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Question No : 1 – (Topic 1)
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?
A. Strategic plan
B. Project charter
C. Project management plan
D. Service level agreement

Answer: C
Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?
A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.
B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.

Answer: C
Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)
Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
A. Document analysis
B. Observations
C. Product analysis
D. Expert judgment

Answer: D
Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)
Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?
A. Independent estimates
B. Market research
C. Analytical techniques
D. Bidder conferences

Answer: B
Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:
A. Communication models.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational communications,
D. Organizational cultures and styles.

Answer: B
Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?
A. Expert judgment
B. Forecasting methods
C. Earned value management
D. Analytical techniques

Answer: D
Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning

Answer: A
Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Define Scope
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Collect Requirements

Answer: C
Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses

Answer: D
Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:
A. Plan Schedule Management.
B. Develop Project Charter.
C. Develop Schedule.
D. Plan Scope Management.

Answer: A
Question No : 11 – (Topic 1)
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?
A. Issue log
B. Change log
C. Expert judgment
D. Change requests

Answer: B
Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)
An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:
A. The project charter.
B. The stakeholder analysis.
C. A communication management plan.
D. A stakeholder register.

Answer: D
Question No : 13 – (Topic 1)
An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
A. Cost estimates.
B. Resource calendars,
C. The project charter,
D. The risk register.

Answer: C Question No : 14 – (Topic 1)
A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:
A. Product analysis.
B. Variance analysis.
C. Document analysis,
D. Decomposition.

Answer: B
Question No : 15 – (Topic 1)
The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:
A. Develop Project Team.
B. Manage Project Team.
C. Acquire Project Team.
D. Plan Human Resource Management.

Answer: D
Question No : 16 – (Topic 1)
Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?
A. Mandatory
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. External

Answer: A Question No : 17 – (Topic 1)
During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Control Scope

Answer: C
Question No : 18 – (Topic 1)
An input to the Manage Project Team process is:
A. Work performance reports.
B. Change requests.
C. Activity resource requirements.
D. Enterprise environmental factors.

Answer: A
Question No : 19 – (Topic 1)
Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?
A. Procurement statement of work
B. Purchase order
C. Source selection criteria
D. Bidder conference

Answer: A
Question No : 20 – (Topic 1)
A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which
Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing

Answer: B
Question No : 21 – (Topic 1)
A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?
A. Efficient
B. Effective
C. Push
D. Pull

Answer: B
Question No : 22 – (Topic 1)
Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:
A. Performance measurement baseline.
B. Analysis of project forecasts,
C. Summary of changes approved in a period,
D. Analysis of past performance.

Answer: A
Question No : 23 – (Topic 1)
A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:
A. Adaptive
B. Predictive
C. Incremental
D. Iterative

Answer: B
Question No : 24 – (Topic 1)
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?
A. 0.50
B. 0.67
C. 1.50
D. 2.00

Answer: A
Question No : 25 – (Topic 1)
Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?
A. Schedule data
B. Activity list
C. Risk register
D. Scope baseline

Answer: D
Question No : 26 – (Topic 1)
When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?
A. Interactive communication
B. Claims administration
C. Conflict management
D. Performance reporting

Answer: B
Question No : 27 – (Topic 1)
Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?
A. Interrelationship digraphs
B. Tree diagram
C. Affinity diagram
D. Network diagram

Answer: B
Question No : 28 – (Topic 1)
The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:
A. Planning.
B. Executing,
C. Monitoring and Controlling.
D. Closing.

Answer: C
Question No : 29 – (Topic 1)
Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Acquire Project Team
C. Develop Project Team
D. Plan Human Resource Management

Answer: D
Question No : 30 – (Topic 1)
Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?
A. Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques
B. Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings
C. Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis
D. Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings

Answer: D
Question No : 31 – (Topic 1)
A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?
A. Projectized
B. Weak matrix
C. Functional
D. Balanced matrix

Answer: A
Question No : 32 – (Topic 1)
A project charter is an output of which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Initiating
D. Closing

Answer: C
Question No : 33 – (Topic 1)
Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?
A. Inspection
B. Variance analysis
C. Decomposition
D. Product analysis

Answer: D
Question No : 34 – (Topic 1)
An element of the project scope statement is:
A. Acceptance criteria.
B. A stakeholder list.
C. A summary budget,
D. High-level risks.

Answer: A
Question No : 35 – (Topic 1)
Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?
A. Cost baseline
B. Service level agreement
C. Memorandum of understanding
D. Business case

Answer: D Question No : 36 – (Topic 1)
Which process involves monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing changes to the cost baseline?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Plan Cost Management

Answer: B
Question No : 37 – (Topic 1)
Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions?
A. Project team
B. Focus group
C. Change control board
D. Project stakeholders

Answer: C
Question No : 38 – (Topic 1)
Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?
A. Project Scope Management
B. Project Human Resource Management
C. Project Integration Management
D. Project Time Management

Answer: D
Question No : 39 – (Topic 1)
An output of the Validate Scope process is:
A. A requirements traceability matrix.
B. The scope management plan.
C. Work performance reports.
D. Change requests.

