Month: August 2016
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QUESTION 135
In a distributed management environment, the administrator has removed all default check boxes from the Policy / Global Properties / Firewall tab. In order for the Security Gateway to send logs to the Security Management Server, an explicit rule must be created to allow the Security Gateway to communicate to the Security Management Server on port ______.
A. 259
B. 257 “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 54 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
C. 900
D. 256
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 136
Examine the following Security Policy. What, if any, changes could be made to accommodate Rule 4?
A. Nothing at all
B. Modify the Source or Destination columns in Rule 4
C. Remove the service HTTPS from the Service column in Rule A
D. Modify the VPN column in Rule 2 to limit access to specific traffic
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 137
A Security Policy has several database versions. What configuration remains the same no matter which version is used?
A. Rule Bases_5_0.fws “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 55 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
B. Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) certificate
C. Fwauth.NDB
D. Objects_5_0.C
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 138
You are working with multiple Security Gateways that enforce an extensive number of rules. To simplify Security administration, which one of the following would you choose to do?
A. Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway
B. Run separate SmartConsole instances to login and configure each Security Gateway directly
C. Eliminate all possible contradictory rules such as the Stealth or Cleanup rules
D. Create network objects that restrict all applicable rules to only certain networks
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 139
You are working with multiple Security Gateways that enforce a common set of rules. To minimize the number of policy packages, which one of the following would you choose to do?
A. Install a separate local Security Management Server and SmartConsole for each remote Security Gateway.
B. Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway and specify Install On / Gateways.
C. Create a single Security Policy package with Install On / Target defined whenever a unique rule is required for a specific Gateway.
D. Run separate SmartDashbord instance to login and configure each Security Gateway directly.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 140
Which rules are not applied on a first-match basis?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 56 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
A. Cleanup
B. User Authentication
C. Session Authentication
D. Client Authentication
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 141
Installing a policy usually has no impact on currently existing connections. Which statement is TRUE?
A. Users being authenticated by Client Authentication have to re-authenticate.
B. Site-to-Site VPNs need to re-authenticate, so Phase 1 is passed again after installing the Security Policy.
C. All FTP downloads are reset; users have to start their downloads again.
D. All connections are reset, so a policy install is recommended during announced downtime only.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 142
Several Security Policies can be used for different installation targets. The firewall protecting Human Resources’ servers should have a unique Policy Package. These rules may only be installed on this machine and not accidentally on the Internet firewall. How can this be configured?
A. A Rule Base is always installed on all possible targets. The rules to be installed on a firewall are defined by the selection in the row Install On of the Rule Base.
B. When selecting the correct firewall in each line of the row Install On of the Rule Base, only this firewall is shown in the list of possible installation targets after selecting Policy > Install.
C. In the SmartDashboard main menu go to Policy / Policy Installation / Targets and select the correct firewall to be put into the list via Specific Targets.
D. A Rule Base can always be installed on any Check Point firewall object It is necessary to select the appropriate target directly after selecting Policy > Install.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 143
Which of these security policy changes optimize Security Gateway performance?
A. Use Automatic NAT rules instead of Manual NAT rules whenever possible
B. Putting the least-used rule at the top of the Rule Base
C. Using groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base
D. Using domain objects in rules when possible
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 144
Your perimeter Security Gateway’s external IP is 200.200.200.3. Your network diagram shows:
RequireD. Allow only network 192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 to go out to the Internet, using 200.
200.200.5.
The local network 192.168.1.0/24 needs to use 200.200.200.3 to go out to the Internet.
Assuming you enable all the settings in the NAT page of Global Properties, how could you achieve these requirements?
A. Create a network object 192.168.0.0/16. Enable Hide NAT on the NAT page. Enter 200.200.200.5 as the hiding IP address. Add and ARP entry for 200.200.200.5 for the MAC “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.”
-www.actualtests.com 58 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
address of 200.200.200.3.
B. Create network objects for 192.168.10.0/24 and 192.168.20.0/24. Enable Hide NAT on both network objects, using 200.200.200.5 as hiding IP address Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.3 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.5.
C. Create an Address Range object, starting from 192.168.10.1 to 192.168.20.254. Enable Hide NAT on the NAT page of the address range object. Enter Hiding IP address 200.200.200.5. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.5 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.3.
D. Create two network objects: 192.168.10.0/24. and 192.168.20.0/24. Add the two network objects. Create a manual NAT rule like the following Original source 璯roup object; Destination ?any Service ? any, Translated source ?200.200.200.5; Destination ?original, Service ?original.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 145
Because of a pre-existing design constraints, you set up manual NAT rules for your HTTP server. However, your FTP server and SMTP server are both using automatic NAT rules. All traffic from your FTP and SMTP servers are passing through the Security Gateway without a problem, but traffic from the Web server is dropped on rule 0 because of anti-spoofing settings. What is causing this?
A. Allow bi-directional NAT is not checked in Global Properties.
B. Manual NAT rules are not configured correctly.
C. Translate destination on client side is not checked in Global Properties under manual NAT rules.
D. Routing is not configured correctly.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 146
You enable Hide NAT on the network object, 10.1.1.0 behind the Security Gateway’s external interface. You browse to from host, 10.1.1.10 successfully. You enable a log on the rule that allows 10.1.1.0 to exit the network. How many log entries do you see for that connection in SmartView Tracker?
