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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
You need to design a data architecture to bring together all your data at any scale and provide insights into all your
users through the use of analytical dashboards, operational reports, and advanced analytics.
How should you complete the architecture? To answer, drag the appropriate Azure services to the correct locations in
the architecture. Each service may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between
panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

dp-200 exam questions-q1

Ingest: Azure Data Factory Store: Azure Blob storage Model and Serve: Azure SQL Data Warehouse
Load data into Azure SQL Data Warehouse.
Prep and Train: Azure Databricks. Extract data from Azure Blob storage. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-databricks/databricks-extract-load-sql-data-warehouse

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You are designing a data processing solution that will run as a Spark job on an HDInsight cluster. The solution will be
used to provide near real-time information about online ordering for a retailer.
The solution must include a page on the company intranet that displays summary information.
The summary information page must meet the following requirements:
1.
Display a summary of sales to date grouped by product categories, price range, and review scope.
2.
Display sales summary information including total sales, sales as compared to one day ago and sales as compared to
one year ago.
3.
Reflect information for new orders as quickly as possible.
You need to recommend a design for the solution.
What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate configuration in the answer area.
Hot Area:

dp-200 exam questions-q2

Explanation:
Box 1: DataFrame
DataFrames
Best choice in most situations.
Provides query optimization through Catalyst.
Whole-stage code generation.
Direct memory access.
Low garbage collection (GC) overhead.
Not as developer-friendly as DataSets, as there are no compile-time checks or domain object programming.
Box 2: parquet
The best format for performance is parquet with snappy compression, which is the default in Spark 2.x. Parquet stores
data in columnar format, and is highly optimized in Spark.
Incorrect Answers:
DataSets
Good in complex ETL pipelines where the performance impact is acceptable.
Not good in aggregations where the performance impact can be considerable.
RDDs
You do not need to use RDDs, unless you need to build a new custom RDD.
No query optimization through Catalyst.
No whole-stage code generation.
High GC overhead.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/spark/apache-spark-perf


QUESTION 3
You need to design the encryption strategy for the tagging data and customer data.
What should you recommend? To answer, drag the appropriate setting to the correct drop targets. Each source may be
used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

dp-200 exam questions-q3

All cloud data must be encrypted at rest and in transit.
Box 1: Transparent data encryption Encryption of the database file is performed at the page level. The pages in an
encrypted database are encrypted before they are written to disk and decrypted when read into memory. Box 2:
Encryption at rest
Encryption at Rest is the encoding (encryption) of data when it is persisted.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/security/encryption/transparent-dataencryption?view=sql-server-2017 https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/azure-security-encryption-atrest

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
Which Azure service and feature should you recommend using to manage the transient data for Data Lake Storage? To
answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

dp-200 exam questions-q4

Scenario: Stage inventory data in Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 before loading the data into the analytical data store.
Litware wants to remove transient data from Data Lake Storage once the data is no longer in use. Files that have a
modified date that is older than 14 days must be removed.
Service: Azure Data Factory
Clean up files by built-in delete activity in Azure Data Factory (ADF).
ADF built-in delete activity, which can be part of your ETL workflow to deletes undesired files without writing code. You
can use ADF to delete folder or files from Azure Blob Storage, Azure Data Lake Storage Gen1, Azure Data Lake
Storage
Gen2, File System, FTP Server, sFTP Server, and Amazon S3.
You can delete expired files only rather than deleting all the files in one folder. For example, you may want to only delete
the files which were last modified more than 13 days ago.
Feature: Delete Activity
Reference:
https://azure.microsoft.com/sv-se/blog/clean-up-files-by-built-in-delete-activity-in-azure-data-factory/


QUESTION 5
You plan to deploy an Azure SQL Database instance to support an application. You plan to use the DTU-based
purchasing model.
Backups of the database must be available for 30 days and point-in-time restoration must be possible.
You need to recommend a backup and recovery policy.
What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Use the Premium tier and the default backup retention policy.
B. Use the Basic tier and the default backup retention policy.
C. Use the Standard tier and the default backup retention policy.
D. Use the Standard tier and configure a long-term backup retention policy.
E. Use the Premium tier and configure a long-term backup retention policy.
Correct Answer: DE
The default retention period for a database created using the DTU-based purchasing model depends on the service
tier:
1.
Basic service tier is 1 week.
2.
Standard service tier is 5 weeks.
3.
Premium service tier is 5 weeks. Incorrect Answers:
B: Basic tier only allows restore points within 7 days.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-long-term-retention

QUESTION 6
You are designing an Azure SQL Data Warehouse. You plan to load millions of rows of data into the data warehouse
each day.
You must ensure that staging tables are optimized for data loading.
You need to design the staging tables.
What type of tables should you recommend?
A. Round-robin distributed table
B. Hash-distributed table
C. Replicated table
D. External table
Correct Answer: A
To achieve the fastest loading speed for moving data into a data warehouse table, load data into a staging table. Define
the staging table as a heap and use round-robin for the distribution option.
Incorrect:
Not B: Consider that loading is usually a two-step process in which you first load to a staging table and then insert the
data into a production data warehouse table. If the production table uses a hash distribution, the total time to load and
insert might be faster if you define the staging table with the hash distribution. Loading to the staging table takes longer,
but the second step of inserting the rows to the production table does not incur data movement across the distributions.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/guidance-for-loading-data

QUESTION 7
You need to optimize storage for CONT_SQL3. What should you recommend?
A. AlwaysOn
B. Transactional processing
C. General
D. Data warehousing
Correct Answer: B
CONT_SQL3 with the SQL Server role, 100 GB database size, Hyper-VM to be migrated to Azure VM.
The storage should be configured to optimized storage for database OLTP workloads.
Azure SQL Database provides three basic in-memory based capabilities (built into the underlying database engine) that
can contribute in a meaningful way to performance improvements:
In-Memory Online Transactional Processing (OLTP)
Clustered columnstore indexes intended primarily for Online Analytical Processing (OLAP) workloads
Nonclustered columnstore indexes geared towards Hybrid Transactional/Analytical Processing (HTAP) workloads
References:
https://www.databasejournal.com/features/mssql/overview-of-in-memory-technologies-of-azure-sqldatabase.html


QUESTION 8
You need to ensure that emergency road response vehicles are dispatched automatically.
How should you design the processing system? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area

dp-200 exam questions-q8

Correct Answer:

dp-200 exam questions-q8-2

Events generated from the IoT data sources are sent to the stream ingestion layer through Azure HDInsight Kafka as a
stream of messages. HDInsight Kafka stores streams of data in topics for a configurable of time.
Kafka consumer, Azure Databricks, picks up the message in real time from the Kafka topic, to process the data based
on the business logic and can then send to Serving layer for storage.
Downstream storage services, like Azure Cosmos DB, Azure SQL Data warehouse, or Azure SQL DB, will then be a
data source for presentation and action layer.
Business analysts can use Microsoft Power BI to analyze warehoused data. Other applications can be built upon the
serving layer as well. For example, we can expose APIs based on the service layer data for third party uses.
Box 2: Cosmos DB Change Feed
Change feed support in Azure Cosmos DB works by listening to an Azure Cosmos DB container for any changes. It
then outputs the sorted list of documents that were changed in the order in which they were modified.
The change feed in Azure Cosmos DB enables you to build efficient and scalable solutions for each of these patterns,
as shown in the following image:

dp-200 exam questions-q8-3

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-cyrl-ba/azure/architecture/example-scenario/data/realtime-analytics-vehicleiot?view=azurermps-4.4.1


