Month: August 2016
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QUESTION 1
What two statements correctly describe vision or mission? (Choose two.)
A. A mission is a statement of the purpose of a company.
B. A vision is what a company wants to become in the mid-term or long-term future.
C. A vision describes actions the organization will take to achieve specific goals.
D. A mission identifies the company’s planned investments to increase revenue.
E. A vision is only used by for-profit companies.
F. A mission is only used by public sector organizations.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2
What two statements are true about Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)? (Choose two.)
A. A KPI is a quantifiable metric of the performance of essential operations and/or processes in an organization.
B. A KPI provides the focal point for identifying how much risk a company can take in trying to avoid government fines.
C. A KPI could reflect the performance of Service Providers in achieving their goals and objectives.
D. KPIs are based on judgment, and therefore should be used carefully when defining the value of a technology solution.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4 Select and Place:
Correct Answer: QUESTION 5 Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
Which is a critical first step when thinking about how to communicate technical content to a senior business manager?
A. Identify a person on her staff who can explain details.
B. Listen to the customer to understand her KPIs.
C. Plan out your message to explain potential options.
D. Draft a high level message using language pulled from the top IT vendors.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Your company wants to increase sales by selling in new countries and by getting more repeat orders and revenue from current customers. What is one technique that can help to communicate how technology solutions can improve business outcomes?
A. Prepare a detailed cause and effect model.
B. Benchmark different technology solutions to identify the best mix of hardware and software.
C. Prepare a visual diagram showing the current business operation and possible future scenarios with different technology solutions in place.
D. Create a document that has a summary of current problems followed by detailed descriptions of technology features that reduce operating costs.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
When asked about IT skills gaps, where does “Speak business language” fall in a list of concerns?
A. “Speak business language” would be helpful to improve, but not among the most critcal gaps.
B. The ranking varies depending on the industry and whether the business person is new in their job.
C. “Speak business language” is consistently mentioned as a top concern for IT professionals.
D. “Speak business language” is a very low priority but moving higher because business people need to learn the terms for technologies like cloud.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
What is a recommended technique for building a good relationship with someone who has a dominanting or very strong personality?
A. 1. Be direct and clear. 2. Stick to the topic, with little discussion about things outside of work.
B. 1. Use humor to create an informal environment. 2. Use emotional language or speak in extreme terms — like “outstanding” or “I love that idea”.
C. 1. Make sure to get your points out first and explain why they are right. 2. Be prepared for criticism and have a couple of topics ready where you will immediately give in.
D. 1. Discuss the person’s interests outside of work. 2. Limit the conversation to just two topics, since the conversation will likely go into detailed stories about experiences.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which two communications or interpersonal skills are critical for an Enterprise IT Business Specialist? (Choose two.)
A. Ability to build relationships
B. Ability to explain design decisions in multiple languages
C. Ability to plan and schedule complex data migration
D. Ability to influence others
E. Ability to interpret financial statements
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 6
Which is a critical first step when thinking about how to communicate technical content to a senior business manager?
A. Identify a person on their staff who can explain details to them
B. Gather information and assess their level of interest and knowledge about technical topics
C. Plan out your message to explain the problem, situation and options – before communicating a decision or recommendation
D. Draft a high level message, which uses terms and language pulled from web sites from the top IT vendors
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which is a recommended approach for gaining trust from stakeholders that you understand their needs?
A. Keep the conversations very specific to your areas of technical expertise.
B. Start discussions at a high level before focusing on detailed technical items.
C. Explain how you are fixing problems followed by asking questions such as where lower expenses fall in their list of priorities.
D. Start the discussion by providing examples of what you have done for other departments in the past.
Correct Answer: B Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
Business departments have each selected one person to represent their needs for an improved reporting system. Which is a recommended way to capture, confirm, and prioritize the requirements of the group of departments?
A. Conduct individual interviews then summarize the inputs.
B. Send out a survey to the representatives and the managers of each department.
C. Conduct one or more workshop sessions.
D. Distribute two industry benchmark reports then run a conference call to hear opinions and answer questions.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
What is a primary benefit of asking questions to stakeholders who do not have strong decision authority over project funding, but who do have relevant experience?
A. It shows them that you are interested in their opinions.
B. The more data, the better.
C. It can find requirements or opportunities that are relevant to future discussions.
D. It shows the decision makers you are taking the initiative to get input from people that they might not have identified for interviews.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which two are characteristics of using effective questions to gather information? (Choose two.)