A. Only one, outbound
B. Two, one for outbound, one for inbound “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 59 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
C. Only one, inbound
D. Two, both outbound, one for the real IP connection and one for the NAT IP connection
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 147
Which of the following statements BEST describes Check Point’s Hide Network Address Translation method?
A. Many-to-one NAT which implements PAT (Port Address Translation) for accomplishing both Source and Destination IP address translation
B. Translates many destination IP addresses into one destination IP address
C. Translates many source IP addresses into one source IP address
D. One-to-one NAT which implements PAT (Port Address Translation) for accomplishing both Source and Destination IP address translation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 148
Which Check Point address translation method allows an administrator to use fewer ISP-assigned IP addresses than the number of internal hosts requiring Internet connectivity?
A. Static Destination B. Hide
C. Dynamic Destination
D. Static Source
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 149
NAT can NOT be configured on which of the following objects?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 60 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
A. Address Range
B. HTTP Logical Server
C. Host
D. Gateway
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 150
NAT can be implemented on which of the following lists of objects?
A. Host, Network
B. Host, User
C. Domain, Network
D. Network, Dynamic Object
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 151
Which Check Point address translation method is necessary if you want to connect from a host on the Internet via HTTP to a server with a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address on your DMZ?
A. Static Destination Address Translation
B. Port Address Translation
C. Dynamic Source Address Translation
D. Hide Address Translation
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 152
You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an internal Web Server that has a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address. You have an unused valid IP address on the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router. You control the router that sits between the external interface of the firewall and the Internet.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 61 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot be used on your Security Gateway?
A. Place a static host route on the firewall for the valid IP address to the internal Web server.
B. Place a static ARP entry on the ISP router for the valid IP address to the firewall’s external address.
C. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
D. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal Web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 153
After implementing Static Address Translation to allow Internet traffic to an internal Web Server on your DMZ, you notice that any NATed connections to that machine are being dropped by anti- spoofing protections. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY cause?
A. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked. But the topology on the external interface is set to External.Change topology to Others +.
B. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the external interface is set to Others +. Change topology to External
C. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal -Network defined by IP and Mask Uncheck the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side
D. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal – Network defined by IP and Mask. Check the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 154
Which NAT option applicable for Automatic NAT applies to Manual NAT as well?
A. Allow bi-directional NAT
B. Automatic ARP configuration
C. Enable IP Pool NAT
D. Translate destination on client-side “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 62 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 155
Your main internal network 10.10.10.0/24 allows all traffic to the Internet using Hide NAT. You also have a small network 10.10.20.0/24 behind the internal router. You want to configure the kernel to translate the source address only when network 10.10.20.0 tries to access the Internet for HTTP, SMTP, and FTP services. Which of the following configurations will allow this network to access the Internet?
A. Configure three Manual Static NAT rules for network 10.10.20.0/24, one for each service
B. Configure one Manual Hide NAT rule for HTTP, FTP, and SMTP services for network 10.10.20.0/24
C. Configure Automatic Hide NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24 and then edit the Service column in the NAT Rule Base on the automatic rule
D. Configure Automatic Static NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 156
You have three servers located in a DMZ, using private IP addresses. You want internal users from
10.10.10.x to access the DMZ servers by public IP addresses. Internal_net 10.10.10.x is configured for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway’s external interface.
What is the best configuration for 10.10.10.x users to access the DMZ servers, using the DMZ servers’ public IP addresses?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 63 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam A. When connecting to the Internet, configure manual Static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers
B. When the source is the internal network 10.10.10.x, configure manual static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers.
C. When connecting to internal network 10 10.10 x. configure Hide NAT for the DMZ servers.
D. When connecting to the internal network 10.10.10x, configure Hide Nat for the DMZ network behind the DMZ interface of the Security Gateway
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 157
An internal host initiates a session to and is set for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway. The initiating traffic is an example of __________.
A. None of these
B. source NAT
C. destination NAT
D. client side NAT
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 158
A host on the Internet initiates traffic to the Static NAT IP of your Web server behind the Security Gateway. With the default settings in place for NAT, the initiating packet will translate the_________.
A. source on client side
B. destination on server side
C. destination on client side
D. source on server side
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 159
A Web server behind the Security Gateway is set to Automatic Static NAT. Client side NAT is not checked in the Global Properties. A client on the Internet initiates a session to the Web Server. Assuming there is a rule allowing this traffic, what other configuration must be done to allow the traffic to reach the Web server?
A. Automatic ARP must be unchecked in the Global Properties.
B. A static route must be added on the Security Gateway to the internal host.
C. Nothing else must be configured.
D. A static route for the NAT IP must be added to the Gateway’s upstream router.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 160
When translation occurs using automatic Hide NAT, what also happens?
A. Nothing happens.
B. The source port is modified.
C. The destination port is modified.
D. The destination is modified. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 65 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 161
The fw monitor utility is used to troubleshoot which of the following problems?
