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NSE5_FAZ-6.4 Dumps Updated 2022 Successfully Obtained NSE 5 Network Security Analyst Certification

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1. On the RAID management page, the disk status is listed as Initializing.
What does the status Initializing indicate about what the FortiAnalyzer is currently doing?

A. FortiAnalyzer is ensuring that the parity data of a redundant drive is valid
B. FortiAnalyzer is writing data to a newly added hard drive to restore it to an optimal state
C. FortiAnalyzer is writing to all of its hard drives to make the array fault-tolerant
D. FortiAnalyzer is functioning normally

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://fortinetweb.s3.amazonaws.com/docs.fortinet.com/v2/attachments/4cb0dce6-dbef-11e9-897700505692583a/FortiAnalyzer-5.6.10-Administration-Guide.pdf (40)

2. Which two statements are true regarding ADOM modes? (Choose two.)

A. You can only change ADOM modes through CLI.
B. In normal mode, the disk quota of the ADOM is fixed and cannot be modified, but in advance mode, the disk quota of the ADOM is flexible because new devices are added to the ADOM.
C. In an advanced mode ADOM. you can assign FortiGate VDOMs from a single FortiGate device to multiple FortiAnalyzer ADOM.
D. Normal mode is the default ADOM mode.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://help.fortinet.com/fa/faz50hlp/56/5-6-1/FMG-FAZ/0800_ADOMs/0400_ADOM%20Device%20Modes.htm

3. Which two settings must you configure on FortiAnalyzer to allow non-local administrators to authenticate to FortiAnalyzer with any user account in a single LDAP group? (Choose two.)

A. A local wildcard administrator account
B. A remote LDAP server
C. A trusted host profile that restricts access to the LDAP group
D. An administrator group

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD38567

4. Why should you use an NTP server on FortiAnalyzer and all registered devices that log into FortiAnalyzer?

A. To properly correlate logs
B. To use real-time forwarding
C. To resolve hostnames
D. To improve DNS response times

Correct Answer: A

5. Which statement is true regarding Macros on FortiAnalyzer?

A. Macros are ADOM specific and each ADOM will have unique macros relevant to that ADOM.
B. Macros are supported only on the FortiGate ADOM.
C. Macros are useful in generating excel log files automatically based on the report’s settings.
D. Macros are predefined templates for reports and cannot be customized.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs2.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.2.3/administration-guide/617380/creatingmacros

6. FortiAnalyzer centralizes which functions? (Choose three)

A. Network analysis
B. Graphical reporting
C. Content archiving / data mining
D. Vulnerability assessment
E. Security log analysis/forensics

Correct Answer: BCE

7. For proper log correlation between the logging devices and FortiAnalyzer, FortiAnalyzer and all registered devices should:

A. Use DNS
B. Use hostname resolution
C. Use real-time forwarding D. Use an NTP server

Correct Answer: D

8. View the exhibit.
What does the data point at 14:35 tell you?

A. FortiAnalyzer is dropping logs.
B. FortiAnalyzer is indexing logs faster than logs are being received.
C. FortiAnalyzer has temporarily stopped receiving logs so older logs\\’ can be indexed.
D. The sqlplugind daemon is ahead in indexing by one log.

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.2.5/administration-guide/47690/insert-rate-vs-receiverate-widget

9. What is the main purpose of using an NTP server on FortiAnalyzer and all of its registered devices?

A. Log correlation
B. Hostname resolution
C. Log collection
D. Real-time forwarding

Correct Answer: C

10. What remote authentication servers can you configure to validate your FortiAnalyzer administrator logins? (Choose three)

A. RADIUS
B. Local
C. LDAP
D. PKI
E. TACACS+

Correct Answer: ACE

11. If you upgrade the FortiAnalyzer firmware, which reports element can be affected?

A. Custom datasets
B. Report scheduling
C. Report settings
D. Output profiles

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.2.5/upgrade-guide/669300/checking-reports

12. What two things should an administrator do to view Compromised Hosts on FortiAnalyzer? (Choose two.)

A. Enable web filtering in firewall policies on FortiGate devices, and make sure these logs are sent to FortiAnalyzer.
B. Enable device detection on an interface on the FortiGate devices that are connected to the FortiAnalyzer.
C. Subscribe FortiAnalyzer to FortiGuard to keep its local threat database up-to-date.
D. Make sure all endpoints are reachable by FortiAnalyzer.

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.4.0/administration-guide/137635/viewingcompromisedhosts

13. What FortiView tool can you use to automatically build a dataset and chart based on a filtered search result?

A. Chart Builder
B. Export to Report Chart
C. Dataset Library
D. Custom View

Correct Answer: A

https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.2.0/cookbook/989203/building-charts-with-chart-builder

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1#

A colleague suggests using SmartMigration to improve write performance on certain LUNs. This is:

A. Not possible in any situation.
B. Possible in all situations.
C. Possible in some situations.
D. Only a temporary solution.

2#

Which are the basic rules for routine maintenance of Huawei OceanStor Distributed Storage?

A. Make a reliable backup plan.
B. Preserve spare parts at the site for timely replacement.
C. Use resources and software provided by the original vendor.

3#

When creating disk domains select the option “All available disks” and then manually select disks.

A. True
B. False

4#

Which of the following statements are true about Huawei SmartQuota?

