF checks only for the existence of at cast one active route back to the source using the incoming interface.
D. Strict RPF allows packets back to sources with all active routes.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Examine the two static routes shown in the exhibit, then answer the following question.

NSE4_FGT-6.4 exam questions-q2

Which of the following is the expected FortiGate behavior regarding these two routes to the same destination?
A. FortiGate will load balance all traffic across both routes.
B. FortiGate will use the port1 route as the primary candidate.
C. FortiGate will route twice as much traffic to the port2 route
D. FortiGate will only actuate the port1 route in the routing table
Correct Answer: B
“If multiple static routes have the same distance, they are all active; however, only the one with the lowest priority is
considered the best path.”


QUESTION 3
Examine the IPS sensor and DoS policy configuration shown in the exhibit, then answer the question below.

NSE4_FGT-6.4 exam questions-q3

When detecting attacks, which anomaly, signature, or filter will FortiGate evaluate first?
A. SMTP.Login.Brute.Force
B. IMAP.Login.brute.Force
C. ip_src_session
D. Location: server Protocol: SMTP
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
An administrator does not want to report the logon events of service accounts to FortiGate. What setting on the collector
agent is required to achieve this?
A. Add the support of NTLM authentication.
B. Add useraccounts to Active Directory (AD).
C. Add user accounts to the FortiGate group fitter.
D. Add user accounts to the Ignore User List.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Which statement regarding the firewall policy authentication timeout is true?
A. It is an idle timeout. The FortiGate considers a user to be “idle” if it does not see any packets coming from the user\\’s
source IP.
B. It is a hard timeout. The FortiGate removes the temporary policy for a user\\’s source IP address after this timer has
expired.
C. It is an idle timeout. The FortiGate considers a user to be “idle” if it does not see any packets coming from the user\\’s
source MAC.
D. It is a hard timeout. The FortiGate removes the temporary policy for a user\\’s source MAC address after this timer
has expired.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibits to view the firewall policy (Exhibit A) and the antivirus profile (Exhibit B).

NSE4_FGT-6.4 exam questions-q6

NSE4_FGT-6.4 exam questions-q6-2

 

Which statement is correct if a user is unable to receive a block replacement message when downloading an infected
file for the first time?
A. The firewall policy performs the full content inspection on the file.
B. The flow-based inspection is used, which resets the last packet to the user.
C. The volume of traffic being inspected is too high for this model of FortiGate.
D. The intrusion prevention security profile needs to be enabled when using flow-based inspection mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibits.

NSE4_FGT-6.4 exam questions-q7

The SSL VPN connection fails when a user attempts to connect to it. What should the user do to successfully connect to
SSL VPN?
A. Change the SSL VPN port on the client.
B. Change the Server IP address.
C. Change the idle-timeout.
D. Change the SSL VPN portal to the tunnel.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

NSE4_FGT-6.4 exam questions-q8

A network administrator is troubleshooting an IPsec tunnel between two FortiGate devices. The administrator has
determined that phase 1 status is up. but phase 2 fails to come up.
Based on the phase 2 configuration shown in the exhibit, what configuration change will bring phase 2 up?
A. On HQ-FortiGate,enable Auto-negotiate.
B. On Remote-FortiGate, set Seconds to 43200.
C. On HQ-FortiGate,enable Diffie-Hellman Group 2.
D. On HQ-FortiGate, set Encryption to AES256.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
Which statement correctly describes NetAPI polling mode for the FSSO collector agent?
A. The collector agent uses a Windows API to query DCs for user logins.
B. NetAPI polling can increase bandwidth usage in large networks.
C. The collector agent must search security event logs.
D. The NetSessionEnum functionis user] to track user logouts.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
Why does FortiGate Keep TCP sessions in the session table for several seconds, even after both sides (client and
server) have terminated the session?
A. To allow for out-of-order packets that could arrive after the FIN/ACK packets
B. To finish any inspection operations
C. To remove the NAT operation
D. To generate logs
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
An administrator has configured the following settings:

NSE4_FGT-6.4 exam questions-q11

What are the two results of this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Device detection on all interfaces is enforced for 30 minutes.
B. Denied users are blocked for 30 minutes.
C. A session for denied traffic is created.
D. The number of logs generated by denied traffic is reduced.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference:https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD46328

QUESTION 12
Examine this PAC file configuration.

NSE4_FGT-6.4 exam questions-q12

Which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Browsers can be configured to retrieve this PAC file from the FortiGate.
B. Any web request to the 172.25.120.0/24 subnet is allowed to bypass the proxy.
C. All requests not made to Fortinet.com or the 172.25.120.0/24 subnet, have to go through altproxy.corp.com: 8060.
D. Any web request fortinet.com is allowed to bypass the proxy.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 13
Which two settings can be separately configured per VDOM on a FortiGate device? (Choose two.)
A. System time
B. FortiGuaid update servers
C. Operating mode
D. NGFW mode
Correct Answer: AD

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[2021.4] New, Free | CyberArk CAU302 Practice Test, CyberArk CAU302 Pdf

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New CyberArk CAU302 Practice Test Q1-Q13 Free

QUESTION 1
Which report could show all audit data in the vault?
A. Privileged Account Compliance Status Report
B. Activity Log
C. Privileged Account Inventory Report
D. Application Inventory Report
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
In version 10.7 the correct order of installation for components changed. Make the necessary corrections to the list
below to show the new installation order.
Select and Place:

CAU302 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

CAU302 exam questions-q2-2

 

QUESTION 3
A SIEM integration allows you to forward audit records to a monitoring solution.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
Which user(s) can access all passwords in the vault
A. Administrator
B. Any member of Vault Admins
C. Any member of Auditors
D. Master
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
The vault does not support Subnet Based Access Control.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
What conditions must be met in order to log into the vault as the Master user? Select all that apply.
A. Logon must be originated from the console of the Vault server or an EmergencyStation defined in DBParm.ini
B. User must provide the correct master password.
C. Logon requires the Recovery Private Key to be accessible to the vault.
D. Logon must satisfy a challenge-response request.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 7
Auto-Detection can be configured to leverage LDAP/S.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following statements are NOT true when enabling PSM recording for a target Windows server?
A. The PSM software must be installed on the target server.
B. PSM must be enabled in the Master Policy (either directly, or through an exception).
C. PSMConnect must be added as a local user on the target server.
D. RDP must be enabled on the target server.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
Vault admins must manually add the auditor’s group to newly created safes so auditors will have sufficient access to run
reports.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
The Vault needs to send SNMP traps to an SNMP solution. In which configuration file do you set the IP address of the
SNMP solution?
A. PARAgent.ini
B. dbparm.ini
C. ENEConf.ini
D. my.ini
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
The Application Inventory report is related to AIM.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What is the purpose of the Interval setting in a CPM policy?
A. To control how often the CPM looks for System Initiated CPM work
B. To control how often the CPM looks for User Initiated CPM work.
C. To control how long the CPM rests between password changes
D. To control the maximum amount of time the CPM will wait for a password change to complete
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Match the log file name with the CyberArk Component that generates the log.
Select and Place:

CAU302 exam questions-q13

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[2021.4] New, Free | Fortinet NSE7_EFW-6.2 Practice Test, Fortinet NSE7_EFW-6.2 Pdf

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements about application layer test commands are true? (Choose two.)
A. They are used to filter real-time debugs.
B. They display real-time application debugs.
C. Some of them can be used to restart an application.
D. Some of them display statistics and configuration information about a feature or process.
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit, which contains the output of a web filtering diagnose command.

NSE7_EFW-6.2 exam questions-q2

Which statement explains why the cache statistics are all zeros?
A. The FortiGate web filter cache is disabled in the FortiGate configuration.
B. FortiGate is using flow-based inspection which does not use the cache.
C. The administrator has reallocated the cache memory to a separate process.
D. There are no users making web requests.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit, which contains the partial output of an IKE real-time debug.

NSE7_EFW-6.2 exam questions-q3

Why did the tunnel not come up?
A. The pre-shared keys do not match
B. The remote gateway phase 1 configuration does not match the local gateway phase 1 configuration.
C. The remote gateway phase 2 configuration does not match the local gateway phase 2 configuration.
D. The remote gateway is using aggressive mode and the local gateway is configured to use main mode.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What is the diagnose test application ipsmonitor 99 command used for?
A. To enable IPS bypass mode
B. To provide information regarding IPS sessions
C. To disable the IPS engine
D. To restart all IPS engines and monitors
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
When using the SSL certificate inspection method to inspect HTTPS traffic, how does FortiGate filter web requests
when the client browser does not provide the server name indication (SNI) extension?
A. FortiGate uses the requested URL from the user\\’s web browser.
B. FortiGate uses the CN information from the Subject field in the server certificate.
C. FortiGate blocks the request without any further inspection.
D. FortiGate switches to the full SSL inspection method to decrypt the data.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit, which contains a partial output of an IKE real-time debug.

NSE7_EFW-6.2 exam questions-q6

Based on the debug output, which phase-1 setting is enabled in the configuration of this VPN?
A. auto-discovery-receiver
B. auto-discovery-forwarder
C. auto-discovery-sender
D. auto-discovery-shortcut
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit, which contains a TCL script configuration on FortiManager.

NSE7_EFW-6.2 exam questions-q7

An administrator has configured the TCL script on FortiManager but failed to apply any changes to the managed device
after being executed.
Why did the TCL script fail to make any changes to the managed device?
A. Changes in an interface configuration can only be done by CLI script.
B. The TCL script must start with #include.
C. Incomplete commands are ignored in TCL scripts.
D. The TCL command run_cmd has not been created.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which three conditions are required for two FortiGate devices to form an OSP adjacency? (Choose three.)
A. OSPF costs match
B. OSPF peer IDs match
C. Hello and dead intervals match
D. OSPF IP MTUs match
E. IP addresses are in the same subnet
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 9

NSE7_EFW-6.2 exam questions-q9

Refer to the exhibit, which contains a CLI script configuration on FortiManager.
An administrator has configured the CLI script on FortiManager, which failed to apply any changes to the
managed device after being executed.
Why did the script not make any changes to the managed device?
A. There is an existing route with a lower priority value.
B. CLI scripts will add objects only if they are referenced by policies.
C. Commands that start with the #sign are not executed.
D. Static routes can only be added using TCL scripts.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which configuration can be used to reduce the number of BGP sessions in an IBGP network?
A. Next-hop-self
B. Route reflector
C. Neighbor group
D. Neighbor range
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

NSE7_EFW-6.2 exam questions-q11

Refer to the exhibit, which contains the output of a BGP debug command. Which statement explains why the state of
the 10.200.3.1 peer is Connect?
A. The local router has received the BGP prefixes from the remote peer.
B. The local router is receiving the BGP keepalives from the peer, but it has not received a BGP prefix yet.
C. The TCP session to 10.200.3.1 has not completed the 3-way handshake.
D. The local router is receiving BGP keepalives from the remote peer, but the local peer has not received the
OpenConfirm yet.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
Which two statements about FortiManager are true when it is deployed as a local FDS? (Choose two.)
A. It caches available firmware updates for unmanaged devices.
B. It provides VM license validation services.
C. It can be configured as an update server, or a rating server, but not both.
D. It supports rating requests from both managed and unmanaged devices.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
Which two statements about bulk configuration changes using FortiManager CLI scripts are correct? (Choose two.)
A. When executed on the Device Database, you must use the installation wizard to apply the changes to the managed
FortiGate.
B. When executed on the Policy Package, ADOM database, changes are applied directly to the managed FortiGate.
C. When executed on the All FortiGate in ADOM, changes are automatically installed without creating a new revision
history.
D. When executed on the Remote FortiGate directly, administrators do not have the option to review the changes prior
to installation.
Correct Answer: AD