A. Phase two key negotiation
B. User data base corruption
C. Address translation
D. Log Consolidation Engine
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 162
The fw monitor utility would be best to troubleshoot which of the following problems?
A. An error occurs when editing a network object in SmartDashboard
B. A statically NATed Web server behind a Security Gateway cannot be reached from the Internet.
C. You get an invalid ID error in SmartView Tracker for phase 2 IKE key negotiations.
D. A user in the user database is corrupt.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 163
Looking at the SYN packets in the Wireshark output, select the statement that is true about NAT.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 66 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
A. There is not enough information provided in the Wireshark capture to determine NAT settings.
B. This is an example hide NAT.
C. There is an example of Static NAT and translate destination on client side unchecked in Global Properties.
D. This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side checked in Global Properties.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 164
In SmartDashboard, Translate destination on client side is checked in Global Properties. When Network Address Translation is used:
A. It is necessary to add a static route to the Gateway’s routing table.
B. The Security Gateway’s ARP file must be modified.
C. It is not necessary to add a static route to the Gateway’s routing table.
D. VLAN tagging cannot be defined for any hosts protected by the Gateway.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 165
Secure Internal Communications (SIC) is completely NAT-tolerant because it is based on:
A. MAC addresses.
B. SIC names.
C. SIC is not NAT-tolerant. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 67 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
D. IP addresses.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 166
Static NAT connections, by default, translate on which firewall kernel inspection point?
A. Post-inbound
B. Eitherbound
C. Inbound
D. Outbound
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 167
In a Hide NAT connection outbound, which portion of the packet is modified?
A. Source IP address and destination port
B. Destination IP address and destination port
C. Source IP address and source port
D. Destination IP address and destination port
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 168
You are MegaCorp’s Security Administrator. There are various network objects which must be NATed. Some of them use the Automatic Hide NAT method, while others use the Automatic Static NAT method. What is the order of the rules if both methods are used together? Give the best answer.
A. The Administrator decides on the order of the rules by shifting the corresponding rules up and down. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 68
Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
B. The Static NAT rules have priority over the Hide NAT rules and the NAT on a node has priority over the NAT on a network or an address range
C. The Hide NAT rules have priority over the Static NAT rules and the NAT on a node has priority over the NAT on a network or an address range
D. The position of the rules depends on the time of their creation. The rules created first are placed at the top; rules created later are placed successively below the others.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 169
Which answers are TRUE? Automatic Static NAT CANNOT be used when:
i) NAT decision is based on the destination port
ii) Source and Destination IP both have to be translated
iii) The NAT rule should only be installed on a dedicated Gateway only
iv) NAT should be performed on the server side
A. (i), (ii), and (iii)
B. (i), and (ii)
C. (ii) and (iv)
D. only (i)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 170
In order to have full control, you decide to use Manual NAT entries instead of Automatic NAT rules. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. When using Static NAT, you must enter ARP entries for the Gateway on all hosts that are using the NAT Gateway with that Gateway’s internal interface IP address.
B. When using Static NAT, you must add proxy ARP entries to the Gateway for all hiding addresses.
C. If you chose Automatic NAT instead, all necessary entries are done for you.
D. When using Dynamic Hide NAT with an address that is not configured on a Gateway interface, “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 69 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam you need to add a proxy ARP entry for that address.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 171
After filtering a fw monitor trace by port and IP, a packet is displayed three times; in the i, I, and o inspection points, but not in the O inspection point. Which is the likely source of the issue?
A. The packet has been sent out through a VPN tunnel unencrypted.
B. An IPSO ACL has blocked the outbound passage of the packet.
C. A SmartDefense module has blocked the packet
D. It is an issue with NAT
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 172
A marketing firm’s networking team is trying to troubleshoot user complaints regarding access to audio-streaming material from the Internet. The networking team asks you to check the object and rule configuration settings for the perimeter Security Gateway. Which SmartConsole application should you use to check these objects and rules?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartDashboard
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 173
Which statement below describes the most correct strategy for implementing a Rule Base?
A. Add the Stealth Rule before the last rule. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 70 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
B. Umit grouping to rules regarding specific access.
C. Place the most frequently used rules at the top of the Policy and the ones that are not frequently used further down.
D. Place a network-traffic rule above the administrator access rule.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 174
Which of the following is a viable consideration when determining Rule Base order?
A. Grouping authentication rules with address-translation rules
B. Grouping rules by date of creation
C. Grouping reject and drop rules after the Cleanup Rule
D. Grouping functionally related rules together
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 175
Which of the following is a viable consideration when determining Rule Base order?
A. Adding SAM rules at the top of the Rule Base
B. Placing frequently accessed rules before less frequently accessed rules
C. Grouping rules by date of creation
D. Grouping IPS rules with dynamic drop rules
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 176
Which of the following is a viable consideration when determining Rule Base order?
A. Grouping IPS rules with dynamic drop rules
B. Grouping reject and drop rules after the Cleanup Rule “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” -www.actualtests.com 71 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
C. Placing more restrictive rules before more permissive rules
D. Grouping authentication rules with QOS rules
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 177
You would use the Hide Rule feature to:
A. Make rules invisible to incoming packets.
B. View only a few rules without the distraction of others
C. Hide rules from read-only administrators.
D. Hide rules from a SYN/ACK attack.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 178
When you add a resource object to a rule, which of the following occurs?