QUESTION 9
You need to design network access to the SQL Server data.
What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

dp-200 exam questions-q9

Box 1: 8080
1433 is the default port, but we must change it as CONT_SQL3 must not communicate over the default ports. Because
port 1433 is the known standard for SQL Server, some organizations specify that the SQL Server port number should
be
changed to enhance security.
Box 2: SQL Server Configuration Manager
You can configure an instance of the SQL Server Database Engine to listen on a specific fixed port by using the SQL
Server Configuration Manager.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/database-engine/configure-windows/configure-a-server-to-listen-on-a-specific-tcpport?view=sql-server-2017


QUESTION 10
You need to optimize storage for CONT_SQL3.
What should you recommend?
A. AlwaysOn
B. Transactional processing
C. General
D. Data warehousing
Correct Answer: B
CONT_SQL3 with the SQL Server role, 100 GB database size, Hyper-VM to be migrated to Azure VM. The storage
should be configured to optimized storage for database OLTP workloads.
Azure SQL Database provides three basic in-memory based capabilities (built into the underlying database engine) that
can contribute in a meaningful way to performance improvements:
In-Memory Online Transactional Processing (OLTP) Clustered columnstore indexes intended primarily for Online
Analytical Processing (OLAP) workloads Nonclustered columnstore indexes geared towards Hybrid
Transactional/Analytical Processing (HTAP) workloads
References: https://www.databasejournal.com/features/mssql/overview-of-in-memory-technologies-of-azure-sqldatabase.html

QUESTION 11
You store data in an Azure SQL data warehouse.
You need to design a solution to ensure that the data warehouse and the most current data is available within one hour
of a datacenter failure.
Which three actions should you include in the design? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Each day, restore the data warehouse from a geo-redundant backup to an available Azure region.
B. If a failure occurs, update the connection strings to point to the recovered data warehouse.
C. If a failure occurs, modify the Azure Firewall rules of the data warehouse.
D. Each day, create Azure Firewall rules that allow access to the restored data warehouse.
E. Each day, restore the data warehouse from a user-defined restore point to an available Azure region.
Correct Answer: BDE
E: You can create a user-defined restore point and restore from the newly created restore point to a new data
warehouse in a different region.
Note: A data warehouse snapshot creates a restore point you can leverage to recover or copy your data warehouse to a
previous state.
A data warehouse restore is a new data warehouse that is created from a restore point of an existing or deleted data
warehouse. On average within the same region, restore rates typically take around 20 minutes.
Incorrect Answers:
A: SQL Data Warehouse performs a geo-backup once per day to a paired data center. The RPO for a geo-restore is 24
hours. You can restore the geo-backup to a server in any other region where SQL Data Warehouse is supported. A
geobackup ensures you can restore data warehouse in case you cannot access the restore points in your primary
region.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/backup-and-restore

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You are designing a new application that uses Azure Cosmos DB. The application will support a variety of data patterns
including log records and social media mentions.
You need to recommend which Cosmos DB API to use for each data pattern. The solution must minimize resource
utilization.
Which API should you recommend for each data pattern? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

dp-200 exam questions-q12

Log records: SQL
Social media mentions: Gremlin You can store the actual graph of followers using Azure Cosmos DB Gremlin API to
create vertexes for each user and edges that maintain the “A-follows-B” relationships. With the Gremlin API, you can get
the followers of a certain user and create more complex queries to suggest people in common. If you add to the graph
the Content Categories that people like or enjoy, you can start weaving experiences that include smart content
discovery, suggesting content that those people you follow like, or finding people that you might have much in common
with.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/social-media-apps


QUESTION 13
You need to recommend a storage solution for a sales system that will receive thousands of small files per minute. The
files will be in JSON, text, and CSV formats. The files will be processed and transformed before they are loaded into an
Azure data warehouse. The files must be stored and secured in folders.
Which storage solution should you recommend?
A. Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2
B. Azure Cosmos DB
C. Azure SQL Database
D. Azure Blob storage
Correct Answer: A
Azure provides several solutions for working with CSV and JSON files, depending on your needs. The primary landing
place for these files is either Azure Storage or Azure Data Lake Store.1
Azure Data Lake Storage is an optimized storage for big data analytics workloads.
Incorrect Answers:
D: Azure Blob Storage containers is a general purpose object store for a wide variety of storage scenarios. Blobs are
stored in containers, which are similar to folders.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/data-guide/scenarios/csv-and-json

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Latest Microsoft MCSE 70-345 practice test (Q1-Q13)

QUESTION 1
You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization.
You need to create a resource record in DNS to support Autodiscover from the Internet.
What type of resource record should you create?
A. Host (A)
B. Text (TXT)
C. Pointer (PTR)
D. Mail exchange (MX)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You have a server named EX01 that runs Exchange Server 2016. The disks on EX01 are configured as shown in the
following table.

70-345 exam questions-q2

All users access their email by using Microsoft Outlook 2013.
From Performance Monitor, you discover that the MSExchange Database\I/O Database Reads Average Latency
counter displays values that are higher than normal.
You need to identify the impact of the high counter values on user connections in the Exchange Server organization.
What are two client connections that will report slower performance when opening email messages? Each correct
answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Outlook in Online Mode
B. Outlook in Cached Exchange Mode
C. Outlook on the web
D. IMAP4 clients
E. mobile devices using Exchange Active Sync
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains domain controllers that run Windows Server 2012
R2.
The forest contains an Exchange Server 2016 organization.
You need to create a database availability group (DAG).
Which two actions should you perform before you create the DAG? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. From Failover Cluster Manager, create a failover cluster.
B. From the DNS zone, create an alias (CNAME) record for the name of the DAG.
C. Install at least one domain controller that runs Windows Server 2016.
D. From Active Directory, create a clustered name object (CNO).
E. On the witness server, add the Exchange Trusted Subsystem group to the local administrators group.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization. The organization contains 5,000 mailboxes.
All of the users in the organization share their Calendar with the users in two domains named contoso.com
andfabrikam.com.
You need to prevent the organization users from sharing their Calendar with the users in the contoso.com domain.
What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

70-345 exam questions-q4

QUESTION 5
You are planning an Exchange Server 2016 organization. The organization will contain a Mailbox server named EX01.
Users will have primary SMTP email addresses in the following domains: Contoso.com Fabrikam.com Cohowinery.com
Wingtiptoys.com
You need to add a DNS record to provide Autodiscover for each domain.
Which type of record should you create in each zone?
A. SRV
B. CERT
C. PTR
D. MINFO
E. LOC
F. TXT
Correct Answer: A
To configure Autodiscover DNS records, you use either an A record, a CNAME record or an SRV record.
Preference being A as its most commonly used, if that\\’s not there choose SRV as this works where A is not possible(certificate only has 1 SAN) and if that\\’s not there choose CNAME (can be used but can cause compatibility issues and
cert
issues).

