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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 600-460 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-18)

QUESTION 1
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise with Cisco Unified CVP, which two statements about how to increase the Cisco Unified CVP availability are true? (Choose two.)
A. Must have SIP Proxy server to pass messages between the gateways and the Cisco Unified CVP servers.
B. Must have voice gateway TCL scripts to handle conditions where the gateways cannot contact the Cisco Unified CVP Call Server to direct the call correctly.
C. Add load balancers to load balance .wav file requests across multiple Cisco Unified CVP Media Servers.
D. Dedicate duplexed VRU peripheral gateways for each Cisco Unified CVP call server.
E. For a single data center with centralized deployment, deploy Cisco Unified CVP with N:N redundancy.
600-460 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
In the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise solution, which process is responsible for peer-to-peer synchronization?
A. ccagent
B. mds
C. router
D. opc
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is the semantic meaning of the RouterCallKeyDay variable?
A. It represents a number that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could increment from 151191 to 151192.
B. It represents a string that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could advance from “Monday” to “Tuesday”.
C. It represents a number that uniquely identifies the call during the day it was taken. For example: at midnight it would reset to zero.
D. It represents a sequence number used for ordering rows for the same call.
E. It represents a string that corresponds to a Globally Unique Call Identifier.
600-460 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise is deployed with Cisco Finesse and you make changes to CTI Server, Contact Center Enterprise Administration, or cluster settings. Which service must be restarted for changes to take effect?
A. Cluster Manager
B. System Application Agent
C. Cisco DB
D. Cisco Tomcat
E. Cisco Dirsync
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Within Cisco Unified ICM, which process handles communication between the router and peripheral gateway components?
A. dbagent
B. opcs
C. ccagent
D. mds
600-460 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which option about the ICM heartbeat interval and maximum number of missed heartbeats allowed between duplexed sides over the private network is true?
A. 100 ms, 3 heartbeats
B. 100 ms, 5 heartbeats
C. 400 ms, 3 heartbeats
D. 400 ms, 5 heartbeats
E. The heartbeat interval and maximum missed heartbeats settings can be customized by a system administrator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You are about to perform a Tech Refresh upgrade for a customer. The customer wants more details about how the historical data is maintained. The customer has two sides each with a router, logger, and HDS- DDS. Which is the best explanation?
A. The loggers exchange historical data to keep themselves up to date and each logger keeps its local HDS-DDS up to date.
B. The routers exchange historical data to keep themselves up to date and each router keeps its local HDS-DDS up to date.
C. The HDS-DDSs continuously synchronized the historical data to keep themselves up to date.
D. Each side synchronized its data from the logger using SQL replication.
600-460 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
When performing an upgrade to Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, which components do not need to be upgraded together during the same maintenance window?
A. Cisco Unified ICM call router and logger
B. Cisco Unified ICM call router and administrative workstation
C. Cisco Unified ICM call router and peripheral gateway
D. administrative workstation and HDS-DDS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, if the private network fails but the visible network is still operational, which statement is true?
A. The system stops routing calls because it cannot function without a private network.
B. The private network data is rerouted automatically over the visible network.
C. Both call routers go active and attempt to split the system until the private network is restored.
D. The system continues to operate but with only one call router in simplex mode.
600-460 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which two things can cause the “Send to VRU” to fail within an ICM script for Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal? (Choose two.)
A. No network VRU is configured for the routing client.
B. VRU PIM just got out of service.
C. Incorrect media file name.
D. Send to originator is not enabled.
E. Primary VRU peripheral gateway is out of service.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
600-460 dumps
This exhibit is the setup of the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Server. Based on this configuration, which two options must be configured in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Configuration Manager tool? (Choose two.)
A. A network trunk group explorer trunk group should be configured on the Cisco Unified CVP PG peripherals with a peripheral number of 5000.
B. A network trunk group explorer trunk group should be configured on the Cisco Unified CVP PG peripherals with a peripheral number of 100.
C. A VRU PG peripheral should be configured with a peripheral ID of 5000.
D. A network VRU should be configured with a label of maximum length 10 digits.
E. A PG explorer peripheral should be configured with a peripheral ID of 200.
600-460 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution with SIP Dialer, which option lists the correct order to setup the components (assuming the agent peripheral gateway host already exists)?
A. configure media routing peripheral gateway, dialer; install media routing peripheral gateway, dialer
B. configure dialer, port map, media routing peripheral gateway; install dialer, media routing peripheral gateway
C. install dialer, media routing peripheral gateway; configure dialer, port map, media routing peripheral gateway
D. install media routing peripheral gateway, dialer; configure media routing peripheral gateway, dialer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
The customer is using Cisco Unified Intelligence Center on a virtual machine and reports that the license has become invalid. Which four options can cause this problem? (Choose four.)
A. Time zone was changed.
B. Secondary DNS was changed.
C. Hostname was changed.
D. Number of historical reports exceeded the system limits.
E. Cisco Unified Intelligence Center Publisher is not in service.
F. IP address was changed.
G. Primary NTP server was changed.
H. Number of concurrent real-time reports exceeded the system limits.
600-460 pdf Correct Answer: ACFG

QUESTION 14
Which three rules apply when configuring agent teams? (Choose three.)
A. An agent can be a member of only one agent team.
B. An agent can be a member of multiple agent teams.
C. An agent team can have only one primary supervisor.
D. An agent team can have multiple primary supervisors.
E. All agents that belong to an agent team and all supervisors for that agent team must be on the same peripheral.
F. All agents that belong to an agent team and all supervisors for that agent team can be on multiple peripherals.
G. An agent team can have only one primary supervisor but can be a member of multiple teams.
H. An agent team can have multiple primary supervisors but can only be a member of one teams.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 15
Which option describes the steps to configure a non-global Not Ready code for a Cisco Unified ICM team using Contact Center Enterprise solution with Cisco Finesse?
A. Add Not Ready reason code in Cisco Finesse (uncheck “Global?” check box), add reason code to team.
B. Add team in ICM, add Not Ready reason code in Cisco Finesse (uncheck “Global?” check box), add reason code to team in Cisco Finesse.
C. Add team in ICM, add Not Ready reason code in Cisco Finesse, add reason code to team in Cisco Finesse.
D. Add team in ICM, add Not Ready reason code in ICM, add reason code to team in Cisco Finesse.
600-460 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which option lists the settings in the registry to enable IPsec logging with Cisco Unified ICM?
A. Add Key = IPSec; DWORD Value = Enable_Logging; DWORD Value = 0
B. Add Key = Oakley; DWORD Value = EnableLogging; DWORD Value = 1
C. Add Key = Security; DWORD Value = Enable-Logging; DWORD Value = 1
D. Add Key = Oak; DWORD Value = EnableLog; DWORD Value = 1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which two options affect the Ring No Answer behavior of the agent with the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Solution and Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal? (Choose two.)
A. CVP transfer timeout timer setting
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager unattended port setting
C. Agent Desktop Ring No Answer time setting
D. Target Requery in an ICM script queue step
600-460 exam Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 18
With Cisco Finesse, which two options list the two commands to stop and start the Tomcat service? (Choose two.)
A. To stop the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service stop Tomcat
B. To start the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service start Tomcat
C. To stop the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service start Tomcat
D. To start the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils start Cisco Tomcat
E. To stop the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service stop Cisco Tomcat
F. To start the Cisco Tomcat service, enter this CLI command: utils service start Cisco Tomcat
Correct Answer: EF

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Q&As: 70

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 500-005 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-10)

Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
Which TX9000 display choice is best for reducing possible issues with viewing angles for conference
participants?
A. LCD
B. plasma
C. LED
D. CRT
E. HDTV
500-005 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which two factors are crucial to the immersive Cisco TelePresence experience? (Choose two.)
A. aesthetics
B. acoustics
C. room shape
D. number of windows
E. number of active participants
F. ceiling height
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
The control cable for the 42-inch Auto Collaboration display connects to which component?
A. PS1 codec
B. presentation codec
C. LCU
D. AV expansion box
500-005 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of these determines the specific role for each codec?
A. the firmware
B. wiring position
C. software revision
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Using the following table, correctly identify the location of each component.
Where is each component located?
Hot Area:
500-005 dumps

QUESTION 6
When using the TX9000 AV expansion box, how many total video output signals can be obtained using a
single video input?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
E. five
F. six
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which device is connected to the TX9000 AV expansion box for video input?
A. presentation (TS4) codec
B. collaboration/presentation display
C. center (TS1) codec
D. built-in video splitter
E. left (TS2) and right (TS3) codec
500-005 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which three components does the LCU control? (Choose three.)
A. the lighting fixture power
B. the primary codec AV input controls
C. the projector
D. the room HVAC controls
E. the LCD settings
F. the PTZ camera controls
G. the yaw of the camera cluster
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 9
From where does the LCU receive its instructions?
A. Cisco TelePresence Touch 12 screen
B. center (TS1) codec
C. left (TS2) codec
D. right (TS3) codec
E. presentation (TS4) codec
500-005 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
The configured speed-dial numbers are located in which section of the Cisco TelePresence Touch 12?
A. Favorites section
B. Speed Dialing section
C. Meeting section

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 400-351 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-17)

QUESTION 1
Which feature intersection of a Cisco 5760 Wireless LAN Controller with HA AP SSO is not true?
A. Switchover during AP preimage download causes the Aps to start image download all over again from the new active controller.
B. Upon guest anchor controller switchover, mobility tunnels stay active, Aps remain connected, clients rejoin at MA or MC, and clients are anchored on the new active controller.
C. wIPS information is synced to the standby unit. The standby unit does not have to relean wIPS information upon switchover.
D. Roamed clients that have their data path going through the mobility tunnel endpoint “becomed Local” in case of Layer 2 with sticky anchoring and Layer 3 roam. Layer 2 roamed clients are not affected except when roaming occurs
between Cisco Unified Wireless Network and CA controller.
400-351 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
On a Cisco autonomous AP, the maximum number of attempts to send a packet (packet retries) is set to 32 by default. Which statement about the result when the AP has tried to send a packet for that number of attempts and no response is received from the client is true?
A. The access point drops the packet.
B. The client MAC address is excluded for 60 seconds.
C. The access point resets the radio interface.
D. The access point disassociates the client.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two options are new features that are supported by IGMPv3 compared to IGMPv2.(Choose two)
A. It extends IGMP which allows for an explicit maximum response time field.
B. It adds support for source filtering.
C. Router can now send a group-specific query
D. It adds support for IGMP Leave Message.
E. It supports the link local address 224.0.0.22. which is the destination IP address for membership reports.
400-351 dumps Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 4
400-351 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. What is the best way to resolve this issue?
A. Install a server certificate signed by a well-know public CA on the WLC.
B. Disable certificate checks on the client.
C. Install a server certificate signed by a well-known public CA on the Radius Server
D. Use the certificate authority on the Cisco Identity Services Engine.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which option describes the function of the Intercloud Fabric Extender?
A. It provides the network overlay functionality between the used clouds or cloud models.
B. It establishes a secure site-to-site tunnel to the intercloud fabric agent in the private cloud.
C. It applies network policies and collects and reports VEM-related intercloud statistics.
D. It establishes a secure site-to-site tunnel to the intercloud fabric switch in the provider cloud.
400-351 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A user is presented with the underlying hardware and software needed to develop and offer applications via the Internet from a cloud service provider. Which cloud model is this user consuming?
A. Software as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Application as a Service
D. Infrastructure as a Service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
CFG autonoumous
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400-351 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements about this extract of the configuration of an autonomous AP are true? (Choose three)
A. This configuration is of a non-root bridge access point.
B. The RADIUS server IP address I misconfigured. It points to the AP itself. Which creates a loop for the RADIUS packets.
C. This configuration allows bridging of VLANs 3 and 4.
D. The SSID is not visible for clients proting the wireless medium.
E. The administrator cannot access the AP via the web GUI using a secure connection.
F. The native VLAN must be VLAN 1 to match the native VLAN configured on the switch to which the AP is connecting.
400-351 vce Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 8
Which option is a feature of a Cisco Autonormous AP that prevents over-the-air direct P2P communication, which forces all traffic to hit the first-hop router where security policy is enforced?
A. Wi-Fi Direct Client Policy
B. P2P Secure Packet
C. Public Secure Packet Forwarding
D. P2P Blocking Action
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which statement about 802.11h is true?
A. DFS feature works irrespective of whether the channel setting on WLC is set to auto or manual.
B. 802.11h is not a mandatory standard under FCC regulations.
C. The FCC does not require 802.11h to be supported in the 5 GHz band.
D. When the radio detects a radar, it can use the channel for only 20 minutes at a time.
400-351 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
In a converged access deployment, which two statements about mobility agents are true? (Choose two.)
A. It maintains a client database of locally served clients.
B. It manages mobility-related configuration.
C. It handles RF functions.
D. It is the first level in the converged access hierarchy.
E. It is a mandatory element in the converged access design.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 11
Heartbeats are used to maintain the high-availability status of an application. Which factor is most important?
A. Bandwidth
B. Latency
C. Routing
D. Round-trip time
400-351 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
When a FlexConnect AP is in the “local authentication,local switching” state, it handles client authentication and switches client data packets locally. This state is valid in standalone mode and connected mode. Which three statements about a FlexConnect AP are true? (Choose three).
A. In connected mode, the AP provides minimal information about the locally authenticated client to the controller. This information is not available on the controller policy type. Access VLAN. VLAN name. supported rates. Encryption ciphter.
B. In connected mode, the access point provides minimal information about the locally authenticated client to the controller. However, this information is available to the controller policy type., access VLAN, VLAN name, supported rates, encryption cipher.
C. Local authentication is useful where you cannot maintain a remote office setup of a minimum bandwidth of 128 kbps with the round-trip latency no greater than 100 ms and the maximum transmission unit no smaller than 576 bytes.
D. Local authentication is useful where you cannot maintain a remote office setup of a minimum bandwidth of 128 kbps with the round-trip latency no greater than 150 ms and the maximum transmission unit no higher than 500 bytes.
E. Local authentication in connected mode does not require any WLAN configuration.
F. Local authentication can be enabled only on the WLAN of a FlexConnect AP that is in local switching mode.
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 13
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Refer to the exhibit. Your customer is testing native supplicant provisioning using Cisco ISE (192.168.1.2) and a Cisco WLC. The Cisco WLC has an ACL configured on it called onboarding. During the testing of many different client devices (Android,Apple,Windows) it appears that these devices are never redirected to the onboarding portal, though they can access the Internet. Which statement explains this behavior?
A. There is nothing wrong with ACL. The problem must exist either on the client side or on the configured ISE authorization profile.
B. The ISE ACLs have a permit statement. Redirection will not take place unless the ISE IP address is denied.
C. The ACL has a permit any at the end. Redirection does not take place unless the client hits a web site that gets denied.
D. The source and destination port in the ACL lines are not set up correctly.
400-351 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
You are setting up a Cisco access point in repeater mode with a non-Cisco access point as the parent and you use this interface configuration on your Cisco access point.
400-351 dumps
You are getting the following error message. Which reason for this issue is true?
400-351 dumps
A. “dot11 extension aironet” is missing under the interface Dot11Radio 0 interface
B. When repeater mode is used, unicast-flooding must be enabled to allow Aironet IE communications.
C. The parent AP MAC address has not been defined.
D. Repeater mode only works between Cisco access points.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
FlexConnect APs have already been deployed in a branch office for local switching. Currently the WLAN in the large auditorium is proposed to change to a high-density design and thus some low data rates are proposed to be disabled while keeping the data rates in other areas under the same Cisco WLC. Which two configuration settings must be modified in the Cisco WLC to achieve this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. RF Profiles
B. Mobility Groups
C. FlexConnect Groups
D. AP Groups
E. Fape profile.
400-351 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 16
400-351 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Which option describes what this sequence of commands achieves on a Cisco Autonomous AP?
400-351 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
You are a network administrator at ACME corporation where you have a pair of Cisco 5760 Wireless LAN Controllers deployed for HA AP SSO mode. A failover event occurs and the secondary Cisco 5760 controller moves into the active role. Which three statements about the failover event are true? (Choose three)
A. The new active controller does not need to relearn the shun list from IPS and other MCs, whch eliminates the need to redistribute it to the Mas.
B. Rogue APs and clients are not synced to the standby and are relearned upon switchover.
C. Switchover during AP preimage download causes the Aps to start image download all over again from the new active controller.
D. Netflow records are already exported upon switchover and collection starts resuming in the new active controller.
E. Witch SSO, wIPS information is already synced with the standby unit and this information need not be relearned upon switchover.
F. Upon guest anchor controller switchover, mobility tunnels stay active, Aps remain connected, clients rejoin at MA or MC, and clients are anchored on the new active controller.
400-351 exam Correct Answer: BCF