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QUESTION 1
display startup MainBoard: Startup system software: sd1:/ar2220-v200r003c00spc200.cc Next startup system software:
sd1:/ar2220- v200r003c00spc200.cc Backup system software for next startup: null Startup saved-configuration file: null
Next startup saved-configuration file: null Startup license file: null Next startup license file: null Startup patch package:
null Next startup patch package: null Startup voice-files: null Next startup voice-files: null Refer to the display output.
Which statement is false?
A. The current configuration file has not been saved.
B. The current startup system software is ar2220-v200r003c00spc200.cc
C. The next startup system software cannot be changed.
D. The next startup system software can be changed by using the “startup system software .cc” command.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
system – view [Huawei]command – privilege level 3 view user save The correct statement about the above configuration
command is ()
A. Modify the user\\’s permission level to 3, and save the configuration.
B. Modify the user view command to a permission level of 3, and save the configuration.
C. Modify the permission level of the save command used by a user to 3
D. Modify the permission level of the save command in the user view to 3
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
The network structure and OSPF partition are shown in the figure. In addition to R1, routers R2, R3 and R4 are OSPF
ABR routers.

h12-211 exam questions-q3

A. Correct
B. Error
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
Two routers are connected via serial interfaces, for which the link-protocol is PPP. The network administrator wishes to
configure PPP authentication to improve security on this link. Which PPP authentication method provides a more secure
solution?
A. CHAP
B. PAP
C. MD5
D. SSH
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
The network administrator wants to improve the performance of network transmission, what steps can the administrator
take? (Choose two)
A. Change the work mode to full duplex of each end station.
B. Link the end stations together using a switch.
C. Change the work mode to half duplex of each end station.
D. Link the end stations together using a hub.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
When two switches use link aggregation technology for interconnection, which of the following conditions do each
member port need to meet? (multiple choice)
A. The number of physical ports connected to the two ends is the same.
B. The physical ports connected to the two ends have the same rate.
C. The physical port duplex mode connected to the two ends is the same.
D. The physical numbers of the physical interfaces connected to the two ends are the same.
E. The optical modules used by the physical ports connected to the two ends are of the same type.
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 7
In the OSI reference model, the ability to perform end-to-end error detection and flow control is ().
A. Physical layer
B. Data link layer
C. Network layer
D. Transport layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Source Destination Protocol Info
10.0.12.1 10.0.12.2 TCP 50190 > telnet [SYN] Seq=0 Win=8192 Len=0 MSS=1460 10.0.12.2 10.0.12.1 TCP telnet>
50190 [SYN, ACK] Seq=0 Ack=1 Win=8192 Len=0 MSS=1460 10.0.12.1 10.0.12.2 TCP 50190 > telnet [ACK] Seq=1
Ack=1 Win=8192 Len=0 Refer to the capture output.The administrator has captured three packets in the network. Which
statement regarding the capured packets is incorrect?
A. This packets represent a TCP three-way handshake process.
B. 10.0.12.1 is the telnet server, while 10.0.12.2 is the telnet client.
C. The three packets contain no application data.
D. 10.0.12.1 uses port 50190 to buid the telnet connection.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
217.# Interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 Port link type trunk Port trunk allow pass vlan 2 to 4094 #
According to the command output shown above, the correct one in the following description is () (multiple choice)
A. GigabitEthernet0/0/1 does not allow VLAN1 to pass.
B. GigabitEthernet0/0/1 allows VLAN1 to pass
C. If you want to change the GigabitEthernet0/0/1 port to an Access port, you must first use the command “undo port
trunk allow pass vlan All clear the default configuration
D. If you want to change the GigabitEthernet0/0/1 port to an Access port, you must first use the command “undo port
trunk allow pass vlan 2 to 4094″ clear default configuration
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
As shown in the figure, both ports GE0/0/1 and GE0/0/2 are configured with different Hybrid configurations. The correct
statement is (). (many selected)

h12-211 exam questions-q10

A. The administrative department and the finance department cannot exchange visits because the VLANs belonging to
the two departments are different.
B. The data frame sent by the administrative department carries the tag in the switch as VLAN20.
C. The data frame sent by the finance department carries the tag in the switch as VLAN20.
D. The switch here can be a Layer 2 switch or a Layer 3 switch because communication does not need to go through a
Layer 3 gateway.
E. If both ports GE0/0/1 and GE0/0/2 of the switch are modified to be trunk ports, the two departments can
communicate normally.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
Refer to the following topology and router configuration. The NAT configuration does not specify a NAT global address
pool, so address translation cannot be performed correctly.

h12-211 exam questions-q11

A. Yes
B. Wrong
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
Which of the following statements regarding link-state database and routing table of a “single” OSPF area are correct?
(Choose two)
A. The link-state databases that all routers build are identical.
B. The link-state databases that all routers build are different.
C. The routing-tables that all routers calculate are different.
D. The routing-tables that all routers calculate are identical.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 13
It is known that the routing table of a router has the following two entries. If the router wants to forward packets with the
destination address of 9.1.4.5, the following is said. The correct thing in the law is ().

h12-211 exam questions-q13

A. Select the first item as the best match because the OSPF protocol has a higher priority.
B. Select the second item as the best match because the RIP protocol has a lower value.
C. Select the second item as the best match because the exit is Ethternet0, which is faster than Serial 0.
D. Select the second term as the best match because the route entry is a more accurate match for the destination
address 9.1.4.5
Correct Answer: D

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NetApp NS0-002 Practice Test Q1-Q13 Free

QUESTION 1
You have a centralized data center running NetApp ONTAP. Your business is deploying a new IoT solution directly
managed by the Azure IoT hub. You want to store data in the cloud for use with data analytics.
Whish NetApp solution would accomplish this task?
A. Cloud Secure
B. Cloud Volumes ONTAP
C. Cloud Backup Service
D. Cloud Insights
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Your business has access to on-premises applications and decides to distribute some of the workloads onto a public
cloud provider.
In this scenario, what is this architecture called?
A. hybrid cloud
B. public cloud
C. community cloud
D. private cloud
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Which two StorageGRID features provide data durability for large unstructured datasets? (Choose two.)
A. erasure coding
B. storage tiering
C. object replication
D. S3 API compatibility
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Your users require both NFS and SMB file services. You do not want to manage the storage using OnCommand
System Manager or the command-line interface.
In this scenario, which three products would satisfy these requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Azure NetApp Files
B. NetApp Cloud Volumes ONTAP
C. NetApp Cloud Volumes Service for AWS
D. NetApp Cloud Volumes Service for GCP
E. Amazon S3 Glacier
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 5
What are the two functions of FlexGroup volumes? (Choose two.)
A. massive capacity
B. ability to hold LUNs
C. nondisruptive scale out
D. ideal for small workloads
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
What is an elastic IP?
A. an Internet routable address
B. a nonroutable address
C. a peering route
D. a load-balanced IP address
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What are two node types within a Kubernetes cluster? (Choose two.)
A. storage node
B. gateway node
C. worker node
D. master node
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Which two statements describe the benefits of using public clouds? (Choose two.)
A. Applications are always less expensive to run in the public cloud.
B. Public clouds are always used for hosting tier 1 and financial applications.
C. Public clouds provide an environment for development, testing, and disaster-recovery applications.
D. Public clouds support multi-regional applications without the expense of collocating data centers.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 9
What is the primary interface to manage a NetApp HCI cluster?
A. VMware vCenter
B. OnCommand System Manager
C. OnCommand Unfired Manager
D. VMware Horizon
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
What are two reasons to enable high availability? (Choose two.)
A. performance management
B. fault tolerance
C. nondisruptive operation
D. load balancing
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 11
What is a group of one or more containers in a Kubernetes cluster?
A. helm
B. pilot
C. node
D. pod
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
What are two methods to subscribe to Cloud Insights? (Choose two.)
A. NetApp Cloud Central
B. NetApp Sales
C. NetApp Support Site
D. AWS Marketplace
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
You are currently performing all the important administrator and maintenance tasks for your system, and need to
delegate work to the staff so that you can attend to other issues.
Which approach will you take to ensure that your systems are safe?
A. Provide all users with power user access.
B. Employ mandatory integrity control.
C. Provide all users with administrator access.
D. Employ the principle of least privilege.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
You need to design a data architecture to bring together all your data at any scale and provide insights into all your
users through the use of analytical dashboards, operational reports, and advanced analytics.
How should you complete the architecture? To answer, drag the appropriate Azure services to the correct locations in
the architecture. Each service may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between
panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

dp-200 exam questions-q1

Ingest: Azure Data Factory Store: Azure Blob storage Model and Serve: Azure SQL Data Warehouse
Load data into Azure SQL Data Warehouse.
Prep and Train: Azure Databricks. Extract data from Azure Blob storage. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-databricks/databricks-extract-load-sql-data-warehouse

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You are designing a data processing solution that will run as a Spark job on an HDInsight cluster. The solution will be
used to provide near real-time information about online ordering for a retailer.
The solution must include a page on the company intranet that displays summary information.
The summary information page must meet the following requirements:
1.
Display a summary of sales to date grouped by product categories, price range, and review scope.
2.
Display sales summary information including total sales, sales as compared to one day ago and sales as compared to
one year ago.
3.
Reflect information for new orders as quickly as possible.
You need to recommend a design for the solution.
What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate configuration in the answer area.
Hot Area:

dp-200 exam questions-q2

Explanation:
Box 1: DataFrame
DataFrames
Best choice in most situations.
Provides query optimization through Catalyst.
Whole-stage code generation.
Direct memory access.
Low garbage collection (GC) overhead.
Not as developer-friendly as DataSets, as there are no compile-time checks or domain object programming.
Box 2: parquet
The best format for performance is parquet with snappy compression, which is the default in Spark 2.x. Parquet stores
data in columnar format, and is highly optimized in Spark.
Incorrect Answers:
DataSets
Good in complex ETL pipelines where the performance impact is acceptable.
Not good in aggregations where the performance impact can be considerable.
RDDs
You do not need to use RDDs, unless you need to build a new custom RDD.
No query optimization through Catalyst.
No whole-stage code generation.
High GC overhead.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/spark/apache-spark-perf


QUESTION 3
You need to design the encryption strategy for the tagging data and customer data.
What should you recommend? To answer, drag the appropriate setting to the correct drop targets. Each source may be
used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

dp-200 exam questions-q3

All cloud data must be encrypted at rest and in transit.
Box 1: Transparent data encryption Encryption of the database file is performed at the page level. The pages in an
encrypted database are encrypted before they are written to disk and decrypted when read into memory. Box 2:
Encryption at rest
Encryption at Rest is the encoding (encryption) of data when it is persisted.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/security/encryption/transparent-dataencryption?view=sql-server-2017 https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/azure-security-encryption-atrest

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
Which Azure service and feature should you recommend using to manage the transient data for Data Lake Storage? To
answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

dp-200 exam questions-q4

Scenario: Stage inventory data in Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 before loading the data into the analytical data store.
Litware wants to remove transient data from Data Lake Storage once the data is no longer in use. Files that have a
modified date that is older than 14 days must be removed.
Service: Azure Data Factory
Clean up files by built-in delete activity in Azure Data Factory (ADF).
ADF built-in delete activity, which can be part of your ETL workflow to deletes undesired files without writing code. You
can use ADF to delete folder or files from Azure Blob Storage, Azure Data Lake Storage Gen1, Azure Data Lake
Storage
Gen2, File System, FTP Server, sFTP Server, and Amazon S3.
You can delete expired files only rather than deleting all the files in one folder. For example, you may want to only delete
the files which were last modified more than 13 days ago.
Feature: Delete Activity
Reference:
https://azure.microsoft.com/sv-se/blog/clean-up-files-by-built-in-delete-activity-in-azure-data-factory/