A. All packets that match the resource will be dropped.
B. All packets matching that rule are either encrypted or decrypted by the defined resource.
C. All packets matching the resource service are analyzed through an application-layer proxy.
D. Users attempting to connect to the destination of the rule will be required to authenticate.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 179
You are a Security Administrator using one Security Management Server managing three different firewalls. One of the firewalls does NOT show up in the dialog box when attempting to install a Security Policy. Which of the following is a possible cause?
A. The firewall object has been created but SIC has not yet been established.
B. The license for this specific firewall has expired. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 72 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
C. The firewall has failed to sync with the Security Management Server for 60 minutes.
D. The firewall is not listed in the Policy Installation Targets screen for this policy package.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 180
Your shipping company uses a custom application to update the shipping distribution database. The custom application includes a service used only to notify remote sites that the distribution database is malfunctioning. The perimeter Security Gateway’s Rule Base includes a rule to accept this traffic. Since you are responsible for multiple sites, you want notification by a text message to your cellular phone, whenever traffic is accepted on this rule. Which of the following would work BEST for your purpose?
A. SmartView Monitor Threshold
B. SNMP trap
C. Logging implied rules
D. User-defined alert script
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 181
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To ensure project success, what do teams need to pay attention to? (Choose two.)
A. creating a Use Case Diagram for the requirements
B. involving users as early as possible
C. creating a clear statement of business objectives
D. reviewing and validating requirements with stakeholders to achieve a shared vision and concurrence
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 2
What does a business process diagram represent?
A. global processes
B. enterprise processes
C. organizational processes
D. company to company processes
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 3
With the appropriate privileges, which three actions can users take to manipulate folders? (Choose three.)
A. move artifacts between folders within the same project area
B. move folders within a project within the same project area
C. copy folders from one project area to another
D. delete folders within a project within the same project area
E. link folders between project areas
Answer: B,D
Which valid system files can be uploaded to a Rational Requirements Composer project?
A. Word, Excel, CSV, and HTML only
B. Word, Excel, HTML, and images only
C. Word, Excel, CSV, HTML, and images
D. Word, Excel, HTML, and images only
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 5
Which detailed requirements do use cases contain?
A. functional requirements
B. non-functional requirements
C. testable requirements
D. feature requirements
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 6
Which two capabilities in Rational Requirements Composer allow authors to create and modify artifact content, attributes, and links in the Artifact editor? (Choose two.)
A. artifact format
B. Open Artifact checkbox
C. Edit button
D. double-clicking the artifact
E. right-clicking the artifact
Answer: B,C
Which two actions can be taken against each artifact under review? (Choose two.)
A. approve
B. pass
C. disapprove
D. reject
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 8
Which statement best describes the process of creating saved filters?
A. Saved filters are created, and then you define the filters that go into it.
B. After you have defined your collection, you can then decide which artifacts appear in the saved filter.
C. After you have created your artifacts, you can associate the artifacts to your filter.
D. After you have defined filter criteria, you can save the filter for future use.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 9
What does the use case model consists of?
A. actors and use cases
B. diagrams only
C. text only
D. diagrams and text
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
An administrator wants to prevent a user role from updating project and personal dashboards.
Where should the administrator manage this from?
A. Manage Project Properties
B. Open My Personal Dashboard (default)
C. Manage this Project Area
D. Lifecycle Project Administration
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 11
Where is a process performed?
A. only within a company
B. within or across companies only
C. within or across organizations only
D. within or across companies and organizations
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
When does a review reach the Finalized state?
A. when all required reviewers have marked the review complete
B. when all required reviewers have Approved, Disapproved, or Abstained on all artifacts in the review
C. when all required reviewers have marked the review complete, and the review creator has clicked the Finalize Review button
D. when all required reviewers have marked all artifacts Approved
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
Besides derivation and impact analysis, what does traceability support?
A. elaboration, progress analysis, and lifecycle coverage analysis
B. progress analysis and lifecycle coverage analysis only
C. elaboration and progress analysis only
D. elaboration and lifecycle coverage analysis only
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14
A business analyst on a project wants to identify which requirements were changed last week by a specific team member. Which attributes should be selected and filtered to only display those artifacts?
A. Name and Last modified on
B. Name and Status
C. Last modified on and Last modified by
D. Created on and Created by
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 15
Which three OSLC link types would be used in a Saved Filter to get Lifecycle Traceability across the Collaborative Lifecycle Management (CLM) solution from Rational Requirements Composer? (Choose three.)
A. Tracked by
B. Validated by
C. Implemented by
D. Developed by
E. Tested by
Answer: A,B,C
After an artifact is embedded in another artifact, which two controls can be used to manipulate the embedded requirement? (Choose two.)
A. hide
B. show
C. maximize
D. delete
E. minimize
Answer: C,E
QUESTION NO: 17
A requirements collection has been completed by the business analysts, and is now ready for the development team to start working. What should the business analyst link to?