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Q&As: 277

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 400-251 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-17)

QUESTION 1
Drag and drop the protocols on the left onto their descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
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DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the desktop-security terms from the left onto their right definitions on the right?
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DRAG DROP
Drag each OSPF security feature on the left to its description on the right.
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DRAG DROP
Drag each step in the configuration of a cisco ASA NSEL export to a NETFLOW collector on the left into the correct order of operations on the right?
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DRAG DROP
Drag each IPsec term on the left to the definition on the right?
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QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Drag each Management Frame Protection feature on the Left to the function it performs on the right.
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DRAG DROP
Drag and drop step in the flow of packets on a DMVPN network using GDOI on the left into the correct sequence on the right.
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DRAG DROP
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QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
Drag each field in authentication header on the left into the order in which it appears in the header on the right?
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QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
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QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Drag each IPv6 extension header on the left into the recommended order for more than one extension header In the same IPv6 pack
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QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
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DRAG DROP
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QUESTION 14
DRAG DROP
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QUESTION 15
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Q&As: 385

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 300-070 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-21)

QUESTION 1
Which statement about the relationship between gateways and route groups is true?
A. Each gateway can belong to only one route group and can be listed only once within that route group.
B. Each gateway can belong to only one route group and can be listed multiple times within that route group.
C. Each gateway can belong to multiple route groups and can be listed only once within each route group.
D. Each gateway can belong to multiple route groups and can be listed multiple times within each route group.
300-070 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Which dial plan function is used to restrict calls that are made by a lobby phone to internal extensions only?
A. Path selection.
B. Endpoint addressing.
C. Manipulation of dialed destination.
D. Calling privileges.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 3
Which two are enterprise parameters? (Choose two.)
A. User search limit
B. T302 parameter
C. Enable Call Detail Records
D. Enable Dependency Records
E. codecs parameters for voice media-streaming applications
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 4
A user’s phone Call Forward No Answer setting has been configured to forward to a hunt pilot. If all call hunting options have been exhausted and the Forward Hunt No Answer feature has been configured to use Personal Preference settings, to which of these will calls to this phone be forwarded?
A. the default destination configured under Service Parameters
B. any destination configured under the user’s DN Personal Settings configuration
C. the destination specified under the user’s Call Forward No Coverage settings
D. voice mail
E. no other destination; each call will continue to ring until the caller hangs up
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can implement the personal preferences option. To do so, configure a user phone so that the Forward No Answer field redirects the call to a hunt pilot, which searches for someone else to answer the call. If call hunting fails because all the hunting options are exhausted or because a timeout period expires, the call can be sent to a personalized destination for the person who was originally called. For example, if you set the Forward No Coverage field in the Directory Number Configuration page to a voice-mail number, the call will be sent to the voice mailbox of that person if hunting fails.

QUESTION 5
Which three are functions of Cisco Unified Border Element? (Choose three.)
A. client registration
B. H.323 and SIP interworking
C. Lync interworking
D. transcoding
E. phone proxy
F. mobile and remote access
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which configuration output indicates a properly configured T1 digital voice interface?
A. controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zspri-group timeslots 1-24!
B. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zs!
C. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zspri-group timeslots 1-24isdn switch-type primary-ni!
D. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zs!dial-peer voice 1 potsdestination-pattern 54….direction-inward.dialport 0/0/0:23
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
Which option is the most highly recommended option to install Cisco TelePresence Conductor on the virtual machine?
A. Thick Provision Eager Zeroed
B. Thick Provision Lazy Zeroed
C. Thick Provision
D. Thin Provision
300-070 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 8
Callers inform you that they hear a second dial tone after dialing the number 4085550123. Which dial-peer configuration command resolves this issue?
A. answer-address 408555….
B. destination-pattern 91[2-9]..[2-9]…..
C. forward digits all
D. direct-inward dial
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 9
An organization has built their video infrastructure to perform ad hoc video calls, but they also need to conduct managed video conference calls. Which hardware component is needed to conduct these calls?
A. VCS-E
B. IOS gateway
C. MCU
D. TelePresence server
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 10
Which command is used to enter the DSP farm profile configuration mode?
A. dspfarm-profile 100 transcode
B. dspfarmprofile 100 transcode
C. dspfarm profile 100 transcode
D. dspfarm 100 profile transcode
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Refer to Exhibit:
300-070 dumps
If the user at extension 1001 dials the user at extension 2002, which dial peer is used to route the call?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 12
You are a Network Engineer at ABC Company. You want to ensure that when the contact center agent for the company makes an external call, the extension 897 654 300 is displayed. How do you resolve this issue?
A. Configure a Line Text Label on the Directory Number configuration page.
B. Configure an external phone number mask on the Directory Number configuration page.
C. Configure a translation pattern with the pattern 897654300.
D. Configure an external phone number mask on the Device configuration page.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 13
Which three CLI commands allow you to verify the correct VoIP dial-peer matching? (Choose three.)
A. debug ccsip messages
B. debug voip ccapi inout
C. debug dialpeer match
D. debug voip dialpeer inout
E. show dialplan number
300-070 exam Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit and configuration output.
300-070 dumps
A user in New York (5001) is trying to call a user in London (6001), but the call cannot be completed. Assuming that the WAN uplink is failing and the voice traffic has to go out toward the PSTN, which command do you need to add to dial peer to solve this issue?
dial-peer voice 3 pots
destination-pattern 6…
preference 1
port 0/0/0:23
dtmf-relay sip-notify
A. num-exp 512602 6001
B. prefix 757385
C. forward-digits 2
D. forward-digits 4
E. prefix 5126
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 15
Which two of these describe where phone services can appear on an IP phone and who can subscribe to phone services? (Choose two.)
A. end user
B. administrator
C. end user and administrator
D. Services button
E. Services and Directories buttons
F. Services, Directories, and Messages buttons
Correct Answer: CF
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
A Cisco Unified Communications Manager group is configured with the subscriber (10.1.5.3) listed first and the publisher (10.1.5.2) listed second. Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager is used for incoming calls through an MGCP gateway?
A. the publisher
B. both the publisher and subscriber in a round-robin format
C. the first server listed in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager group list
D. the subscriber
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 17
Which two of the following DSPs can be used in heterogeneous conferencing to achieve the required trans-sizing and transcoding functionality? (Choose two.)
A. PVDM3-256
B. PVDM2-256
C. PVDM-192
D. PVDM3-32
E. PVDM3-192
F. PVDM2-128
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Managers have asked to be able to have an extension call them back if it is busy when they try to call it. In what two places can this feature be assigned to the Managers phone? (Choose two.)
A. Device Settings > Softkey Template
B. Device Settings > Default Device Profile Configuration
C. Device Settings > Phone Button Template
D. Device Settings > Device Profile
E. Device Settings > Device Defaults
F. Device Settings > Firmware Load Information
300-070 exam Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 19
Which three elements are used to configure calling privileges? (Choose three)
A. Route pattern.
B. Calling search space.
C. Replica.
D. User.
E. Partition
F. Time schedule.
Correct Answer: BEF
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which two statements describe the function of the off-net option in a route pattern? (Choose two.)
A. The off-net option indicates that if a call is not routed through this route pattern, it is considered off the local network, or “off-net”.
B. This option could be used to block an external call from transferring to an internal party.
C. This option could be used to block an external call from transferring to an external party.
D. The off-net option indicates that if a call is routed through this route pattern, it is considered off the local network, or “off-net.”
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 21
What are two characteristics that are associated with the End User and User account types? (Choose two.)
A. They cannot use LDAP.
B. They are used to authorize applications.
C. They can utilize LDAP.
D. The Application is associated with the End User and User account types.
E. They can be listed in a directory.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

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Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0
Q&As: 211

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QUESTION 1
You are configuring two Windows 10 Enterprise client computers: A desktop computer named COMPUTER1 and a portable computer named COMPUTER2. You have the following requirements: You need to configure the computers to meet the requirements. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. From COMPUER2, connect to COMPUTER1 and configure the Data folder to always be available offline.
B. From COMPUTER1, connect to COMPUTER2 and configure the Data folder to always be available offline.
C. In Sync Center, configure a schedule for offline files.
D. From COMPUTER2, map a network drive to the Data folder onCOMPUTER1.
E. In Sync Center, set up a new sync partnership.
70-697 exam Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 2
You are an IT professional for a bank. All of the user’s files on the external drives are encrypted by using EFS. You replace a user’s computer with a new Windows 10 Enterprise computer. The user needs to connect her external hard drive to the new computer. You have the original computer’s certificate and key. You need to import the certificate and key onto the new computer. Into which certificate store should you import the certificate and key?
A. Untrusted Certificates
B. Trusted Root Certification Authorities
C. Personal
D. Trusted Publishers
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 3
You support Windows 10 Enterprise computers in a workgroup. You have configured a local AppLocker policy to prevent users from running versions of app.exe previous to v9.4. Users are still able to run app.exe. You need to block users from running app.exe by using the minimum administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Change the Application Identity service startup mode to automatic and start the service.
B. Configure enforcement for Windows Installed rules.
C. Configure a Software Restriction Policy publisher rule.
D. Run the GPupdate /force command in a relevant command prompt.
70-697 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft Intune subscription. You need to uninstall the Intune agent from a computer. What should you do?
A. From the Groups node in the Microsoft Intune administration portal, click Delete.
B. From the computer, run the provisioningutil.exe command.
C. From the computer, run the cltui.exe command.
D. From the computer, use Programs and Features in Control Panel.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer A is close but incorrect. You would need to select Retire/Wipe, not Delete.