QUESTION 5
You plan to deploy an Azure SQL Database instance to support an application. You plan to use the DTU-based
purchasing model.
Backups of the database must be available for 30 days and point-in-time restoration must be possible.
You need to recommend a backup and recovery policy.
What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Use the Premium tier and the default backup retention policy.
B. Use the Basic tier and the default backup retention policy.
C. Use the Standard tier and the default backup retention policy.
D. Use the Standard tier and configure a long-term backup retention policy.
E. Use the Premium tier and configure a long-term backup retention policy.
Correct Answer: DE
The default retention period for a database created using the DTU-based purchasing model depends on the service
tier:
1.
Basic service tier is 1 week.
2.
Standard service tier is 5 weeks.
3.
Premium service tier is 5 weeks. Incorrect Answers:
B: Basic tier only allows restore points within 7 days.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-long-term-retention

QUESTION 6
You are designing an Azure SQL Data Warehouse. You plan to load millions of rows of data into the data warehouse
each day.
You must ensure that staging tables are optimized for data loading.
You need to design the staging tables.
What type of tables should you recommend?
A. Round-robin distributed table
B. Hash-distributed table
C. Replicated table
D. External table
Correct Answer: A
To achieve the fastest loading speed for moving data into a data warehouse table, load data into a staging table. Define
the staging table as a heap and use round-robin for the distribution option.
Incorrect:
Not B: Consider that loading is usually a two-step process in which you first load to a staging table and then insert the
data into a production data warehouse table. If the production table uses a hash distribution, the total time to load and
insert might be faster if you define the staging table with the hash distribution. Loading to the staging table takes longer,
but the second step of inserting the rows to the production table does not incur data movement across the distributions.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/guidance-for-loading-data

QUESTION 7
You need to optimize storage for CONT_SQL3. What should you recommend?
A. AlwaysOn
B. Transactional processing
C. General
D. Data warehousing
Correct Answer: B
CONT_SQL3 with the SQL Server role, 100 GB database size, Hyper-VM to be migrated to Azure VM.
The storage should be configured to optimized storage for database OLTP workloads.
Azure SQL Database provides three basic in-memory based capabilities (built into the underlying database engine) that
can contribute in a meaningful way to performance improvements:
In-Memory Online Transactional Processing (OLTP)
Clustered columnstore indexes intended primarily for Online Analytical Processing (OLAP) workloads
Nonclustered columnstore indexes geared towards Hybrid Transactional/Analytical Processing (HTAP) workloads
References:
https://www.databasejournal.com/features/mssql/overview-of-in-memory-technologies-of-azure-sqldatabase.html


QUESTION 8
You need to ensure that emergency road response vehicles are dispatched automatically.
How should you design the processing system? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area

dp-200 exam questions-q8

Correct Answer:

dp-200 exam questions-q8-2

Events generated from the IoT data sources are sent to the stream ingestion layer through Azure HDInsight Kafka as a
stream of messages. HDInsight Kafka stores streams of data in topics for a configurable of time.
Kafka consumer, Azure Databricks, picks up the message in real time from the Kafka topic, to process the data based
on the business logic and can then send to Serving layer for storage.
Downstream storage services, like Azure Cosmos DB, Azure SQL Data warehouse, or Azure SQL DB, will then be a
data source for presentation and action layer.
Business analysts can use Microsoft Power BI to analyze warehoused data. Other applications can be built upon the
serving layer as well. For example, we can expose APIs based on the service layer data for third party uses.
Box 2: Cosmos DB Change Feed
Change feed support in Azure Cosmos DB works by listening to an Azure Cosmos DB container for any changes. It
then outputs the sorted list of documents that were changed in the order in which they were modified.
The change feed in Azure Cosmos DB enables you to build efficient and scalable solutions for each of these patterns,
as shown in the following image:

dp-200 exam questions-q8-3

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-cyrl-ba/azure/architecture/example-scenario/data/realtime-analytics-vehicleiot?view=azurermps-4.4.1


QUESTION 9
You need to design network access to the SQL Server data.
What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

dp-200 exam questions-q9

Box 1: 8080
1433 is the default port, but we must change it as CONT_SQL3 must not communicate over the default ports. Because
port 1433 is the known standard for SQL Server, some organizations specify that the SQL Server port number should
be
changed to enhance security.
Box 2: SQL Server Configuration Manager
You can configure an instance of the SQL Server Database Engine to listen on a specific fixed port by using the SQL
Server Configuration Manager.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/database-engine/configure-windows/configure-a-server-to-listen-on-a-specific-tcpport?view=sql-server-2017


QUESTION 10
You need to optimize storage for CONT_SQL3.
What should you recommend?
A. AlwaysOn
B. Transactional processing
C. General
D. Data warehousing
Correct Answer: B
CONT_SQL3 with the SQL Server role, 100 GB database size, Hyper-VM to be migrated to Azure VM. The storage
should be configured to optimized storage for database OLTP workloads.
Azure SQL Database provides three basic in-memory based capabilities (built into the underlying database engine) that
can contribute in a meaningful way to performance improvements:
In-Memory Online Transactional Processing (OLTP) Clustered columnstore indexes intended primarily for Online
Analytical Processing (OLAP) workloads Nonclustered columnstore indexes geared towards Hybrid
Transactional/Analytical Processing (HTAP) workloads
References: https://www.databasejournal.com/features/mssql/overview-of-in-memory-technologies-of-azure-sqldatabase.html

QUESTION 11
You store data in an Azure SQL data warehouse.
You need to design a solution to ensure that the data warehouse and the most current data is available within one hour
of a datacenter failure.
Which three actions should you include in the design? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Each day, restore the data warehouse from a geo-redundant backup to an available Azure region.
B. If a failure occurs, update the connection strings to point to the recovered data warehouse.
C. If a failure occurs, modify the Azure Firewall rules of the data warehouse.
D. Each day, create Azure Firewall rules that allow access to the restored data warehouse.
E. Each day, restore the data warehouse from a user-defined restore point to an available Azure region.
Correct Answer: BDE
E: You can create a user-defined restore point and restore from the newly created restore point to a new data
warehouse in a different region.
Note: A data warehouse snapshot creates a restore point you can leverage to recover or copy your data warehouse to a
previous state.
A data warehouse restore is a new data warehouse that is created from a restore point of an existing or deleted data
warehouse. On average within the same region, restore rates typically take around 20 minutes.
Incorrect Answers:
A: SQL Data Warehouse performs a geo-backup once per day to a paired data center. The RPO for a geo-restore is 24
hours. You can restore the geo-backup to a server in any other region where SQL Data Warehouse is supported. A
geobackup ensures you can restore data warehouse in case you cannot access the restore points in your primary
region.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/backup-and-restore

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You are designing a new application that uses Azure Cosmos DB. The application will support a variety of data patterns
including log records and social media mentions.
You need to recommend which Cosmos DB API to use for each data pattern. The solution must minimize resource
utilization.
Which API should you recommend for each data pattern? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

dp-200 exam questions-q12

Log records: SQL
Social media mentions: Gremlin You can store the actual graph of followers using Azure Cosmos DB Gremlin API to
create vertexes for each user and edges that maintain the “A-follows-B” relationships. With the Gremlin API, you can get
the followers of a certain user and create more complex queries to suggest people in common. If you add to the graph
the Content Categories that people like or enjoy, you can start weaving experiences that include smart content
discovery, suggesting content that those people you follow like, or finding people that you might have much in common
with.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/social-media-apps


QUESTION 13
You need to recommend a storage solution for a sales system that will receive thousands of small files per minute. The
files will be in JSON, text, and CSV formats. The files will be processed and transformed before they are loaded into an
Azure data warehouse. The files must be stored and secured in folders.
Which storage solution should you recommend?
A. Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2
B. Azure Cosmos DB
C. Azure SQL Database
D. Azure Blob storage
Correct Answer: A
Azure provides several solutions for working with CSV and JSON files, depending on your needs. The primary landing
place for these files is either Azure Storage or Azure Data Lake Store.1
Azure Data Lake Storage is an optimized storage for big data analytics workloads.
Incorrect Answers:
D: Azure Blob Storage containers is a general purpose object store for a wide variety of storage scenarios. Blobs are
stored in containers, which are similar to folders.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/data-guide/scenarios/csv-and-json

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QUESTION 1
You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization.
You need to create a resource record in DNS to support Autodiscover from the Internet.
What type of resource record should you create?
A. Host (A)
B. Text (TXT)
C. Pointer (PTR)
D. Mail exchange (MX)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You have a server named EX01 that runs Exchange Server 2016. The disks on EX01 are configured as shown in the
following table.

70-345 exam questions-q2

All users access their email by using Microsoft Outlook 2013.
From Performance Monitor, you discover that the MSExchange Database\I/O Database Reads Average Latency
counter displays values that are higher than normal.
You need to identify the impact of the high counter values on user connections in the Exchange Server organization.
What are two client connections that will report slower performance when opening email messages? Each correct
answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Outlook in Online Mode
B. Outlook in Cached Exchange Mode
C. Outlook on the web
D. IMAP4 clients
E. mobile devices using Exchange Active Sync
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains domain controllers that run Windows Server 2012
R2.
The forest contains an Exchange Server 2016 organization.
You need to create a database availability group (DAG).
Which two actions should you perform before you create the DAG? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. From Failover Cluster Manager, create a failover cluster.
B. From the DNS zone, create an alias (CNAME) record for the name of the DAG.
C. Install at least one domain controller that runs Windows Server 2016.
D. From Active Directory, create a clustered name object (CNO).
E. On the witness server, add the Exchange Trusted Subsystem group to the local administrators group.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization. The organization contains 5,000 mailboxes.
All of the users in the organization share their Calendar with the users in two domains named contoso.com
andfabrikam.com.
You need to prevent the organization users from sharing their Calendar with the users in the contoso.com domain.
What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

70-345 exam questions-q4

QUESTION 5
You are planning an Exchange Server 2016 organization. The organization will contain a Mailbox server named EX01.
Users will have primary SMTP email addresses in the following domains: Contoso.com Fabrikam.com Cohowinery.com
Wingtiptoys.com
You need to add a DNS record to provide Autodiscover for each domain.
Which type of record should you create in each zone?
A. SRV
B. CERT
C. PTR
D. MINFO
E. LOC
F. TXT
Correct Answer: A
To configure Autodiscover DNS records, you use either an A record, a CNAME record or an SRV record.
Preference being A as its most commonly used, if that\\’s not there choose SRV as this works where A is not possible(certificate only has 1 SAN) and if that\\’s not there choose CNAME (can be used but can cause compatibility issues and
cert
issues).