A. Requirement Implementation plan
B. Development plan
C. Test plan
D. User Story
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
Which lifecycle states do both formal and informal reviews have?
A. New, In progress, Reviewed, Complete
B. Draft, In progress, Paused, Reviewed, Finalized
C. New, Under review, Reviewed, Finalized
D. Draft, Under review, Paused, Complete, Finalized
Answer: B
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Question No : 1
What is the annotation for local interface?
A. @local
B. @localInterface
C. @Interface
D. @ejbLocal
Answer: A
Question No : 2
Which two are Session Bean interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. local interface
B. remote interface
C. provider interface
D. external interface
Answer: A,B
Question No : 3
A developer needs to check the state of one of the JSF Managed Beans when an application is paused. Although all Managed Beans (and other scoped objects) can be found by looking at the FacesContext object available in the Variables view, finding the objects this way can be difficult and time consuming. What is the simplest way for a developer to check the state of scoped objects and view attributes?
A. create matches for scoped objects and view attributes and view the values at the Expression window
B. print the report of the scoped objects and view attributes, then filter the scoped object out of the list
C. execute the pauseTime.bat under the install_root/eclipse/plug-ins/scopedValue, which will print the values of the scoped objects and view attributes
D. enable the runtime JVMPI values for the variables
Answer: A Question No : 4
A developer needs to debug an application. What can the developer do to get the debug perspective on Rational Application Developer?
A. select Window -> Open Perspective -> (Other) -> Debug
B. select Window -> New Perspective -> Open -> Debug
C. select Window -> Debug
D. select Window -> Application -> Open -> Debug
Answer: A
Question No : 5
What is an example of an application component type?
A. Applet
B. Web Module
C. Resource Adapter
D. Deployment Descriptor
Answer: A
Question No : 6
Web 2.0 technologies improve the user interface of web-based applications and RAD8 provides support for several of these technologies. Which two technologies supported by RAD8 are provided to make Web 2.0 easier? (Choose two.)
A. Dojo Javascript library
B. Web Security Editor
C. Ajax Proxy
D. Dynamic Page Template support (Tiles)
Answer: A,C Question No : 7
A development team is starting a new web application project and building a set of servlets for the first time. Which two methods can be used to create an initial set of servlets for the project? (Choose two.)
A. take an existing Java class and select the Refactor to servlet option and follow the wizard screens to configure the project and servlet parameters
B. create a new class that extends java.com.servlet in a Java project and add the project to the web project as a Java utility project
C. create a new class that extends java.com.servlet and add a “servlet” entry to the web application deployment descriptor
D. create a new class that extends java.com.servlet and add a “servlet” annotation
Answer: C,D
Question No : 8
Which statement is true about displaying perspectives in a Rational Application Developer workbench window?
A. Multiple perspectives can be open, but you can interact with only one in each workbench window.
B. Perspectives can be arranged and viewed simultaneously in the workbench.
C. Perspectives can be tiled into a single view.
D. A single perspective per workbench can be open.
Answer: A
Question No : 9
A developer needs to debug the application RAD8EJBWeb containing redbank.jsp on the server using Rational Application Developer. What can be done to accomplish this task?
A. right-click redbank.jsp and select Debug As -> Debug on Server
B. create a software analyzer configuration and run it
C. right-click redbank.jsp and select Profile As -> Profile on Server
D. Open the Debug perspective as it automatically starts a debug session
Answer: A
Question No : 10
What is WSDL?
A. Web Service Description Language
B. Web Server Description Language
C. Web Simple Description Language
D. Web Service Data Language
Answer: A
Question No : 11
A developer wants to create a Java project in the current workspace. To accomplish this using the workbench menu options, what does the developer do?
A. selects File > New > Java class and types in the Java project name, Workspace name, Package name, and Class name
B. selects File > New > Java project, types in a project name, and selects “Use default location”
C. selects Project > Generate Java project, and types in a name for the project
D. selects Workspace > New Java project
Answer: B
Question No : 12
What are the two JMS destination types available when creating a Message Driven Bean in RAD 8? (Choose two.)
A. Queue
B. Subscription
C. Bean Managed
D. Container Managed
E. Topic
Answer: A,E
Question No : 13
A web application uses a set of Java classes, which are also used by several other web applications. The application designers want to separate out this logic into its own component to allow reuse and still give the developers the ability to edit the code in those classes as the project progresses. What is the best way to achieve this?
A. create a new Java project, export it as a JAR, and import it into the web project into the lib folder
B. copy the Java source code into the web project as into the Java folder
C. create a new Java project and add this project to the deployment assembly list
D. encapsulate the Java logic in an EJB and invoke this from the web project
Answer: C
Question No : 14
Which web services client type can you create in RAD 8?
A. Java Proxy
B. Service Proxy
C. Web Proxy
D. EJB Proxy
Answer: A
Question No : 15
A developer needs to debug a javascript on Rational Application Developer with Firefox with firebug as the default web browser. What does the developer do to debug the javascript?