QUESTION 5
You administer Windows 10 Enterprise tablets that are members of an Active Directory domain. Your company policy allows users to download and install only certain few Windows Store apps. You have created a new AppLocker Packaged Apps policy to help enforce the company policy. You need to test the new AppLocker Packaged Apps policy before you implement it for the entire company. What should you do?
A. Open PowerShell and run the Get–AppLockerPolicy –Effective cmdlet to retrieve the AppLocker effective policy.
B. Open Group Policy Management console and enforce the new AppLocker policy in Audit Only mode.
C. Open Group Policy Management console and run the Group Policy Modeling Wizard.
D. Open Group Policy Management console and run the Group Policy Results Wizard.
70-697 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All client computers run Windows 10 Enterprise and are joined to the domain. Corporate police prohibits homegroups on the corporate network.
You need to ensure that client computer network adapter settings do not support joining a homegroup.
What should you do?
A. Disable IPv6.
B. Disable IPv4.
C. Enable IPv6.
D. Enable IPv4.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
You have an unsecured wireless network for users to connect to from their personal Windows 10 devices. You need to prevent Wi-Fi Sense from sharing information about the unsecured wireless network. What should you do?
A. Configure the SSID of the unsecured wireless to contain _optout.
B. Instruct the users to disable Internet Protocol Version 6 (TCP/IPv6) on their wireless network adapters.
C. Configure the SSID of the guest wireless to be hidden.
D. Instruct the users to turn off Network Discovery on their devices.
70-697 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have an application named App1 installed on a computer named Computer1. Computer1 runs Windows 10. App1 saves data to %UserProfile%\App1\Data. You need to ensure that you can recover the App1 data if Computer1 fails. What should you configure?
A. share permissions
B. application control policies
C. Encrypting File System (EFS) settings
D. NTFS permissions
E. HomeGroup settings
F. Microsoft OneDrive
G. software restriction policies
H. account policies
Correct Answer: F
Explanation

QUESTION 9
You have a computer named Client1. Client1 is joined to an Active Directory domain. You need to join Client1 to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. What should you do first?
A. From the Local Group Policy Editor, modify the Add workstations to domain policy.
B. From the network adapter properties, modify the DNS suffix.
C. From System Control Panel, configure the computer to be a member of a workgroup.
D. From the System in the Settings app, modify the sign-in options.
70-697 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computers run Windows 10 Enterprise and Microsoft Office 2013. All of the computers are joined to the domain. Your company purchases a subscription to Office 365. An administrator creates an Office 365 account for each user and deploys a federated solution for Office 365. You need to prevent the users from being prompted for a user account and a password each time they access services from Office 365. Which account should you instruct the users to use when they sign in to their computer?
A. a Microsoft account
B. a local user account
C. an Office 365 account
D. a contoso.com account
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 11
You administer computers that run Windows 10 Enterprise and are members of an Active Directory domain. The computers are encrypted with BitLocker and are configured to store BitLocker encryption passwords in Active Directory. A user reports that he has forgotten the BitLocker encryption password for volume E on his computer. You need to provide the user a BitLocker recovery key to unlock the protected volume. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Ask the user for his computer name.
B. Ask the user to run the manage–bde –unlock E: –pw command.
C. Ask the user for his logon name.
D. Ask the user for a recovery key ID for the protected volume.
70-697 dumps Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: To view the recovery passwords fora computer you would need the computer name: In Active Directory Users and Computers, locate and then click the container in which the computer is located. Right-click the computer object, and then click Properties. In the Properties dialog box, click the BitLocker Recovery tab to view the BitLocker recovery passwords that are associated with the particular computer.

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have a computer that runs Windows 10 and is used by 10 users. The computer is joined to an Active Directory domain. All of the users are members of the Administrators group. Each user has an Active Directory account. You have a Microsoft Word document that contains confidential information. You need to ensure that you are the only user who can open the document. What should you configure?
A. account policies
B. application control policies
C. HomeGroup settings
D. software restriction policies
E. NTFS permissions
F. Microsoft OneDrive
G. share permissions
H. Encrypting File System (EFS) settings
Correct Answer: H
Explanation

QUESTION 13
A company has 100 Windows 10 Enterprise client computers. The client computers are members of a workgroup.
A custom application requires a Windows Firewall exception on each client computer. You need to configure the exception on the client computers without affecting existing firewall settings. Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run on each client computer?
A. Set–NetetFirewallRule
B. New–NetetFirewallRule
C. New–NetetIPSecMairModeRule
D. Set–NetetFirewallProfile
E. Set–NetetFirewallSetting
70-697 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
You administer Windows 10 Enterprise. Your network includes an Active Directory domain and a standalone server in a perimeter network that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. Your company purchases five new tablets that run Windows 8. The tablets will be used to access domain resources and shared folders located on the standalone server. You need to implement single sign-on (SSO) authentication for tablet users. You also need to ensure that you can audit personnel access to the shared folder. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create a new Microsoft account for each user.
B. Ensure that the local account for each user on the stand-alone server uses the same password as the corresponding Microsoft account.
C. Join the tablets to a domain.
D. Join the tablets to the same workgroup as the stand-alone server.
E. Enable a guest account on the stand-alone server.
F. On the stand-alone server, create user accounts that have the same logon names and passwords as the user domain accounts.
Correct Answer: CF
Explanation

QUESTION 15
You support Windows 10 Enterprise computers. Your company protects all laptops by using the BitLocker Network Unlock feature. Some employees work from home. You need to ensure that employees can log on to their laptops when they work from home. What should you do?
A. Have users run the Manage–bde.exe –unlock command before they disconnect from the company network.
B. Ensure that the Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chips in the laptops are version 1.2 or greater.
C. Enable BitLocker to Go.
D. Provide employees with their BitLocker PINs.
70-697 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam Code: 70-697
Exam Name: Configuring Windows Devices
Q&As: 186

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Free Pass4itsure 210-255 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-20)

1. Given: John Smith often telecommutes from a coffee shop near his home. The coffee shop has an 802.11g access point with a captive portal for authentication. At this hotspot, John is susceptible to what types of WLAN attacks?
A. UDP port redirection
B. Wi-Fi phishing
C. Peer-to-peer
D. 802.11 reverse ARP
E. Eavesdropping/packet reassembly
F. Happy AP
210-255 exam Answer: BCE

2. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) allows a WLAN administrator to perform what network function?
A. Provide wireless network access to users through specific access points, based on their 802.11e priority level.
B. Allow access to specific files and applications based on the user’s IP subnet.
C. Allow specific user groups more bandwidth than others.
D. Allow simultaneous support of multiple EAP types on a single access point.
Answer: C

3. RFC 3748 specifies that the EAP-response/identity frame must comply with what criteria?
A. The EAP-response/identity frame must contain the user identity.
B. When TLS-tunneling mode is active, the EAP-response frame must have a blank user identity.
C. The EAP-response/identity frame must not contain a null identity value.
D. The user identity value must be hashed prior to insertion into the EAP-response identity frame.
210-255 dumps Answer: C

4. What option specifies how the 802.11i Group Handshake differs from the 4-Way Handshake?
A. The Group Handshake has four messages like the 4-Way Handshake, except when it is performed after a reauthentication when it exhibits only three messages.
B. The Group Handshake is a 4-Way Handshake, but does not contain EAPoL Key frames.
C. The Group Handshake requires 6 exchanges, including the TCP 3-Way handshake traffic.
D. The Group Handshake has only two messages instead of four.
E. The Group Temporal Key (GTK) is always part of the Group Handshake, but never part of the 4-Way Handshake.
Answer: D

5. Once strong authentication and encryption mechanisms are implemented and tested in a WLAN, what options are needed to maintain a secure WLAN?
A. VPN
B. Internet firewall
C. WIPS
D. Personal firewalls
E. LDAP
210-255 pdf Answer: CD

6. What protocols allow an administrator to securely transfer a new operating system image to a WLAN switch/controller?
A. SNMPv2c
B. HTTPS
C. SCP
D. TFTP
E.FTP
Answer: BC

7. Given: You manage a wireless network that services 100 wireless users. Your facility requires 7 access points, and you have installed an 802.11i-compliant implementation of 802.1X/LEAP (TKIP) as an authentication and encryption solution. In this configuration, the wireless network is susceptible to what type of attack?
A. Man-in-the-middle
B. Password dictionary
C. Layer 3 peer-to-peer
D. WEP cracking
E. Session hijacking
F. Eavesdropping
210-255 vce Answer: B

8. Given: Most of today’s lightweight (thin) access points support 802.3af and can be placed anywhere in the network infrastructure instead of directly connected to a WLAN switch/controller port. A lightweight access point can make what logical connection to its controller?
A. LLC port connection
B. GRE tunnel
C. RSVP protocol connection
D. HTTPS tunnel
E. Mobile IP connection
Answer: B

9. Given: ABC Company wants to install an 802.11g WLAN that supports fast roaming for 802.11b IP phones. A requirement is the ability to troubleshoot reassociations that are delayed or dropped during roaming. What is the most cost-effective system ABC Company can implement to meet the troubleshooting requirement?
A. WLAN protocol analyzer software on laptop computers
B. WLAN switch with integrated WIPS
C. WLAN switch with dual lightweight 802.11a/b/g radios
D. Autonomous (thick) access points with a WIDS overlay system
E. Hybrid WLAN switch with integrated RF planning tool
210-255 exam Answer: B

10. Given: This network diagram implements an 802.1X/EAP-based wireless security solution. What device functions as the EAP Authenticator?
A. LDAP database
B. Client computer
C. Access point
D. RADIUS server
E. Ethernet switch
Answer: C

11. For WIPS to describe the location of a rogue WLAN device, what requirement must be part of the WIPS installation?
A. The predictive site survey results must be imported into the WIPS.
B. A GPS system must be installed including the coordinates of the building’s corners.
C. All authorized AP radios must be placed in RF monitor mode so that the WIPS knows where the authorized APs are in relation to the WIPS sensors.
D. A graphical floor plan diagram must be imported into the WIPS.
210-255 dumps Answer: D

12. Given: XYZ Company has recently installed a WLAN switch and RADIUS server and needs to move authenticated wireless users from various departments onto their designated network segments. How should this be accomplished?
A. The RADIUS server coordinates with an authenticated DHCP server.
B. Manually map each wireless user’s MAC address to a VLAN number in the Ethernet switch.
C. Implement multiple 802.1Q VLANs in both the WLAN and Ethernet switches.
D. RADIUS will send a return list attribute with the GRE tunnel number to the WLAN switch.
E. The WLAN user must contact the network administrator at step 4 of the 802.1X/EAP authentication process to receive a network number.
Answer: C

13. Given: The Wi-Fi Alliance implemented TKIP as an upgrade to WEP as part of WPA. The illustration shows an expanded TKIP MPDU. What features were included in TKIP to enhance the security of WEP?
A. FCS
B. ICV
C. MIC
D. Extended IV
E. Encrypted PDU
210-255 pdf Answer: CD

14. Given: A new access point is connected to an authorized network segment and is detected by a WIPS. What does the WIPS apply to the new access point?
A. Default security policy
B. FIPS values
C. Site survey template
D. User property profile
E. Updated firmware
F. SNMP MIB
Answer: A

15. Given: Your company has just completed installation of a WLAN switch/controller with 10 lightweight (thin) access points. The Chief Security Officer has specified 802.11i compliant PEAPv0/EAP-MSCHAPv2 as the only authorized WLAN authentication and encryption scheme. Where must the x.509 server certificate reside in this network?
A. Supplicant devices
B. LDAP server
C. RADIUS server
D. WLAN switch/controller
E. Lightweight access points
210-255 vce Answer: AC

16. What wireless authentication technologies build a TLS-encrypted tunnel between the supplicant and the authentication server before passing client authentication credentials to the authentication server?
A. MS-CHAPv2
B. EAP-FAST
C. LEAP
D. PEAPv1/EAP-GTC
E. EAP-MD5
F. EAP-TTLS
Answer: DF

17. How does a wireless network management system (WNMS) discover WLAN usernames?
A. The WNMS finds the MAC address of the wireless client device in the authentication database and parses the username from the entry.
B. The WNMS polls access points using SNMP.
C. The client device sends the username to the WNMS on port 113 (ident service) after successful authentication.
D. The RADIUS server sends the username to the WNMS after the wireless device successfully authenticates.
E. The WNMS captures the username by sniffing the wireless network during the authentication process.
210-255 exam Answer: B

18. What is illustrated by this Wireless Intrusion Prevention System (WIPS)
A. 802.11a access points on channels 34, 38, 42, and 46
B. Wideband RF jamming attack
C. Only channels 9, 10, and 11 are enabled on the access point
D. An access point on channel 6
E. Use of channels 12-14 is not allowed
Answer: B

19. Given: A university is installing a WLAN switch/controller and one thousand 802.11a/g lightweight access points. In this environment, how should the WLAN switch/controller connect to the Ethernet network?
A. The WLAN switch/controller should connect between every Layer 3 distribution Ethernet switch and every Layer 2 access Ethernet switch by having one port in each VLAN.
B. The WLAN switch/controller should connect to the core Layer 3 switch via a gigabit (or faster) Ethernet segment.
C. The WLAN switch/controller should be connected between the Layer 3 core Ethernet switch/controller and the corporate Internet firewall using a 100 Mbps connection.
D. The WLAN switch/controller should connect to a Layer 3 distribution switch in a wireless VLAN using a gigabit (or faster) connection.
210-255 dumps Answer: B

20. What type of WLAN attack is illustrated on the 802.11 protocol analyzer screenshot?
A. Man-in-the-middle
B. Frame injection
C. RF jamming
D. Authentication flood
E. Hijacking
Answer: C
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Exam Code: 210-250
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Q&As: 80
Exam Website: https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-255.html

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“This is my first time to sit a Cisco exam, so you will know how nervous I was! Thanks for your help, Kingexam! I passed. I think 95% questions are more or less the same as your guidance. Some questions with the answer are in the different sequence, and, sorry to point out that one answer of your questions is incorrect, I’ll email you to let you know, you guys need to revise it. Well, I think your kingexam’s guidance is still more accurate than others. The most important thing is I got passed 🙂 Paul Hussler”

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Free Pass4itsure 810-403 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-28)

QUESTION 1
According to Cisco and related to customers, which is the one and only outstanding reason and justification for business outcome-based sales approach?
A. Executives are interested in satisfying customers’ needs and requirements.
B. Managers and supervisors are committed to close the quality of service gap.
C. Stakeholders are interested in being considered when developing and assessing business outcomes.
D. Customers are interested in solutions and services that result in measurable outcomes.
810-403 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
RACI model aids can be used to understand specific aspects of stakeholders’ involvement in businesses. What does RACI stand for?
A. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
B. Reconciler, Accountable, Consulted, Independent
C. Responsible, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
D. Reconciler, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
E. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Influenced
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. Which is the goal of business outcomes?
A. To enable CXOs or Line of Business leaders to grow revenues, lower operating costs and achieve strategic business objectives
B. To help customers establish new technology or evolve current functionality
C. To help customers operate, manage and optimize technology environment more effectively
D. To take advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which two options are part of customer relationship management? (Choose two.)
A. Developing market research.
B. Moving the customer towards positive decisions about IT investments and initiatives
C. Classifying customer segments.
D. Identifying key stakeholders.