QUESTION 6
Your company has an Exchange Server 2016 organization. The organization has a four-node database availability
group (DAG) that spans two data centers. Each data center is configured as a separate Active Directory site. The data
centers
connect to each other by using a high-speed WAN link. Each data center connects directly to the Internet and has a
scoped Send connector configured.
The company\\’s public DNS zone contains one MX record.
You need to ensure that if an Internet link becomes unavailable in one data center, email messages destined to external
recipients can be routed through the other data center.
What should you do?
A. Create a Receive connector in each data center.
B. Clear the Proxy through Client Access server check box.
C. Clear the Scoped Send Connector check box.
D. Create an MX record in the internal DNS zone.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You need to recommend a load balancing solution that meets the availability requirements.
Which load balancing solution should you recommend?
A. a Layer-7 load balancer with a single namespace and without session affinity
B. a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster
C. DNS round robin
D. a Layer-4 load balancer with multiple namespaces and without session affinity
Correct Answer: A
From Scenario:
Contoso identifies the following high-availability requirements for the planned deployment:
The network load balancer must be able to probe the health of each workload.
Load balancers that work on the Layer 7 of OSI model are intelligent. Layer 7 load balancer is aware of the type of traffic
passing through it. This type of load balancer can inspect the content of the traffic between the clients and the
Exchange
server. From this inspection, it gets that results and uses this information to make its forwarding decisions. For example,
it can route traffic based on the virtual directory to which a client is trying to connect, such as /owa, /ecp or /mapi and it
can use a different routing logic, depending on the URL the client is connecting to. When using a Layer 7 load balancer,
you can also leverage the capabilities of Exchange Server 2016 Managed Availability feature. This built-in feature of
Exchange monitors the critical components and services of Exchange server and based on results it can take actions.
Note: Layer 7 load balancer can use this to detect functionality of critical services, and based on that information decide
if it will forward client connections to that node. If the load balancer health check receives a 200 status response from
health check web page, then the service or protocol is up and running. If the load balancer receives a 403 status code,
then it means that Managed Availability has marked that protocol instance down on the Mailbox server.
Although it might look that load balancer actually performs a simple health check against the server nodes in the pool,
health check web page provides an information about workload’s health by taking into account multiple internal health
check probes performed by Managed Availability.
Incorrect Answers:
D: Load balancers that work on Layer 4 are not aware of the actual traffic content being load balanced.
References: http://dizdarevic.ba/ddamirblog/?p=187
 

QUESTION 8
You need to recommend a solution that meets the security requirements for mobile devices.
Which two objects should you include in the recommendation? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. a device access rule
B. a mobile device mailbox policy
C. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy
D. an Outlook Web App policy
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Your network contains a single domain named contoso.local.
You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization that uses a single external SMTP namespace of contoso.com. You
establish mail flow to and from the Internet.
You plan to deploy a customer relationship management (CRM) solution. The CRM solution will have its own SMTP
server and must be able to receive email sent by using various addresses in contoso.com. The addresses will not be
managed by the Exchange Server organization.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the CRM solution can receive email from the Internet. The solution
must ensure that internal users can all receive email.
Which two action should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create a Send connector that has a namespace of * and uses the CRM server as a smart host.
B. Create a Send connector that has a namespace of contoso.com and uses the CRM server as a smart host.
C. Change the domain type of the contoso.com accepted domain to External Relay Domain.
D. Create a Send connector that has a namespace of contoso.local and uses the CRM server as a smart host.
E. Change the domain type of the contoso.com accepted domain to Internal Relay Domain.
F. Change the domain type of the contoso.local accepted domain to Internal Relay Domain.
G. Change the domain type of the contoso.local accepted domain to External Relay Domain.
Correct Answer: BE
External relay domain: No recipients in the authoritative domain exist in the Exchange organization, so you shouldn\\’t
enable Recipient Lookup for the domain.
The Send connector that you configure for non-existent recipients in the external relay domain is sourced on an Edge
Transport server or Internet-facing Mailbox server.
Incorrect Answers:
Internal relay domain: If all recipients in the internal relay domain exist in the Exchange organization (including mail
contacts and mail users), you can enable Recipient Lookup for the domain. If some or none of the recipients in the
internal
relay domain exist in the Exchange organization, you shouldn\\’t enable Recipient Lookup for the domain.
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb124423(v=exchg.160).aspx

QUESTION 10
Your company has a data center in Miami and a data center in Orlando. Each data center is configured as an Active
Directory site.
The network contains an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com.
The company plans to deploy an Exchange Server 2016 organization that will contain the servers configured as shown
in the following table.

70-345 exam questions-q10

The servers will be configured in a single database availability group (DAG). Datacenter Activation Coordination (DAC)
mode will be enabled for the DAG.
All inbound email from the Internet will be routed through EX5.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that users will continue to receive email messages if the Miami data center
fails.
Which two actions should you include in the recommendation? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create one mail exchanger (MX) record that has a priority of 10 and configure the record to point to
mx.fabricam.com. Create a second MX record that has a priority of 100 and configure the record to point to mxbackup.fabrikam.com.
B. Create one mail exchanger (MX) record that has a priority of 10 and a second MX record that has a priority of 100.
Configure both MX records to point to mx.fabrikam.com.
C. Configure a host (A) record named mx.fabrikam.com and point mx.fabrikam.com to the IP address of EX5. Configure
a host (A) record named mx-backup.fabrikam.com and point mx-backup.fabrikam.com to the IP address of EX6.
D. Configure a host (A) record named mx.fabrikam.com. Add the IP addresses of EX5 and EX6 to the record.
E. Modify the weight of the mx.fabrikam.com mail exchanger (MX) record.
Correct Answer: AC
Mail is delivered to the mail exchange server with the lowest preference number (highest priority), so the MX record you
use for mail routing should have the lowest preference number, typically 0 or High priority.
You can have multiple MX records each pointing to a different SMTP host.
References: https://www.microsoftpressstore.com/articles/article.aspx?p=2302522andseqNum=3

QUESTION 11
You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization. The organization contains three Mailbox servers. The servers are
configured as shown in the following table.

70-345 exam questions-q11

You discover that when User1 sends email messages to Group1, all of the messages are delivered to EX02 first.
You need to identify why the email messages sent to Group1 are sent to EX02 instead.
What should you identify?
A. EX02 is configured as an expansion server.
B. The arbitration mailbox is hosted on EX02.
C. Site2 has universal group membership caching enabled.
D. Site2 is configured as a hub site.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa998825(v=exchg.150).aspx

QUESTION 12
You have an Active Directory forest named contoso.com that contains an Exchange Server 2016 organization named
Contoso.
Contoso.com has a two-way forest trust with an Active Directory forest named fabrika.com.
The fabriakm.com forest contains an Exchange Server 2016 organization named Fabrikam.
You need to ensure that the users in Contoso can access the free/busy information of all the users in Fabrikam.
An administrator from Fabrikam runs the following command in the organization.
Get-MailboxServer | Add-ADPermission -Accessrights Extendedright -Extendedrights “ms- ExchEPI-TokenSerialization” -User “CONTOSO\Exchange Servers”
What command should you run in Contoso? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

70-345 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

70-345 exam questions-q12-2

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization. The organization has 500 mailboxes and three servers. The servers
are configured as shown in the following table.

70-345 exam questions-q13

EX10EDGE is located in the perimeter network. EX10CH has an Edge Subscription. All Internet mail flows through
EX10EDGE.
You deploy an Exchange Server 2016 Mailbox server named EX16MBX to the organization. You deploy an Exchange
Server 2016 Edge Transport server named EX16EDGEtothe perimeter network.
You need to transition all Internet mail to flow through EX16EDGE. The solution must minimize disruptions to the mail
flow.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

70-345 exam questions-q13-2

Correct Answer:

70-345 exam questions-q13-3

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Next, introduce you to the new Microsoft AZ-304 practice test

QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
To meet the authentication requirements of Fabrikam, what should you include in the solution? To answer, select the
appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Cert4sure AZ-304 exam questions-q1

Correct Answer:

Cert4sure AZ-304 exam questions-q1-2

Box 1: 2
The network contains two Active Directory forests named corp.fabrikam.com and rd.fabrikam.com. There are no trust
relationships between the forests.
Box 2: 1
Box 3: 1
Scenario:
Users on the on-premises network must be able to authenticate to corp.fabrikam.com if an Internet link fails.
Administrators must be able authenticate to the Azure portal by using their corp.fabrikam.com credentials.
All administrative access to the Azure portal must be secured by using multi-factor authentication.
Note:
Users must always authenticate by using their corp.fabrikam.com UPN identity.
The network contains two Active Directory forests named corp.fabrikam.com and rd.fabrikam.com. There are no trust
relationships between the forests.
Corp.fabrikam.com is a production forest that contains identities used for internal user and computer authentication.
Rd.fabrikam.com is used by the research and development (RandD) department only.


QUESTION 2
You need to design a solution that will execute custom C# code in response to an event routed to Azure Event Grid. The
solution must meet the following requirements:
The executed code must be able to access the private IP address of a Microsoft SQL Server instance that runs on an
Azure virtual machine.
Costs must be minimized.
What should you include in the solution?
A. Azure Logic Apps in the integrated service environment
B. Azure Functions in the Dedicated plan and the Basic Azure App Service plan
C. Azure Logic Apps in the Consumption plan
D. Azure Functions in the Consumption plan
Correct Answer: D
When you create a function app in Azure, you must choose a hosting plan for your app. There are three basic hosting
plans available for Azure Functions: Consumption plan, Premium plan, and Dedicated (App Service) plan. For the
Consumption plan, you don\\’t have to pay for idle VMs or reserve capacity in advance.
Connect to private endpoints with Azure Functions As enterprises continue to adopt serverless (and Platform-as-a-service, or PaaS) solutions, they often need a way to integrate with existing resources on a virtual network. These
existing resources could be databases, file storage, message queues or event streams, or REST APIs.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/functions-scale
https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/azure-functions/connect-to-private-endpoints-with-azure-functions/bap/1426615

QUESTION 3
You need to recommend a solution for protecting the content of the payment processing system. What should you
include in the recommendation?
A. Always Encrypted with deterministic encryption
B. Always Encrypted with randomized encryption
C. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)
D. Azure Storage Service Encryption
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Your company purchases an app named App1.
You plan to run App1 on seven Azure virtual machines in an Availability Set. The number of fault domains is set to 3.
The number of update domains is set to 20.
You need to identify how many App1 instances will remain available during a period of planned maintenance.
How many App1 instances should you identify?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 6
D. 7
Correct Answer: C
Only one update domain is rebooted at a time. Here there are 7 update domain with one VM each (and 13 update
domain with no VM).
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/manage-availability


QUESTION 5
You have an Azure subscription that is linked to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. The subscription contains
10 resource groups, one for each department at your company.
Each department has a specific spending limit for its Azure resources.
You need to ensure that when a department reaches its spending limit, the compute resources of the department shut
down automatically.
Which two features should you include in the solution? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure Logic Apps
B. Azure Monitor alerts
C. the spending limit of an Azure account
D. Cost Management budgets
E. Azure Log Analytics alerts
Correct Answer: CD
C: The spending limit in Azure prevents spending over your credit amount. All new customers who sign up for an Azure
free account or subscription types that include credits over multiple months have the spending limit turned on by default.
The spending limit is equal to the amount of credit and it can\\’t be changed.
D: Turn on the spending limit after removing This feature is available only when the spending limit has been removed
indefinitely for subscription types that include credits over multiple months. You can use this feature to turn on your
spending limit automatically at the start of the next billing period.
1.
Sign in to the Azure portal as the Account Administrator.
2.
Search for Cost Management + Billing.
3.
Etc.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cost-management-billing/manage/spending-limit

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
You are evaluating the components of the migration to Azure that require you to provision an Azure Storage account.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Cert4sure AZ-304 exam questions-q6

Correct Answer:

Cert4sure AZ-304 exam questions-q6-2

QUESTION 7
You need to deploy resources to host a stateless web app in an Azure subscription. The solution must meet the
following requirements:
Provide access to the full .NET framework.
Provide redundancy if an Azure region fails.
Grant administrators access to the operating system to install custom application dependencies.
Solution: You deploy two Azure virtual machines to two Azure regions, and create a Traffic Manager profile.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
You have 70 TB of files on your on-premises file server.
You need to recommend a solution for importing data to Azure. The solution must minimize costs.
What Azure service should you recommend?
A. Azure StorSimple
B. Azure Batch
C. Azure Data Box
D. Azure Stack
Correct Answer: C
Microsoft has engineered an extremely powerful solution that helps customers get their data to the Azure public cloud in
a cost-effective, secure, and efficient manner with powerful Azure and machine learning at play. The solution is called
Data Box.
Data Box and is in general availability status. It is a rugged device that allows organizations to have 100 TB of capacity
on which to copy their data and then send it to be transferred to Azure.
Incorrect Answers:
A: StorSimple would not be able to handle 70 TB of data. Reference: https://www.vembu.com/blog/what-is-microsoftazure-data-box-disk-edge-heavy-gateway-overview/


QUESTION 9
You have an Azure Storage v2 account named storage1.
You plan to archive data to storage1.
You need to ensure that the archived data cannot be deleted for five years. The solution must prevent administrators
from deleting the data.
Solution: You create an Azure Blob storage container, and you configure a legal hold access policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Use an Azure Blob storage container, but use a time-based retention policy instead of a legal hold.
Note:
Immutable storage for Azure Blob storage enables users to store business-critical data objects in a WORM (Write Once,
Read Many) state. This state makes the data non-erasable and non-modifiable for a user-specified interval. For the
duration of the retention interval, blobs can be created and read, but cannot be modified or deleted. Immutable storage
is available for general-purpose v2 and Blob storage accounts in all Azure regions.
Note: Set retention policies and legal holds
1.
Create a new container or select an existing container to store the blobs that need to be kept in the immutable state.
The container must be in a general-purpose v2 or Blob storage account.
2.
Select Access policy in the container settings. Then select Add policy under Immutable blob storage.
Either
3a. To enable legal holds, select Add Policy. Select Legal hold from the drop-down menu.
Or
3b. To enable time-based retention, select Time-based retention from the drop-down menu.
4. Enter the retention interval in days (acceptable values are 1 to 146000 days).
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-immutable-storage
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-immutability-policies-manage

QUESTION 10
You are designing an order processing system in Azure that will contain the Azure resources shown in the following
table.