A. set breakpoint on the javascript and debug on the server
B. on the Firefox window, select Preferences -> IDE -> Accept breakpoints -> Enable breakpoints C. on the Firefox window when the page loads, press F5 to enable breakpoints on the javascript
D. on the Firefox window, select Preferences -> Accept breakpoints -> Enable breakpoints
Answer: A
Question No : 16
How does a developer use the Rational Application Developer workbench capabilities to display the Javadoc comments of a class in the Java editor?
A. open a browser and use Google
B. select File > Class > Information
C. select Window > Show View > Javadoc
D. double-click the class in the editor
Answer: C
Question No : 17
To create a new database connection using the Rational Application Developer, which view must be opened?
A. Connection Explorer
B. Data Source Explorer
C. Package Explorer
D. Project Explorer
Answer: B
Question No : 18
A project designer is considering using Dojo as the mechanism for building a Web 2.0 interface. What are three benefits of using the Dojo toolkit with Rational Application Developer? (Choose three.)
A. provides a large set of pre-built Dojo widgets that can be used in web pages B. provides full support for all browsers even without javascript
C. provides support for several data exchange mechanisms depending on the server side implementation
D. provides the capability to develop your own Dojo widgets
E. provides libraries for web application security
Answer: A,C,D
Question No : 19
Each server profile created with Rational Application Developer has its own what?
A. libraries
B. runtime scripts
C. administrative console
D. Java runtime environment
Answer: C
Question No : 20
Which attribute must be defined in JPA Explorer to test JPA entities within UTC?
A. JPA project name
B. JPA test project name
C. name of a created JPA entity
D. persistence-unit name
Answer: D
Question No : 21
A developer has completed a web project but has not applied any security mechanism. Currently all the pages are open for anyone to access. Which two can be configured using the RAD8 Security Editor? (Choose two.)
A. a list of roles and the resources the roles can access
B. the web page to use for login and error
C. the user authentication mechanism used for the application
D. the link between the web application and an external directory (e.g., Microsoft Active Directory)
Answer: A,C
Question No : 22
An organization is considering using Web 2.0 technologies in all projects in order to improve their web applications. Which application would benefit most from the use of Web
2.0 technologies?
A. a web services project
B. an EJB application that implements a banking backend application
C. an existing JSF-based application that has been completed but has serious performance problems
D. an existing web-based application where the user interface is being revitalized
Answer: D
Question No : 23
With Rational Application Developer workbench, what can a developer open only one at a time?
A. workspace
B. view
C. perspective
D. window
Answer: A
Question No : 24
Which term refers to the set of files that defines the runtime environment of a WebSphere Application Server?
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QUESTION 1
What element relates “what” is needed from the system to “how” the system delivers those needs?
A. Stakeholder requests
B. Use cases
C. Design constraints
D. Actors
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
What term identifies a person who is materially affected by the outcomes of a system?
A. Actor
B. Manager
C. Stakeholder
D. Customer
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
What is the purpose of a problem analysis?
A. Understand the root causes of a problem
B. Avoid customer misunderstandings
C. Identify constraints
D. Understand the stakeholder’s needs
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
Which of the following are benefits of using a standard template for a Vision document? (Select all that apply.)
A. Authors can organize sections in the document to suit the individual project.
B. Authors can reuse the work of others, rather than starting from a blank page.
C. Documents appear familiar.
D. Users with update permission can change the document.
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 5
What element relates “what” is needed from the system to “how” the system delivers those needs?
A. Design constraints
B. Use cases
C. Stakeholder requests
D. Actors
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
What does a non-functional requirement specify?
A. How the solution interacts with the outside world
B. How to fulfill stakeholder requests
C. Quality attributes of the system
D. Process used to build the system
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
What is a design constraint of a system?
A. Imposed limitation
B. Suggestion for a class or object
C. Non-functional requirement
D. Functional requirement
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which of the following are benefits of using attributes to manage requirements? (Select all that apply.)
A. Assign resources to requirements
B. Obtain status information about the requirements
C. Enforce keywords such as “shall” and “must” in the requirement text
D. Reduce the ambiguity of the requirements
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
What term is defined as “the continuing modification and addition of requirements, so that the requirements never stabilize”?
A. Scope creep
B. Scope attribute
C. Scope baseline
D. Scope of requirements
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What MUST be identified during problem analysis?
A. Features
B. Use cases
C. Stakeholders
D. Product requirements
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
In a “suspect traceability link,” what characterizes the link between the two requirements?
A. Either requirement is unstable.
B. The requirements traced to has changed.
C. The requirements traced from has changed.
D. Either requirement has changed.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
What information about a proposed system is usually found in a Supplementary Specification?
A. Non-functional requirements
B. Sub-components
C. Data values
D. Testing procedures
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Why should the Withdraw Cash use case be implemented in the first iteration of an automatic teller machine? (Select all that apply.)
A. Is the system’s principle purpose
B. Easy to implement
C. Important to the customer
D. Includes the architecturally significant interfaces
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 14
Which of the following are artifacts in the requirements process? (Select all that apply.)
A. Vision document
B. Use-case model
C. Change control board
D. Pareto principle
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 15
Which of the following entities can interact with the boundaries of a system? (Select all that apply.)