A. A directory quota limits the maximum space for all files under a directory.
B. Huawei SmartQuota supports the configuration of directory quotas on quota trees only.
C. A default directory quota is configured for a file system and applies to all quota trees.
D. A default directory quota does not record or update the usage status.

5#

During a Power Module replacement, we should consider the following:

A. Decreased performance
B. Cache processing capability
C. Decreased reliability
D. Service interruption

6#

Which of the following are Fibre Channel network topologies?

A. Point-to-point
B. Arbitrated loop
C. Switched fabric
D. Bridging

7
Which of the following statements about the quota feature of Huawei OceanStor 9000 is false?
A. Quotas can be set for users.
B. Quotas can be set for user groups.
C. Quotas can be set for directories.
D. Quotas can be set for files.

7#

Which of the following statements about the quota feature of Huawei OceanStor 9000 is false?

A. Quotas can be set for users.
B. Quotas can be set for user groups.
C. Quotas can be set for directories.
D. Quotas can be set for files.

8#

SmartCache can support both SAN and NAS services.
A. True
B. False

9#

IOPS is the key performance indicator for a storage system. Which of the following does NOT affect the IOPS of a
storage system?
A. Disk type
B. RAID level
C. I/O characteristics
D. Hot spare space

10#

HyperClone supports writing to both the primary and secondary LUN.
A. True
B. False

11#

Huawei hyper-converged storage supports parallel and fast data reconstruction. Data is fragmented in the resource pool. A disk failure triggers automatic and parallel reconstruction of the actual data by the entire resource pool without requiring hot spare disks.

A. True
B. False

12#

What type of backup networking has the following features?
1. Occupies large network bandwidth;
2. Has restricted backup performance;
3. Adversely affects host applications.

A. LAN-Base
B. LAN-Free
C. Server-Less
D. Server-Free

Post correct answer

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[1]

Which three pieces of information does FortiGate use to identify the hostname of the SSL server when SSL certificate inspection is enabled? (Choose three.)

A. The subject field in the server certificate
B. The serial number in the server certificate
C. The server name indication (SNI) extension in the client hello message
D. The subject alternative name (SAN) field in the server certificate
E. The host field in the HTTP header

Reference: https://checkthefirewall.com/blogs/fortinet/ssl-inspection

[2]

When configuring a firewall virtual wire pair policy, which the following statement is true?

A. Any number of virtual wire pairs can be included, as long as the policy traffic direction is the same.
B. Only a single virtual wire pair can be included in each policy.
C. Any number of virtual wire pairs can be included in each policy, regardless of the policy traffic direction settings.
D. Exactly two virtual wire pairs need to be included in each policy.

Reference: https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD48690

[3]

An administrator observes that the port1 interface cannot be configured with an IP address. What can be the reasons for that? (Choose three.)

A. The interface has been configured for a one-arm sniffer.
B. The interface is a member of a virtual wire pair.
C. The operation mode is transparent.
D. The interface is a member of a zone.
E. Captive portal is enabled in the interface.

https://help.fortinet.com/fos50hlp/54/Content/FortiOS/fortigate-whats-new-54/Top_VirtualWirePair.html

[4]

Refer to the exhibit.

NSE4_FGT-7.0 q4
NSE4_FGT-7.0 q4-2

The exhibit contains a network diagram, firewall policies, and a firewall address object configuration. An
administrator created a Deny policy with default settings to deny Webserver access for Remote- user2.
Remote-user2 is still able to access Webserver.

Which two changes can the administrator make to deny Webserver access for Remote-User2? (Choose
two.)

A. Disable match-VIP in the Deny policy.
B. Set the Destination address as Deny_IP in the Allow-access policy.
C. Enable match VIP in the Deny policy.
D. Set the Destination address as Web_server in the Deny policy.

[5]

Which certificate value can FortiGate use to determine the relationship between the issuer and the certificate?

A. Subject Key Identifier value
B. SMMIE Capabilities value
C. Subject value
D. Subject Alternative Name value

[6]

Examine this PAC file configuration.

NSE4_FGT-7.0 q6

Which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Browsers can be configured to retrieve this PAC file from the FortiGate.
B. Any web request to the 172.25.120.0/24 subnet is allowed to bypass the proxy.
C. All requests not made to Fortinet.com or the 172.25.120.0/24 subnet, have to go through altproxy.corp.com: 8060.
D. Any web request fortinet.com is allowed to bypass the proxy.

[7]

Which two statements about antivirus scanning mode are true? (Choose two.)

A. In proxy-based inspection mode, files bigger than the buffer size are scanned.
B. In flow-based inspection mode. FortiGate buffers the file, but also simultaneously transmits it to the client.
C. In proxy-based inspection mode, antivirus scanning buffers the whole file for scanning, before sending it to the client.
D. In flow-based inspection mode, files bigger than the buffer size is scanned.

[8]

What is the limitation of using a URL list and application control on the same firewall policy, in NGFW policy-based mode?

A. It limits the scope of application control to the browser-based technology category only.
B. It limits the scope of application control to scan application traffic based on application category only.
C. It limits the scope of application control to scan application traffic using parent signatures only
D. It limits the scope of application control to scan application traffic on DNS protocol only.

[9]

If Internet Service is already selected as Source in a firewall policy, which other configuration objects can be added to the Source field of a firewall policy?