Cert4sure AZ-304 exam questions-q10

The order processing system will have the following transaction flow:
A customer will place an order by using App1.
When the order is received, App1 will generate a message to check for product availability at vendor 1 and vendor 2.
An integration component will process the message, and then trigger either Function1 or Function2 depending on the
type of order.
Once a vendor confirms the product availability, a status message for App1 will be generated by Function1 or
Function2.
All the steps of the transaction will be logged to storage1.
Which type of resource should you recommend for the integration component?
A. an Azure Data Factory pipeline
B. an Azure Service Bus queue
C. an Azure Event Grid domain
D. an Azure Event Hubs capture
Correct Answer: A
A data factory can have one or more pipelines. A pipeline is a logical grouping of activities that together perform a task.
The activities in a pipeline define actions to perform on your data.
Data Factory has three groupings of activities: data movement activities, data transformation activities, and control
activities.
Azure Functions is now integrated with Azure Data Factory, allowing you to run an Azure Function as a step in your data
factory pipelines.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/concepts-pipelines-activities

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
You have an on-premises network that uses an IP address space of 172.16.0.0/16.
You plan to deploy 25 virtual machines to a new Azure subscription.
You identify the following technical requirements:
All Azure virtual machines must be placed on the same subnet named Subnet1.
All the Azure virtual machines must be able to communicate with all on-premises servers.
The servers must be able to communicate between the on-premises network and Azure by using a site-to-site VPN.
You need to recommend a subnet design that meets the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, drag the appropriate network addresses to the correct
subnets. Each network address may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Cert4sure AZ-304 exam questions-q11

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You configure the Diagnostics settings for an Azure SQL database as shown in the following exhibit.

Cert4sure AZ-304 exam questions-q12

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Cert4sure AZ-304 exam questions-q12-2

QUESTION 13
You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2019 and contains 500 GB of data files.
You are designing a solution that will use Azure Data Factory to transform the data files, and then load the files to Azure
Data Lake Storage.
What should you deploy on VM1 to support the design?
A. the Azure Pipelines agent
B. the Azure File Sync agent
C. the On-premises data gateway
D. the self-hosted integration runtime in Azure
Correct Answer: D
The integration runtime (IR) is the compute infrastructure that Azure Data Factory uses to provide data-integration
capabilities across different network environments. For details about IR, see the Integration runtime overview.
A self-hosted integration runtime can run copy activities between a cloud data store and a data store in a private
network. It also can dispatch transform activities against compute resources in an on-premises network or an Azure
virtual network. The installation of a self-hosted integration runtime needs an on-premises machine or a virtual machine
inside a private network.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/create-self-hosted-integration-runtime

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QUESTION 1
A compliance officer of a large organization has reviewed the firm\\’s vendor management program but has discovered
there are no controls defined to evaluate third-party risk or hardware source authenticity. The compliance officer wants
to gain some level of assurance on a recurring basis regarding the implementation of controls by third parties.
Which of the following would BEST satisfy the objectives defined by the compliance officer? (Choose two.)
A. Executing vendor compliance assessments against the organization\\’s security controls
B. Executing NDAs prior to sharing critical data with third parties
C. Soliciting third-party audit reports on an annual basis
D. Maintaining and reviewing the organizational risk assessment on a quarterly basis
E. Completing a business impact assessment for all critical service providers
F. Utilizing DLP capabilities at both the endpoint and perimeter levels
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 2
An information security analyst observes anomalous behavior on the SCADA devices in a power plant. This behavior
results in the industrial generators overheating and destabilizing the power supply. Which of the following would BEST
identify potential indicators of compromise?
A. Use Burp Suite to capture packets to the SCADA device\\’s IP.
B. Use tcpdump to capture packets from the SCADA device IP.
C. Use Wireshark to capture packets between SCADA devices and the management system.
D. Use Nmap to capture packets from the management system to the SCADA devices.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A development team uses open-source software and follows an Agile methodology with two-week sprints. Last month,
the security team filed a bug for an insecure version of a common library. The DevOps team updated the library on the
server, and then the security team rescanned the server to verify it was no longer vulnerable. This month, the security
team found the same vulnerability on the server.
Which of the following should be done to correct the cause of the vulnerability?
A. Deploy a WAF in front of the application.
B. Implement a software repository management tool.
C. Install a HIPS on the server.
D. Instruct the developers to use input validation in the code.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
An audit has revealed an organization is utilizing a large number of servers that are running unsupported operating
systems.
As part of the management response phase of the audit, which of the following would BEST demonstrate senior
management is appropriately aware of and addressing the issue?
A. Copies of prior audits that did not identify the servers as an issue
B. Project plans relating to the replacement of the servers that were approved by management
C. Minutes from meetings in which risk assessment activities addressing the servers were discussed
D. ACLs from perimeter firewalls showing blocked access to the servers
E. Copies of change orders relating to the vulnerable servers
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A product manager is working with an analyst to design a new application that will perform as a data analytics platform
and will be accessible via a web browser. The product manager suggests using a PaaS provider to host the application.
Which of the following is a security concern when using a PaaS solution?
A. The use of infrastructure-as-code capabilities leads to an increased attack surface.
B. Patching the underlying application server becomes the responsibility of the client.
C. The application is unable to use encryption at the database level.
D. Insecure application programming interfaces can lead to data compromise.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A small electronics company decides to use a contractor to assist with the development of a new FPGA-based device.
Several of the development phases will occur off-site at the contractor\\’s labs. Which of the following is the main
concern a security analyst should have with this arrangement?
A. Making multiple trips between development sites increases the chance of physical damage to the FPGAs.
B. Moving the FPGAs between development sites will lessen the time that is available for security testing.
C. Development phases occurring at multiple sites may produce change management issues.
D. FPGA applications are easily cloned, increasing the possibility of intellectual property theft.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.eetimes.com/how-to-protect-intellectual-property-in-fpgas-devices-part-1/#

QUESTION 7
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned the development team, which consists of contractors, has too
much access to customer data. Developers use personal workstations, giving the company little to no visibility into the
development activities.
Which of the following would be BEST to implement to alleviate the CISO\\’s concern?
A. DLP
B. Encryption
C. Test data
D. NDA
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Bootloader malware was recently discovered on several company workstations. All the workstations run Windows and
are current models with UEFI capability. Which of the following UEFI settings is the MOST likely cause of the
infections?
A. Compatibility mode
B. Secure boot mode
C. Native mode
D. Fast boot mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A security analyst is reviewing packet captures from a system that was compromised. The system was already isolated
from the network, but it did have network access for a few hours after being compromised. When viewing the capture in
a packet analyzer, the analyst sees the following:

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Which of the following can the analyst conclude?
A. Malware is attempting to beacon to 128.50.100.3.
B. The system is running a DoS attack against ajgidwle.com.
C. The system is scanning ajgidwle.com for PII.
D. Data is being exfiltrated over DNS.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
A security analyst is reviewing vulnerability scan results and notices new workstations are being flagged as having
outdated antivirus signatures. The analyst observes the following plugin output:
Antivirus is installed on the remote host:
Installation path: C:\Program Files\AVProduct\Win32\
Product Engine: 14.12.101
Engine Version: 3.5.71
Scanner does not currently have information about AVProduct version 3.5.71. It may no longer be supported.
The engine version is out of date. The oldest supported version from the vendor is 4.2.11.
The analyst uses the vendor\\’s website to confirm the oldest supported version is correct.
Which of the following BEST describes the situation?
A. This is a false positive, and the scanning plugin needs to be updated by the vendor.
B. This is a true negative, and the new computers have the correct version of the software.
C. This is a true positive, and the new computers were imaged with an old version of the software.
D. This is a false negative, and the new computers need to be updated by the desktop team.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A security analyst is evaluating two vulnerability management tools for possible use in an organization. The analyst set
up each of the tools according to the respective vendor\\’s instructions and generated a report of vulnerabilities that ran
against the same target server.
Tool A reported the following:

Cert4sure cs0-002 exam questions-q11

Which of the following BEST describes the method used by each tool? (Choose two.)
A. Tool A is agent based.
B. Tool A used fuzzing logic to test vulnerabilities.
C. Tool A is unauthenticated.
D. Tool B utilized machine learning technology.
E. Tool B is agent based.
F. Tool B is unauthenticated.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
A security technician is testing a solution that will prevent outside entities from spoofing the company\\’s email domain,
which is comptia.org. The testing is successful, and the security technician is prepared to fully implement the solution.
Which of the following actions should the technician take to accomplish this task?
A. Add TXT @ “v=spf1 mx include:_spf.comptia.org -all” to the DNS record.
B. Add TXT @ “v=spf1 mx include:_spf.comptia.org -all” to the email server.
C. Add TXT @ “v=spf1 mx include:_spf.comptia.org +all” to the domain controller.
D. Add TXT @ “v=spf1 mx include:_spf.comptia.org +all” to the web server.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://blog.finjan.com/email-spoofing

QUESTION 13
A security analyst reviews the following aggregated output from an Nmap scan and the border firewall ACL:

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Which of the following should the analyst reconfigure to BEST reduce organizational risk while maintaining current
functionality?
A. PC1
B. PC2
C. Server1
D. Server2
E. Firewall
Correct Answer: E

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VMware VCAP6.5-DCV Design 3V0-624 Practice Question

QUESTION 1
Customer Requirements:
You have been tasked with creating a vSphere 6.5 data center design for an organization. The organization is looking to
virtualize their physical email application. The company has provided a list of requirements that must be included in the
design:

E-mail database is replicated between two servers at a logical level, with no shared disk configurations.

E-mail databases meet corporate criteria for LUN provisioning, and must reside directly on storage array.
– Operating system disks do not meet corporate requirements for LUN provisioning, and per policy should not share the
same VMFS storage location for redundancy reasons.
-Internal users currently point to three Client Access Servers for load balancing.
-External users currently point to three Web Client Access Servers for load balancing.
– Customer requires discrete hardware to provide security between internal servers and externally available servers, as
well as between externally available servers, and client connections from offsite.
Design Requirements:
Create a solution that shows the service dependencies required for virtualizing the email application, including:

All required storage for Mail DB VM(s) only

All required network and security connection(s)

All required virtual machine(s)

All required user(s)
A.
Check below for answer solution
Correct Answer: A
Place all items in required container(s). Connect VMFS datastore(s) to required virtual machine(s). Place disk(s) over
the required storage type(s). Connect firewall(s) to container(s).