A. They do not bias or influence the respondent to agree with the interviewer’s opinion.
B. They should be structured for a simple “yes” or “no” response.
C. They provide a scenario, so that the respondent can make assumptions in providing her answer.
D. Each question is independent of other questions that may be asked during an interview.
E. They may be tailored to the audience, or could be a standard set of questions for a group of respondents.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 4
Which discovery methods or aids are typically free?
A. Unlimited access to all reports from conferences run by research firms
B. Government reports on the availability of access to broadband within different emerging countries
C. Analysis of private company expenditures on technology
D. White papers authored by consultants, industry professionals, analyst firms, or vendors
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which discovery methods or aids typically cost a fee?
A. White papers authored by consultants, industry professionals, analyst firms, or vendors
B. Unlimited access to all reports from conferences run by research firms
C. Primary Research
D. Crowdsharing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which two are examples of open-ended questions? (Choose two.)
A. What switch models do you currently use in your network?
B. What are the main reasons why customers prefer ordering services from you?
C. What is the planned ROI for this new implementation?
D. What do you think about the future of the Data Center market?
E. What are your working hours?
F. Does your existing infrastructure maintenance become more problematic each year?
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 7
Which two are true of closed questions? (Choose two.)
A. Closed questions are used to retrieve facts.
B. Respondents can answer closed questions more quickly because they seek a limited amount of detail.
C. Closed questions are used to retrieve opinions.
D. Closed questions are used to make decisions based on the data in a report.
E. Closed questions are excellent for workshops where you need people to come to a consensus about a design decision.
Correct Answer: AB
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QUESTION 26
During a network design review, it is recommended that the network with a single large area should be broken up into a backbone and multiple nonbackbone areas. There are differing opinions on how many ABRs are needed for each area for redundancy. What would be the impact of having additional ABRs per area?
A. There is no impact to increasing the number of ABRs.
B. The SPF calculations are more complex.
C. The number of externals and network summaries are increased.
D. The size of the FIB is increased.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
A large enterprise customer is migrating thousands of retail offices from legacy TDM circuits to an Ethernet-based service. The network is running OSPF and has been stable for many years. It is now possible to backhaul the circuits directly to the data centers, bypassing the regional aggregation routers. Which two networking issues need to be addressed to ensure stability with the new design? (Choose two.)
A. Nothing will change if the number of offices is the same.
B. Nothing will change if the number of physical interfaces stays the same.
C. The RIB will increase significantly.
D. The FIB will increase significantly.
E. The amount of LSA flooding will increase significantly.
F. The size of the link-state database will increase significantly.
Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.
The design is being proposed for use within the network. The CE devices are OSPF graceful restart-capable, and the core devices are OSPF graceful restart-aware. The WAN advertisements received from BGP are redistributed into OSPF. A forwarding supervisor failure event takes place on CE A. During this event, how will the routes learned from the WAN be seen on the core devices?
A. via CE A and CE B
B. via CE A
C. via CE B
D. no WAN routes will be accessible
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.
How would you adjust the design to improve convergence on the network?
A. Add an intra-POP link between routers 1A and 1B, and enable IP LFA FRR.
B. Use an IP SLA between the end stations to detect path failures.
C. Enable SSO-NSF on routers 1A and 1B.
D. Use BGP to connect the sites over the WAN.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
A company requests that you consult with them regarding the design of their production, development, and test environments. They indicate that the environments must communicate effectively, but they must be kept separate due to the inherent failures on the development network. What will be configured on the links between the networks to support their design requirements?
A. IBGP
B. EBGP
C. OSPF
D. static routes
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 31
A service provider creates a network design that runs MPLS in its WAN backbone using OSPF as the IGP routing protocol. What would be two effects of additionally implementing MPLS-TE? (Choose two.)
A. MPLS-TE is required to reroute traffic within less than 1 second in case of a link failure inside the backbone.
B. MPLS-TE is required to route different MPLS QoS service classes through different paths.
C. MPLS-TE and OSPF cannot be used together inside one MPLS network.
D. MPLS-TE cannot use OSPF for the traffic path calculation.
E. MPLS-TE is required to create backup paths independently from the IGP.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit.
Your junior design engineer presents this configuration design. What is the next-hop router for CE3, and why?
A. CE1. BGP weight is higher than CE2.
B. CE2. EBGP administrative distance is lower than RIP.
C. CE2. The link between CE2 and PE1 has more bandwidth than CE1-to-PE1.
D. CE1. HSRP on CE1 is in active state.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Which two mechanisms ensure that a network design provides fast path failure detection? (Choose two.)