QUESTION 6
Your company has an Exchange Server 2016 organization. The organization has a four-node database availability
group (DAG) that spans two data centers. Each data center is configured as a separate Active Directory site. The data
centers
connect to each other by using a high-speed WAN link. Each data center connects directly to the Internet and has a
scoped Send connector configured.
The company\\’s public DNS zone contains one MX record.
You need to ensure that if an Internet link becomes unavailable in one data center, email messages destined to external
recipients can be routed through the other data center.
What should you do?
A. Create a Receive connector in each data center.
B. Clear the Proxy through Client Access server check box.
C. Clear the Scoped Send Connector check box.
D. Create an MX record in the internal DNS zone.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You need to recommend a load balancing solution that meets the availability requirements.
Which load balancing solution should you recommend?
A. a Layer-7 load balancer with a single namespace and without session affinity
B. a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster
C. DNS round robin
D. a Layer-4 load balancer with multiple namespaces and without session affinity
Correct Answer: A
From Scenario:
Contoso identifies the following high-availability requirements for the planned deployment:
The network load balancer must be able to probe the health of each workload.
Load balancers that work on the Layer 7 of OSI model are intelligent. Layer 7 load balancer is aware of the type of traffic
passing through it. This type of load balancer can inspect the content of the traffic between the clients and the
Exchange
server. From this inspection, it gets that results and uses this information to make its forwarding decisions. For example,
it can route traffic based on the virtual directory to which a client is trying to connect, such as /owa, /ecp or /mapi and it
can use a different routing logic, depending on the URL the client is connecting to. When using a Layer 7 load balancer,
you can also leverage the capabilities of Exchange Server 2016 Managed Availability feature. This built-in feature of
Exchange monitors the critical components and services of Exchange server and based on results it can take actions.
Note: Layer 7 load balancer can use this to detect functionality of critical services, and based on that information decide
if it will forward client connections to that node. If the load balancer health check receives a 200 status response from
health check web page, then the service or protocol is up and running. If the load balancer receives a 403 status code,
then it means that Managed Availability has marked that protocol instance down on the Mailbox server.
Although it might look that load balancer actually performs a simple health check against the server nodes in the pool,
health check web page provides an information about workload’s health by taking into account multiple internal health
check probes performed by Managed Availability.
Incorrect Answers:
D: Load balancers that work on Layer 4 are not aware of the actual traffic content being load balanced.
References: http://dizdarevic.ba/ddamirblog/?p=187
 

QUESTION 8
You need to recommend a solution that meets the security requirements for mobile devices.
Which two objects should you include in the recommendation? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. a device access rule
B. a mobile device mailbox policy
C. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy
D. an Outlook Web App policy
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Your network contains a single domain named contoso.local.
You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization that uses a single external SMTP namespace of contoso.com. You
establish mail flow to and from the Internet.
You plan to deploy a customer relationship management (CRM) solution. The CRM solution will have its own SMTP
server and must be able to receive email sent by using various addresses in contoso.com. The addresses will not be
managed by the Exchange Server organization.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the CRM solution can receive email from the Internet. The solution
must ensure that internal users can all receive email.
Which two action should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create a Send connector that has a namespace of * and uses the CRM server as a smart host.
B. Create a Send connector that has a namespace of contoso.com and uses the CRM server as a smart host.
C. Change the domain type of the contoso.com accepted domain to External Relay Domain.
D. Create a Send connector that has a namespace of contoso.local and uses the CRM server as a smart host.
E. Change the domain type of the contoso.com accepted domain to Internal Relay Domain.
F. Change the domain type of the contoso.local accepted domain to Internal Relay Domain.
G. Change the domain type of the contoso.local accepted domain to External Relay Domain.
Correct Answer: BE
External relay domain: No recipients in the authoritative domain exist in the Exchange organization, so you shouldn\\’t
enable Recipient Lookup for the domain.
The Send connector that you configure for non-existent recipients in the external relay domain is sourced on an Edge
Transport server or Internet-facing Mailbox server.
Incorrect Answers:
Internal relay domain: If all recipients in the internal relay domain exist in the Exchange organization (including mail
contacts and mail users), you can enable Recipient Lookup for the domain. If some or none of the recipients in the
internal
relay domain exist in the Exchange organization, you shouldn\\’t enable Recipient Lookup for the domain.
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb124423(v=exchg.160).aspx

QUESTION 10
Your company has a data center in Miami and a data center in Orlando. Each data center is configured as an Active
Directory site.
The network contains an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com.
The company plans to deploy an Exchange Server 2016 organization that will contain the servers configured as shown
in the following table.

70-345 exam questions-q10

The servers will be configured in a single database availability group (DAG). Datacenter Activation Coordination (DAC)
mode will be enabled for the DAG.
All inbound email from the Internet will be routed through EX5.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that users will continue to receive email messages if the Miami data center
fails.
Which two actions should you include in the recommendation? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create one mail exchanger (MX) record that has a priority of 10 and configure the record to point to
mx.fabricam.com. Create a second MX record that has a priority of 100 and configure the record to point to mxbackup.fabrikam.com.
B. Create one mail exchanger (MX) record that has a priority of 10 and a second MX record that has a priority of 100.
Configure both MX records to point to mx.fabrikam.com.
C. Configure a host (A) record named mx.fabrikam.com and point mx.fabrikam.com to the IP address of EX5. Configure
a host (A) record named mx-backup.fabrikam.com and point mx-backup.fabrikam.com to the IP address of EX6.
D. Configure a host (A) record named mx.fabrikam.com. Add the IP addresses of EX5 and EX6 to the record.
E. Modify the weight of the mx.fabrikam.com mail exchanger (MX) record.
Correct Answer: AC
Mail is delivered to the mail exchange server with the lowest preference number (highest priority), so the MX record you
use for mail routing should have the lowest preference number, typically 0 or High priority.
You can have multiple MX records each pointing to a different SMTP host.
References: https://www.microsoftpressstore.com/articles/article.aspx?p=2302522andseqNum=3

QUESTION 11
You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization. The organization contains three Mailbox servers. The servers are
configured as shown in the following table.

70-345 exam questions-q11

You discover that when User1 sends email messages to Group1, all of the messages are delivered to EX02 first.
You need to identify why the email messages sent to Group1 are sent to EX02 instead.
What should you identify?
A. EX02 is configured as an expansion server.
B. The arbitration mailbox is hosted on EX02.
C. Site2 has universal group membership caching enabled.
D. Site2 is configured as a hub site.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa998825(v=exchg.150).aspx

QUESTION 12
You have an Active Directory forest named contoso.com that contains an Exchange Server 2016 organization named
Contoso.
Contoso.com has a two-way forest trust with an Active Directory forest named fabrika.com.
The fabriakm.com forest contains an Exchange Server 2016 organization named Fabrikam.
You need to ensure that the users in Contoso can access the free/busy information of all the users in Fabrikam.
An administrator from Fabrikam runs the following command in the organization.
Get-MailboxServer | Add-ADPermission -Accessrights Extendedright -Extendedrights “ms- ExchEPI-TokenSerialization” -User “CONTOSO\Exchange Servers”
What command should you run in Contoso? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

70-345 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

70-345 exam questions-q12-2

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization. The organization has 500 mailboxes and three servers. The servers
are configured as shown in the following table.