810-403 pdf Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
While troubleshooting a Sugar dashlet error in your web browser, you notice you are consistently receiving a 500 error in response to a particular REST API call. Which three actions would you perform to gain more insightinto the source of the problem?(Choose three.)
A. View the full list of browser cache contents.
B. View the Sugar log.
C. Visit status.sugarcrm.com to confirm there are no service outages.
D. Consult the Web server PHP error log.
E. Consult the JavaScript console in the Web browser.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 7
You are experiencing poor performance with your Sugar installation and want to install and configure Alternative PHP Cache (APC) and ensure it is enabled. Which two actions would help you achieve these goals? (Choose two.)
A. Install APC using the Sugar module loader and configure it from the Administration panel.
B. File a ticket with SugarCRM support requesting that APC be enabled for your instance.
C. Install the APC module from the PHP Extension Community Library (PECL) and configure it using the command line.
D. Verify the presence of the APC settings in the output of phpinfo().
810-403 vce Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
You examine a Sugar database and discover some table names that end with the moniker ~_c~. What do the database tables with these names represent?
A. custom field data for custom fields
B. custom field metadata for custom fields
C. relationship data for custom relationships
D. relationship metadata for stock and custom relationships
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
View the Exhibit.
A customization requires a developer to add a new profile action link to the MegaMenu shown in the exhibit.
  According to the Sugar Developer Guide, which directory should contain the customizations?
A. ~./custom/clients/base/views/profileactions/~
B. ~./custom/Extenslon/application/Ext/clients/base/views/profileactions/~
C. ~./custom/Extension/modules/Ext/clients/base/views/profileactions/~
D. ~./application/clients/base/views/profileactions/~
810-403 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
According to the Sugar Developer Guide, which class should be used to store and retrieve system settings stored at the database level?
A. SugarAutoLoader
B. Administration
C. Configurator
D. SugarApplication
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You are attempting to load a large custom package using Module Loader andit is failing. Which three configuration values should you verify? (Choose three.)
A. PHP upload_max_filesize setting
B. Sugar import_max_records_total_limit setting
C. Sugar upload_maxsize setting
D. PHP memory_limit setting
E. PHP post_max_size setting
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 12
You need to execute a call to the Sugar REST v10API from within a customized controller. According to the Sugar Developer Guide, what would be the recommended method toaccomplish this task?
A. ~app.api.getRequest( )~
B. ~callback( )~
C. ~app.api.call( )~
D. ~$.ajax( )~
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You are working on the RecordView for a given module. You examine the data values contained in this.model and notice a discrepancy between those values and the list of fields contained in record.php. Which statement pertaining to this.model is correct?
A. Only values from stock fields listed in record.php are available.
B. Only values from any of the fields listed in record.php are available.
C. Only values from custom fields listed in record.php are available.
D. Only values from link fields listed in record.php are available.
810-403 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
You are creating an Initial one-to-one relationship from the Accounts module to a custom module using studio, which database schema change will occur?
A. Table accounts_cstm is created or modified.
B. Table [custom_module]_cstm is created or modified.
C. Table accounts is modified.
D. A new relate table is created.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
While troubleshooting a customization, you initiate a debugger session and examine the Sidecar metadata. Which two components would you expect it to contain? (Choose two.)
A. layouts
B. global variables
C. views
D. event handler
810-403 vce Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 16
Which Sidecar component is nested within components of the same type?
A. field
B. layout
C. view
D. model
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
In which two directories do Sidecar enabled modules read theirsubpanel layouts? (Choose two.)
A. ~./modules/[module]/metadata/subpanels/default.php~
B. ~./custom/modules/[module]/Ext/Layoutdefs/layoutdefs.ext.php~
C. ~./modules/[module]/clients/base/layouts/subpanels/subpanels.php~
D. ~./custom/modules/[module]/Ext/clients/base/layouts/subpanels/subpanels.ext.php~
810-403 exam Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 18
Which Handlebars helper allows you to iterate over an array of objects?
A. models
B. for
C. foreach
D. each
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19 In the process of public key cryptography, which of the following is true?
A. Only the public key is used to encrypt and decrypt
B. Only the private key can encrypt and only the public key can decrypt
C. Only the public key can encrypt and only the private key can decrypt
D. The private key is used to encrypt and decrypt
E. If the public key encrypts, then only the private key can decrypt
810-403 dumps Answer: E

QUESTION 20. As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on Physical and Environmental Security?
A. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory, regulatory or contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance of systems with organizational security policies and standards.
B. The objectives of this section are to prevent unauthorized access, damage and interference to business premises and information; to prevent loss, damage or compromise of assets and interruption to business activities; to prevent compromise or theft of information and information processing facilities.
C. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for information security.
D. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to ensure that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized access to information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent unauthorized computer access.
Answer: B

QUESTION 21 During a one week investigation into the security of your network you work on identifying the information that is leaked to the Internet, either directly or indirectly. One thing you decide to evaluate is the information stored in the Whois lookup of your organizational website. Of the following, what pieces of information can be identified via this method?
A. Registrar

B. Mailing Address
C. Contact Name
D. Record Update
E. Network Addresses (Private)
810-403 pdf Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 22 You are aware of the significance and security risk that Social Engineering plays on your company. Of the following Scenarios, select those that, just as described, represent potentially dangerous Social Engineering:
A. A writer from a local college newspapers calls and speaks to a network administrator. On the call the writer requests an interview about the current trends in technology and offers to invite the administrator to speak at a seminar.
B. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the receptionist. On the call the caller asks the receptionist the normal business hours that the organization is open to the public.
C. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the purchaser of IT hardware and software. On the call the caller lists several new products that the purchaser may be interested in evaluating. The caller asks for a time to come and visit to demonstrate the new products.
D. An email, sent by the Vice President of Sales and Marketing, is received by the Help Desk asking to reset the password of the VP of Sales and Marketing.
E. An email is received by the Chief Security Officer (CSO) about a possible upgrade coming from the ISP to a different brand of router. The CSO is asked for the current network’s configuration data and the emailer discusses the method, plan, and expected dates for the rollover to the new equipment.
Answer: DE

QUESTION 23 During the review of the security logs you notice some unusual traffic. It seems that a user has connected to your Web site ten times in the last week, and each time has visited every single page on the site. You are concerned this may be leading up to some sort of attack. What is this user most likely getting ready to do?
A. Mirror the entire web site.
B. Download entire DNS entries.

C. Scan all ports on a web server.
D. Perform a Distributed Denial of Service attack through the Web server.
E. Allow users to log on to the Internet without an ISP.
810-403 vce Answer: A

QUESTION 24 What type of cipher is used by an algorithm that encrypts data one bit at a time?
A. 64-bit encryption Cipher
B. Block Cipher
C. Stream Cipher
D. Diffuse Cipher
E. Split Cipher
Answer: C

QUESTION 25 What encryption algorithm was selected to replace DES?
A. RC5
B. IDEA
C. AES
D. Blowfish
E. RSA
810-403 exam Answer: C

QUESTION 26 Which one of the following is an incorrect mod equation?
A. 9 mod 3 = 0
B. 40 mod 10 = 0
C. 40 mod 9 = 4
D. (6-1) mod 3 = 0
E. (2+4) mod 5 = 1
Answer: D

QUESTION 27 If you wish to change the permissions of a parent directory in your Linux system, and want the  permissions to be changed on the files and subdirectories in the parent directory to be the same, what switch must you use?
A. -G
B. -R
C. -P
D. -S
E. -F
810-403 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION 28 You are working with some new RPM files on your Linux system. You know there are several options when dealing with RPM files. Which of the following answers lists proper RPM commands, with the correct description of the command?
A. rpm -q <package name> This command performs software verification.
B. rpm -e <package name> This command removes the software.
C. rpm -v <package name> This command performs software verification.
D. rpm -r <package name> This command removes the software.
E. rpm -i <package name> This command installs the software.
F. rpm -in <package name> This command installs the software.
Answer: ABE

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Free Pass4itsure 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 33 A switch is added into the production network to increase port capacity. A network engineer is configuring the switch for DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard, but is unable to configure ip verify source under several of the interfaces. Which option is the cause of the problem?
A. The local DHCP server is disabled prior to enabling IP Source Guard.
B. The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.
C. No VLANs exist on the switch and/or the switch is configured in VTP transparent mode.
D. The switch is configured for sdm prefer routing as the switched database management template.
E. The configured SVIs on the switch have been removed for the associated interfaces.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34 Which command correctly configures standby tracking for group 1 using the default decrement priority value?
A. standby 1 track 100
B. standby 1 track 100 decrement 1
C. standby 1 track 100 decrement 5
D. standby 1 track 100 decrement 20
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35 Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36 RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch. Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.

B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch isoverloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37 Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, localusername, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38 You are giving the debug RHCT exam. The examiner told you that the password of root is redhat. When you tried to login displays the error message and redisplayed the login screen. You changed the root password, again unable to login as a root. How will you make Successfully Login as a root.
Answer and Explanation:
When root unable to login into the system think:
1. Is password correct?
2. Is account expired?
3. Is terminal Blocked?
Do these Steps:
. Boot the System on Single user mode.
. Change the password
. Check the account expire date by using chage -l root command.
If account is expired, set net expire date: chage -E “NEVER” root
1. Check the file /etc/securetty Which file blocked to root login from certain terminal.
2. If terminal is deleted or commented write new or uncomment.
3. Reboot the system and login as a root.
QUESTION 39 You are giving RHCT Exam and in your Exam paper there is a written, make successfully ping to 192.168.0.254.
300-115 vce Answer and Explanation:
In Network problem thinks to check:
1. IP Configuration: use ifconfig command either IP is assigned to interface or not?

2. Default Gateway is set or not?
3. Hostname is set or not?
4. Routing problem is there?
5. Device Driver Module is loaded or not?
6. Device is activated or not?
Check In this way:
1. use ifconfig command and identify which IP is assigned or not.
2. cat /etc/sysconfig/network What, What is written here. Actually here are these parameters.
NETWORKING=yes or no
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
HOSTNAME=?
NISDOMAIN=?
– Correct the file
QUESTION 40 Use vi /etc/sysconfig/network-scirpts/ifcfg-eth0 and check the proper options
DEVICE=eth0
ONBOOT=yes
BOOTPROTO=static
IPADDR=x.x.x.x
NETMAKS=x.x.x.x
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
QUESTION 41  Set the Hostname station?.example.com where ? is your Host IP Address.
300-115 exam Answer and Explanation:
1. hostname station?.example.com This will set the host name only for current session. To set hostname permanently.
2. vi /etc/sysconfig/network HOSTNAME=station?.example.com
3. service network restart

QUESTION 42 The System you are using is for NFS (Network File Services). Some important data are shared from your system. Make automatically start the nfs and portmap services at boot time.
Answer and Explanation:
We can control the services for current session and for next boot time also. For current Session, we use service servicename start or restart or stop or status. For automatically on next reboot time:
1. chkconfig servicename on or off
eg: chkconfig nfs on chkconfig portmap on or ntsysv Select the nfs and portmap services.
2. Reboot the system and identify whether services are running or not.