A. BFD
B. fast hello packets
C. UDLD
D. IP Cisco Express Forwarding
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 34
In which two ways is a network design improved by the inclusion of IP Event Dampening? (Choose two.)
A. reduces processing load
B. provides sub-second convergence
C. improves network stability
D. prevents routing loops
E. quickly detects network failures
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 35
You are evaluating convergence characteristics of various interior gateway protocols for a new network design. Which technology allows link-state routing protocols to calculate paths to destination prefixes that are functionally similar to feasible successors in Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol?
A. Incremental Shortest Path First
B. Cisco Multiprotocol Label Switching Traffic Engineering Fast Reroute
C. Loop-Free Alternate Fast Reroute
D. partial route calculation
E. Fast-Flooding
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
You are hired to design a solution that will improve network availability for users on a campus network with routed access. If the budget limits you to three components, which three components would you recommend in your design proposal? (Choose three.)
A. redundant power supplies in the access routers
B. standby route processors for SSO in the core routers
C. standby route processors for SSO in the distribution routers
D. standby route processors for SSO in the access routers
E. replace copper links between devices with fiber links
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 37
You are designing a network to support data, voice and video. Which two main factors will you address to improve network convergence? (Choose two.)
A. event propagation delay
B. failure detection delay
C. forwarding engine update delay
D. routing table recalculation delay
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit.
This diagram depicts the design of a small network that will run EIGRP on R1 and R2, and EIGRP Stub on R3. In which two ways will this network be impacted if there is link instability between R1 and R2? (Choose two.)
A. R1 will have routes in its routing table that originate from R2 and R3.
B. R3 will have routes in its routing table that originate from R1 and R2.
C. R2 will have routes in its routing table that originate from R1 and R3.
D. R3 will be transit for traffic between R1 and R2.
E. R3 will not be transit for traffic between R1 and R2.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit.
In this BGP design, what is the next hop for 10.1.1.0/24 on R8 and R7?
A. The next hop for 10.1.1.0/24 on R7 is R8 and the next hop for R8 is R7.
B. The next hop for 10.1.1.0/24 on R7 is R5 and the next hop for R8 is R6.
C. The next hop for 10.1.1.0/24 on R7 is R6 and the next hop for R8 is R5.
D. The next hop for 10.1.1.0/24 on R7 is R3 and the next hop for R8 is R4.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit.
You are developing a migration plan to enable IPv6 in your IPv4 network. Starting at R3 and assuming default IS-IS operations, what is likely to happen when you enable IPv6 routing on the link from R3 to R2?
A. Only R3 and R2 have IPv4 and IPv6 reachability.
B. R2 receives an IPv6 default route from R3.
C. Loopback reachability between all routers for IPv4 is lost.
D. All routers except R2 are reachable through IPv4.
E. R3 advertises the link from R3-R2 to R1, R4 and R5 only.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
You are a network designer and are responsible for ensuring that the network you design is secure. How do you plan to prevent infected devices on your network from sourcing random DDoS attacks using forged source addresses?
A. ACL-based forwarding
B. ACL filtering by destination
C. Unicast RPF loose mode
D. Unicast RPF strict mode
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
Your design plan includes mutual redistribution of two OSPF networks at multiple locations, with connectivity to all locations in both networks. How is this accomplished without creating routing loops?
A. Use route maps on the ASBRs to allow only internal routes to be redistributed.
B. Use route maps on the ASBRs to allow internal and external routes to be redistributed.
C. Use route maps on the ASBRs to set tags for redistributed routes.
D. Use route maps on the ASBRs to filter routes with tags so they are not redistributed.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
A planned EBGP network will use OSPF to reach the EBGP peer addresses. Which of these conditions should be avoided in the design that could otherwise cause the peers to flap continuously?
A. An ACL blocks TCP port 179 in one direction.
B. IP addresses used to peer are also being sent via EBGP.
C. The OSPF area used for peering is nonbackbone (not area 0).
D. The routers are peered by using a default route sent by OSPF.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
When designing a large full mesh network running OSPF, how would you reduce LSA repetition?
A. Elect a DR and BDR.
B. Use access control lists to control outbound advertisements.
C. Choose one or two routers to re-flood LSA information.
D. Put each of the point-to-point links in your full mesh networking into a separate area.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
A data center provider has designed a network using these requirements:
Two data center sites are connected to the public Internet.
Both data centers are connected to different Internet providers.