70-345 exam questions-q13

EX10EDGE is located in the perimeter network. EX10CH has an Edge Subscription. All Internet mail flows through
EX10EDGE.
You deploy an Exchange Server 2016 Mailbox server named EX16MBX to the organization. You deploy an Exchange
Server 2016 Edge Transport server named EX16EDGEtothe perimeter network.
You need to transition all Internet mail to flow through EX16EDGE. The solution must minimize disruptions to the mail
flow.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

70-345 exam questions-q13-2

Correct Answer:

70-345 exam questions-q13-3

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QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
To meet the authentication requirements of Fabrikam, what should you include in the solution? To answer, select the
appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Cert4sure AZ-304 exam questions-q1

Correct Answer:

Cert4sure AZ-304 exam questions-q1-2

Box 1: 2
The network contains two Active Directory forests named corp.fabrikam.com and rd.fabrikam.com. There are no trust
relationships between the forests.
Box 2: 1
Box 3: 1
Scenario:
Users on the on-premises network must be able to authenticate to corp.fabrikam.com if an Internet link fails.
Administrators must be able authenticate to the Azure portal by using their corp.fabrikam.com credentials.
All administrative access to the Azure portal must be secured by using multi-factor authentication.
Note:
Users must always authenticate by using their corp.fabrikam.com UPN identity.
The network contains two Active Directory forests named corp.fabrikam.com and rd.fabrikam.com. There are no trust
relationships between the forests.
Corp.fabrikam.com is a production forest that contains identities used for internal user and computer authentication.
Rd.fabrikam.com is used by the research and development (RandD) department only.


QUESTION 2
You need to design a solution that will execute custom C# code in response to an event routed to Azure Event Grid. The
solution must meet the following requirements:
The executed code must be able to access the private IP address of a Microsoft SQL Server instance that runs on an
Azure virtual machine.
Costs must be minimized.
What should you include in the solution?
A. Azure Logic Apps in the integrated service environment
B. Azure Functions in the Dedicated plan and the Basic Azure App Service plan
C. Azure Logic Apps in the Consumption plan
D. Azure Functions in the Consumption plan
Correct Answer: D
When you create a function app in Azure, you must choose a hosting plan for your app. There are three basic hosting
plans available for Azure Functions: Consumption plan, Premium plan, and Dedicated (App Service) plan. For the
Consumption plan, you don\\’t have to pay for idle VMs or reserve capacity in advance.
Connect to private endpoints with Azure Functions As enterprises continue to adopt serverless (and Platform-as-a-service, or PaaS) solutions, they often need a way to integrate with existing resources on a virtual network. These
existing resources could be databases, file storage, message queues or event streams, or REST APIs.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/functions-scale
https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/azure-functions/connect-to-private-endpoints-with-azure-functions/bap/1426615

QUESTION 3
You need to recommend a solution for protecting the content of the payment processing system. What should you
include in the recommendation?
A. Always Encrypted with deterministic encryption
B. Always Encrypted with randomized encryption
C. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)
D. Azure Storage Service Encryption
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Your company purchases an app named App1.
You plan to run App1 on seven Azure virtual machines in an Availability Set. The number of fault domains is set to 3.
The number of update domains is set to 20.
You need to identify how many App1 instances will remain available during a period of planned maintenance.
How many App1 instances should you identify?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 6
D. 7
Correct Answer: C
Only one update domain is rebooted at a time. Here there are 7 update domain with one VM each (and 13 update
domain with no VM).
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/manage-availability


QUESTION 5
You have an Azure subscription that is linked to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. The subscription contains
10 resource groups, one for each department at your company.
Each department has a specific spending limit for its Azure resources.
You need to ensure that when a department reaches its spending limit, the compute resources of the department shut
down automatically.
Which two features should you include in the solution? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure Logic Apps
B. Azure Monitor alerts
C. the spending limit of an Azure account
D. Cost Management budgets
E. Azure Log Analytics alerts
Correct Answer: CD
C: The spending limit in Azure prevents spending over your credit amount. All new customers who sign up for an Azure
free account or subscription types that include credits over multiple months have the spending limit turned on by default.
The spending limit is equal to the amount of credit and it can\\’t be changed.
D: Turn on the spending limit after removing This feature is available only when the spending limit has been removed
indefinitely for subscription types that include credits over multiple months. You can use this feature to turn on your
spending limit automatically at the start of the next billing period.
1.
Sign in to the Azure portal as the Account Administrator.
2.
Search for Cost Management + Billing.
3.
Etc.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cost-management-billing/manage/spending-limit

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
You are evaluating the components of the migration to Azure that require you to provision an Azure Storage account.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Cert4sure AZ-304 exam questions-q6

Correct Answer:

Cert4sure AZ-304 exam questions-q6-2

QUESTION 7
You need to deploy resources to host a stateless web app in an Azure subscription. The solution must meet the
following requirements:
Provide access to the full .NET framework.
Provide redundancy if an Azure region fails.
Grant administrators access to the operating system to install custom application dependencies.
Solution: You deploy two Azure virtual machines to two Azure regions, and create a Traffic Manager profile.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
You have 70 TB of files on your on-premises file server.
You need to recommend a solution for importing data to Azure. The solution must minimize costs.
What Azure service should you recommend?
A. Azure StorSimple
B. Azure Batch
C. Azure Data Box
D. Azure Stack
Correct Answer: C
Microsoft has engineered an extremely powerful solution that helps customers get their data to the Azure public cloud in
a cost-effective, secure, and efficient manner with powerful Azure and machine learning at play. The solution is called
Data Box.
Data Box and is in general availability status. It is a rugged device that allows organizations to have 100 TB of capacity
on which to copy their data and then send it to be transferred to Azure.
Incorrect Answers:
A: StorSimple would not be able to handle 70 TB of data. Reference: https://www.vembu.com/blog/what-is-microsoftazure-data-box-disk-edge-heavy-gateway-overview/


QUESTION 9
You have an Azure Storage v2 account named storage1.
You plan to archive data to storage1.
You need to ensure that the archived data cannot be deleted for five years. The solution must prevent administrators
from deleting the data.
Solution: You create an Azure Blob storage container, and you configure a legal hold access policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Use an Azure Blob storage container, but use a time-based retention policy instead of a legal hold.
Note:
Immutable storage for Azure Blob storage enables users to store business-critical data objects in a WORM (Write Once,
Read Many) state. This state makes the data non-erasable and non-modifiable for a user-specified interval. For the
duration of the retention interval, blobs can be created and read, but cannot be modified or deleted. Immutable storage
is available for general-purpose v2 and Blob storage accounts in all Azure regions.
Note: Set retention policies and legal holds
1.
Create a new container or select an existing container to store the blobs that need to be kept in the immutable state.
The container must be in a general-purpose v2 or Blob storage account.
2.
Select Access policy in the container settings. Then select Add policy under Immutable blob storage.
Either
3a. To enable legal holds, select Add Policy. Select Legal hold from the drop-down menu.
Or
3b. To enable time-based retention, select Time-based retention from the drop-down menu.
4. Enter the retention interval in days (acceptable values are 1 to 146000 days).
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-immutable-storage
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-immutability-policies-manage

QUESTION 10
You are designing an order processing system in Azure that will contain the Azure resources shown in the following
table.