A. IP address
B. Once Internet Service is selected, no other object can be added
C. User or User Group
D. FQDN address

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.5/cookbook/179236/using-internet-service-inpolicy

[10]

Which of the following statements about central NAT are true? (Choose two.)

A. IP tool references must be removed from existing firewall policies before enabling central NAT.
B. Central NAT can be enabled or disabled from the CLI only.
C. Source NAT, using central NAT, requires at least one central SNAT policy.
D. Destination NAT, using central NAT, requires a VIP object as the destination address in a firewall.

[11]

View the exhibit.

NSE4_FGT-7.0 q11

A user behind the FortiGate is trying to go to http://www.addictinggames.com (Addicting Games). Based on this configuration, which statement is true?

A. Addicting. Games are allowed based on the Application Overrides configuration.
B. Addicting. Games are blocked on the Filter Overrides configuration.
C. Addicting. Games can be allowed only if the Filter Overrides actions are set to Exempt.
D. Addicting. Games are allowed based on the Categories configuration.

[12]

An administrator wants to configure timeouts for users. Regardless of the user\\’s behavior, the timer should start as soon as the user authenticates and expire after the configured value.

Which timeout option should be configured on FortiGate?

A. auth-on-demand
B. soft-timeout
C. idle-timeout
D. new-session
E. hard-timeout

Correct answer posted

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NS0-520 Q&As

Q# 1

You have a SAN host that is only sending traffic to an ONTAP cluster using active non-optimized paths.
In this scenario, over which network type does the node that is hosting the target LUN receive the traffic?

A. cluster network
B. iSCSI network
C. intercluster network
D. Fibre Channel network

Correct Answer: A

Q# 2

Click the Exhibit button.

In an NVMe/FC environment, the host cannot discover the namespace on the AFF system. Referring to the exhibit, what is the problem?

A. The NQN is not correct.
B. The host MPIO drivers are not installed.
C. NVMe is not supported on the FC adapter.
D. The NVMe service is not running on the SVM.

Correct Answer: B

Q# 3

You want to move a SAN LIF and preserve its configuration information and avoid rezoning the switch fabric.

In this scenario, which two steps must be performed to fulfill this goal? (Choose two.)

A. Keep the SAN LIF online before it is moved.
B. Take the SAN LIF offline before it is moved.
C. Move the SAN LIFs to another node in a cluster on different storage virtual machines (SVMs).
D. Move the SAN LIFs to another node in a cluster on existing storage virtual machines (SVMs).

Correct Answer: BD

Q# 4

You need to migrate boot LUNs from a third-party array onto a NetApp FAS8700. Which three actions are required to complete this task? (Choose three.)

A. Convert every FC target port on each controller to an FC initiator port.
B. Create zoning between the third-party array to the FAS8700.
C. Convert a single FC port on each controller to an FC initiator port.
D. Verify third-party array support by using the Interoperability Matrix Tool (IMT).
E. Reboot the third-party SAN to prepare for the LUN import.

Correct Answer: BCE

Q# 5

You are planning on implementing a new SAN on AFF A400 controllers. The data set consists of unique 1 KB files that will be encrypted before being written to the SAN.

In this scenario, which ONTAP inline storage efficiency will provide 4:1 savings for this workload?

A. auto grow
B. deduplication
C. compression
D. compaction

Correct Answer: B

Q# 6

You have implemented FabricPool on your AFF ASA ONTAP 9.8 cluster. An archived database has become very active, and it requires FabricPool adjustments.

Which two steps are required to address this issue? (Choose two.)

A. Set the space guarantee on the volume.
B. Set the tiering policy to none.
C. Use the promote cloud-retrieval-policy.
D. Remove all Snapshot copies.

Correct Answer: AB

Q# 7

Which FC service is used by a host for discovery service to locate FC targets that are available?

A. the fabric zone server
B. the fabric configuration server
C. the fabric name service
D. the fabric security server

Correct Answer: C

Q# 8

Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, which security feature would guarantee that the Host A system that is mapped to LUN XYZ on the NetApp storage system is the only host that accesses the LUN?

A. igroup setup with the IQN of the iSCSI software initiator on Host A
B. CHAP configured on Host A and the NetApp Storage System
C. IPsec configured on both Host A and the NetApp storage system
D. igroup setup with no IQNs

Correct Answer: A

Q# 9

A database administrator needs to ensure that Snapshot copies of database files across multiple LUNs are taken at the same point in time.

Which action achieves this outcome?

A. Create each LUN on the same FabricPool aggregate.
B. Add each LUN volume to the same snapshot schedule.
C. Create each LUN within the same FlexVol volume.
D. Create each LUN within the same FlexGroup volume.

Correct Answer: C

Q# 10

You created a LUN in a new volume on your NetApp ONTAP cluster. You enabled the default Snapshot schedule and enabled Snapshot to autodelete on the volume.

In this scenario, in which three situations does the Snapshot autodelete feature automatically delete Snapshot copies in the volume? (Choose three.)

A. The aggregate is nearly full.
B. The Snapshot reserve space is nearly full.
C. The LUN is nearly full.
D. The volume is nearly full.
E. The overwrite reserve space is full.

Correct Answer: BCD

Q# 11

You are reconfiguring a VMware vSphere host for FC access to a NetApp ONTAP cluster.
In this scenario, which two tasks does NetApp recommend performing on the vSphere host? (Choose two.)