A. Legacy systems that will be replaced by the product
B. Human users of the product
C. Systems that will interact with the product
D. Reports produced by the product
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 16
What does a non-functional requirement specify?
A. Quality attributes of the system
B. How to fulfill stakeholder requests
C. How the solution interacts with the outside world
D. Process used to build the system
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following expressions partially define “requirement”? (Select all that apply.)
A. Capability that must be performed by the software
B. Structural component that must be part of the software
C. Condition with which the software must comply
D. Test case that must be part of the test suite for the software
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 18
View the illustration by clicking here: Which of the following errors are present in the artifact state illustration? (Select all that apply.)
A. There is an unwanted functionality.
B. The test cases are incomplete.
C. There is scope creep.
D. TST3 indirectly traces to FEAT27.
E. FEAT19 does not trace to a use case.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 19
Which of the following expressions partially define “requirement”? (Select all that apply.)
A. Structural component that must be part of the software
B. Test case that must be part of the test suite for the software
C. Condition with which the software must comply
D. Capability that must be performed by the software
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 20
What term identifies a person who is materially affected by the outcomes of a system?
A. Manager
B. Customer
C. Actor
D. Stakeholder
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
Given: A customer service system is being developed for a telephone company to record and answer questions about telephone installations. Which of the following are system features? (Select all that apply.)
A. Accommodates simultaneously entry of information from up to 100 installers
B. Includes a Phone Installer class
C. Runs on the Windows 95 operating system
D. Produces status reports about telephone installations
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 22
What is the main advantage of using brainstorming to identify software requirements?
A. Allows in-depth explanation of each requirement
B. Focuses on the usability requirements of the system
C. Gives the customer more buy-in to the requirements process
D. Encourages quick generation of many requirements
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 23
Which of the following are artifacts in the requirements process? (Select all that apply.)
A. Vision document
B. Use-case model
C. Change control board
D. Pareto principle
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 24
What term is defined as “the continuing modification and addition of requirements, so that the requirements never stabilize”?
A. Scope of requirements
B. Scope baseline
C. Scope attribute
D. Scope creep
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
Under what circumstances should a domain model be used to capture key terms?
A. Many use cases with complex relationships among them
B. Many stakeholders with complex relationships among them
C. Many requirements with complex relationships among them
D. Many business objects with complex relationships among them
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
What is the purpose of a glossary?
A. Establish a common vision
B. Establish testable requirements
C. Establish common vocabulary
D. Define universal constraints
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
What does a non-functional requirement specify?
A. How to fulfill stakeholder requests
B. How the solution interacts with the outside world
C. Process used to build the system
D. Quality attributes of the system
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
What is the best way to ensure that a URPS requirement is testable?
A. Write the requirement so that a measurement can determine if it is met.
B. Add a traceability link from it back to a feature on which it is based.
C. Place the requirement in the “Special Requirements” property of a Use Case Report.
D. Create a traceability link from the requirement to a testable functional requirement.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 29
Where are constraints such as design constraints, external constraints and other dependencies documented?
A. Design Specifications
B. Use-Case Model Survey
C. Vision Statement
D. Software Requirements Specifications
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 30
Which support characteristics are necessary in an effective process to facilitate managing project scope? (Select all that apply.)
A. Iterative development process
B. Automated testing tools
C. Requirements repository
D. Effective requirements management
Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 31
What is the purpose of a problem analysis?
A. Identify constraints
B. Avoid customer misunderstandings
C. Understand the stakeholder’s needs
D. Understand the root causes of a problem
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
Which of the following are benefits of using attributes to manage requirements? (Select all that apply.)
A. Enforce keywords such as “shall” and “must” in the requirement text
B. Assign resources to requirements
C. Obtain status information about the requirements
D. Reduce the ambiguity of the requirements
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 33
When identifying root causes of a problem, resolving what percentage of the most important root causes will solve 80% of a problem?
A. 60%
B. 40%
C. 80%
D. 20%
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements about a Smart Link group are true?
A. Smart Link group consists of a maximum of two interfaces. Where there are two interfaces, one is an active interface, and the other a standby interface.
B. Of the two interfaces in a Smart Link group, one is active, and the other is standby.
C. When an active interface goes Down, the Smart Link group automatically blocks it and changes the status of the standby interface to active.
D. When an active interface recovers, the standby interface is blocked and traffic is switched back to the active interface.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements about Flush packets in a Smart Link group are true?
A. A Smart Link group sends Flush packets to instruct other devices to update the address table.
B. Flush packets use IEEE 802. 3 encapsulation*
C. The destination MAC address of Flush packets is an unknown unicast address, which is used to distinguish protocols.
D. The destination MAC address of Flush packets is a special multicast address, which is used to distinguish protocols.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 3
When links are switched in a Smart Link group, which of the following mechanisms can be used to refresh MAC and ARP entries?
A. MAC and ARP entries are refreshed automatically with respect to traffic.
B. The Smart Link group uses a new link to send Flush packets.
C. MAC entries are refreshed after the aging time expires.
D. ARP entries are refreshed after the aging time expires
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements about link aggregation are true?