Cert4sure AZ-304 exam questions-q10

The order processing system will have the following transaction flow:
A customer will place an order by using App1.
When the order is received, App1 will generate a message to check for product availability at vendor 1 and vendor 2.
An integration component will process the message, and then trigger either Function1 or Function2 depending on the
type of order.
Once a vendor confirms the product availability, a status message for App1 will be generated by Function1 or
Function2.
All the steps of the transaction will be logged to storage1.
Which type of resource should you recommend for the integration component?
A. an Azure Data Factory pipeline
B. an Azure Service Bus queue
C. an Azure Event Grid domain
D. an Azure Event Hubs capture
Correct Answer: A
A data factory can have one or more pipelines. A pipeline is a logical grouping of activities that together perform a task.
The activities in a pipeline define actions to perform on your data.
Data Factory has three groupings of activities: data movement activities, data transformation activities, and control
activities.
Azure Functions is now integrated with Azure Data Factory, allowing you to run an Azure Function as a step in your data
factory pipelines.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/concepts-pipelines-activities

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
You have an on-premises network that uses an IP address space of 172.16.0.0/16.
You plan to deploy 25 virtual machines to a new Azure subscription.
You identify the following technical requirements:
All Azure virtual machines must be placed on the same subnet named Subnet1.
All the Azure virtual machines must be able to communicate with all on-premises servers.
The servers must be able to communicate between the on-premises network and Azure by using a site-to-site VPN.
You need to recommend a subnet design that meets the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, drag the appropriate network addresses to the correct
subnets. Each network address may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Cert4sure AZ-304 exam questions-q11

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You configure the Diagnostics settings for an Azure SQL database as shown in the following exhibit.

Cert4sure AZ-304 exam questions-q12

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Cert4sure AZ-304 exam questions-q12-2

QUESTION 13
You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2019 and contains 500 GB of data files.
You are designing a solution that will use Azure Data Factory to transform the data files, and then load the files to Azure
Data Lake Storage.
What should you deploy on VM1 to support the design?
A. the Azure Pipelines agent
B. the Azure File Sync agent
C. the On-premises data gateway
D. the self-hosted integration runtime in Azure
Correct Answer: D
The integration runtime (IR) is the compute infrastructure that Azure Data Factory uses to provide data-integration
capabilities across different network environments. For details about IR, see the Integration runtime overview.
A self-hosted integration runtime can run copy activities between a cloud data store and a data store in a private
network. It also can dispatch transform activities against compute resources in an on-premises network or an Azure
virtual network. The installation of a self-hosted integration runtime needs an on-premises machine or a virtual machine
inside a private network.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/create-self-hosted-integration-runtime

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You have added a CDC Source component to the data flow to read changed data from the source
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You need to add a data flow transformation to redirect rows for separate processing of insert,
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operations.
Which data flow transformation should you use?
A. CDC Splitter
B. Audit
C. Merge Join
D. Merge
Answer: A

Explanation: The CDC splitter splits a single flow of change rows from a CDC source data flow into
different data flows
for Insert, Update and Delete operations

NO.2 You are designing an enterprise star schema that will consolidate data from three independent
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C. Create a degenerate dimension for the geography dimension.
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Answer: B

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The System Image Utility ________.
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C. Under the advanced tab in the Classic System Preferences pane, check to use Mac OS 9 preferences from your home folder.
D. In the Classic System Folder, create an alias to the Library/Preferences folder of each user’s home folder and name the alias Preferences. name, where name is the username of that user.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 09
You have added packages to a custom Network Install image. To ensure that the packages are delivered to clients that startup from the image, you must ________.
A. rename the primary package or meta-package on the install image to OSInstall.pkg
B. create a meta-package named primary.pkg that includes all of the added packages
C. edit the file /private/etc/rc.cdrom.packagePath to contain the path to the main package or metapackage
D. modify /private/etc/installconfig.xml on the disk image to point to the main install package or meta-package

Correct Answer: C

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The following are facts concerning a decedent’s estate:
Taxable estate $1.700, 000
Pre-1977 taxable gifts 200, 000
Post-1976 adjusted taxable gifts 50, 000
Post-1976 gifts made to a qualified charity 100, 000
The tentative tax base of this estate is
A – $1,700,000
B – $1,750,000
C – $1,850,000
D – $1,900,000
Answer: B
Question: 3
An executor elects to value the assets of the estate at the alternative valuation date 6 months
after death. Which of the following statements concerning the estate tax value of assets included
in this estate is correct?
A – An annuity included in the gross estate that diminishes with the mere passage of time is
includible at the date of death value.
B – Property sold before the alternate valuation date is valued at the alternate valuation date.
C – Property that has increased in value since the date of death may be valued at the date of
death if the executor so elects.
D – Property distributed under the will before the alternate valuation date is valued at the date of
death.
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Answer: A
Question: 4
A father and son have been farming land owned by the father for the past 12 years. Just prior to
his death, the father was offered $1200, 000 for his farm because of its possible use as a
shopping center. The son would like to continue to farm the land if it can be included in his
father’s estate at its current use value. Additional facts are:
1. Average annual gross rentals from nearby farms of similar acreage are $56,000.
2. The average annual state and local real estate taxes on the farm are $6,000.
3. The interest rate for loans from the Federal Land Sank is 8 percent.

For federal estate tax purposes, the farm method valuation formula would result in a current use
value for the farm of
A – $500,000
B – $600,000
C – $700,000
D – $820,000
Answer: B
Question: 5
Which of the following types of real property ownership will be deemed to be a tenancy in
common?
A – Two brothers own equal amounts of all the common stock in a corporation, the only asset of
which is real property.
B – Two brothers own equal undivided interests in a piece of real property, with each brother
being able to divest himself of his interest by sale, gift, or will.
C – Two brothers are equal partners in a general partnership that owns a piece of real property
used in the partnership business.
D – Two brothers own equal fractional interests in a piece of real property and at the death of one
of the brothers, the survivor will own the entire piece of property.
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Answer: B
Question: 6
Which of the following statements concerning property ownership by a married couple residing in
a community-property state is correct?
A – All property owned by the couple is community property.
B – Community property loses its identity when a couple moves from a community property state
to a common-law state.
C – Property inherited by one spouse during a marriage becomes community property
D – Income earned by one spouse becomes community property.
Answer: D
Question: 7
Which of the following statements concerning a simple trust is correct?
A – Income and principal may be distributed to a qualified charity.
B – It receives a special tax deduction for income distributed to its beneficiaries.
C – Income is accumulated at the discretion of the trustee.
D – It limits the number of permissible beneficiaries.
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Answer: B
Question: 8
On the advice of their attorney and accountant, Betsy and John have decided to make substantial
transfers. They would like to pass most of their considerable wealth to their grandchildren. Which
of the following statements concerning gifts made to their grandchildren is correct?
A – The GSTT annual exclusion may be utilized by Betsy and John for each grandchild during
lifetime and at death.