A. Use the NetApp Virtual Storage Console to configure the host settings.
B. Set the queue depth on the host to 8.
C. Update the HBA driver.
D. Zone the host by using the host WWNNs.

Correct Answer: AD

Q# 12

An administrator enabled the FCP protocol on an SVM and created a boot LUN for a Windows Server 2019 server host.

The host is attached using multiple paths to the storage SVM. After correctly adding the LUN to the igroup and setting its LUN ID to 1, the host is unable to boot using the installed FC HBA.

In this scenario, which statement is correct?

A. During the boot process, using FCP is not supported by NetApp.
B. During the boot process, using FCP is not supported by Microsoft.
C. The LUN ID must be set to 0.
D. The LUN ID must be set to 255.

Correct Answer: B

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Fortinet NSE 7 – OT Security 6.4

QUESTION 1

An OT supervisor needs to protect their network by implementing security with an industrial signature database on the
FortiGate device.

Which statement about the industrial signature database on FortiGate is true?

A. A supervisor must purchase an industrial signature database and import it to the FortiGate.
B. An administrator must create their own database using custom signatures.
C. By default, the industrial database is enabled.
D. A supervisor can enable it through the FortiGate CLI.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

Refer to the exhibit.

Given the configurations on the FortiGate, which statement is true?

A. FortiGate is configured with forwarding domains to reduce unnecessary traffic.
B. FortiGate is configured with forwarding domains to forward only domain controller traffic.
C. FortiGate is configured with forwarding domains to forward only company domain website traffic.
D. FortiGate is configured with forwarding domains to filter and drop non-domain controller traffic.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit.

In the topology shown in the exhibit, both PLCs can communicate directly with each other, without going through the
firewall.

Which statement about the topology is true?

A. PLCs use the IEEE802.1Q protocol to communicate with each other.
B. An administrator can create firewall policies in the switch to secure between PLCs.
C. This integration solution expands VLAN capabilities from Layer 2 to Layer 3.
D. There is no micro-segmentation in this topology.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

Which three common breach points can be found in a typical OT environment? (Choose three.)

A. Global hat
B. Hard hat
C. VLAN exploits
D. Black hat
E. RTU exploits

Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 5

An OT network architect must deploy a solution to protect fuel pumps in an industrial remote network. All the fuel pumps must be closely monitored from the corporate network for any temperature fluctuations.
How can the OT network architect achieve this goal?

A. Configure a fuel server on the remote network, and deploy a FortiSIEM with a single pattern temperature security rule on the corporate network.
B. Configure a fuel server on the corporate network, and deploy a FortiSIEM with a single pattern temperature
performance rule on the remote network.
C. Configure a fuel server on the remote network, and deploy a FortiSIEM with a single pattern temperature
performance rule on the corporate network.
D. Configure both fuel server and FortiSIEM with a single-pattern temperature performance rule on the corporate
network.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

An OT network administrator is trying to implement active authentication.
Which two methods should the administrator use to achieve this? (Choose two.)

A. Two-factor authentication on FortiAuthenticator
B. Role-based authentication on FortiNAC
C. FSSO authentication on FortiGate
D. Local authentication on FortiGate

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7

What are two benefits of a Nozomi integration with FortiNAC? (Choose two.)

A. Enhanced point of connection details
B. Direct VLAN assignment
C. Adapter consolidation for multi-adapter hosts
D. Importation and classification of hosts

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8

Which three methods of communication are used by FortiNAC to gather visibility information? (Choose three.)

A. SNMP
B. ICMP
C. API
D. RADIUS
E. TACACS

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 9

You are investigating a series of incidents that occurred in the OT network over the past 24 hours in FortiSIEM.
Which three FortiSIEM options can you use to investigate these incidents? (Choose three.)

A. Security
B. IPS
C. List
D. Risk
E. Overview

Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 10

An OT administrator deployed many devices to secure the OT network. However, the SOC team is reporting that there
are too many alerts and that many of the alerts are false positive. The OT administrator would like to find a solution that eliminates repetitive tasks, improves efficiency, saves time, and saves resources.

Which products should the administrator deploy to address these issues and automate most of the manual tasks done
by the SOC team?

A. FortiSIEM and FortiManager
B. FortiSandbox and FortiSIEM
C. FortiSOAR and FortiSIEM
D. A syslog server and FortiSIEM

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

When you create a user or host profile, which three criteria can you use? (Choose three.)

A. Host or user group memberships
B. Administrative group membership
C. An existing access control policy
D. Location
E. Host or user attributes

Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 12

What can be assigned using network access control policies?

A. Layer 3 polling intervals
B. FortiNAC device polling methods
C. Logical networks
D. Profiling rules

Correct Answer: D

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NSE7_EFW-6.4Q&As

QUESTION 1

Which statements about bulk configuration changes using FortiManager CLI scripts are correct? (Choose two.)

A. When executed on the Policy Package, ADOM database, changes are applied directly to the managed FortiGate.
B. When executed on the Device Database, you must use the installation wizard to apply the changes to the managed
FortiGate.
C. When executed on the All FortiGate in ADOM, changes are automatically installed without creating a new revision
history.
D. When executed on the Remote FortiGate directly, administrators do not have the option to review the changes prior
to installation.

Correct Answer: BD

CLI scripts can be run in three different ways: Device Database: By default, a script is executed on the device database.
It is recommended you run the changes on the device database (default setting), as this allows you to check what
configuration changes you will send to the managed device. Once scripts are run on the device database, you can
install these changes to a managed device using the installation wizard.