A. link aggregation binds a group of physical interfaces together as a logical interface to increase the bandwidth and reliability.
B. Link aggregation complies with IEFE 802. 3ah.
C. The logical link formed by bundling multiple physical links together is called a link aggregation group (IAG) or atrunk.
D. Active and inactive interfaces exist in link aggregation. Active interfaces forward data, whereas inactive interfaces do not.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements about link aggregation are true?
A. link aggregation can be performed in manual load balancing or LACP mode. In manual loading balancing mode, LACP is disabled; in I.ACP mode, LACP is enabled.
B. In manual load balancing mode, all active member interfaces forward data and perform load balancing.
C. In static LACP mode, the creation of the Eth-Trunk and the addition or member interfaces to the Eth-Trunk are performed manually. Compared with link aggregation in manual load balancing mode, active interfaces in static LACP mode are selected by sending I.ACP Data Units (LACPDUs).
D. In dynamic LACP mode, the creation of the Eth-Trunk, the addition of member interfaces, and the selection of active interfaces are performed based on LACP negotiation.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements about LACP are true?
A. It complies with IEEE 802. 3ad.
B. A device enabled with LACP exchanges Link Aggregation Control Protocol Data Units (LACPDUs) with its peer.
C. Devices at both ends determine the active interface according to the interface priority of the active device.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 7
Which of the following reliability designs are related to routers?
A. Reliability design of the system and hardware
B. Reliability design of the software
C. Reliability test authentication
D. Reliability design of the lP network
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 8
Which of the following can speed up OSPF fast convergence?
A. Configuring dynamic BFD for OSPF
B. Adjusting the interval at which OSPF calculation is performed
C. Configuring the interval at which an LSA are retransmitted
D. Configuring the maximum number of external LSAs in the LSDB
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
When the GR Restarter performs the active/standby switchover, the neighbor performs which of the following operations when detecting that a TCP disconnection?
A. Keeping the routing tables of various address families advertised by the GR Restarter during negotiation, marking entries in these tables with stale tags, and starting a stale timer
B. Starting a restart timer.
C. Clearing all routing entries and forwarding entries related to the GR restarter if the GR restarter fails to re-establish the BGP connection with the neighbor after the restart timer expires.
D. Remaining the neighbor relationship unchanged.
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 10
RTA connected to a LAN by e0/0 whose IP address is 10. 1. 1. 251 and network Mask is 255.
255. 255. 0. Now
create a virtual router with ID I and virtual IP address 10.1.1.254 0n RTA.
Which of the following commands are correct?
A. [RTA-Ethernet0/0]vrrp vrid l virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254
B. [RTA]vrrp vrid I virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254
C. ERTA-Ethernet0/0]vrrp vrid l virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254 mask 255. 255. 255. 0
D. [RTA]vrrp vrid l virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254 mask 255. 255. 255. 0
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements about IACP are true?
A. It complies with IEEE 802. 3ad.
B. A device enabled with LACP exchanges Link Aggregation Control Protocol Data Units (LACPDUs) with its peer.
C. Devices at both ends determine the active interface according to the interface priority of the active device.
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 12
Which of the following statements about the reliability requirement level are true?
A. Faults seldom occur in the system software or hardware.
B. System functions are not affected by faults.
C. System functions are affected by faults but can rapidly recover.
D. System functions can be ensured by using redundancy design, switchover policy, and high success rate in switchover.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 13
Which of the following are end-to-end link protection modes?
A. 1:1
B. M: N
C. N: 1
D. 1+1
Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 14
On a BGP/MPLS IPv4 VPN, OSPF, LDP, and static routes are configured. Which of the following protocols need to be enabled with GR to achieve NSF on PEs?
A. OSPF
B. MPLS LDP
C. BGP
D. Static routes
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 15
In VRP 5.7, which of the following dynamic protocols support GR?
A. MPLS LDP/RSVP
B. IS-IS/OSPF
C. BGP
D. MSTP
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 16
Which of the following statements about BFD are true?
A. It cannot be used to detect MPLS networks.
B. It provides low-load and short-duration detection for paths between adjacent forwarding engines.
C. It provides a unified mechanism for detecting all types of media and BFD-supporting protocols.
D. It is a bidirectional detection mechanism.
Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements about the setup of a BFD session are true?
A. A BFD session can be set up in either static or dynamic mode.
B. A static BFD session is set up by manually configuring BFD session parameters and delivering requests for setting up a BFD session. BFD session parameters include the local and remote discriminators.
C. A dynamic BFD session is set up by dynamically allocating local discriminators.
D. Static and dynamic E3FD sessions are not differentiated.
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 18
How many hosts are available per subnet if apply a /21 mask to the class B network?
A. 510
B. 512
C. 1022
D. 2046
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 19
For a network like 175.25.128.0/19, the mask value is?
A. 250. 255. 0. 0
B. 200. 205. 224. 0
C. 250. 255. 24. 0
D. Different based on the address type
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20
The network 154.27.0.0 without any subnet can support ( ) hosts?
A. 204
B. 1024
C. 65, 534
D. 16, 777, 206
Correct Answer: C
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