B – The value of Betsy and John’s GSTT exemption amounts are slightly increased when used at
death rather than during lifetime.
C – The GSTT annual exclusion is unavailable for years in which Betsy and John make tuition
gifts for the grandchildren.
D – Betsy and John may elect to split any GSTT transfers to the grandchildren.
Answer: D
Question: 9
The decedent, D, died this year. The facts concerning D estate are:
Gross estate $3,400,000
Marital deduction 0
Charitable deduction 600,000
Funeral & administration expenses 00,000
Gifts made after 1976 170,000
State death taxes payable 192,000
What is D taxable estate?
A – $2,138,000
B – $2,358,000
C – $2,528,000
D – $2,720,000
070-489 exam 
Answer: C
Question: 10
On January 1, 2004, a father gave his daughter a $200,000 straight (ordinary) life insurance policy
on his life. Premiums are paid annually. The pertinent facts about the policy are:
Date of issue: July 1, 1992
Premium paid on July 1, 2003, $3200
Terminal reserve on July 1, 2003, 20,000
Terminal reserve on July 1, 2004, 24,000
What is the value of the policy for federal gift tax purposes?
A – $ 21,600
B – $23,200
C – $23,600
D – $200,000
Answer: C
Question: 11
A married man has two adult sons. His entire estate is in excess of $1,500,000 and consists
entirely of probate assets. He wants to make certain that if he predeceases his wife she will
receive all estate income as long as she lives, and the assets remaining at her death will pass
equally to their two sons. He wants to pass all assets to this wife and sons as free of federal
estate taxes as possible. To best accomplish these objectives, the man should include which of
the following estate plans in his will?
A – Establish a QTIP trust for half his estate and bequeath the remainder to his wife
B – Establish a marital deduction trust with a general power of appointment for half his estate and

place the remainder in a QTIP trust
C – Establish a bypass trust equal to the applicable exclusion amount and place the remainder of
his estate in a QTIP trust
D – Establish a QTIP trust for his entire estate
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Answer: C
Question: 12
Among the assets in a decedent’s gross estate is stock in a closely held corporation that was left
to a nephew. The interest passing to the nephew is required to bear the burden of all estate taxes
and expenses. The relevant facts about this estate are:
Adjusted gross estate $1,200,000
The fair market value of stock in the
closely held corporation 500,000
Administration and funeral expenses 25,000
State inheritance taxes 40,000
Federal estate taxes 160,000
What amount of closely held corporate stock may be redeemed under IRC Section 303 so that
the redemption will be treated as a sale or exchange rather than a dividend distribution?
A – 0
B – $ 65,000
C – $225,000
D – $500,000
Answer: C
Question: 13
A married man died this year leaving a gross estate of $3,200,000. Additional facts concerning
his estate is:
Administration expenses and debts $ 250,000
Marital deduction 1,200,000
Applicable credit amount (2005) 555,800
Applicable exclusion amount (2005) 1,500,000
State death taxes payable 20,400
Under the Unified Rate Schedule for computing estate taxes if the amount with respect to which
the tentative tax to be computed is over$1,000,000 but not over $1,250,000, the tentative tax is
$345,800, plus 41 percent of the excess of such amount over $1,000,000. If the amount is over
$1,250,000 but not over $1,500,000, the tentative tax is then $448,300, plus 43 percent of the
excess of such amount over $1,250,000. If the amount is over $1,500,000 but not over
$2,000,000, the tentative tax is then $555,800 plus 45% of the excess of such amount over
$1,500,000. Based on these facts, the net federal estate tax payable is
A – 0
B – $103,320
C – $123,720
D – $128,280
070-489 pdf 
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Sep 08, 2017
Q&As: 503

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• Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
• Introduction to Active Directory Domain Services
• Managing Active Directory Domain Services Objects
• Automating Active Directory Domain Services Administration
• Implementing Networking Services
• Implementing Local Storage
• Implementing File and Print Services
• Implementing Group Policy
• Implementing Server Virtualization with Hyper-V

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Free Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-410 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION  1. In Report Studio, an author merges Query1 and Query2 into one result set (Query3) using a union set operator, Query1 contains two data items: Order method and Revenue, Query2 also contains two data items: Product line and Quantity sold. The author wants to display the data from Query3 in a list report, how can the author ensure that all the order method results appear together line results appear together in the report?
A. The author must add a sort key data item directly to Query3.
B. The author must sort the Order method data item in Query1 and the Product line data item in Query2.
C. The author must sort the data item in Query3 that retrieves both the Order method and Product line data. D.
The author must add a sort key data item to Query1 and Query2, and then add this sort key data item to
Query3.
070-410 exam Answer: C
QUESTION  2. Which member is used for dimensions in a package that are not referenced in the expression?
A. Tabular data includes a column for each data item in the query, No grouping is applied to the tabular
data.
B. Tabular data includes a column for each data item in the query. Grouping applied in the report layout is
also applied to the tabular data.
C. Tabular data can only include columns for data items that appear in the layout. No grouping is applied
to the tabular data.
D. Tabular data includes a column for a data item that appears in both the query and the layout. Grouping
applied in the report layout is also applied to tabular data.
Answer: A
QUESTION  3. In Report Studio, an author uses the tuple function to retrieve the intersection of members from two dimensions. Which member is used for dimensions in the package that are not referenced in the
expression?
A. No member is used.
B. The root member is always used.
C. The last sibling of the lowest member is always used.
D. The default member for that Dimension is always used.

70-410 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION  4. In Report Studio, an author wants to use a join object to create a relationship between two queries. Which of the following is true?
A. The author can use a join object to create either an inner or outer join between the queries.
B. The author can use a join object only if both queries contain data from OLAP data sources.
C. The author can use a join object only if both queries contain data from relational sources that have not
been modeled dimensionally.
D. Both queries must contain the same number of the data item, the data items must be compatible and must
appear in the same order.
Answer: D
QUESTION  5. In Event Studio, which of the following tasks are available to a report author?
A. Run an agent
B. Run an export
C. Run an import
D. Run an index update
070-410 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION  6. In Report Studio, an author wants to conditionally format a list report according to the revenue generated by each product line. The Revenue data item does not appear in the list report but is contained in Quety1. Which of the following must the author do in order to apply this conditional formatting?
A. Make the Revenue data item property of Queery1.
B. Make the Revenue data item property of the list object.
C. Make the Revenue data item property of the Page object.
D. Make the Revenue data item property of the Variable object.
Answer: B
QUESTION  7. In an OLAP package, the Years dimension appears as shown below:
If the expression for Year level in this dimension is [great_outdoors_company].[Years]. [Year].which