Policy Package, ADOM database: If a script contains changes related to ADOM level objects and policies, you can change the default selection to run on Policy Package, ADOM database and can then be installed using the installation wizard. Remote FortiGate directly (through CLI): A script can be executed directly on the device and you don\\’t need to install these changes using the installation
wizard.

As the changes are directly installed on the managed device, no option is provided to verify and check the
configuration changes through FortiManager prior to executing them.

QUESTION 2

A corporate network allows Internet Access to FSSO users only. The FSSO user student does not have Internet access
after successfully logging into the Windows AD network. The output of the `diagnose debug and fsso list\\’ command does not show the student as an active FSSO user. Other FSSO users can access the Internet without problems. What
should the administrator check? (Choose two.)

A. The user student must not be listed in the CA\\’s ignore user list.
B. The user student must belong to one or more of the monitored user groups.
C. The student workstation\\’s IP subnet must be listed in the CA\\’s trusted list.
D. At least one of the student\\’s user groups must be allowed by a FortiGate firewall policy.

Correct Answer: AD

https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD38828

QUESTION 3

View these partial outputs from two routings debug commands:

Which outbound interface will FortiGate use to route web traffic from internal users to the Internet?

A. Both port1 and port2
B. port3
C. port1
D. port2

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

What configuration changes can reduce the memory utilization in a FortiGate? (Choose two.)

A. Reduce the session time to live.
B. Increase the TCP session timers.
C. Increase the FortiGuard cache time to live.
D. Reduce the maximum file size to inspect.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5

Which two statements about the Security Fabric are true? (Choose two.)

A. Only the root FortiGate collects network information and forwards it to FortiAnalyzer.
B. FortiGate uses FortiTelemetry protocol to communicate with FortiAnalyzer.
C. All FortiGate devices in the Security Fabric must have bidirectional FortiTelemetry connectivity.
D. Branch FortiGate devices must be configured first.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.0/cookbook/327890/deploying-security-fabric

QUESTION 6

Which real-time debug should an administrator enable to troubleshoot RADIUS authentication problems?

A. Diagnose debug application radius -1.
B. Diagnose debug application fnbamd -1.
C. Diagnose authed console -log enable.
D. Diagnose radius console -log enable.

Correct Answer: B

https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD32838

QUESTION 7

When using the SSL certificate inspection method for HTTPS traffic, how does FortiGate filter web requests when the
browser client does not provide the server name indication (SNI) extension?

A. FortiGate uses CN information from the Subject field in the server\\’s certificate.
B. FortiGate switches to the full SSL inspection method to decrypt the data.
C. FortiGate blocks the request without any further inspection.
D. FortiGate uses the requested URL from the user\\’s web browser.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

An administrator has decreased all the TCP session timers to optimize the FortiGate memory usage.
However, after the changes, one network application started to have problems.

During the troubleshooting, the administrator noticed that the FortiGate deletes the sessions after the clients send the SYN packets, and before the arrival of the SYN/ACKs. When the SYN/ACK packets arrive at the FortiGate, the unit has already deleted the respective sessions. Which TCP session timer must be increased to fix this problem?

A. TCP half-open.
B. TCP half-close.
C. TCP time wait.
D. TCP session time to live.

Correct Answer: A

http://docs-legacy.fortinet.com/fos40hlp/43prev/wwhelp/wwhimpl/common/html/wwhelp.htm?
context=fgtandfile=CLI_get_Commands.58.25.html

The top-half open-timer controls for how long, after an SYN packet, a session without SYN/ACKremains in
the table.
The TCP-half-close-timer controls for how long, after a FIN packet, a session without FIN/ACKremains in the
table.
The TCP-time wait-timer controls for how long, after a FIN/ACK packet, a session remains in the table.
A closed session remains in the session table for a few seconds more to allow any out-of-sequence
packet.

QUESTION 9

Examine the partial output from two web filter debug commands; then answer the question below:

Based on the above outputs, which is the FortiGuard web filter category for the website www.fgt99.com?

A. Finance and banking
B. General organization.
C. Business.
D. Information technology.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

Examine the output from the BGP real-time debug shown in the exhibit, then answer the question below:

Which statements are true regarding the output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. BGP peers have successfully interchanged Open and Keepalive messages.
B. Local BGP peer received a prefix for a default route.
C. The state of the remote BGP peer is OpenConfirm.
D. The state of the remote BGP peer will go to Connect after it confirms the received prefixes.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11

Which the following events can trigger the election of a new primary unit in a HA cluster? (Choose two.)

A. Primary unit stops sending HA heartbeat keepalives.
B. The FortiGuard license for the primary unit is updated.
C. One of the monitored interfaces in the primary unit is disconnected.
D. A secondary unit is removed from the HA cluster.

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12

View the exhibit, which contains a partial output of an IKE real-time debug, and then answer the question below.

Based on the debug output, which phase-1 setting is enabled in the configuration of this VPN?

A. auto-discovery-sender
B. auto-discovery-forwarder
C. auto-discovery-shortcut
D. auto-discovery-receiver

Correct Answer: B

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NSE4_FGT-6.4Q&As

QUESTION 1

Which three methods are used by the collector agent for AD polling? (Choose three.)