Both data centers are also directly connected with a private connection for the internal traffic, and public Internet traffic can also be routed at this direct
connection.
The data center provider has only one /19 public IP address block.
Under normal conditions, Internet traffic should be routed directly to the data center where the services are located. When one Internet connection fails, the complete traffic for both data centers should be routed by using the remaining Internet connection. In which two ways can this routing be achieved? (Choose two.)
A. The data center provider must have an additional public IP address block for this routing.
B. One /20 block is used for the first data center and the second /20 block is used for the second data center. The /20 block from the local data center is sent out with a low BGP weight and the / 20 block from the remote data center is sent out with a higher BGP weight at both sites.
C. One /20 block is used for the first data center and the second /20 block is used for the second data center. The /20 block from the local data center is sent out without path prepending and the / 20 block from the remote data center is sent out with path prepending at both sites.
D. One /20 block is used for the first data center and the second /20 block is used for the second data center. Each /20 block is only sent out locally. The /19 block is sent out at both Internet connections for the backup case to reroute the traffic through the remaining Internet connection.
E. One /20 block is used for the first data center and the second /20 block is used for the second data center. The /20 block from the local data center is sent out with a low BGP local preference and the /20 block from the remote data center is sent out with a higher BGP local preference at both sites.
F. BGP will always load-balance the traffic to both data center sites.
Correct Answer: CD
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QUESTION 127
Which statement is true about the Forward Information Base (FIB) table?
A. The FIB is derived from the IP routing table and is optimized for maximum lookup throughput.
B. The FIB table is derived from the Address Resolution Protocol table, and it contains Layer 2 rewrite (MAC) information for the next hop.
C. The FIB lookup is based on the Layer 2 destination MAC address.
D. When the FIB table is full, a wildcard entry redirects traffic to the Layer 3 engine.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
Refer to the exhibit. Both host stations are part of the same subnet but are in different VLANs. On the
basis of the information presented in the exhibit, which statement is true about an attempt to ping from host
to host?
A. A trunk port will need to be configured on the link between Sw_A and Sw_B for the ping command to be successful.
B. The two different hosts will need to be in the same VLAN in order for the ping command to be successful.
C. A Layer 3 device is needed for the ping command to be successful. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
D. The ping command will be successful without any further configuration changes.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
Which switch command enables a trunking protocol that appends a four byte CRC to the packet?
A. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation itef
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation fddi
D. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation isl
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
Which statement describes Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) mode ‘desirable’?
A. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode and negotiates to convert the link into a trunk link.
B. The interface actively attempts to convert the link to a trunk link.
C. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode but prevented from generating DTP frames.
D. The interface is put into a passive mode, waiting to convert the link to a trunk link.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 131
Which three statements are correct with regard to the IEEE 802.1Q standard? (Choose three.)
A. the packet is encapsulated with a 26 byte header and a 4 byte FCS
B. the IEEE 802.1Q frame format adds a 4 byte field to a Ethernet frame
C. the IEEE 802.1Q frame retains the original MAC destination address
D. the IEEE 802.1Q frame uses multicast destination of 0x01-00-0c-00-00
E. protocol uses point-to-point connectivity
F. protocol uses point-to-multipoint connectivity
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
In a customer’s network, VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is running with a domain named main1.
VLANs 1,2,3,4,5,10,20 are active on the network. Suddenly the whole network goes down. No traffic is
being passed on VLANs 2,3,4,5,10,20, however traffic passes on VLAN 1 and indicates all switches are
operational. Right before the network problem occurred, a switch named TEST1 was added to the
network.
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http://www.TestInside.com Testinside What three configuration issues on TEST1 could be causing the network outage? (Choose three.)
A. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with a different domain name.
B. TEST1 is not configured to participate in VTP.
C. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with the domain name main1.
D. TEST1 has a lower VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
E. TEST1 has a higher VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
F. TEST1 is configured with only VLAN1.
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
Which DTP switchport mode parameter sets the switch port to actively send and respond to DTP negotiation frames?
A. access
B. trunk
C. no negotiate
D. dynamic desirable
E. dynamic auto
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
Which method of Layer 3 switching uses a forwarding information base (FIB)?
A. route caching
B. flow-based switching
C. demand-based switching
D. topology-based switching
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
Which protocol specified by RFC 2281 provides network redundancy for IP networks, ensuring that
user traffic immediately and transparently recovers from first-hop failures in network edge devices or
access circuits?