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QUESTION 2
A customer has requested that a new vSphere 6.5 environment be designed with its upcoming data center consolidation
effort in mind.
1.
The existing environment is a mix of physical and virtual servers
2.
Fibre Channel storage is used for 100 vSphere ESXi hosts and 600 physical servers across three data centers, some
of which contain latency sensitive applications critical to ongoing business
3.
The customer expects to increase its virtualization ratio from 50% today to 90% at the conclusion of this effort, and
wants the new design to feature a software-defined storage solution that will decrease their TCO. Which two statements
are the business requirements in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. The design must include VMware vSAN as the primary storage solution
B. The design must account for business-critical applications
C. The design must increase virtualization adoption
D. The design must reuse wherever possible to reduce cost
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
A leading steel manufacturer relies on SAP for purchase, sales, add invoice processing.
1.
It is planning to virtualize its severs to reduce CAPEX and OPEX.
2.
However, its CIO is concerned about the availability, performance, manageability, recoverability, and security for the
SAP database and ERP instance. Match the business requirement with the appropriate design concept.
Select and Place:

Cert4sure 3V0-624 exam questions-q3

QUESTION 4
A customer wants to improve the performance of its vMotion migrations. The current configuration has only one
VMkernel port group for vMotion using vmnic3. The customer has vmnicS available for use. What change can be made
to increase vMotion performance?
A. * Add vmnic5 to the vMotion Port Group as an active uplink.
* Create a second vMotion Port Group with vmnic5 as an active uplink and vmnic3 as an active uplink.
B. * Add vmnic5 to the vMotion Port Group as a standby uplink.
* Do not create a second vMotion Port Group.
C. * Add vmnicS to the vMotion Port Group as a standby uplink.
* Create a second vMotion Port Group with vmnicS as an active uplink and vmnic3 as a standby uplink.
D. * Add vmnic5 to the vMotion Port Group as an active uplink.
* Do not create a second vMotion Port Group.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A customer has these requirements for storage:
1.
Protocol used must have a file based access.
2.
Protocol used must have built in native multipathing.
3.
protocol used must support authentication.
To meet these requirements, which protocol should be used for storage?
A. NFS v3
B. NFS v4.1
C. FCoE
D. iSCSI
Correct Answer: B
Because NFS 4.1 are support authentication and is a file-based storage

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VMware Cloud Provider Specialist Exam 2019

This exam tests expertise in deploying and managing VMware Cloud Director and demonstrates knowledge of the overall Cloud Provider Platform.

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VMware Other Certification 5V0-32.19 Practice Question

QUESTION 1
What is the VMware recommended best practice to scale vCloud Director cells?
A. Deploy N+1 cells where N is number of resource groups or n/3000 + 1 powered on virtual machines.
B. Deploy one vCloud Director Cell per 3000 simultaneous client connections.
C. Deploy one additional vCloud Director Cell per N where N = Virtual Machines / Resource Pools * Number of
vCenters.
D. Deploy a one to one ratio of vCloud Director Cells per vCenter cluster.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/vcat/vmware-architecting-a-vclouddirector-solution.pdf (19)


QUESTION 2
What is the benefit of a Data Center Extension inside of VMware vCloud Director Extender?
A. register an existing IPsec VPN tunnel to access the VMware vCloud Director environment
B. create trunk ports inside of a VMware virtual Distributed Switch for vCloud Director Extender usage
C. create an NSX L2 VPN connection to stretch on-premises networks to a VMware vCloud Director environment
D. use automation to create VMware vCloud Director Extender appliances
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Which vSphere capability assigns storage to VMware vCloud Director?
A. storage profiles
B. datastores
C. network file system
D. Fibre Channel SAN
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://blogs.vmware.com/vsphere/2013/02/using-storage-profiles-with-vcloud-director-2.html

QUESTION 4
Which three Linux distributions are supported as the base operating system used for a VMware vCloud Director
installation? (Choose three.)
A. CentOS
B. Oracle Linux
C. Amazon Linux
D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux
E. Debian
F. Ubuntu
Correct Answer: ABD
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vCloud-Director-for-Service-Providers/9.5/rn/vmware-vcloud-directorfor-service-providers-95-release-notes.html#sysreqs


QUESTION 5
How does a VMware NSX distributed firewall function within a VMware vCloud Director environment?
A. controls configuration of dynamic NAT rules
B. displays concurrent connections coming into VMware vCloud Director
C. secures application in the organization virtual data center from inside and outside threats
D. manages the BGP and OSPF protocols
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://fojta.wordpress.com/2017/03/01/vcloud-director-8-20-distributed-firewall/

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VMware Cloud on AWS – Master Services Competency Specialist Exam 2019

The VMware Cloud on AWS – Master Services Competency Specialist Exam 2019 validates skills for designing and delivering VMware Cloud on AWS services.

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VMware Master Specialist – VMware Cloud on AWS 2019 5V0-33.19 Practice Question

QUESTION 1
What are three primary use cases for HCX with VMware Cloud on AWS? (Choose three.)
A. Bulk migration
B. Layer 2 extension
C. Container orchestration
D. Operating system upgrades
E. Replication-Assisted vMotion
F. OVF deployment
Correct Answer: ABE
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/apn/migrating-workloads-to-vmware-cloud-on-aws-with-hybrid-cloudextension-hcx/


QUESTION 2
Which Native AWS construct are third-party ISV partners able to leverage for data archiving within the data-protection
service?
A. Athena
B. Glacier
C. Kinesis
D. Cognito
Correct Answer: B
data-processing application on Amazon EC2 and uses Amazon S3 and Amazon S3 Glacier Reference:
https://aws.amazon.com/solutions/case-studies/all/


QUESTION 3
What are two requirements for using the bulk migration feature of HCX for virtual machines migrating into VMware
Cloud on AWS? (Choose two.)
A. No mounted CD Drives
B. Virtual RDMs
C. NSX for vSphere
D. Virtual Hardware 7 and above
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E. Physical RDMs
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-HCX/services/hcx-user-guide.pdf


QUESTION 4
During which two points in a customer engagement is a Hybrid Cloud Readiness Assessment appropriate? (Choose
two.)
A. During SDDC deployment
B. After SDDC deployment
C. Before SDDC deployment
D. During the validation phase of the SDDC deployment
E. Scoping
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 5
Which three levels of access could a managed services provider (MSP) partner provide to users of a managed
organization? (Choose three.)
A. Tenant Management Access
B. No Access
C. Partially Managed Access
D. Full Access
E. User Access
F. Root Access
Correct Answer: ACF

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VMware vRealize Operations 7.5

This exam tests a candidate’s skills and abilities installing, configuring, and managing a VMware vRealize Operations 7.5 environment.

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QUESTION 1
When starting a dashboard from the Manage Dashboards page, to what can a dashboard be directly assigned?
A. Groups
B. Embed
C. URL
D. Email
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
What is the minimum assigned role needed to perform user management and cluster management?
A. ContentAdmin
B. Administrator
C. AgentManager
D. PowerUser
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
A user finds a cluster is not visible when attempting to navigate to it in the Environment navigation panel. Global settings
within vRealize Operations has disabled all vCenter the account authentication.
Which two items should be administratively checked within vRealize Operations to ensure that desired object is visible?
(Choose two.)
A. vCenter user privileges
B. User role
C. Outbound settings
D. Policy assignment
E. User object access assignment
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
How can vRealize Operations tags be used?
A. be dynamically assigned to objects
B. to group virtual machines in vCenter
C. to set object access controls
D. to filter objects within dashboard widgets
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Where in vRealize Operations is the number of additional VMs that can fit into a data center displayed?
A. datacenter Capacity Allocation Overview dashboard
B. datacenter object Environment tab
C. datacenter object Capacity tab
D. Cluster Utilization dashboard
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
What does the fillnull command replace null values with, if the value argument is not specified?
A. 0
B. N/A
C. NaN
D. NULL
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://answers.splunk.com/answers/653427/fillnull-doesnt-work-without-specfying-a-field.html


QUESTION 2
Which statement is true?
A. Pivot is used for creating datasets.
B. Data models are randomly structured datasets.
C. Pivot is used for creating reports and dashboards.
D. In most cases, each Splunk user will create their own data model.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.3/Pivot/IntroductiontoPivot


QUESTION 3
Which workflow uses field values to perform a secondary search?
A. POST
B. Action
C. Search
D. Sub-search
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.3/Knowledge/CreateworkflowactionsinSplunkWeb

QUESTION 4
Which of the following searches would return a report of sales by product_name?
A. chart sales by product_name
B. chart sum(price) as sales by product_name
C. stats sum(price) as sales over product_name
D. timechart list(sales), values(product_name)
Correct Answer: C
Reference: http://hilllaneconsulting.co.uk/blog/?p=640

QUESTION 5
Which of the following actions can the eval command perform?
A. Remove fields from results.
B. Create or replace an existing field.
C. Group transactions by one or more fields.
D. Save SPL commands to be reused in other searches.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
Which of the following is the correct way to use the datamodel command to search fields in the Web data model within
the Web dataset?
A. | datamodel Web Web search | fields Web*
B. | search datamodel Web Web | fields Web*
C. | datamodel Web Web fields | search Web*
D. datamodel=Web | search Web | fields Web*
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
In what order are the following knowledge objects/configurations applied?
A. Field Aliases, Field Extractions, Lookups
B. Field Extractions, Field Aliases, Lookups
C. Field Extractions, Lookups, Field Aliases
D. Lookups, Field Aliases, Field Extractions
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.3/Knowledge/WhatisSplunkknowledge

QUESTION 8
Given the macro definition below, what should be entered into the Name and Arguments fields to correctly configure the
macro?

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A. The macro name is sessiontracker and the arguments are action, JESSIONID.
B. The macro name is sessiontracker(2) and the arguments are action, JESSIONID.
C. The macro name is sessiontracker and the arguments are $action$, $JESSIONID$.
D. The macro name is sessiontracker(2) and the Arguments are $action$, $JESSIONID$.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.3/Knowledge/Definesearchmacros

QUESTION 9
By default, how is acceleration configured in the Splunk Common Information Model (CIM) add-on?
A. Turned off.
B. Turned on.
C. Determined automatically based on the sourcetype.
D. Determined automatically based on the data source.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
Where are the results of eval commands stored?
A. In a field.
B. In an index.
C. In a KV Store.
D. In a database.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.4/SearchReference/Eval

QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements would help a user choose between the transaction and stars commands?
A. stats can only group events using IP addresses.
B. The transaction command is faster and more efficient.
C. There is a 1000 event limitation with the transaction command.
D. Use stats when the events need to be viewed as a single correlated event.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.3/SearchReference/Transaction

QUESTION 12
Which of the following statements describe the Common Information Model (CIM)? (Choose all that apply.)
A. CIM is a methodology for normalizing data.
B. CIM can correlate data from different sources.
C. The Knowledge Manager uses the CIM to create knowledge objects.
D. CIM is an app that can coexist with other apps on a single Splunk deployment.
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/CIM/4.15.0/User/Overview

QUESTION 13
When using the Field Extractor (FX), which of the following delimiters will work? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Tabs
B. Pipes
C. Colons
D. Spaces
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.3/Knowledge/FXSelectMethodstep

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Practice for the Oracle 1z0-952 exam questions 1-5

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QUESTION 1
Your customer, Alpha Corp, wants to collect data from their global brand website (alpha-corp.com, m.alpha-corp.com),
their marketing subdomains (go.alpha-corp.com, products.alpha-corp.com), and their mobile app (available on Android
and iOS).
How many domains do they have?
A. 6
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two are attributes of third-party data? (Choose two.)
A. Can be confirmed from multiple outside sources
B. Often billed directly by the media partner
C. Offered on a private marketplace, via direct sales to marketers
D. Free to use for activation, targeting, and analytics
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
You are working with a client to help guide their seat governance structure. After discussing their company policies and
procedures, you discover that each region follows its own protocols, operations are for the most part independent and
they might benefit from discretionary data-sharing between regions.
Based on what you have learned, which seat governance option should you recommend?
A. Horizontal regional empowerment
B. Global DMP nerve center
C. Global template with local nuances
D. Full agency control
E. A single seat shared by all regions
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Identify the dependencies and data sources for a local campaign.
A. Dependency: Custom audiences pixel, Data Sources: 1st party offline data
B. Dependency: Execution partner must accept mobile and IDs, Data Sources: 2nd party data
C. Dependency: Ensure the Blue Kai tag is on the site, Data Sources: 1st and 3rd party unbranded data
D. Dependency: Signed Data Usage Agreement for 3rd party data, Data Sources: 1st and 3rd party data
E. Dependency: Submit reporting for use of 3rd party data, Data Sources: 2nd and 3rd party data
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
What is the CPS pricing model?
A. This model allows clients to purchase data each time the campaign wins a unique customer attribute.
B. This model allows clients to purchase data based on the overall win rate of the campaign.
C. This model allows clients to purchase data on a cost per category agreement.
D. This model allows clients to purchase data on a cost per 1,000 impressions basis.
E. This model allows clients to purchase data according to the specific terms in their contract for acquiring third-party
data from a particular App Partner.
Correct Answer: D