A. FortiGate polling
B. NetAPI
C. Novell API
D. WMI
E. WinSecLog

Correct Answer: BDE

Reference: https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD47732

QUESTION 2

Which of the following statements correctly describes FortiGates route lookup behavior when searching for a suitable
gateway? (Choose two)

A. Lookup is done on the first packet from the session originator
B. Lookup is done on the last packet sent from the responder
C. Lookup is done on every packet, regardless of the direction
D. Lookup is done on the trust reply packet from the responder

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit to view the application control profile.

Users who use Apple FaceTime video conferences are unable to set up meetings. In this scenario, which statement is
true?

A. Apple FaceTime belongs to the custom monitored filter.
B. The category of Apple FaceTime is being monitored.
C. Apple FaceTime belongs to the custom blocked filter.
D. The category of Apple FaceTime is being blocked.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

View the exhibit.

A user behind the FortiGate is trying to go to http://www.addictinggames.com (Addicting Games). Based on this
configuration, which statement is true?

A. Addicting. Games are allowed based on the Application Overrides configuration.
B. Addicting. Games are blocked on the Filter Overrides configuration.
C. Addicting. Games can be allowed only if the Filter Overrides actions are set to Exempt.
D. Addicting. Games are allowed based on the Categories configuration.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

How does FortiGate act when using SSL VPN in web mode?

A. FortiGate acts as an FDS server.
B. FortiGate acts as an HTTP reverse proxy.
C. FortiGate acts as a DNS server.
D. FortiGate acts as a router.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://pub.kb.fortinet.com/ksmcontent/Fortinet-Public/current/Fortigate_v4.0MR3/fortigatesslvpn-40-mr3.pdf

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit.

Which contains a network diagram and routing table output.
The Student is unable to access Webserver.
What is the cause of the problem and what is the solution for the problem?

A. The first packet sent from the Student failed the RPF check. This issue can be resolved by adding a static route to
10.0.4.0/24 through wan1.
B. The first reply packet for Students failed the RPF check. This issue can be resolved by adding a static route to
10.0.4.0/24 through wan1.
C. The first reply packet for Students failed the RPF check. This issue can be resolved by adding a static route to
203.0.114.24/32 through port3.
D. The first packet sent from the Student failed the RPF check. This issue can be resolved by adding a static route to
203.0.114.24/32 through port3.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Which two statements about antivirus scanning mode are true? (Choose two.)

A. In proxy-based inspection mode, files bigger than the buffer size are scanned.
B. In flow-based inspection mode. FortiGate buffers the file, but also simultaneously transmits it to the client.
C. In proxy-based inspection mode, antivirus scanning buffers the whole file for scanning, before sending it to the client.
D. In flow-based inspection mode, files bigger than the buffer size is scanned.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8

Examine the exhibit, which contains a virtual IP and firewall policy configuration.

The WAN (port1) interface has the IP address 10.200.1.1/24. The LAN (port2) interface has the IP address
10.0.1.254/24. The first firewall policy has NAT enabled on the outgoing interface address. The second firewall policy is
configured with a VIP as the destination address. Which IP address will be used to source NAT the Internet traffic
coming from a workstation with the IP address 10.0.1.10/24?

A. 10.200.1.10
B. Any available IP address in the WAN (port1) subnet 10.200.1.0/24
C. 10.200.1.1
D. 10.0.1.254

Correct Answer: B

https://help.fortinet.com/fos50hlp/54/Content/FortiOS/fortigate-firewall-52/Firewall%20Objects/Virtual% 20IPs.htm

QUESTION 9

View the exhibit.

Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. This setup requires at least two firewall policies with the action set to IPsec.
B. Dead peer detection must be disabled to support this type of IPsec setup.
C. The TunnelB route is the primary route for reaching the remote site. The tunnel route is used only if the Tunnell
VPN is down.
D. This is a redundant IPsec setup.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10

What devices form the core of the security fabric?

A. Two FortiGate devices and one FortiManager device
B. One FortiGate device and one FortiManager device
C. Two FortiGate devices and one FortiAnalyzer device
D. One FortiGate device and one FortiAnalyzer device

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.0/cookbook/425100/components

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the administrator profile settings, what permissions must the administrator set to run the diagnosed firewall
auth list CLI command on FortiGate?

A. Custom permission for Network
B. Read/Write permission for Log and Report
C. CLI diagnostics commands permission
D. Read/Write permission for Firewall

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

Which two inspection modes can you use to configure a firewall policy on a profile-based next-generation firewall
(NGFW)? (Choose two.)

A. Proxy-based inspection
B. Certificate inspection
C. Flow-based inspection
D. Full Content inspection

Correct Answer: AC

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QUESTION 1

As shown in the following figure, a new AP is deployed In dual-link MSB networking (load balancing mode). Which AC
will they connect to?

A. AC1
B. Random access
C. None
D. AC2

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

Which of the following statements regarding an IP prefix are true?

A. An IP prefix filter is used to filter IP address prefixes and cannot match an IP prefix number and a prefix length at the
same time.
B. An IP prefix filter cannot be used to filter data packets.
C. An IP prefix filter is used to filter IP address prefixes and can match an IP prefix number and a prefix length at the
same time.
D. An IP prefix filter can be used to filter data packets.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

Which Of the following IEEE 802.11 standards is also known as Wi-Fi 6?