QUESTION 43
Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?
A. Control Quality
B. Control Scope
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule
compared to the contract is known as:
A. Work performance information.
B. Inspections and audits.
C. Payment systems.
D. Procurement performance reviews.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?
A. Project Communications Management
B. Project Integration Management
C. Project Risk Management
D. Project Scope Management
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate
Costs process?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk register
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
A. Organizational process assets.
B. Enterprise environmental factors updates.
C. Project staff assignments.
D. Organizational charts and position descriptions.
300-115 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete
project activities is known as:
A. Plan Human Resource Management.
B. Acquire Project Team.
C. Manage Project Team.
D. Develop Project Team.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
Which item is an example of personnel assessment?
A. Resource calendar
B. Tight matrix
C. Team-building activity
D. Focus group
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Initiating
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 51
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can
best be involved in a project?
A. Feedback analysis
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Communication management plan
D. Stakeholder management plan
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected
product before actually building is known as:
A. Benchmarking.
B. Context diagrams.
C. Brainstorming.
D. Prototyping.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 53
Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?
A. Power/influence grid
B. Power/interest grid
C. Influence/impact grid
D. Salience model
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?
A. Facilitation techniques
B. Expert judgment
C. Analytical techniques
D. Variance analysis
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?
A. Control charts
B. Pareto diagrams
C. Ishikavva diagrams

D. Checksheets
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:
A. Collect Requirements.
B. Conduct Procurements.
C. Estimate Activity Durations.
D. Estimate Activity Resources.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?
A. Procurement documents
B. Communications plan
C. Project charter
D. Stakeholder register
300-115 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Executing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:
A. Business case.
B. Activity list.
C. Project management plan.
D. Cost forecast.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?
A. Change request
B. Requirements documentation
C. Scope baseline
D. Risk urgency assessment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?
A. Control Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Identify Risks
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:
A. Nominal group technique.
B. Majority.
C. Affinity diagram.
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:
A. mitigate
B. accept
C. transfer
D. avoid
300-115 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:
A. A process improvement plan,
B. Quality control measurements.
C. Work performance information,
D. The project management plan.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 65
A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:
A. Change control plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Risk log
D. Communications management plan
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?
A. Enhance
B. Share
C. Exploit
D. Accept
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:
A. Expert judgment.
B. Analytical techniques.
C. Earned value management.
D. Group decision-making techniques.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?
A. Timing
B. Methodology
C. Risk categories
D. Budgeting
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?
A. Negative
B. Zero
C. Positive
D. Free
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
A reward can only be effective if it is:
A. Given immediately after the project is completed.
B. Something that is tangible.
C. Formally given during project performance appraisals.
D. Satisfying a need valued by the individual.
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and
analysis?
A. Nominal group technique
B. Idea/mind mapping
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 73
Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and
complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement
for a current project describes which type of estimating?
A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric
C. Analogous
D. Three-point
300-115 exam Correct Answer: C
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“Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks”, also known as 300-115 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-115 dump exam questions answers are updated (456 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 300-115 dump is CCNP Routing and Switching, CCDP. Expert engineer shares preparation hints and test-taking tips, helping you identify areas of weakness and improve https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-115.html dumps both your conceptual knowledge and hands-on skills.

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Latest Questions 3M0-300 exam dumps _v2011-11-09_55q_By-Ned

this dump good luck By-Ned Exam A QUESTION 1
Which of the following routers supports version 2.41 router code?
A. 5231
B. 5232
C. 5640
D. 5680
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a standard port available on the Router 5012?
A. ISDN
B. Console
C. Serial WAN
D. 10/100 Ethernet

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
True or False: The Flexible Interface Cards (FICs) in the Router 6040 can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
True or False: The RPU can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
What kind of modules does the Router 5232 use?
A. SICs only
B. MIMs only
C. SICs and MIMs
D. SICs and FICs

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
Which of the following modules is a daughter card that fits onto the RPU2?
A. ATM
B. Enhanced Serial
C. Encryption Card
D. Memory Expansion Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
How many FIC slots does a Router 6040 have?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
Which of the following features is available on both the RPU and the RPU2?
A. SFP Interface Slot
B. CF Memory Card slot
C. Gigabit Ethernet Interfaces
D. Power and Fan LED indicators

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
What does it indicate if the LEDs on the Power Supply of the Router 6000 are as follows? ALM (red) – OFF RUN (green) ON
AC OK (red) – ON
A. Power is OFF or has failed
B. A Runtime error has occurred
C. Power is ON and voltage is normal
D. Power is ON but operating voltage is not within acceptable range

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
True or False, The Router 6080 Fans have two rotational speeds.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
True or False: The RPU2 can support a daughter card.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which of the following Network Management applications does NOT support the Router 5000/6000?
A. Enterprise Management Suite
B. 3Com Network Director Firewall
C. Router Manager
D. Switch Manager

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
The default baud rate for the Router 6040 is 9600 bps. What are the other settings?
A. 7 data bits, 2 stop bits, Even Parity
B. 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, Even Parity
C. 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, No Parity
D. 8 data bits, 0 stop bits, No Parity

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
At which prompt will you receive an error if you entered the command Interface Serial 0/0?
A. <Router>
B. [Router]
C. [Router-ospf-1]
D. [Router-Eth 1/0]

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Which command will reset the router to factory defaults?
A. undo start
B. reset start
C. reset to factory
D. reset saved-configuration

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Which interface/command shows the correct syntax to configure an IP address on a serial interface of the router 5012 on slot 1 port 0?
A. [RTA-Serial 1/0] ip interface10.1.3.1 24
B. [RTA-Serial 0/1] ip address 10.1.3.1 24
C. [RTA-Serial 1/0/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24
D. [RTA-Serial 0/1/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements is true about Router 5000/6000 series routers, with regard to TFTP?
A. They can be TFTP clients only
B. They can be TFTP servers only
C. They can be either TFTP clients or TFTP Servers
D. They do not support TFTP

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
True or False, The Router 6000 series routers have boot code and main code to upgrade while the 5000 Series Routers only have main code to upgrade.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
In a Router 5012, which command lists the files in a directory?
A. ls
B. dir
C. show list
D. display directory

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20
In the command delete /unreserved name2.bin What does /unreserved specify
A. to hide the file so that it looks deleted
B. to store the file in the recycle bin after deleting
C. to delete the file and not add it to the recycle bin
D. to perform the command immediately and not to queue the operation

Correct Answer: C

 

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Free Pass4itsure 700-260 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 1
Increased employee productivity, confidence in data confidentiality, and increased visibility are features that demonstrate which Cisco business value?
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Protection
C. Control
D. Flexibility
E. Completeness
700-260 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which licensing feature enables customers to better manage their software assets and optimize their IT spending?
A. Cisco ONE
B. Smart Accounts
C. Enterprise License Agreements
D. License Bundling
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which Cisco network security solution helps protect against threats by monitoring and responding to any network anomalies, continually analyzing for potential threats and reacting to them in real time?
A. Cisco Security Manager
B. Cisco ASA Firewall Services
C. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
D. Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
E. Cisco Web Security Appliance
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance
G. Cisco Identity Services Engine
H. Cisco Site-to-Site VPN
700-260 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Identity Services Engine
D. Cisco Security Manager
E. Cisco TrustSec
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Upon which component are security solutions directly built in the Cisco future solutions architecture framework?
A. Security intelligence operations
B. Third-party applications

C. Management and intelligence capabilities
D. Cisco security platforms
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
At which point during the attack continuum does a customer experience limited remediation tools?
A. Across the entire continuum
B. During
C. Before
D. After
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which technology solution can resolve the inability of a customer to properly restrict and authorize access to protected resources while still introducing new applications, devices, and business partnerships?
A. Cisco Secure Data Center
B. Cisco Cyber Threat Defense
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Cloud
E. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure
F. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
700-260 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Utilizing the Cisco software lifecycle generates which two benefits for partners? (Choose two.)
A. Adaptable deployment
B. Software portability
C. Improved sales performance
D. Cisco incentives
E. Increased efficiencies
F. Sales promotions
G. Customer support
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 9
Which Cisco security benefit is a differentiator that allows partners to plan and model their businesses?
A. Comprehensive vision for security
B. One solution to fit every need
C. Unparalleled commitment
D. Lowest price points
E. Best-in-class technologies
700-260 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What is the primary customer challenge that is created by the wide variety of security solution providers on
the market?
A. Choosing the right provider

B. Contacting all providers for information
C. Finding a low-cost option
D. Determining the single best security product
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Automatic updates and post-attack guidance are features that demonstrate which Cisco business value?
A. Completeness
B. Cost effectiveness
C. Flexibility
D. Control
E. Protection
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
End-to-end protection and protection across the attack continuum are features that demonstrate which two Cisco business values? (Choose two.)
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Protection
C. Control
D. Flexibility
E. Completeness
700-260 dumps Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 13
The unmatched security that Cisco offers is demonstrated by its long-standing experience in which two
options? (Choose two.)
A. Mobile solutions
B. Networks
C. Software
D. Security
E. Devices
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 14
Click the exhibit button.
Given the diagram in the exhibit, what would be the correct static route configuration on the router on the right, if it is an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. config> static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.1.2.2
B. config>router> static-route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 next-hop 10.1.2.1
C. config>router> static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.1.2.2
D. config>router> static-route 0 0.0 0/0 next-hop 10.1.2.1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements regarding link state protocols are true? (Choose two)
A. When a router receives updates from its neighbors, it adds them to its link state database, performs an SPF computation, and sends the results to its neighbors.
B. An SPF computation is done by each router to determine the best path to destination networks. All the best paths determined by the SPF calculation will be seen in the route table.
C. Each router constructs its own link state database with updates received from neighbors.
D. An SPF computation is done by each router to determine the best path to destination networks. All the
best paths determined by the SPF calculation will be offered to the route table manager.
700-260 vce Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 16
Which of the following OSPFv3 LSAs have an AS scope?
A. Link Local LSA
B. Router LSA
C. Network LSA
D. Inter-Area Router LSA
E. Intra-Area Prefix LSA
F. None of the above LSAs have an AS scope.
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 17
An operator configures an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR with a loopback interface and IPv6 address. The
operator then configures a routing policy to redistribute the loopback prefix into OSPFv3. What type of LSA
is used to advertise the route to other OSPFv3 routers in the same area?
A. Router LSA
B. AS External LSA
C. Intra-Area Prefix LSA
D. Inter-Area Prefix LSA
E. Network LSA
F. None of the statements are correct.
700-260  exam Correct Answer: B

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Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam
Q&As: 828

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QUESTION 1
Which statement about a type 4 LSA in OSPF is true?
A. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR,that is flooded throughout the AS,and that describes a route to the ASBR.
B. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR,that is flooded throughout the AS,and that describes a route to the ABR.
C. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR,that is flooded throughout the AS,and that describes a route to the ASBR.
D. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR,that is flooded throughout the area,and that describes a route to the ASBR.
E. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR,that is flooded throughout the area,and that describes a route to the ASBR.
Pass4itsure 400-101 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which ISAKMP feature can protect a GDOI from a hacker using a network sniffer while a security
association is established?
A. An ISAKMP phase 1 security association
B. An ISAKMP phase 2 security association
C. The Proof of Possession(POP)
D. A ISAKMP phase 2 GROUPKEY-PUSH exchange
E. An ISAKMP phase 2 GROUPKEY-PULL exchange
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which three statements about Ansible are true? {Choose three.)
A. Ansible by default manages remote machines over SSL.
B. No ports other than the SSH port are required ; there is no additional PKI infrastructure to maintain.
C. Ansible requires remote agent software.
D. Ansible by default manages remote machines over SSH.
E. Ansible does not require specific SSH keys or dedicated users.
F. Ansible requires server software running on a management machine.
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which statement is true about conditional advertisements?
A. Conditional advertisements create routes when a predefined condition is met.
B. Conditional advertisements create routes when a predefined condition is not met.