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Practice for the Oracle 1z0-1004 exam questions 1-5

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QUESTION 1
Encumbrance accounting is enabled for your ledger. An encumbrance journal dated 3/15/16 was recorded for a
purchase order. The invoice was entered on 5/5/16, but the invoice accounting date was 4/20/16. The encumbrance
journal for
liquidating the purchase order encumbrance is dated 5/5/16.
What is causing this?
A. The actual accounting date was set up under the encumbrance accounting Default Date Rule
B. The current transaction accounting date was set up under the encumbrance accounting Default Date Rule
C. The subledger accounting option is set to system date
D. The system date was set up under the encumbrance accounting Default Date Rule
E. The prior related transaction accounting date was set up under the encumbrance accounting Default Date Rule
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You want to automatically post journal batches imported form subledger sources to prevent accidental edits or deletions
of the subledger sources journals, which could cause an out-of-balance situation between your subledgers and general
ledger. Which two aspects should you consider when defining your AutoPost Criteria? (Choose two.)
A. Use the All option for category and accounting period to reduce maintenance and ensure that all imported journals
are included in the posting process
B. Create your AutoPost criteria using minimal sources and categories
C. Include all of your subledger sources in the AutoPost Criteria. Divide up criteria sets by subledger source only if you
need to schedule different posting times
D. Schedule your AutoPost Criteria set to run during off-peak hours only
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
When working with Essbase, versions of the tree hierarchy as defined in the General Ledger Cloud are not available in
the Essbase balances cube. What should you do to correct this situation?
A. Make sure to flatten the rows of the tree version
B. Make sure the tree is active
C. Make sure the tree version was published successfully
D. Redeploy the chart of accounts
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Before implementing Financials Cloud, your customer used to manually reconcile their intercompany payables and
receivables accounts. What is a more automated approach to do this?
A. Use Oracle Hyperion Close Manager to automatically reconcile intercompany account balances
B. In Financials Cloud, you must manually reconcile your intercompany account balances
C. Run the BI Publisher reports called Intercompany Transaction Summary and Account Details to automatically
reconcile intercompany balances
D. Run the Intercompany Reconciliation report, which shows pairs of intercompany receivables and payables accounts
that are out of balance
E. Create a query using Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence (OTBI) that will match the intercompany payables
and receivables balances
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Your customer is implementing budgetary control with encumbrance accounting. Your customer has businesses in
Australia, New Zealand, and Singapore with a ledger in each country with a Corporate chart of account instance that
has four segments. Which three statements are true regarding the creation of a control budget? (Choose three.)
A. The control budget structure has all the chart of account segments as budget segments
B. Control budgets are always absolute to generate encumbrance accounting
C. A control budget is associated with a ledger and creates three control budgets for Australia, New Zealand, and
Singapore
D. A control budget can allow override rules only if the control level is absolute
E. A control budget can be associated with a different calendar than the accounting calendar
Correct Answer: BDE

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 Practice for the Oracle 1z0-1046 exam questions 1-5

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QUESTION 1
As an implementation consultant, you are required to define a legal entity. Which three options are correct about a legal
entity? (Choose three.)
A. A legal entity must comply with regulations and local jurisdictions.
B. A legal entity can be identified as a legal employer in Human Capital Management.
C. Legal entities are not responsible for payment of social insurance.
D. A legal entity may act as a virtual organization.
E. A legal entity can own assets, record sales, pay taxes, and perform transactions.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 2
A client requires that promotion approvals should go to a static set of three users in a sequential manner, with the
approval process continuing to the next user if the prior approver is not available. What setup is required to meet this
requirement?
A. While configuring Approval Group List Builder, select “Allow empty groups” as True.
B. While configuring Approval Group List Builder, select “Allow empty groups” as False.
C. All approves must be present in the system; else, the promotion transaction fails.
D. The default functionality is that if any approver is not present, then the transaction gets auto-approved.
E. Enable a descriptive flex field to capture the approvers in the required sequence and create Approval Group List
Builder.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An HR representative enters employee details in the application as part of the hiring process. On the Review page, the
HR representative notices that Person Number does not show any number, but indicates “Generated Automatically”
Identify the option that relates to this intended behavior.
A. Person Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Manual.
B. Person Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Automatic after final save.
C. Worker Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Manual.
D. Person Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Automatic before submission.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You are an HR specialist and want to add new values to a lookup. You have access to the specific work area, but are
unable to perform the activity.
Identify the correct statement about this.
A. You cannot add new lookup codes and meanings to the existing lookup types.
B. You can access the task for profile options from the Setup and Maintenance menu.
C. The system administrator must enable the lookup before it is modified in the work area.
D. Oracle applications contain certain predefined system lookups that are locked for editing.
E. You can create new lookup types but cannot modify the existing ones.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which Approval Types are supported while configuring the Managing Approval Rules: Promote transaction?
A. Application Role, Approval Groups, Management Hierarchy, Position Hierarchy, Representative, Self Auto Approve,
User
B. Application Role, Approval Groups, Management Hierarchy, Parent Position, Representative, User, Self Auto
Approve
C. Enterprise Role, Application Role, Approval Groups, Parent Position, Representative, User, Self Auto Approve
D. Data Role, Application Role, Approval Groups, Management Hierarchy, Position Hierarchy, Self Auto Approve, User
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
A customer set up the certification requirement for art absence. After scheduling the absence for a subordinate, the line
manager wants to add a certification requirement as an action item, but is unable to do it.
What is the reason for this?
A. You can add the certification requirement to appear as an action item only during the manual absence enrollment
process.
B. Line managers can add the certification requirement, on demand, as an action item when they approve the absence;
C. Only HR Specialists can add the certification requirement, on demand, as an action item when they schedule an
absence.
D. Only workers can add the certification requirement, on demand, as an action item when they schedule an absence.
E. Line managers can configure the certification requirement to appear as an action item after completion of the
absence.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
When setting the expiration details for a Compensatory Plan, which of the following is a valid option?
A. Employee Termination
B. Worked Period
C. Ongoing
D. End of Acquisition Week
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which three are true statements about Absence and Payroll integration? (Choose three.)
A. The options available for configuration vary depending on the legislation chosen when creating absence plans.
B. The setup required in payroll may vary depending on payroll localization.
C. The Absence Element Template creates all of the attributes required to process absences through payroll.
D. The options available for configuration are the same for all the legislations when creating absence plans.
Correct Answer: ABC
 

QUESTION 4
Your client has a requirement that the employee will not get enrolled into the plan for first six months of hire. Enrollment
and accruals will start after the completion of six months. The plan needs to be Front-Loaded.
How will you configure this in the system?
A. Create a plan having Vesting Period with UOM as Months and duration as 6.
B. Create a rule in Accrual Matrix where you will check the length of service of an employee and if the Length of Service
is less than six months then accrual value should be 0.
C. Write partial period fast formula that enrolls the employee only after six months from hire date.
D. Create a plan having a Waiting Period with UOM as Months and duration as 6.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
After running the calculate accrual process, you notice that 100 employees\\’ balances have not been updated despite
the process running to a successful status. Your customer has requested that the process should fail if any employees
are in error.
What absence batch parameter should you decrease to achieve this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Thread Count
B. Errors
C. Chunk Size
D. Maximum Errors
E. Minimum Errors
F. Thread Size
G. Total Threads
Correct Answer: ACF

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300-625 DCSAN
Certifications: CCNP Data Center, Cisco Certified Specialist – Data Center SAN Implementation
Duration: 90 minutes

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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the mechanisms of Cisco Secure Boot from the left into the correct order on the right.
Select and Place:

Cert4sure 300-625 exam questions-q1

Correct Answer:

Cert4sure 300-625 exam questions-q1-2

QUESTION 2
A storage network engineer must install and configure a new MDS switch in a data center network. Which two
statements about available choices during the MDS switch initial setup are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The engineer can choose what will be the administrator account.
B. A secure password standard is required.
C. The engineer can configure the default zone policy.
D. The engineer can configure the default switch port trunk mode.
E. The engineer does not have the choice to enable or disable full zone set distribution.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 3
What is the function of the 0xFFFFFC address in a Fibre Channel fabric?
A. management server
B. fabric controller
C. name server
D. time server
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

Cert4sure 300-625 exam questions-q4

A port-channel has been configured between a Cisco MDS and a Cisco Fabric Interconnect switch. Which interface(s) in
Does the port-channel carry the control plane traffic?
A. per-packet, balanced between interfaces fc1/9 and fc1/10
B. from interface fc1/9
C. from interface fc1/10
D. per flow, balanced between interfaces fc1/9 and fc1/10
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which feature on MDS platforms ensures that the code that is running on the hardware platform is authentic and
unmodified, while also validating the BIOS to eliminate any rootkits.
A. Cisco Secure Boot
B. UEFI Secure Boot
C. Secure Unique Device Identifier
D. BIOS Secure Boot
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
A Cisco MDS Series Switch with the POAP feature boots and does not find the startup configuration. Which location is
checked first when the switch enters POAP mode?
A. A USB device that contains the software image files and the switch configuration file
B. DHCP server to bootstrap the interface IP address, gateway, DNS server, and TFTP IP addresses
C. TFTP server where the necessary configuration files are downloaded
D. HTTP server where the URL is used to download the software image
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which configuration is always required when running the setup utility on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch?
A. administrator password
B. management IP address
C. active NTP server
D. active default gateway
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
After user account attributes are modified in Cisco NX-OS, when do changes to the user\\’s session attributes take
effect?
A. immediately
B. at the scheduled time
C. when the user logs out of a session
D. when the user creates a new session
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
What is the effect of a non-graceful virtual machine shutdown on a virtualized server that is connected to a SAN with
Fibre Channel interfaces?
A. NP Port reload connected to the upstream SAN switch
B. out-of-service Fibre Channel interfaces on the SAN switch
C. frames stuck in the storage system
D. frames stuck in the HBA buffer of the server
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

Cert4sure 300-625 exam questions-q10

A network engineer created a new user that uses the VSAN-Admin role on a Cisco MDS switch so a new colleague can
manage the VSANs configured on the switch. Which action is required for the configuration to give permission to the
new colleague?
A. permit vsan 1-1000 must be configured as rule 5.
B. permit vsan 1-1000 must be configured as rule 1.
C. permit vsan 1-1000 must be configured under the VSAN policy deny.
D. permit vsan 1-1000 must be configured under the VSAN policy allow.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A storage network engineer is implementing disk-array data replication between two SAN environments in two different
data centers not connected via Fibre Channel. Which SAN switch feature must be implemented?
A. FCIP
B. zoning merge over LAN
C. VSAN scoping
D. IVR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which benefit of upgrading to the Cisco DCNM server-based advanced feature license for a Cisco MDS switch is
correct?
A. The license can be reassigned when a switch is replaced with a newer version within the same product family.
B. The license can be assigned to either server MAC address or switch serial number.
C. An unlimited number of devices can be added to the list of licensed devices.
D. The license can be reassigned when the switch is replaced with a Cisco Nexus switch.
Correct Answer: A

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Cisco 300-620 DCACI Exam Overview

300-620 DCACI
Certifications: CCNP Data Center, Cisco Certified Specialist – Data Center ACI Implementation
Duration: 90 minutes