A. STP
B. IRDP TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
C. ICMP
D. HSRP
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
In which three HSRP states do routers send hello messages? (Choose three.)
A. standby
B. learn
C. listen
D. speak E. active
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
Which protocol enables a group of routers to form a single virtual router and use the real IP address of
a router as the gateway address?
A. Proxy ARP
B. HSRP
C. IRDP
D. VRRP
E. GLBP
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
Which protocol inserts a four byte tag into the Ethernet frame and recalculates CRC value?
A. VTP
B. 802.1Q
C. DTP
D. ISL
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
What is the cause of jitter?
A. variable queue delays TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
B. packet drops
C. transmitting too many small packets
D. compression
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 140
The original frame is encapsulated and an additional header is added before the frame is carried over
a trunk link. At the receiving end, the header is removed and the frame is forwarded to the assigned VLAN.
This describes which technology?
A. DISL
B. DTP
C. IEEE 802.1Q
D. ISL
E. MPLS
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
On a multilayer Catalyst switch, which interface command is used to convert a Layer 3 interface to a
Layer 2 interface?
A. switchport
B. no switchport
C. switchport mode access
D. swithport access vlan vlan-id
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
Which two statements concerning STP state changes are true? (Choose two.)
A. Upon bootup, a port transitions from blocking to forwarding because it assumes itself as root.
B. Upon bootup, a port transitions from blocking to listening because it assumes itself as root.
C. Upon bootup, a port transitions from listening to forwarding because it assumes itself as root.
D. If a forwarding port receives no BPDUs by the max_age time limit, it will transition to listening.
E. If a forwarding port receives an inferior BPDU, it will transition to listening.
F. If a blocked port receives no BPDUs by the max_age time limit, it will transition to listening. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
How does 802.1q trunking keep track of multiple VLAN’s?
A. modifies the port index of a data frame to indicate the VLAN
B. adds a new header containing the VLAN ID to the data frame
C. encapsulates the data frame with a new header and frame check sequence
D. tags the data frame with VLAN information and recalculates the CRC value
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Given the above partial configuration, which two statements are true about VLAN traffic? (Choose two.)
A. VLANs 1-5 will be blocked if fa0/10 goes down.
B. VLANs 1-5 will use fa0/10 as a backup only.
C. VLANs 6-10 will use fa0/10 as a backup only.
D. VLANs 6-10 have a port priority of 128 on fa0/10.
E. VLANs 1-10 are configured to load share between fa0/10 and fa0/12.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
Given the above diagram and assuming that STP is enabled on all switch devices, which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)
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A. DSW11 will be elected the root bridge.
B. DSW12 will be elected the root bridge.
C. ASW13 will be elected the root bridge.
D. P3/1 will be elected the nondesignated port.
E. P2/2 will be elected the nondesignated port.
F. P3/2 will be elected the nondesignated port.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Examine the diagram. A network administrator has recently installed the above switched network using 3550s and would like to control the selection of the root bridge. Which switch should the administrator configure as the root bridge and which configuration command must the administrator enter to accomplish this?
A. DSW11(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
B. DSW12(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
C. ASW13(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
D. DSW11(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096 TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com
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E. DSW12(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
F. ASW13(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
On a 3550 EMI switch, which three types of interfaces can be used to configure HSRP? (Choose three.)
A. loopback interface
B. SVI interface
C. routed port
D. access port
E. EtherChannel port channel
F. BVI interface
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Which command will need to be added to External_A to ensure that it will take over if serial 0/0 on External_B fails?
A. standby 1 preempt
B. standby 1 track 10.10.10.1 TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
C. standby 1 priority 130
D. standby 1 track fastethernet 0/0
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Examine the router output above. Which two items are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Router A will assume the active state if its priority is the highest.
B. If Ethernet 0/2 goes down, the standby router will take over.
C. When Ethernet 0/3 of RouterA comes back up, the priority will become 105.
D. The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.6.
E. The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.20.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
Which router redundancy protocol cannot be configured for interface tracking?
A. HSRP
B. GLBP
C. VRRP
D. SLB
E. RPR
F. RPR+
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 151
Based on the show spanning-tree vlan 200 output shown in the exhibit, which two statements about
the STP process for VLAN 200 are true? (Choose two.)
A. BPDUs will be sent out every two seconds.
B. The time spent in the listening state will be 30 seconds.
C. The time spent in the learning state will be 15 seconds.
D. The maximum length of time that the BPDU information will be saved is 30 seconds.
E. This switch is the root bridge for VLAN 200.
F. BPDUs will be sent out every 10 seconds.
Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Which two statements are true when the extended system ID feature is enabled? (Choose two.)