C. Conditional advertisements delete routes when a predefined condition is met.
D. Conditional advertisements create routes and withhold them until a predefined condition is met.
E. Conditional advertisements do not create routes, they only withhold them until a predefined condition is met.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which two options are benefits of moving the application development workload to the cloud?(Choose two.)
A. The application availability is not affected by the loss of a single virtual machine.
B. The workload can be moved or replicated easily.
C. it provides you full control over the software packages and vendor used.
D. :High availability and redundancy is handled by the hypervisor.
E. it provides a more secure environment.
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which two statements about DMVPN with NHRP are true? (Choose two)
A. NHRP shortens the configuration of the hub router.
B. NHRP dynamically provides information about the spoke routers to the hub.
C. NHRP disables multicast
D. The hub router uses NHRP to initiate the GRE tunnel with spokes.
E. The spoke routers act as the NHRP servers.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 7
When is it useful to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface?
A. Disable it when you want to provide additional backup paths in your network.
B. Disable it when you want to send routes that are learned from another routing protocol to peer on the same interface.
C. Disable it when you need to send updates to peers on the interface on which the updates were received.
D. It is never advisable to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface.
400-101 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 8

400-101 dumps

Refer to the exhibit. Which two route types advertised by a router with this configuration? (Choose two)
A. connected
B. summary
C. static
D. redistributed
E. external
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which feature can you implement to most efficiently protect customer traffic in a rate-limited WAN Ethernet service?
A. IntServ with RSVP
B. DiffServ
C. Q-in-Q
D. The IPsec VTI qos pre-classify command
E. HCBWFQ
400-101 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label information table
C. the label forwarding information base
D. the IP routing table
E. the adjacency table
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Which command can you enter to allow a multicast-enabled router to advertise itself to the BSR router as PIMv2 c-RP?
A. ip pim autorp listener
B. ip pim send-rp-announce
C. ip pim rp-candidate
D. ip pim rp-address
E. ip pim send-rp- discovery
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding are true? (Choose two)
A. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when distributed Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
B. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the adjacency table.
C. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
D. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the FIB table.
E. The FIB table resides on the route processor and the adjacency table resides on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION NO: 13
Given the following formula in a calculation field that returns a Text result: Let (tmp = “2 * 5” ; Evaluate (Quote (tmp)))
What will be returned?
A. The value 10
B. The value tmp
C. The value 2 *5
D. The value “10”, quotes included
E. The value “tmp”, quotes included
F. The value “2 * 5”, quotes included
400-101 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
Given the following formula;
Substitute (“JoHn” ; [“J” ; “0”] ; [“0” ; “H”] ; [“H” ; “N”] ; [“N” ; “n”]) What is the result?
A. nonn
B. nnnn
C. OoNn
D. OHNn
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 15
Given a text field myText that contains “red-blue-green”, which two formulas could be used to extract the word “blue” from the field? (Choose two.)
A. Filter(myText ; “blue”)
B. MiddleWords(myText; 2 ; 2)
C. PatternMatch(myText ; “blue”)
D. GetValue(Substitute { myText ; “-” ; “¶” ); 2)
E. Middle(myText; Position(myText ; “-” ; 1 ; 1)+ 1 ; 4)
400-101 vce Answer: D,E
Explanation:

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Exam Name: Designing and Implementing Big Data Analytics Solutions
Q&As: 42

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QUESTION NO: 104
An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to suffer. What imbalance does this represent?
A. Excessive focus on quality
B. Excessively reactive
C. Excessively proactive
D. Excessive focus on cost
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 105
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfillment?
A. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
C. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested
D. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
70-475 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 106
What is the definition of an Alert?
A. An error message to the user of an application
B. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
C. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
D. A type of Incident
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 107

Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services”. These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following?
A. Functions and Processes
B. Markets and Customers
C. Applications and Infrastructure
D. People, products and technology
70-475 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 108
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?
A. Business Relationship Management
B. Continual Service Improvement
C. Service Level Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 109
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
B. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
C. The definition of Process Control is “The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice”
D. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business objectives
70-475 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 110
How is the Service Catalogue used to add value to the service provider organization?
A. Providing a central source of information on the IT services delivered
B. Showing the business impact of a change
C. Displaying the relationships between configuration items
D. To predict the root cause of issues in the IT infrastructure
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 111
Which process is responsible for monitoring an IT Service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits?
A. Service Level Management
B. Performance Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Event Management
70-475 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 112
In many organizations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk. It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:
A. Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line
B. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
C. Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line
D. Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 113
Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute is?
A. Whether to buy an application or build it
B. Should application development be outsourced
C. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be
D. Where the vendor of an application is located
70-475 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 114
Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2. What services to offer and to whom?
3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. All of the above
D. 3 only
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 115
Removing or restricting rights to use an IT Service is the responsibility of which process?
A. Access Management
B. Incident Management
C. Request Fulfillment
D. Change Management
70-475 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 116
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. Delivers specific results
B. A method of structuring an organization
C. Responds to specific events
D. It is measurable
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 117
Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
A. Applications and Infrastructure
B. Services and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
70-475 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 118
Staff in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?
A. Extreme internal focus
B. Extreme focus on cost
C. Extreme focus on responsiveness
D. Vendor focused
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 119
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. Delivers specific results
B. Responds to specific events
C. It is measurable
D. A method of structuring an organization
70-475 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 120
Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in a Network Operations Centre?
A. IT Operations Management
B. Applications Management
C. Service Desk
D. Technical Management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 121
Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?
A. Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts.
B. Development, negotiation and agreement of Organizational Level Agreements
C. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements.
D. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Portfolio
70-475 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 122
Which of the following areas would not be supported by a Service Design tool?
A. Software design
B. Process design
C. Environment design
D. Strategy design
70-475 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 123
Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?
A. Governance
B. Service Level Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Service Strategy
Answer: B

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QUESTION 51
An internal auditor for a large automotive parts retailer wishes to perform a risk analysis and wants to use an appropriate statistical tool to help identify stores that
would be out of line compared to the majority of stores. The most appropriate statistical tool to use is:
A. Lineartime series analysis.
B. Cross-sectional regression analysis.
C. Cross tabulations with chi-square analysis of significance

D. Time series multiple regression analysis to identify changes in individual stores over time.
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Time series data pertain to a given entity over a number of prior time periods. Cross-sectional data, however, pertain to different entities for a given time period or
at a given time. Thus, cross-sectional regression analysis is the most appropriate statistical tool because it compares attributes of all stores’ operating statistics at
one moment in time.
QUESTION 52
What coefficient of correlation results from the following data?
A. 0
B. -1
C. +1
D. Cannot be determined from the data given.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The coefficient of correlation (in standard notation, r) measures the strength of the linear relationship. The magnitude of ris independent of the scales of
measurement of x and y. Its range is -1 to +1. A value of -1 indicates a perfectly inverse linear relationship between x and y. A value of zero indicates no linear
relationship between x and y. A value of 1 indicates a perfectly direct relationship between x and y As x increases by 1, y consistently decreases by 2. Hence, a
perfectly inverse relationship exists, and r must be equal to -1.
QUESTION 53
In regression analysis, which of the following correlation coefficients represents the strongest relationship between the independent and dependent variables?
A. 1.03
B. -.02
C. -.89
D. .75
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Because the range of values is between-1 and 1.-89 suggests a very strong inverse relationship between the independent and dependent variables. A value of –1
signifies a perfect inverse relationship, and a value of 1 signifies a perfect direct relationship.
QUESTION 54
The following data on variables x and y was collected from June to October.
The correlation coefficient between variables x and y is nearest to:
A. 1.0
B. -1.0
C. 0.5
D. 0.0
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The simplest way to solve this problem is to use a scatter diagram:

The data points appear to form a straight line with a negative slope. Thus,-1 is the best estimate of the coefficient of correlation.
QUESTION 55
The correlation coefficient that indicates the weakest linear association between two variables is:
A. -0.73
B. -0.11
C. 0.12
D. 0.35
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The correlation coefficient can vary from -1 to +1. A–1 relationship indicates a perfect inverse correlation, and a +1 relationship indicates a perfect direct
correlation. A zero correlation coefficient indicates no linear association between the variables. Thus, the correlation coefficient that is nearest to zero would
indicate the weakest linear association. Of the options given in the question, the correlation coefficient that is nearest to zero is -0.11.
QUESTION 56
Correlation is a term frequently used in conjunction with regression analysis and is measured by the value of the coefficient of correlation, r. The best explanation
of the value r is that it:
A. Is always positive.
B. Interprets variances in terms of the independent variable.
C. Ranges in size from negative infinity to positive infinity.
D. Is a measure of the relative relationship between two variables.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The coefficient of correlation (r) measures the strength of the linear relationship between the dependent and independent variables. The magnitude of r is
independent of the scales of measurement of xand y. The coefficient has a range of-1 to +1. A value of zero indicates no linear relationship between the x and y
variables. A value of+1 indicates a perfectly direct relationship, and a value of –1 indicates a perfectly inverse relationship.
QUESTION 57
In preparing the annual profit plan for the coming year.
Based upon the data derived from the regression analysis, 420 maintenance hours in a month would mean the maintenance costs (rounded to the nearest US
dollar) would be budgeted at:
A. US$3,780
B. US$3,600
C. US$3,790
D. US$3,746
200-155  vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Substituting the given data into the regression equation results in a budgeted cost of US $3,746 (rounded to the nearest US dollar).
y=a + bx
= 684.65 + 7.2884(420)
= US $3,746
Answer:
QUESTION 58
In preparing the annual profit plan for the coming year.
What is the percentage of the total variance that can be explained by the regression equation?
A. 99.724%
B. 69.613%
C. 80.982%
D. 99.862%
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The coefficient of determination (r2) measures the percentage of the total variance in cost that can be explained by the regression equation. If the coefficient of
determination is .99724,99.724% of the variance is explained by the regression equation. Thus, the values in the regression equation explain virtually the entire
amount of total cost.
QUESTION 59
The internal auditor of a bank has developed a multiple regression model that has been used for a number of years to estimate the amount of interest income from
commercial loans. During the current year, the auditor applies the model and discovers that the r2 value has decreased dramatically, but the model otherwise
seems to be working.
Which of the following conclusions is justified by the change?
A. Changing to a cross-sectional regression analysis should cause r2to increase.
B. Regression analysis is no longer an appropriate technique to estimate interest income.
C. Some new factors not included in the model are causing interest income to change.
D. A linear regression analysis would increase the model’s reliability.
200-155  exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The coefficient of determination (r2) is the amount of variation in the dependent variable (interest income) that is explained by the independent variables. In this
case, less of the change in interest income is explained by the model. Thus, some other factor must be causing interest income to change.
This change merits audit investigation.

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Exam Name: Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions
Q&As: 205

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Question No : 39 A company has an Azure subscription with four virtual machines (VM) that are provisioned in an availability set. The VMs support an existing web service. The company expects additional demand for the web service. You add 10 new VMs to the environment.
You need to configure the environment. How many Update Domains (UDs) and Fault Domains (FDs) should you create?
A. 2 UDs and 5 FDs
B. 5 UDs and 2 FDs
C. 14 UDs and 2 FDs
D. 14 UDs and 14 FDs
70-533 exam Answer: B
Question No : 40 You administer an Azure solution that uses a virtual network named FabVNet. FabVNet
has a single subnet named Subnet-1. You discover a high volume of network traffic among four virtual machines (VMs) that are part of Subnet-1. You need to isolate the network traffic among the four VMs. You want to achieve this goal with the least amount of downtime and impact on users. What should you do?
A. Create a new subnet in the existing virtual network and move the four VMs to the new subnet.
B. Create a site-to-site virtual network and move the four VMs to your datacenter.
C. Create a new virtual network and move the VMs to the new network.
D. Create an availability set and associate the four VMs with that availability set.
Answer: C
Question No : 41 Your company network includes users in multiple directories. You plan to publish a software-as-a-service application named SaasApp1 to Azure Active Directory. You need to ensure that all users can access SaasApp1. What should you do?
A. Configure the Federation Metadata URL
B. Register the application as a web application.
C. Configure the application as a multi-tenant.
D. Register the application as a native client application.
70-533 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
* When you get deeper into using Windows Azure Active Directory, you’ll run into new
terminology. For instance, is called “directory” is also referred to as a Windows Azure AD
Tenant or simply as “tenant.” This stems from the fact that WAAD ()Windows Azure Active
Directory is a shared service for many clients. In this service, every client gets its own
separate space for which the client is the tenant. In the case of WAAD this space is a
directory. This might be a little confusing, because you can create multiple directories, in
WAAD terminology multiple tenants, even though you are a single client.
* Multitenant Applications in Azure
A multitenant application is a shared resource that allows separate users, or “tenants,” to
view the application as though it was their own. A typical scenario that lends itself to a
multitenant application is one in which all users of the application may wish to customize
the user experience but otherwise have the same basic business requirements. Examples
of large multitenant applications are Office 365, Outlook.com, and visualstudio.com.
References:
QUESTION 42
In a master-detail relationship, what happens to the child records if the parent record is deleted?
A. Parent record deletion fails.
B. Child records are not deleted.
C. A subset of the child records is deleted.
D. Child records are deleted.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
Which action is available to a developer when two objects are connected by a lookup relationship? Choose
2 answers
A. create a roll-up summary field on the parent object to count child records
B. create a custom report type that allows customization of fields displayed from both parent and child
objects
C. create a cross-object formula field on the child object to reference fields on the parent object
D. create a cross-object formula field on the parent object to reference fields on the child object
70-533 pdf Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 44
Universal Containers tracks Positions as a custom object in a recruiting application. All positions with a
priority of critical should NOT be open for more than two weeks. If a position remains open for more than
14 days, the priority should be re-examined.
How would a developer automate this process?
A. Create a workflow action to clone the position, assigned to the owner of the position record, that is due
14 days after record creation
B. Create a validation rule that compares today’s date and the record’s creation date to determine if the
difference is greater than 14 days
C. Recreate a time-dependent workflow action that sends an email to the recruiter if the position is still
open 14 days after record creation
D. Create a time-dependent workflow action that updates the position status to Closed 14 days after
record creation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Given a three tier model (UI layer, business logic layer, data layer), which feature of the Force.com
platform is associated with the data layer? Choose 3 answers
A. Custom applications
B. Custom relationships
C. Custom fields
D. Custom objects
E. Custom tabs
70-533 vce Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 46
What is a Junction object?
A. A standard object with a master-detail relationship
B. A custom object with two master-detail relationships
C. A standard object with two master-detail relationships
D. A custom object with a master-detail relationship
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
A developer would like to enable end users to filter the data displayed on the related list of an object detail
page. How could a developer accomplish this?
A. Enable Advanced Search on the object’s related list
B. Customize the search filter fields layout for that object
C. Create a Visualforce page to replace the object detail view
D. Configure the object’s related list to add a filter
70-533 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
Hiring managers at Universal Containers would like a visual mechanism for determining review score
outliers. Review scores are captured as a custom field on a custom Review object and can range from l to
10. Any review score that is > 8 should be highlighted in green.
Any review score that is < 4 should be highlighted In red.
How would a developer accomplish this?
A. Use custom summary formulas
B. Use matrix reports
C. Use charts
D. Use conditional highlighting
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 22
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
210-260 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 23
Which statement about personal firewalls is true?
A. They can protect a system by denying probing requests.
B. They are resilient against kernel attacks.
C. They can protect email messages and private documents in a similar way to a VPN.
D. They can protect the network against attacks.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 25
How does a device on a network using ISE receive its digital certificate during the new- device registration
process?
A. ISE acts as a SCEP proxy to enable the device to receive a certificate from a central CA server.
B. ISE issues a certificate from its internal CA server.
C. ISE issues a pre-defined certificate from a local database.
D. The device requests a new certificate directly from a central CA.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps

The Admin user is unable to enter configuration mode on a device with the given configuration. What
change can you make to the configuration to correct the problem?
A. Remove the autocommand keyword and arguments from the username admin privilege line.
B. Change the Privilege exec level value to 15.
C. Remove the two Username Admin lines.
D. Remove the Privilege exec line.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A
Question: 27
You are a HR Professional for your organization and your supervisor is asking you about the details of
the Civil Rights Act of 1991, and what it means to your company. He wants to know what the total
damages could be if an organization is found liable by a jury trial. What is the maximum amount that
could be awarded to a victim of discrimination if the organization is found liable?
A. There is no limited amount as the jury can determine damages
B. $50,000
C. $300,000
D. $500,000
Answer: C
Explanation:
The maximum amount that can be awarded is $300,000. This amount, however, can be lowered
based on the number of people involved in the discrimination lawsuit.
Answer options B, D, and A are incorrect. The maximum amount allowed by the Civil Rights Act of
1991, is $300,000.
Question: 28
On November 13, 2000 CFR Part 60-2 was revised to address affirmative action to make the rules
more accessible and easier to implement. Which of the following statements is not part of this
significant update to the Affirmative Action program in CFR Part 60-2?
A. Reduced the number of additional required elements of the written Affirmative Action Plan from
10 to 4
B. Reaffirmed that affirmative action isn’t to establish quotes, but to create goals
C. Granted employers with fewer than 100 employees, permission to prepare a job group analysis
that uses EEO-1 categories as job groups
D. Workforce analysis was replaced with a one-page organizational profile
210-260 vce Answer: C
Explanation:
The update to CFR Part 60-2 was revised and allowed employers with fewer than 150 employees,
not 100, permission to prepare a job group analysis that uses EEO-1 categories as job groups.
Answer options D, B, and A are incorrect. These statements are part of the CFR Part 60-2 revision.
Question: 29
Herb is the HR Professional for his organization. He is preparing to hire a new employee, Hans, to the
firm. Herb has asked Hans to agree, in writing, to mandatory arbitration as part of the employment
offer. What does this agreement mean?
A. It means that Hans and the organization must settle all disputes, if any arise, through a neutral
third party rather than through a lawsuit.
B. It means that Hans must file all legal complaints with the organization’s attorney, before filing a
lawsuit against the organization.
C. It means that Herb’s firm can research Hans to determine if he’s had any lawsuits.
D. It means that Hans cannot work for competitors without the written permission of the employer.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Mandatory arbitration helps the organization avoid lawsuits, should any arise, between the
employee and the employer, by agreeing up-front to settle potential disagreements through an
arbitrator versus a lawsuit.
Answer option D is incorrect. This answer describes a non-compete agreement.
Answer option C is incorrect. This isn’t a valid answer for the mandatory arbitration agreement.
Answer option B is incorrect. Hans doesn’t need to file legal complaints with his employer under this
agreement. The agreement means that Hans and the employer will settle the problem without a
lawsuit.

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Exam Code: 70-346
Exam Name: Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements
Q&As: 211

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Question No : 12 DRAG DROP  Contoso Ltd. plans to use 70-346 exam Office 365 services for collaboration between departments. Contoso has one Active Directory Domain Services domain named contoso.local. You deploy the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool. You plan to implement single sign-on (SSO) for Office 365. You need to synchronize only the user accounts that have valid routable domain names
and are members of specified departments. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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Answer:
70-346 dumps

Question No : 13
An organization plans to migrate to Office 365. You use the Windows Azure Active
Directory (AD) Sync tool. Several users will not migrate to Office 365. You must exclude these users from
synchronization. All users must continue to authenticate against the on-premises Active
Directory. You need to synchronize the remaining users. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Populate an attribute for each user account.
B. Disable the user accounts in Active Directory.
C. Perform a full synchronization.
D. Configure the connection filter.
E. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-MsolDirSyncEnabled -EnableDirSync
$false.
Answer: B,D,E

Question No : 14 You use a centralized identity 70-346 dumps management system as a source of authority for user account information. You export a list of new user accounts to a file on a daily basis. Your company uses a local Active Directory for storing user accounts for on-premises solutions.
You are configuring the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
New user accounts must be created in both the local Active Directory and Office 365. You
must import user account data into Office 365 daily.
You need to import the new users. What should you do?
A. Use the Office 365 admin center to import the file.
B. Create a Windows PowerShell script to import account data from the file into Active
Directory.
C. Use the Windows Azure Management Portal to import the file.
D. Create a Windows PowerShell script that uses the MSOnline module to import account
data from the file.
Answer: B
Question No : 15 DRAG DROP An organization plans to deploy an Office 365 tenant. The company has two servers named SERVER1 and SERVER2. SERVER1 is a member server of the Active Directory
forest that you are synchronizing. SERVER2 is a standalone server. Both servers run
Windows Server 2012.
You need to use the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool to provision users.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
70-346 dumps
QUESTION 16
Which is the purpose of the Change theme?
A. Prevent change to baselined products
B. Identify, assess and control any potential and approved changes to baselined products
C. Establish mechanisms to monitor and compare actual achievements against those planned
D. Assess and control uncertainty
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which step in the issue and change control procedure considers alternative options for responding to an
issue that is being managed formally?
A. Capture
B. Examine
C. Propose
D. Decide

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
A product can NOT be supplied to meet all of the requirements in its baselined Product Description.
What first action should be taken?
A. Raise a request for change
B. Raise an off-specification
C. Write an Exception Report
D. Amend the Work Package
70-346 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which of the following statements about the Closing a Project process are true?
1. The Closing a Project process provides a fixed point for the receipt of completed Work Packages for the
work performed in the final stage.
2. The Closing a Project process provides a fixed point to review if the objectives set out in the original
Project Initiation Documentation have been achieved.
A. Only 1 is true
B. Only 2 is true
C. Both 1 and 2 are true
D. Neither 1 or 2 are true
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
What takes place during the Closing a Project process?
A. The post-project benefits reviews are performed
B. Ownership of the project’s products is transferred to the customer
C. An End Stage Report is prepared for the final stage
D. The project closure notification is reviewed and approved
70-346 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Which is an objective of the Closing a Project process?
A. Prepare the plan for the next stage
B. Assess any benefits that have already been realized
C. Produce a Benefits Review Plan to identify what benefits are expected
D. Check that all benefits are realized before closing a project
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Which is a purpose of the Closing a Project process?
A. Authorize the final stage of the project
B. Confirm that all benefits defined in the Business Case have been achieved
C. Recognize whether objectives set out in the original Project Initiation Documentation have been
achieved
D. Delegate day-to-day management of the end of the project to the Project Manager

70-346 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Which should be used to document any uncompleted work that needs to be done to a project product after
the project has closed?
A. Off-specifications
B. Follow-on action recommendations
C. Issue Register
D. Risk Register
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Which is an objective of the Closing a Project process?
A. Review and approve the plan for project closure
B. Review the performance of the project against its baseline
C. Perform any post-project reviews
D. Create a Benefits Review Plan
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Which is a purpose of the Controlling a Stage process?
A. Produce a Team Plan for the work to be assigned to a Team Manager
B. Select and implement actions that will resolve deviations from a plan within tolerance
C. Obtain approvals for products delivered in a Work Package
D. Update a Project Plan to incorporate the actuals from a Stage Plan
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
What process ensures focus on the delivery of a stage’s products and avoids uncontrolled change?
A. Directing a Project
B. Managing a Stage Boundary
C. Controlling a Stage
D. Starting up a Project
70-346 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Which process is triggered towards the end of the final stage when all the assigned work has been
completed?
A. Managing a Stage Boundary
B. Managing Product Delivery
C. Closing a Project
D. Controlling a Stage
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Updated: Sep 17, 2017
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION 8
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest resolutions to the problems.
Which of statement is true regarding STP issue identified with switches in the given topology?
A. Loopguard configured on the New_Switch places the ports in loop inconsistent state
B. Rootguard configured on SW1 places the ports in root inconsistent state
C. Bpduguard configured on the New_Switch places the access ports in error-disable
D. Rootguard configured on SW2 places the ports in root inconsistent state
300-135 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
On the new switch, we see that loopguard has been configured with the “spanning-tree guard loop” command.
The loop guard feature makes additional checks. If BPDUs are not received on a non-designated port, and loop guard is enabled, that port is moved into the STP loop-inconsistent blocking state, instead of the listening / learning / forwarding state. Without the loop guard feature, the port assumes the designated port role. The port moves to the STP forwarding state and creates a loop.
QUESTION 9
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest 300-135 dumps resolutions to the problems. You have configured PVST+ load balancing between SW1 and the New_Switch in such a way that both the links E2/2 and E2/3 are utilized for traffic flow, which component of the configuration is preventing PVST+ load balancing between SW1 and SW2 links
A. Port priority configuration on SW1
B. Port priority configuration on the New_Switch
C. Path cost configuration on SW1
D. Path cost configuration on the New_Switch
Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Here is the configuration found on the New_Switch:
This causes the port cost for link eth 1/3 to increase the path cost to 250 for all VLANs, making that link less preferred so that only eth 1/2 will be used.
QUESTION 10
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest resolutions to the problems.
Refer to the topology.
SW1 Switch Management IP address is not pingable from SW4. What could be the issue?
A. Management VLAN not allowed in the trunk links between SW1 and SW4
B. Management VLAN not allowed in the trunk links between SW1 and SW2
C. Management VLAN not allowed in the trunk link between SW2 and SW4
D. Management VLAN ip address on SW4 is configured in wrong subnet
E. Management VLAN interface is shutdown on SW4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In the network, VLAN 300 is called the Management VLAN. Based on the configurations shown below, SW1 has VLAN 300 configured with the IP address of 192.168.10.1/24, while on SW4 VLAN 300 has an IP address of 192.168.100.4/24, which is not in the same subnet.
QUESTION 11
You have been brought in to troubleshoot an EIGRP network. A network engineer has made configuration changes to the network rendering some locations unreachable. You are to locate the problem and suggest solution to resolve the issue.
R5 has become partially isolated from the remainder of the network. R5 can reach devices on directly connected networks but nothing else. What is causing the problem?
A. An outbound distribute list in R3
B. Inbound distribute lists in R5
C. An outbound distribute list in R6
D. Incorrect EIGRP routing process ID in R5
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Here we see that distribute list 3 has been applied to EIGRP on router R%, but access-list 3 contains only deny statements so this will effectively block all routing advertisements from its two EIGRP neighbors, thus isolating R5 from the rest of the EIGRP network:

QUESTION  12.If correct permissions have been setup, users can execute their own programs at a fixed time by submitting their jobs to the cron service using the crontab command.
A. True B.
False
Answer: A
QUESTION  13.The following entry appears in the /etc/crontab as follows:
30 4 * * 1 /bin/sh /home/Tom/rmcore 2>&1 /dev/null
Select the action below which best represents what it will accomplish.
A. “rmcore” will execute on April 30th for one hour
B. “rmcore” will execute on the first day of every month
C. “rmcore” will execute every Monday at 4:30 a.m.
D. None of the above

300-135 vce Answer: C
QUESTION 14.Which of the following statements about cron/crontab is NOT true?
A. each user can have his/her own personal crontab file
B. the crontab file is automatically created when a user account is created
C. the superuser can edit the cron table using the “crontab -e” command
D. cron jobs run with the permission of whomever submitted the job
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 15
You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005
as its application development platform. You have recently created an application that includes the
code shown below.
string str1 = “ABC”;
string str2 = “u”;
str2 += “Certify”;
Console.WriteLine(str1 == str2);
Console.WriteLine((Object) str1 == (Object) str2);
Console.WriteLine(str1.Equals(str2));
What will be the output of the above code?
A. False
False
False
B. False
True
False
C. True
True
True
D. True
False
True
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 16
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET

Framework 3.5. You want to use a HTTP module called on each and every request made by the
application. It is called as part of the ASP.NET request pipeline. It has right to access life-cycle
events throughout the request. You also want to ensure that the HTTP module allows a user to
inspect incoming and outgoing requests and take appropriate action based on the request. What
will be the correct order to create the HTTP module?