A. 802.11ac
B. 802.11n
C. 802.11ax
D. 802.11b

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

When two routers exchange LSDB information using DD packets, a master/slave relationship is formed first, the router
with a larger router ID is the master, and determine the MS bit.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

Which of the following statements is false?

A. If the current DR fails, the current BDR automatically becomes a new DR, and a BDR will be elected again.
B. A device with a higher router priority has a higher election priority.
C. When a router with the highest router priority joins an OSPF network, this router will become the new DR.
D. If two devices have the same router priority, the device with a larger router ID has a higher election priority.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

DRAG-DROP
Drag the following VRRP states to the corresponding working mechanisms.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 7

Which of the following TLVs is used by ISIS to describe the IP address of an interface?

A. 129
B. 131
C. 128
D. 132

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

An engineer sets the CAPWAP heartbeat detection interval to 20 of the active link before an active/standby switchover
occurs?

A. 75s
B. the 20s
C. the 60s
D. the 90s

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

In a route policy, which of the following BGP attributes can be used in applying clauses?

A. MED
B. AS_Path
C. Tag
D. Local-Preference

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 10

Which of the following statements regarding the BGP error display of a router is false?

A. The error may be caused by the incorrect neighbor address.
B. The neighbor address of this router is 10.1.1.5.
C. Error Type indicates that the BGP error is caused by the neighbor relationship error.
D. The error occurred at 12:40:39 on March 22, 2010.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

The traffic limiting policy feature only supports the number of connections initiated by the specified IP or the number of connections received.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

Which of the following PIM protocol packets have unicast destination addresses.

A. Register-Stop
B. Bootstrap
C. Graft
D. Assert

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1

The Vault administrator can change the Vault license by uploading the new license to the system Safe.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

Which of the following statements are NOT true when enabling PSM recording for a target Windows server? Choose all
that apply.

A. The PSM software must be installed on the target server.
B. PSM must be enabled in the Master Policy (either directly, or through an exception).
C. PSMConnect must be added as a local user on the target server.
D. RDP must be enabled on the target server.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

Which of the following logs contains information about errors related to PTA?

A. ITAlog.log
B. diamond.log
C. pm_error.log
D. WebApplication.log

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

The Password upload utility can be used to create safes.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.cyberark.com/Product-Doc/OnlineHelp/PAS/Latest/en/Content/PASIMP/Password-UploadUtility.htm

QUESTION 5

If a user is a member of more than one group that has authorizations on a safe, by default that user is
granted____________________.

A. the vault will not allow this situation to occur.
B. only those permissions that exist on the group added to the safe first.
C. only those permissions that exist in all groups to which the user belongs.
D. the cumulative permissions of all the groups to which that user belongs.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

PSM for Windows (previously known as “RDP Proxy”) supports connections to the following target systems

A. Windows
B. UNIX
C. Oracle
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://knowhow.tajco-group.com/knowledge-base/using-a-standard-rdp-client-application/

QUESTION 7

Your organization has a requirement to allow users to “check out passwords” and connect to targets with the same
account through the PSM. What needs to be configured in the Master policy to ensure this will happen?

A. Enforce check-in/check-out exclusive access = active; Require privileged session monitoring and isolation = active
B. Enforce check-in/check-out exclusive access = inactive; Require privileged session monitoring and isolation =
inactive
C. Enforce check-in/check-out exclusive access = inactive; Record and save session activity = active
D. Enforce check-in/check-out exclusive access = active; Record and save session activity = inactive

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

DRAG-DROP
Match the built-in Vault User with the correct definition.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.cyberark.com/Product-Doc/OnlineHelp/PAS/Latest/en/Content/PASIMP/Predefined-Users-andGroups.htm?TocPath=Administration%7CUser%20Management%7C_____7

QUESTION 9

Which type of automatic remediation can be performed by the PTA in case of a suspected credential theft security
event?

A. Password change
B. Password reconciliation
C. Session suspension
D. Session termination

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

A new HTML5 Gateway has been deployed in your organization. Where do you configure the PSM to use HTML5?
Gateway?

A. Administration > Options > Privileged Session Management > Configured PSM Servers > Connection Details > Add
PSM Gateway
B. Administration > Options > Privileged Session Management > Add Configured PSM Gateway Servers
C. Administration > Options > Privileged Session Management > Configured PSM Servers > Add PSM Gateway
D. Administration > Options > Privileged Session Management > Configured PSM Servers > Connection Details

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

As long as you are a member of the Vault Admins group you can grant any permission on any safe.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

The vault supports Subnet Based Access Control.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A

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Share a great tip | Pass NetApp NS0-175 exam with ease

In this article, we’ll look at the key points of passing the NetApp NS0-175 exam. Great tips for NetApp NS0-175 exams:
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Important NetApp NS0-175 practice questions free share

QUESTION 1

What are the three requirements for all FlexPod Datacenter solutions? (Choose three.)

A. two NetApp storage controllers in a high-availability (HA) pair configuration
B. a separate 100 Mbps Ethernet/1 Gbps Ethernet out-of-band management network
C. a pair of Fabric Extenders in a redundant configuration
D. two Cisco UCS 6200, 6300, or 6400 Series Fabric Interconnects in a redundant configuration
E. redundant boot-from-SAN LUN paths

Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 2

Your environment currently has a 12-node NetApp cluster serving iSCSI. You need to add at least four more nodes to
serve FC to your environment. In this scenario, what should you do?