A. The BID is made up of the bridge priority value(two bytes) and bridge MAC address (six bytes).
B. The BID is made up of the bridge priority (four bits), the system ID (12 bits), and a bridge MAC address (48 bits).
C. The BID is made up of the system ID (six bytes) and bridge priority value (two bytes).
D. The system ID value is the VLAN ID (VID).
E. The system ID value is a unique MAC address allocated from a pool of MAC addresses assigned to the switch or module.
F. The system ID value is a hex number used to measure the preference of a bridge in the spanning-tree algorithm.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
QUESTION 153
What can be determined about the HSRP relationship from the displayed debug output?
A. The preempt feature is not enabled on the 172.16.11.111 router.
B. The nonpreempt feature is enabled on the 172.16.11.112 router.
C. Router 172.16.11.111 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
16.11.112.
A. Router 172.16.11.112 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 155
16.11.111.
A. The IP address 172.16.11.111 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.
B. The IP address 172.16.11.112 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 86
One of the following attack is characterized by a flood of packets that are requesting a TCP connection to a server. Which is it?
A. brute force
B. Trojan horse
C. reconnaissance
D. denial of service
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 87
Match the corresponding command and configuration task. (Not all options are used.)
1.
login password certways1
2.
enable password certways2
3.
enable secret certways4
4.
service password-encryption
5.
line vty 0 4 password certways5
6.
line console 0 password certways3
A. encrypt all clear text passwords II.protect access to the user mode prompt III.set privileged mode encrypted password IV.set password to allow Telnet connections
B. set privileged mode clear text password
C. I-4,II-3,III-5,IV-2,V-6
D. I-4,II-5,III-3,IV-2,V-6
E. I-4,II-6,III-3,IV-5,V-2
F. I-4,II-6,III-5,IV-3,V-2
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 88
You need to create a security plan for the certways network. What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 89
Topic – Implement and verify WAN links.
Describe different methods for connecting to a WAN Configure and verify a basic WAN serial connection A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 90
Two of the following statements correctly describe the following network. What are them? (Choose two.)
A. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are seven collision domains in the network.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 91
You need to create a security plan for the certways network. What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. 64 Kbit/sec
B. 32 Kbit/sec
C. 512 Kbit/sec
D. 128 Kbit/sec
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 92
Look at the following exhibit. You are a network administrator for certways. You are configuring P4S-R to connect to a non-Cisco network. Which two commands would be applied to the S0/0 WAN interface, but not to the Fa0/0 LAN interface? (Choose two.)
A. ip address
B. no shutdown
C. encapsulation ppp
D. authentication pap
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 93
Look at the following exhibit. You are a network administrator for certways.You want to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown. What kind of cable should be used?
A. 1 – Ethernet crossover cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – fiber optic cable
4 – rollover cable
B. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
C. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
D. 1 – Ethernet rollover cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – null modem cable
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 94
Which of the following are included WAN data link encapsulation types? (Choose two.)
A. DSL
B. T1
C. PPP
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 95
Which item gives the correct relationship between WAN connection technology and the associated communication link type? 1.PSTN 2.ATM 3.Leased Line 4.Frame Relay
A. Point to Point II.Circuit Switched III.Packet Switched IV.Cell Switched
B. I-3;II-1;III-4;IV-2
C. I-3;II-2;III-1;IV-4
D. I-3;II-1;III-2;IV-4
E. I-3;II-2;III-4;IV-1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 96
Part of the certways WAN is shown below:
Two buildings on the Los Angeles campus of a small company must be connected to use Ethernet with a
bandwidth of at least 100 Mbps. The company is concerned about possible problems from voltage
potential differences between the two buildings. Which media type should be used for the connection?
A. coaxial cable
B. UTP cable
C. STP cable
D. fiber optic cable
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 97
For the following items, which signaling standard is in charge of managing the connection and maintaining status between the router and the local Frame Relay switch?
A. CIR
B. DLCI
C. FECN
D. LMI
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 98
John works as a network administrator. It is difficult for him to establish a serial link between a Cisco router
and a router from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation.
Which two options are correct about this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary “Type” field that may not be compatible with equipment of other vendors.
B. Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link
C. PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.
D. HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 99
Which two characteristics belong to a Frame Relay point-to-point subinterface? (Choose two.)