member will be retrieved by the following expression?
descendants(closing period([great_outdoors_company].[Years],2)
A. Each Month member for the latest year in the Year level.
B. The latest Month member for each year in the Year level.
C. Each Quarter member for the latest year in the Year level.
D. Each Month member from the latest quarter at the Quarter level.
070-410 exam questions Answer: A
QUESTION  8. In Report Studio, an author edits the SQL statement that a query uses to retrieve data for a crosstab. After editing the SQL, the author wants to add a new data item to the query. How can the author add the data item?
A. The author must convert the edited SQL back to a query object and then add the data item.
B. The author must edit the SQL statements so that the query retrieves an additional data item.
C. The author must add the data item to the query from the package displayed on the Source tab.
D. The author must add a query refers to the existing query and then add the data item to the
referenced query.
Answer: B
QUESTION  9. In Report Studio, an author creates a list report containing columns for Staff Name, Order Number, and Revenue. The author wants to burst this report to various sales staff members. Each member should see only data relating to the sales they have made. What must the author do to specify that the burst report output will contain only data for the appropriate sales staff member?
A. In the report layout, create a master-detail relationship on the Staff Name data item.
B. In the report layout, add the Staff Name data item as a property of the list object.
C. In the burst options for the report, use the Staff Name data item to specify the Burst Recipients.
D. In the burst options for the report, use the Staff Name data item to specify the Burst Groups.
70-410 dumps Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You add a 4-TB disk named Disk 5 to Server1. You need to ensure that you can create a
3-TB volume on Disk 5. What should you do?
A. Create a storage pool.
B. Convert the disk to a dynamic disk.
C. Create a VHD, and then attach the VHD.
D. Convert the disk to a GPT disk.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that has a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the File Server server role installed. You need to upgrade Server1 to Windows Server 2012 R2 with the graphical user interface (GUI). The solution must meet the following
requirements: Preserve the server roles and their configurations. Minimize Administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
B. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature.
C. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
D. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature
070-410 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to install the Remote Desktop Services server role
on Server2 remotely from Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. The dsadd.exe command
B. The Server Manager console
C. The Remote Desktop Gateway Manager console
D. The Install-RemoteAccess cmdlet
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
You have a server named Server1 that runs a full installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to uninstall the graphical user interface (GUI) on Server1.
You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Reinstall Windows Server 2012 R2 on the server.
B. From Server Manager, uninstall the User Interfaces and Infrastructure feature.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature PowerShell-ISE

D. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature Desktop-Experience.
070-410 exam questions Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual
machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

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You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to ensure that the next time VM2 restarts, you can
connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
Which virtual machine setting should you configure for VM2?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 15. In Report Studio, why would an author use a filter 70-410 dumps function when querying dimensional data?
A. To retrieve a set of members that meet a String condition.

B. To suppress a set of members that meet a String condition. C.
To retrieve a set of members that meet a Boolean condition. D.
To suppress a set of members that meet a Boolean condition.
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
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Question No: 5 CORRECT TEXT  You have a view that was created by using the following code:
070-461 dumps

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to create an inline table-valued function named Sales.fn_OrdersByTerritory,
which must meet the following 70-461 exam requirements:
Accept the @T integer parameter.
Use one-part names to reference columns.
Filter the query results by SalesTerritoryID.
Return the columns in the same order as the order used in OrdersByTerritoryView.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:
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Question No: 6 CORRECT TEXT You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

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You deploy a new server that has SQL Server 2012 installed. You need to create a table
named Sales.OrderDetails on the new server. Sales.OrderDetails must meet the following
requirements: Write the results to a disk. Contain a new column named LineItemTotal that stores the product of ListPrice
and Quantity for each row. The code must NOT use any object delimiters.
The solution must ensure that LineItemTotal is stored as the last column in the table. Which
code segment should you use? To answer, type the correct 070-461 dumps code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:

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Question No: 7 CORRECT TEXT  You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
070-461 dumps

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to create a view named uv_CustomerFullName to meet the following
requirements:
The code must NOT include object delimiters.
The view must be created in the Sales schema.
Columns must only be referenced by using one-part names.
The view must return the first name and the last name of all customers.
The view must prevent the underlying structure of the customer table from being
changed.
The view must be able to resolve all referenced objects, regardless of the user’s
default schema.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:

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Question No: 8 CORRECT TEXT  You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

070-461 dumps

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to create a query that calculates the total sales of each OrderId from the
Sales.Details table. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Use one-part names to reference columns.
Sort the order of the results from OrderId.
NOT depend on the default schema of a user.
Use an alias of TotalSales for the calculated ExtendedAmount.
Display only the OrderId column and the calculated TotalSales column.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
070-461 pdf 
Answer:
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Question No: 9. A Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) the user is also a supervisor. You want to ensure that the supervisor automatically sees only his/her agents in the following: Historical reports
Real-time displays
Contact Center Manager Server
How can this be done most effectively?
A. Configure a standard partition.
B. Configure a user-defined partition.
C. The supervisor will automatically see all of the agents.
D. Link the CCMA user to the supervisor in the reporting agents partition.
Answer: D
Question No:  10. In a deployed Contact Center Rls. 7.0 network with several sites, which condition will occur if the Network Control Center (NCC) server experiences a hardware failure that drops the server from the network?
A. all call routing and call processing in the network will stop
B. calls are routed between sites but no network call-by-call data will be transferred to the NCC
C. calls will not be routed between sites in the network
D. the Contact Center Manager Servers at each site in the network will also fail
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Answer: B
Question No: 11. In Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) Rls. 7.0, which element can be configured on the Configuration component?
A. Global Settings
B. Users
C. Agents
D. Partitions
Answer: A
Question No: 12. In Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) Rls. 7.0, which set of options specifies how statistics are
treated in reports and real-time displays?
A. Activity codes
B. Call Presentation Class
C. Skillset Assignment
D. Threshold Class
070-461 exam 
Answer: D
Question No: 13. While the Call Presentation option “After Call Break for N seconds” (break time) is in effect, which event
can cancel the break time?
A. An agent is reserved for an NACD call by the switch.
B. An agent can put directory number calls on hold for incoming ACD calls.
C. Break time between calls has been allowed and the agent returns from walk away.
D. Break time between calls has been allowed and the agent releases an individual DN call.
E. Break time between calls has been allowed and the caller abandons the call when on an agent set.
Answer: A
Question No: 14. CERTIFICATION REQUIREMENTS
(A)Obtaining Certification:
To obtain certification in any of the RSA Certified Security Professional designations, You must
successfully comply with the initial certification requirements for that designation. Certification
requirements are available on the RSA Certification Web site, or available from RSA, The Security
Division of EMC at the address specified herein. By sending You the RSA Certified Security
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Professional designations and RSA Certified Security Professional Logos and Guidelines at any time.
You are responsible for periodically checking the RSA Certified Security Professional website for
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termination of this Agreement.
(C)Transfer of Certification:
You shall not transfer or share Your RSA Certified Security Professional certification and the benefits
of such certification to or with another person or entity.
Question No: 15.USE OF RSA CERTIFIED SECURITY PROFESSIONAL DESIGNATIONS and LOGOS
Your successful completion of the initial certification requirements, and so long as You remain in
compliance with all applicable continuing certification requirements, RSA, The Security Division of
EMC hereby authorizes You to use the RSA Certified Security Professional designation 070-461 exam for which You have obtained certification, as indicated in the RSA Certified Security Professional Welcome Kit which includes this RSA Certified Security Professional Agreement and the RSA Certified Security
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shall operate to give You any right, title or interest in the 070-461 pdf RSA Certified Security Professional
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shall take no action that may interfere with or diminish RSA’s rights in the RSA Certified Security
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You are configuring two Windows 10 Enterprise client computers: A desktop computer named COMPUTER1 and a portable computer named COMPUTER2. You have the following requirements: You need to configure the computers to meet the requirements. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. From COMPUER2, connect to COMPUTER1 and configure the Data folder to always be available offline.
B. From COMPUTER1, connect to COMPUTER2 and configure the Data folder to always be available offline.
C. In Sync Center, configure a schedule for offline files.
D. From COMPUTER2, map a network drive to the Data folder onCOMPUTER1.
E. In Sync Center, set up a new sync partnership.
70-697 exam Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 2
You are an IT professional for a bank. All of the user’s files on the external drives are encrypted by using EFS. You replace a user’s computer with a new Windows 10 Enterprise computer. The user needs to connect her external hard drive to the new computer. You have the original computer’s certificate and key. You need to import the certificate and key onto the new computer. Into which certificate store should you import the certificate and key?
A. Untrusted Certificates
B. Trusted Root Certification Authorities
C. Personal
D. Trusted Publishers
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 3
You support Windows 10 Enterprise computers in a workgroup. You have configured a local AppLocker policy to prevent users from running versions of app.exe previous to v9.4. Users are still able to run app.exe. You need to block users from running app.exe by using the minimum administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Change the Application Identity service startup mode to automatic and start the service.
B. Configure enforcement for Windows Installed rules.
C. Configure a Software Restriction Policy publisher rule.
D. Run the GPupdate /force command in a relevant command prompt.
70-697 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft Intune subscription. You need to uninstall the Intune agent from a computer. What should you do?
A. From the Groups node in the Microsoft Intune administration portal, click Delete.
B. From the computer, run the provisioningutil.exe command.
C. From the computer, run the cltui.exe command.
D. From the computer, use Programs and Features in Control Panel.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer A is close but incorrect. You would need to select Retire/Wipe, not Delete.