Free Cisco 300-620 DCACI Exam Questions

QUESTION 1
An engineer is implementing a connection that represents an external bridged network. Which two configurations are
used? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 remote fabric
B. Layer 2 outside
C. Layers 2 internal
D. Static path binding
E. VXLAN outside
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
A data center administrator is upgrading an ACI fabric. There are 3 APIC controllers in the fabric and all the servers are
dual-homed to pairs of leaf switches configured in VPC mode. How should the fabric be upgraded to minimize possible
traffic impact during the upgrade?
A. 1. Create two maintenance groups for the APIC controllers: VPC left and VPC right.
2.
Upgrade the first group of controllers.
3.
Upgrade the second group of controllers.
4.
Upgrade the leaf switches.
B. 1. Create two maintenance groups for APIC controllers: VPC left and VPC right.
2.
Upgrade the leaf switches.
3.
Upgrade the first group of controllers.
4.
Upgrade the second group of controllers.
C. 1. Create two maintenance groups for the leaf switches: VPC left and VPC right.
2.
Upgrade the APIC controllers.
3.
Upgrade the first group of leaf switches.
4.
Upgrade the second group of leaf switches.
D. 1. Create two maintenance groups for the leaf switches: VPC left and VPC right.
2.
Upgrade the first group of switches.
3.
Upgrade the second group of switches.
4.
Upgrade the APIC controllers.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

Cert4sure 300-620 exam questions-q3

Refer to the exhibit. Which two objects are created as a result of the configuration? (Choose two.)
A. application profile
B. attachable AEP
C. bridge domain
D. endpoint group
E. VRF
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2-x/rest_cfg/2_1_x/b_Cisco_APIC_REST_API_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_APIC_REST_API_Configuration_Guide_chapter_01110.html

QUESTION 4

Cert4sure 300-620 exam questions-q4

Refer to the exhibit. Which Adjacency Type value should be set when the client endpoint and the service node interface
are in a different subnet?
A. Routed
B. Unicast
C. L3Out
D. L3
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An engineer has set the VMM resolution immediacy to pre-provision in a Cisco ACI environment. No Cisco Discovery
Protocol neighborship has been formed between the hypervisors and the ACI fabric leaf nodes. How does this affect the
download policies to the leaf switches?
A. No policies are downloaded because LLDP is the only supported discovery protocol.
B. Policies are downloaded when the hypervisor host is connected to the VMM VDS.
C. Policies are downloaded to the ACI leaf switch regardless of the Cisco Discovery Protocol neighborship.
D. No policies are downloaded because there is no discovery protocol neighborship.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
An engineer is extending an EPG out of the ACI fabric using static path binding. Which statement about the endpoints is
true?
A. Endpoints must connect directly to the ACI leaf port.
B. External endpoints are in a different bridge domain than the endpoints in the fabric.
C. Endpoint learning encompasses the MAC address only.
D. External endpoints are in the same EPG as the directly attached endpoints.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Cert4sure 300-620 exam questions-q7

Refer to the exhibit. A client reports that the ACI domain connectivity to the fiber channel storage is experiencing a B2B
credit oversubscription. The environment has an SYSLOG server for state collection messages. Which value should be
chosen to clear the critical fault?
A. 300
B. 410
C. 350
D. 510
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
In the context of VMM, which protocol between ACI leaf and compute hosts ensures that the policies are pushed to the
leaf switches for immediate and on-demand resolution immediacy?
A. VXLAN
B. LLDP
C. ISIS
D. STP
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices_chapter_0101.html

QUESTION 9
Which action sets Layer 2 loop migration in an ACI Fabric with a Layer 2 Out configured?
A. Enable MCP on the ACI fabric.
B. Disable STP in the external network.
C. Disable STP on the ACI fabric.
D. Enable STP on the ACI fabric.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
On which two interface types should a user configure storm control to protect against broadcast traffic? (Choose two.)
A. APIC facing interfaces
B. port-channel on a single leaf switch
C. all interfaces on the leaf switches in the fabric
D. endpoint-facing trunk interface
E. fabric uplink interfaces on the leaf switches
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2-x/L2_config/b_Cisco_APIC_Layer_2_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_APIC_Layer_2_Configuration_Guide_chapter_01010.html

QUESTION 11
In the context of ACI Multi-Site, when is the information of an endpoint (MAC/IP) that belongs to site 1 advertised to the site
2 using the EVPN control plane?
A. Endpoint information is not exchanged across sites unless the COOP protocol is used.
B. Endpoint information is not exchanged across sites unless a policy is configured to allow communication across
sites.
C. Endpoint information is exchanged across sites as soon as the endpoint is discovered in one site.
D. Endpoint information is exchanged across sites when the endpoints are discovered in both sites.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centricinfrastructure/white-paper-c11-739609.html#CiscoACIMultiSiteoverlaydataplane

QUESTION 12
An ACI administrator notices a change in the behavior of the fabric. Which action must be taken to determine if a human
did intervention introduce the change?
A. Inspect event records in the APIC UI to see all actions performed by users.
B. Inspect /var/log/audit_messages on the APIC to see a record of all user actions.
C. Inspect audit logs in the APIC UI to see all user events.
D. Inspect the output of show command history in the APIC CLI.
Correct Answer: A

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Do you want to find a high-efficiency way to prepare for Microsoft 70-461 dumps verified answers exam test? “Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012” is the name of Microsoft 070-461 exam dumps which cover all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Latest updated Microsoft 70-461 dumps practice test questions and answers youtube study. Pass4itsure https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-461.html dumps exam questions answers are updated (164 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 070-461 dumps are Microsoft SQL Server 2012.

Exam Code: 70-461
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Sep 08, 2017
Q&As: 164

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Free Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-461 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

Question No: 5 CORRECT TEXT  You have a view that was created by using the following code:
070-461 dumps

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to create an inline table-valued function named Sales.fn_OrdersByTerritory,
which must meet the following 70-461 exam requirements:
Accept the @T integer parameter.
Use one-part names to reference columns.
Filter the query results by SalesTerritoryID.
Return the columns in the same order as the order used in OrdersByTerritoryView.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:
070-461 dumps

Question No: 6 CORRECT TEXT You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

070-461 dumps


You deploy a new server that has SQL Server 2012 installed. You need to create a table
named Sales.OrderDetails on the new server. Sales.OrderDetails must meet the following
requirements: Write the results to a disk. Contain a new column named LineItemTotal that stores the product of ListPrice
and Quantity for each row. The code must NOT use any object delimiters.
The solution must ensure that LineItemTotal is stored as the last column in the table. Which
code segment should you use? To answer, type the correct 070-461 dumps code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:

070-461 dumps

Question No: 7 CORRECT TEXT  You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
070-461 dumps

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to create a view named uv_CustomerFullName to meet the following
requirements:
The code must NOT include object delimiters.
The view must be created in the Sales schema.
Columns must only be referenced by using one-part names.
The view must return the first name and the last name of all customers.
The view must prevent the underlying structure of the customer table from being
changed.
The view must be able to resolve all referenced objects, regardless of the user’s
default schema.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:

070-461 dumps

Question No: 8 CORRECT TEXT  You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

070-461 dumps

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to create a query that calculates the total sales of each OrderId from the
Sales.Details table. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Use one-part names to reference columns.
Sort the order of the results from OrderId.
NOT depend on the default schema of a user.
Use an alias of TotalSales for the calculated ExtendedAmount.
Display only the OrderId column and the calculated TotalSales column.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
070-461 pdf 
Answer:
070-461 dumps

Question No: 9. A Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) the user is also a supervisor. You want to ensure that the supervisor automatically sees only his/her agents in the following: Historical reports
Real-time displays
Contact Center Manager Server
How can this be done most effectively?
A. Configure a standard partition.
B. Configure a user-defined partition.
C. The supervisor will automatically see all of the agents.
D. Link the CCMA user to the supervisor in the reporting agents partition.
Answer: D
Question No:  10. In a deployed Contact Center Rls. 7.0 network with several sites, which condition will occur if the Network Control Center (NCC) server experiences a hardware failure that drops the server from the network?
A. all call routing and call processing in the network will stop
B. calls are routed between sites but no network call-by-call data will be transferred to the NCC
C. calls will not be routed between sites in the network
D. the Contact Center Manager Servers at each site in the network will also fail
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Answer: B
Question No: 11. In Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) Rls. 7.0, which element can be configured on the Configuration component?
A. Global Settings
B. Users
C. Agents
D. Partitions
Answer: A
Question No: 12. In Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) Rls. 7.0, which set of options specifies how statistics are
treated in reports and real-time displays?
A. Activity codes
B. Call Presentation Class
C. Skillset Assignment
D. Threshold Class
070-461 exam 
Answer: D
Question No: 13. While the Call Presentation option “After Call Break for N seconds” (break time) is in effect, which event
can cancel the break time?
A. An agent is reserved for an NACD call by the switch.
B. An agent can put directory number calls on hold for incoming ACD calls.
C. Break time between calls has been allowed and the agent returns from walk away.
D. Break time between calls has been allowed and the agent releases an individual DN call.
E. Break time between calls has been allowed and the caller abandons the call when on an agent set.
Answer: A
Question No: 14. CERTIFICATION REQUIREMENTS
(A)Obtaining Certification:
To obtain certification in any of the RSA Certified Security Professional designations, You must
successfully comply with the initial certification requirements for that designation. Certification
requirements are available on the RSA Certification Web site, or available from RSA, The Security
Division of EMC at the address specified herein. By sending You the RSA Certified Security
Professional Welcome Kit, RSA confirms that according to its 70-461 dumps records, You have complied with the initial certification requirements for the RSA Certified Security Professional designation indicated in the RSA Certified Security Professional Welcome Kit.
(B)Maintaining Active Certification:
To maintain Your active certification(s), You must comply with any and all continuing certification
requirements which shall be established by RSA, The Security Division of EMC and may include
periodically taking a re-certification examination that tests Your knowledge of the features and
functionality of any major product release. You acknowledge and agree that RSA may, in its sole
discretion, change the certification requirements (both initial and continuing), RSA Certified Security
Professional designations and RSA Certified Security Professional Logos and Guidelines at any time.
You are responsible for periodically checking the RSA Certified Security Professional website for
updates and compliance with any and all updates. Failure to comply with all requirements will result in
termination of this Agreement.
(C)Transfer of Certification:
You shall not transfer or share Your RSA Certified Security Professional certification and the benefits
of such certification to or with another person or entity.
Question No: 15.USE OF RSA CERTIFIED SECURITY PROFESSIONAL DESIGNATIONS and LOGOS
Your successful completion of the initial certification requirements, and so long as You remain in
compliance with all applicable continuing certification requirements, RSA, The Security Division of
EMC hereby authorizes You to use the RSA Certified Security Professional designation 070-461 exam for which You have obtained certification, as indicated in the RSA Certified Security Professional Welcome Kit which includes this RSA Certified Security Professional Agreement and the RSA Certified Security
Professional Logo Guidelines which set forth the authorized use of the RSA Certified Security
Professional Logo.
You acknowledge RSA’s sole ownership of the RSA Certified Security Professional Logo and
designations, and that nothing in the RSA Certified Security Professional Agreement, or in Your
performance as an RSA Certified Security Professional or that might otherwise be implied by law,

shall operate to give You any right, title or interest in the 070-461 pdf RSA Certified Security Professional
designation(s) or Logo, other than the authorization specifically granted.
You shall use the RSA Certified Security Professional Logo and designation(s) in a manner that does
not derogate from RSA’s rights in the RSA Certified Security Professional Logo and designations, and
shall take no action that may interfere with or diminish RSA’s rights in the RSA Certified Security
Professional Logo or designations, either during the term of the RSA Certified Security Professional
Agreement or afterward. You agree to immediately cease all use of the RSA Certified Security
Professional designation(s) and Logo 70-461 dumps upon the expiration or termination of the RSA Certified Security
Professional Agreement.
Nothing in the RSA Certified Security Professional Agreement authorizes You to use any RSA, The
Security Division of EMC or EMC Corporation trademarks, service marks, or logos except as expressly
Specified in the RSA Certified Security Professional Agreement and RSA Certified Security
Professional Logo Guidelines.

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