300-135 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 17
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET
Framework 3.5. The application contains two HTML pages named Error.htm and
PageNotFound.htm. You want to make sure that the following requirements are met:
l When any user requests a page that does not exist, the PageNotFound.htm page is
displayed.
l When any other error occurs, the Error.htm page is displayed. Which of the following code
segments will you add to the Web.config file to accomplish this task?
A. <customErrors mode=”On” defaultRedirect=”Error.htm”>
<error statusCode=”404″ redirect=”PageNotFound.htm”/>
</customErrors>
B. <customErrors mode=”Off”>
<error statusCode=”400″ redirect=”Error.htm”/>
<error statusCode=”404″ redirect=”PageNotFound.htm”/>
</customErrors>
C. <customErrors mode=”On”>
<error statusCode=”400″ redirect=”Error.htm”/>
error statusCode=”404″ redirect=”PageNotFound.htm”/
</customErrors>
D. <customErrors mode=”Off” defaultRedirect=”Error.htm”>
<error statusCode=”404″ redirect=”PageNotFound.htm”/>
</customErrors>
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 18
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You are creating an ASP.NET Web application using .NET
Framework 3.5. The application will be used to share any type of photos on Internet. All the photos
should be accessible in various sizes and formats. You need to add a download feature that can
be easily maintained. You also need to make sure that only a single version of all photos is stored
on a SQL server database. What will you do?
A. Create an HttpModule class to determine the request for the photo download. Process the
photo according to the given format and size, and after that return the processed photo in the
response.
B. Create a user control that converts the photo to the required format and size.
C. Create an HttpHandler class to determine the request for the photo download. Process the
photo according to the given format and size, and after that return the processed photo in the
response.
D. Create an ActiveX control that converts the photo to the required format and size.
300-135 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 19
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You have recently finished development of an ASP.NET Web
application using the .NET Framework 3.5. You host the application on a Web farm that consists
of three Web servers. You should configure the ASP.NET application for session state to meet the
following requirements:
l Session state data should not be lost if a server fails.
l Session state must be maintained across browser requests by the same user.
You are required to configure the Web.config file to meet these requirements. Which of the
following configurations will you use?

A. <sessionState mode=”StateServer”/>
B. <sessionState mode=”InProc”/>
C. <sessionState mode=”Custom”/>
D. <sessionState mode=”SQLServer”/>
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Sep 08, 2017
Q&As: 164

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Question No : 5 CORRECT TEXT  You have a view that was created by using the following code:
070-461 dumps

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to create an inline table-valued function named Sales.fn_OrdersByTerritory,
which must meet the following 070-461 exam requirements:
Accept the @T integer parameter.
Use one-part names to reference columns.
Filter the query results by SalesTerritoryID.
Return the columns in the same order as the order used in OrdersByTerritoryView.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:
070-461 dumps

Question No : 6 CORRECT TEXT You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibitbutton.)

070-461 dumps


You deploy a new server that has SQL Server 2012 installed. You need to create a table
named Sales.OrderDetails on the new server. Sales.OrderDetails must meet the following
requirements: Write the results to a disk. Contain a new column named LineItemTotal that stores the product of ListPrice
  and Quantity for each row. The code must NOT use any object delimiters.
The solution must ensure that LineItemTotal is stored as the last column in the table. Which
code segment should you use? To answer, type the correct 070-461 dumps code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:

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Question No : 7 CORRECT TEXT  You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to create a view named uv_CustomerFullName to meet the following
requirements:
The code must NOT include object delimiters.
The view must be created in the Sales schema.
Columns must only be referenced by using one-part names.
The view must return the first name and the last name of all customers.
The view must prevent the underlying structure of the customer table from being
  changed.
The view must be able to resolve all referenced objects, regardless of the user’s
default schema.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:

070-461 dumps

Question No : 8 CORRECT TEXT  You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

070-461 dumps

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to create a query that calculates the total sales of each OrderId from the
Sales.Details table. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Use one-part names to reference columns.
Sort the order of the results from OrderId.
NOT depend on the default schema of a user.
Use an alias of TotalSales for the calculated ExtendedAmount.
Display only the OrderId column and the calculated TotalSales column.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
070-461 pdf 
Answer:
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Question No : 9. A Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) user is also a supervisor. You want to ensure that the supervisor automatically sees only his/her agents in the following: Historical reports
Real-time displays
Contact Center Manager Server
How can this be done most effectively?
A. Configure a standard partition.
B. Configure a user-defined partition.
C. The supervisor will automatically see all of the agents.
D. Link the CCMA user to the supervisor in the reporting agents partition.
Answer: D
Question No :  10. In a deployed Contact Center Rls. 7.0 network with several sites, which condition will occur if the Network Control Center (NCC) server experiences a hardware failure that drops the server from the network?
A. all call routing and call processing in the network will stop
B. calls are routed between sites but no network call-by-call data will be transferred to the NCC
C. calls will not be routed between sites in the network
D. the Contact Center Manager Servers at each site in the network will also fail
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Answer: B
Question No : 11 . In Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) Rls. 7.0, which element can be configured on the Configuration component?
A. Global Settings
B. Users
C. Agents
D. Partitions
Answer: A
Question No : 12. In Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) Rls. 7.0, which set of options specifies how statistics are
  treated in reports and real-time displays?
A. Activity codes
B. Call Presentation Class
C. Skillset Assignment
D. Threshold Class
070-461 exam 
Answer: D
Question No : 13. While the Call Presentation option “After Call Break for N seconds” (break time) is in effect, which event
can cancel the break time?
A. An agent is reserved for an NACD call by the switch.
B. An agent can put directory number calls on hold for incoming ACD calls.
C. A break time between calls has been allowed and the agent returns from walk away.
D. A break time between calls has been allowed and the agent releases an individual DN call.
E. A break time between calls has been allowed and the caller abandons the call when on an agent set.
Answer: A
Question No : 14. CERTIFICATION REQUIREMENTS
(A)Obtaining Certification:
To obtain certification in any of the RSA Certified Security Professional designations, You must
successfully comply with the initial certification requirements for that designation. Certification
requirements are available on the RSA Certification Web site, or available from RSA, The Security
Division of EMC at the address specified herein. By sending You the RSA Certified Security
Professional Welcome Kit, RSA confirms that, according to its 070-461 dumps records, You have complied with the initial certification requirements for the RSA Certified Security Professional designation indicated in the RSA Certified Security Professional Welcome Kit.
(B)Maintaining Active Certification:
To maintain Your active certification(s), You must comply with any and all continuing certification
requirements which shall be established by RSA, The Security Division of EMC and may include
periodically taking a re-certification examination that tests Your knowledge of the features and
functionality of any major product release. You acknowledge and agree that RSA may, in its sole
discretion, change the certification requirements (both initial and continuing), RSA Certified Security
Professional designations, and RSA Certified Security Professional Logos and Guidelines at any time.
You are responsible for periodically checking the RSA Certified Security Professional website for
updates and compliance with any and all updates. Failure to comply with all requirements will result in
termination of this Agreement.
(C)Transfer of Certification:
You shall not transfer or share Your RSA Certified Security Professional certification and the benefits
of such certification to or with another person or entity.
Question No : 15.USE OF RSA CERTIFIED SECURITY PROFESSIONAL DESIGNATIONS and LOGOS
Upon Your successful completion of the initial certification requirements, and so long as You remain in
compliance with all applicable continuing certification requirements, RSA, The Security Division of
EMC hereby authorizes You to use the RSA Certified Security Professional designation 070-461 exam for which You have obtained certification, as indicated in the RSA Certified Security Professional Welcome Kit which includes this RSA Certified Security Professional Agreement and the RSA Certified Security
Professional Logo Guidelines which set forth the authorized use of the RSA Certified Security
Professional Logo.
You acknowledge RSA’s sole ownership of the RSA Certified Security Professional Logo and
designations, and that nothing in the RSA Certified Security Professional Agreement, or in Your
performance as an RSA Certified Security Professional, or that might otherwise be implied by law,

shall operate to give You any right, title or interest in the 070-461 pdf RSA Certified Security Professional
designation(s) or Logo, other than the authorization specifically granted.
You shall use the RSA Certified Security Professional Logo and designation(s) in a manner that does
not derogate from RSA’s rights in the RSA Certified Security Professional Logo and designations, and
shall take no action that may interfere with or diminish RSA’s rights in the RSA Certified Security
Professional Logo or designations, either during the term of the RSA Certified Security Professional
Agreement or afterwards. You agree to immediately cease all use of the RSA Certified Security
Professional designation(s) and Logo 070-461 dumps upon the expiration or termination of the RSA Certified Security
Professional Agreement.
Nothing in the RSA Certified Security Professional Agreement authorizes You to use any RSA, The
Security Division of EMC or EMC Corporation trademarks, service marks, or logos except as expressly
Specified in the RSA Certified Security Professional Agreement and RSA Certified Security
Professional Logo Guidelines.

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[Free New Microsoft Version] Helpful Youtube Study Guide for Latest Release Microsoft 70-410 Dumps Practice Test Exam (From Google Drive)

Is Microsft 70-410 dumps certification right for you? “Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012” is the name of Microsoft 70-410 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Helpful youtube study guide for latest release microsoft 70-410 dumps practice test exam video. Microsoft https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-410.html dumps is a certification exam to test IT professional knowledge.

Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Sep 06, 2017
Q&As: 503

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Pass4itsure 70-410 dumps exam questions answers are updated (503 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 70-410 dumps is Windows Server 2012.

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Free Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-410 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains three domain DC3 loses network connectivity due to a hardware failure. You plan to remove DC3 from the domain. You log on to DC3. You need to identify which service location (SRV) records are registered by DC3. What should you do?
70-410 dumps

A. Open the %windir%\system32\config\netlogon.dns file.
B. Run dcdiag /test:dns
C. Open the %windir%\system32\dns\backup\adatum.com.dns file.
D. Run ipconfig /displaydns.
70-410 study guide Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains three domains. A group named Group1 is configured as a domain local distribution group in the forest root domain. You plan to grant Group1 read-only access to a shared folder named Share1. Share1 is located in a child domain. You need to ensure that the members of Group1 can access Share1. What should you do first?
A. Convert Group1 to a global distribution group.
B. Convert Group1 to a universal security group.
C. Convert Group1 to a universal distribution group.
D. Convert Group1 to a domain local security group
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2. One of the domain controllers is named DCI. The network contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to promote Server1 to a domain controller by using install from media (IFM).
What should you do first?
A. Create a system state backup of DC1.
B. Create IFM media on DC1.
C. Upgrade DC1 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
D. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
E. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Installation Wizard on DC1.
70-410 practice test Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 servers. The servers are contained in a organizational unit (OU) named ServersOU. You need to create a group named Group1 on all of the servers in the domain. You must ensure that Group1 is added only to the servers. What should you configure?
A. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to the Domain Controllers OU
B. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to the domain
C. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
D. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. All of the computer accounts for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts. Servers are restarted only occasionally. You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days.
What should you do?
A. Run dsquery computerand specify the -staiepwdpara meter.
B. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the SearchScope parameter.
C. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the IastLogonproperty.
D. Run dsquery serverand specify the -oparameter
70-410 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You log on to a domain controller by using an account named Admin1. Admin1 is a member of the Domain Admins group. You view the properties of a group named Group1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) Group1 is located in
an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. You need to ensure that you can modify the Security settings of Group1 by using Active Directory Users and Computers. What should you do from Active Directory Users and Computers?

70-410 dumps
A. From the View menu, select Users, Contacts, Groups, and Computers as containers.
B. Right-click OU1 and select Delegate Control
C. From the View menu, select Advanced Features.

D. Right-click contoso.com and select Delegate Control.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2. You install 70-410 dumps Windows Server 2012 on a new computer named DC3. You need to manually configure DC3 as a domain controller. Which tool should you use?
A. Server Manager
B. winrm.exe
C. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
D. dcpromo.exe
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
You have a server named Core1 that has a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. Core1 has the Hyper-V server role installed Core1 has two
network adapters from different third- party hardware vendors.
You need to configure network traffic failover to prevent connectivity loss if a network adapter fails.
What should you use?
A. New-NetSwitchTeam
B. Add-NetSwitchTeamMember
C. Install-Feature
D. netsh.exe
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You connect three new hard disks to Server1.
You need to create a storage space that contains the three disks. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Provide fault tolerance if a single disk fails.
– Maximize the amount of files that can be stored in the storage space.
What should you create?
A. A simple space
B. A spanned volume
C. A mirrored space
D. A parity space
70-410 study guide Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1. You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. The setup.exe command
B. The dism.exe command
C. The imagex.exe command
D. The Add-WindowsPackage cmdlet
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has five network adapters. Three of the network adapters an connected to a
network named LAN1. The two other network adapters are connected to a network named LAN2.
You need to create a network adapter team from the three network adapters connected to LAN 1.
Which tool should you use?
A. Routing and Remote Access
B. Network and Sharing Center
C. Server Manager
D. Network Load Balancing Manager
70-410 practice test Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to remove Windows Explorer, Windows Internet Explorer, and all related
components and files from Server1. What should you run on Server1?
A. Uninstall-WindowsFeature Server-Gui-Mgmt-Infra Remove
B. Uninstall-WindowsFeature Server-Gui-Shell Remove
C. msiexec.exe /uninstall iexplore.exe /x
D. msiexec.exe /uninstall explorer.exe /x
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
You have a server named Server1 that runs 70-410 dumps Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. On Server1, you create a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 has a legacy network adapter. You need to assign a specific amount of available network bandwidth to VM1.
What should you do first?
A. Remove the legacy network adapter, and then run the Set-VMNetworkAdaptercmdlet.
B. Add a second legacy network adapter, and then run the Set-VMNetworkAdoptercmdlet
C. Add a second legacy network adapter, and then configure network adapter teaming.

D. Remove the legacy network adapter, and then add a network adapter
Correct Answer: D

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