A. You can safely add up to 4 more storage controllers in the current cluster
B. You can safely add up to 6 more storage controllers in the current cluster
C. You must create a new cluster with the new storage controllers
D. You can safely add up to 12 more storage controllers in the current cluster

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

You want to ensure the uniqueness of the Cisco UCS WWNNs and WWPNs in the SAN for a FlexPod solution. In this
the situation, Cisco recommends using which WWN prefix for all blocks in a pool?

A. 30:00:00:25:B5:XX:XX:XX
B. 40:00:00:25:B5:XX:XX:XX
C. 20:00:00:25:B5:XX:XX:XX
D. 60:00:00:25:B5:XX:XX:XX

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User-Guides/Storage
Mgmt/4-0/b_UCSM_GUI_Storage_Management_Guide_4_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Storage_Management_Guide_4_0_chapter_0111.html

QUESTION 4

A customer wants to use a Cisco Nexus 93180YC-FX switch to support the FC protocol for booting from SAN without
having to deploy additional Cisco 900 Series MDS switches in their FlexPod Datacenter configuration. In this scenario,
what is required for this solution?

A. The customer must enable the FC license on the 93180YC-FX switch
B. The customer must deploy the 93180YC-FX switch as part of a Cisco ACI fabric
C. The customer must directly connect the NetApp AFF system to the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects
D. The customer must add an expansion FC module to the 93180YC-FX switch

Correct Answer: C

Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/UCS_CVDs/fp_vmware_vsphere_7_0_ontap_9_7.html

QUESTION 5

A customer is verifying that they have separation on their FC switch fabric to protect their FlexPod solution from their
other storage devices. Which two technologies enable the customer to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. WWPN zoning
B. VASN
C. IQN igroup
D. VLAN

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6

A customer with a FlexPod solution wants to expand their NetApp ONTAP 9.7 switchless cluster. The new hardware
must support expansion slots. In addition, they will also upgrade to a 100 Gbps-capable cluster interconnect switch for
future growth.

In this scenario, which two additional components will satisfy the requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Nexus 3232C
B. Nexus N3132Q-V
C. NetApp FAS2720
D. NetApp AFF A400

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/us-en/flexpod/pdfs/sidebar/FlexPod_Datacenter_Technical_Specifications.pdf (26)

QUESTION 7

During a design meeting, a customer states that their goal is to deliver continuous availability across both network and
storage during business continuity events. The customer has two data centers that are 80 km apart, and they want the
configuration to be as logically unified across both sites as possible.

In this scenario, which FlexPod data protection solution achieves this goal?

A. FlexPod with NetApp Cloud Sync
B. FlexPod with NetApp SnapCenter
C. FlexPod with NetApp MetroCluster IP
D. FlexPod with NetApp FabricPool

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

A customer is performing a server refresh of their FlexPod solution to accommodate business growth. The customer is
interested in using Cisco C-Series servers, and supporting multiple 40 Gbps links to each server, upgrading from the
existing 10 Gbps links.

Which two VICs support these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco UCS 1480 VIC
B. Cisco UCS 1497 VIC
C. Cisco UCS 1495 VIC
D. Cisco UCS 1440 VIC

Correct Answer: AD

Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/UCS_CVDs/flexpod_sap_ucsm40_fcsan_design.html

QUESTION 9

You have taken over the management of an existing FlexPod system as part of a new job role. You want to find details of existing support and service contracts available for the system. Which two resources would you use to find this
information? (Choose two.)

A. NetApp Interoperability Matrix Tool
B. Cisco Device Coverage Checker Tool
C. NetApp Support website
D. FlexPod.com website

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10

A customer wants to replace their Cisco UCS 6248UP with the current Cisco UCS 6454. They are currently using six 16
Gbit uplinks per Fabric Interconnect for FC and do not want to change the speed and number of ports used. In this
scenario, what is the minimum number of unified ports that must be configured for FC for a comparable configuration?

A. 8
B. 6
C. 16
D. 12

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User-Guides/NetworkMgmt/4-0/b_UCSM_Network_Mgmt_Guide_4_0/b_UCSM_Network_Mgmt_Guide_4_0_chapter_0100.html

QUESTION 11

A customer has decided to deploy Red Hat OpenShift on a FlexPod solution, based on a published Cisco Validated
Design. The customer intends to use the NetApp Trident to attach persistent storage to the customer\\’s containers from the customer\\’s NetApp AFF controllers.

In this scenario, which two storage protocols are supported? (Choose two.)

A. iSCSI
B. FC
C. NFS
D. SMB

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12

Which two support account levels are minimally required when you deploy a FlexPod Datacenter solution? (Choose
two.)

A. NetApp SupportEdge Expert NBD
B. Cisco SmartNet Total Care 24x7x4
C. NetApp SupportEdge Advisor 24x7x4
D. Cisco Solution Support 24x7x4

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 13

You are asked to evaluate SaaS-based monitoring solutions for your FlexPod environment. Other than being SaaSdelivered, selection criteria include full lifecycle management, environment automation, and the ability to monitor third-party storage that is slated for retirement.

In this scenario, which product satisfies the requirements?

A. NetApp Cloud Insights
B. NetApp OnCommand Insight
C. Cisco UCS Manager
D. Cisco Intersight

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://cloud.netapp.com/hubfs/WP-7302-Cloud-Insights-Monitoring-Guide.pdf

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