A. requires the frame-relay map command
B. resolves NBMA split horizon issues
C. maps one IP subnet across multiple DLCIs
D. maps one IP subnet per DLCI
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 100
Examine the following technologies, which one will you use when a router connected to a LAN has only one WAN interface, but multiple virtual circuits are needed?
A. DSL
B. ADSL
C. Cable
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 101
Host P4S-F sends out an ARP request to begin communicating with the server. How do you think the devices in the topology will respond to this request?
A. Router P4S-SFX will forward the ARP request to the ILM router.
B. The P4S-ILM router will respond with the IP address of the WWW server.
C. Router P4S-SFX will respond with the MAC address of its Fa0/0 interface.
D. Switch P4S-SWB will block the request since the server is not on the LAN.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 102
As a network administrator, you will need to decide on the appropriate network devices to use. Which of the following correctly describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
C. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 103
The certways WAN connection is shown below:
Based on this diagram shown above, which two devices can be used to complete the connection between
the WAN router at the customer site and the service provider? (Choose two.)
A. multiplexer
B. ATM switch
C. CSU/DSU
D. modem
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 104
Topic – Describe the operation of data networks.
Describe the purpose and functions of various network devices Select the components required to meet a given network specification Use the OSI and TCP/IP models and their associated protocols to explain how data flows in a network Describe common networking applications including web applications Describe the purpose and basic operation of the protocols in the OSI and TCP models Describe the impact of applications (Voice Over IP and Video Over IP) on a network Interpret network diagrams Determine the path between two hosts across a network Describe the components required for network and Internet communications Identify and correct common network problems at layers 1, 2, 3 and 7 using a layered model approach Differentiate between LAN/WAN operation and features
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 105
Host P4S-F, which needs to build the packet, has received the ARP reply. Two of the following information will be placed in the header of the packet that leaves host P4S-F if host P4S-F is to communicate with the WWW server. What is it? (Choose two)
A. The source address will be the IP address of host P4S-F.
B. The destination address will be the IP address of the WWW server.
C. The destination address will be the IP address of interface Fa0/0 of router P4S-SFX.
D. The destination address will be the IP address of interface Fa0/0 of the P4S-ILM router.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 106
As it is shown in the exhibit, two World Wide Web documents from the WWW server Host are displayed by P4S-F in two browser windows at the same time. How did the data find its way to the correct browser windows?
A. The browsers track the data by the URL.
B. TCP port numbers are used to direct the data to the correct application window.
C. The OSI application layer tracks the conversations and directs them to the correct brower.
D. The IP source addresses of the packets will be used to direct the data to the correct browser window.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 107
You work in a medium-sized company .The network performance of your company has slowed to the point that users are complaining. In order to resolve this problem, You are asked to determine what the users might be doing to cause the slowdown. Which two types of network services or applications most likely cause slowdown? (Choose two.)
A. social networking web sites
B. blogs and other online browsing
C. PC-based VoIP services
D. online video sites
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 108
Before a workstation is able to exchange HTTP packets with a web server, what must occur?
A. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 109
Look at the following exhibit. Connection problems are reported in the internetwork. By the output from P4S-HostA, what is the problem indicated?
A. The routing on P4S-R2 is not functioning properly.
B. The gateway address of P4S-HostA is incorrect or not configured.
C. The Fa0/24 interface of P4S-S1 is down.
D. An access list is applied to an interface of P4S-R3.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 110
Choose from the following three that are found in a TCP header, but not in a UDP header? (Choose three.)
A. window size
B. destination port
C. sequence number
D. acknowledgment number
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 111
Match the corresponding commands and functions. (Not all options are used.) 1.ping 10.0.0.1 2.ping 127.0.0.1 3.tracert 4.ipconfig/all 5.arp -a 6.telnet
A. displays PC network configuration
II. displays the list of routers on a path to a network destination III.tests VTY configuration
IV. tests TCP/IP protocol stack
B. displays IP to MAC address mappings on a Windows PC
C. I-4,II-3,III-6,IV-2,V-5
D. I-4,II-3,III-1,IV-6,V-5
E. I-4,II-3,III-6,IV-5,V-2
F. I-4,II-3,III-5,IV-6,V-2
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 112
Choose from the following two advantages of Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs. (Choose two.)
A. filtering frames based on MAC addresses
B. increasing the size of broadcast domains
C. decreasing the number of collision domains
D. allowing simultaneous frame transmissions
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 113
Data is divided into smaller pieces for transmission when files are transferred between a host and an FTP server. After these pieces reach the destination host, they should be reassembled to reconstruct the original file. What is used for the reassembly of these pieces into the correct order?