QUESTION 5
You administer Windows 10 Enterprise tablets that are members of an Active Directory domain. Your company policy allows users to download and install only certain few Windows Store apps. You have created a new AppLocker Packaged Apps policy to help enforce the company policy. You need to test the new AppLocker Packaged Apps policy before you implement it for the entire company. What should you do?
A. Open PowerShell and run the Get–AppLockerPolicy –Effective cmdlet to retrieve the AppLocker effective policy.
B. Open Group Policy Management console and enforce the new AppLocker policy in Audit Only mode.
C. Open Group Policy Management console and run the Group Policy Modeling Wizard.
D. Open Group Policy Management console and run the Group Policy Results Wizard.
70-697 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All client computers run Windows 10 Enterprise and are joined to the domain. Corporate police prohibits homegroups on the corporate network.
You need to ensure that client computer network adapter settings do not support joining a homegroup.
What should you do?
A. Disable IPv6.
B. Disable IPv4.
C. Enable IPv6.
D. Enable IPv4.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
You have an unsecured wireless network for users to connect to from their personal Windows 10 devices. You need to prevent Wi-Fi Sense from sharing information about the unsecured wireless network. What should you do?
A. Configure the SSID of the unsecured wireless to contain _optout.
B. Instruct the users to disable Internet Protocol Version 6 (TCP/IPv6) on their wireless network adapters.
C. Configure the SSID of the guest wireless to be hidden.
D. Instruct the users to turn off Network Discovery on their devices.
70-697 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have an application named App1 installed on a computer named Computer1. Computer1 runs Windows 10. App1 saves data to %UserProfile%\App1\Data. You need to ensure that you can recover the App1 data if Computer1 fails. What should you configure?
A. share permissions
B. application control policies
C. Encrypting File System (EFS) settings
D. NTFS permissions
E. HomeGroup settings
F. Microsoft OneDrive
G. software restriction policies
H. account policies
Correct Answer: F
Explanation

QUESTION 9
You have a computer named Client1. Client1 is joined to an Active Directory domain. You need to join Client1 to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. What should you do first?
A. From the Local Group Policy Editor, modify the Add workstations to domain policy.
B. From the network adapter properties, modify the DNS suffix.
C. From System Control Panel, configure the computer to be a member of a workgroup.
D. From the System in the Settings app, modify the sign-in options.
70-697 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computers run Windows 10 Enterprise and Microsoft Office 2013. All of the computers are joined to the domain. Your company purchases a subscription to Office 365. An administrator creates an Office 365 account for each user and deploys a federated solution for Office 365. You need to prevent the users from being prompted for a user account and a password each time they access services from Office 365. Which account should you instruct the users to use when they sign in to their computer?
A. a Microsoft account
B. a local user account
C. an Office 365 account
D. a contoso.com account
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 11
You administer computers that run Windows 10 Enterprise and are members of an Active Directory domain. The computers are encrypted with BitLocker and are configured to store BitLocker encryption passwords in Active Directory. A user reports that he has forgotten the BitLocker encryption password for volume E on his computer. You need to provide the user a BitLocker recovery key to unlock the protected volume. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Ask the user for his computer name.
B. Ask the user to run the manage–bde –unlock E: –pw command.
C. Ask the user for his logon name.
D. Ask the user for a recovery key ID for the protected volume.
70-697 dumps Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: To view the recovery passwords fora computer you would need the computer name: In Active Directory Users and Computers, locate and then click the container in which the computer is located. Right-click the computer object, and then click Properties. In the Properties dialog box, click the BitLocker Recovery tab to view the BitLocker recovery passwords that are associated with the particular computer.

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have a computer that runs Windows 10 and is used by 10 users. The computer is joined to an Active Directory domain. All of the users are members of the Administrators group. Each user has an Active Directory account. You have a Microsoft Word document that contains confidential information. You need to ensure that you are the only user who can open the document. What should you configure?
A. account policies
B. application control policies
C. HomeGroup settings
D. software restriction policies
E. NTFS permissions
F. Microsoft OneDrive
G. share permissions
H. Encrypting File System (EFS) settings
Correct Answer: H
Explanation

QUESTION 13
A company has 100 Windows 10 Enterprise client computers. The client computers are members of a workgroup.
A custom application requires a Windows Firewall exception on each client computer. You need to configure the exception on the client computers without affecting existing firewall settings. Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run on each client computer?
A. Set–NetetFirewallRule
B. New–NetetFirewallRule
C. New–NetetIPSecMairModeRule
D. Set–NetetFirewallProfile
E. Set–NetetFirewallSetting
70-697 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
You administer Windows 10 Enterprise. Your network includes an Active Directory domain and a standalone server in a perimeter network that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. Your company purchases five new tablets that run Windows 8. The tablets will be used to access domain resources and shared folders located on the standalone server. You need to implement single sign-on (SSO) authentication for tablet users. You also need to ensure that you can audit personnel access to the shared folder. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create a new Microsoft account for each user.
B. Ensure that the local account for each user on the stand-alone server uses the same password as the corresponding Microsoft account.
C. Join the tablets to a domain.
D. Join the tablets to the same workgroup as the stand-alone server.
E. Enable a guest account on the stand-alone server.
F. On the stand-alone server, create user accounts that have the same logon names and passwords as the user domain accounts.
Correct Answer: CF
Explanation

QUESTION 15
You support Windows 10 Enterprise computers. Your company protects all laptops by using the BitLocker Network Unlock feature. Some employees work from home. You need to ensure that employees can log on to their laptops when they work from home. What should you do?
A. Have users run the Manage–bde.exe –unlock command before they disconnect from the company network.
B. Ensure that the Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chips in the laptops are version 1.2 or greater.
C. Enable BitLocker to Go.
D. Provide employees with their BitLocker PINs.
70-697 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam Code: 70-697
Exam Name: Configuring Windows Devices
Q&As: 186

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