A. the TTL in the IP header
B. the sequence number in the TCP header
C. the Start Frame Delimiter in the 802.3 Preamble
D. the frame check sequence in the Ethernet frame trailer
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 114
On the basis of the exhibit below. After adding host A to the network, Host A is unable to communicate on
the network. A ping issued on the host to address 127.0.0.1 fails.
What is the problem?
A. The remote host at 127.0.0.1 is unreachable.
B. The default gateway is incorrect.
C. The IP address of host A is incorrect.
D. The TCP/IP protocols are not loaded.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 115
Attaching an Ethernet cable to a PC NIC and then attaching to a switch port. The PC power is turned on and the switch port link LED becomes green. Which two conditions does the link light indicate? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 communication has been established between the PC and switch.
B. Traffic is being sent from the switch to the PC.
C. If flashing, the green LED indicates port speed of 100 Mb/s.
D. The Layer 1 media is functioning between the PC and switch.
Correct Answer: AD
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QUESTION 1
What is a Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller?
A. A Cisco ACI fabric controller with open API
B. A third-party SDN controller that is compatible with all data center switches
C. A controller module in the Nexus 9500 Switch
D. A virtual application development environment Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems- management/aci-fabric-controller/at-a-glance-c45-730001.pdf
QUESTION 2
Which statement about the Cisco APIC is true?
A. It stores policies.
B. It provides a physical connectivity port to a legacy network
C. It provides a test environment for applications.
D. It stores the storage network profile. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unified- fabric/white-paper-c11-730021.html (first para)
QUESTION 3
What is driving customer interests in SDN?
A. Return on investment
B. Programmability/ automation
C. Application bandwidth
D. Security compliance
E. Big data analytics Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which customer requirement is addressed by an ACI solution?
A. Storage consolidation
B. Multi-hypervisor environments
C. Database performance improvement
D. Big data analytics Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unified- fabric/ solution-brief-c22-729866.html (challenges, second para)
QUESTION 5
Which statement about the Cisco APIC is true?
A. It provides the application health score.
B. It provides a physical connectivity port to a legacy network
C. It stores the storage network profile.
D. It provides a test environment for applications.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
APIC Features and Capabilities
Centralized application-level policy engine for physical, virtual, and cloud infrastructures ·Detailed
visibility, telemetry, and health scores by application and by tenant
Designed around open standards and open APIs
Robust implementation of multi-tenant security, quality of service (QoS), and high availability
Integration with management systems such as VMware, Microsoft, and OpenStack Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/cloud-systems-management/application-policy- infrastructure-controller-apic/index.html
QUESTION 6
How many I/O module slots are available in the Cisco Nexus 9504 Switch?
A. 4 slots
B. 3 slots
C. 2 slots
D. 1 slot
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus9000/hw/n9504_hig/b_n9504_h ardware_install_guide/b_n9504_hardware_install_guide_chapter_01.html (see the first table on the page, second row, first column)
QUESTION 7
What is a Cisco Nexus 9500 Series Switch?
A. An all-in-one SDN solution
B. A modular switch
C. A fixed top-of-rack switch
D. A virtual software switch
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-9000-series- switches/white-paper-c11-729987.html (see the first paragraph on the page)
QUESTION 8
Which two switch port count options are available on the Cisco Nexus 9300 Series Switch? (Choose two.)
A. 96 ports
B. 48 ports
C. 24 ports
D. 72 ports
E. 128 ports
Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-9000-series- switches/ datasheet-c78-729405.html (see table 1)
QUESTION 9
Which customer initiative often leads to an ACI sales opportunity?
A. Storage consolidation
B. Network replacement or upgrade
C. Business process outsourcing
D. Security assessment
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which two data center use cases are often drivers for an SDN solution? (Choose two.)
A. Mainframe terminals
B. Secure multi-tenancy
C. BYOD
D. Applications
E. Guest wireless access
Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which two options are the two ACI solution components? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Cloud Services Router 1000V
B. Cisco Nexus 9000 Switches
C. Spine Leaf architecture
D. Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
E. Cisco Unified Computing System B-Series Servers
Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems- management/aci-fabric-controller/at-a-glance-c45-729864.pdf (page 2)
Cisco 700-701 is the composite exam associated with the Cisco Certified Network Associate certification.Candidates can prepare for this Cisco 700-701 exam.This Cisco 700-701 exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network.
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