Answer: D
Question No : 40 – (Topic 1)
The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Planning

Answer: C
Question No : 41 – (Topic 1)
Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?
A. Project charter
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Stakeholder register
D. Organizational process assets

Answer: A
Question No : 42 – (Topic 1)
Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management?
A. Work performance data
B. Project documents
C. Scope baseline
D. Requirements documentation

Answer: B
Question No : 43 – (Topic 1)
Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?
A. Control Quality
B. Control Scope
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control

Answer: D
Question No : 44 – (Topic 1)
The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule compared to the contract is known as:
A. Work performance information.
B. Inspections and audits.
C. Payment systems.
D. Procurement performance reviews.

Answer: D
Question No : 45 – (Topic 1)
The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?
A. Project Communications Management
B. Project Integration Management
C. Project Risk Management
D. Project Scope Management

Answer: B

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QUESTION 46
What utility do you use to create and configure share points in Mac OS X Server?
A. File Manager
B. Server Admin
C. Server Manager
D. Workgroup Manager

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
The Computer Name of a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer located at alpha.pretendco.com is AlphaCN. The share point on the server is named AlphaSP. When users browse the network from the Finder on Mac OS X v10.5 and Mac OS X v10.6 computers, what name will they see?
A. AlphaCN
B. AlphaSP
C. alpha.local
D. alpha.pretendco.com

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
Your company has a set of site-licensed fonts in a folder named Fonts, on the share point, Resources, on your Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer. You are configuring the Resources share point so that these fonts will be automatically accessible by all your Mac OS X users. After you have enabled the Automount option for the Resources share point, how should you configure the share point in the automount configuration sheet?
A. Choose “Shared Library folder”.
B. Choose “Shared Applications folder”.
C. Choose “User home folders and group folders”.
D. Choose “Custom mount path” and enter “~/Library/Fonts” for the path.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
You are setting up a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer to store the home folders for 10 users. The computer has 510 GB of free space on the volume where the home folders reside. Which of these procedures will ensure that each user has an equal amount of storage space, yet leave at least 10 GB free?
A. In AFP service in Server Admin, select “Limit disk usage to”, and set the value to 50 GB.
B. In AFP service in Server Admin, select “Limit disk usage to”, and set the value to 500 GB.
C. In Workgroup Manager, in the Home pane for each user account, set the Disk Quota to 50 GB.
D. In Workgroup Manager, in the Quota pane for a group containing all of the users, set the Limit to 50 GB.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
You have enabled AFP service on your Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer. You have chosen “Any Method” for Authentication in the Access pane. The server will attempt to authenticate file service users using which authentication methods, and in what order?
A. 1. Kerberos
2. SSH
B. 1. Standard
2. Kerberos
C. 1. Kerberos
2. Standard
D. 1. SSH
2.
Standard

3.
Kerberos
E. 1. Standard
2.
Kerberos

3.
SSH

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 51
The option to allow an administrator to masquerade as any user is enabled for the AFP service on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer. How does the administrator masquerade as the user Fred when connecting to the server?
A. The administrator authenticates using Fred’s user name and the admin user’s password.
B. The administrator authenticates using the admin user name and password, then chooses Fred’s volume in the AFP volume selection dialog.
C. The administrator opens /System/Library/CoreServices/AFP Connect, enters the admin user name and password, followed by Fred’s user name and password.
D. The administrator authenticates using the admin user name and password, then chooses Fred’s name from the Action pop-up menu in the AFP volume selection dialog.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 52
AFP service in Mac OS X Server can be set to log and monitor which three types of user actions? Choose three – partial credit is possible.
A. creation of files
B. deletion of files
C. creation of folders
D. utilization of the CPU
E. changes to file and folder ownership
F. changes to file and folder permissions

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 53
Using Server Admin, what two protocols are available when you are configuring the automount for a share
point?
Choose two – partial credit is possible.

A. AFP
B. FTP
C. NFS
D. SMB
E. HTTP

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 54
A folder that resides on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer is being shared over both AFP and SMB. Why should you NOT enable oplocks on this share point?
A. If you enable oplocks, AFP users will not be able to write data to the share point.
B. If you enable oplocks, AFP users will not be able to connect to or mount the share point.
C. If you enable oplocks, files can be corrupted if they are accessed by AFP and SMB users simultaneously.
D. If you enable oplocks, SMB users will not be able to access files on the share point when an AFP user is connected.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
Which two statements are true of the permissions settings on files or folders created on an SMB share
point that resides on a Mac OS X Server computer?
Choose two – partial credit od possible.

A. The share points Owner and Group always have Read & Write permissions to new files.
B. Permissions settings on files and folders created on the share point are defined by the umask.
C. You can configure the share point so that new files inherit permissions from the parent folder.
D. The permissions set for files and folders do not apply to admin users who mount the share point over SMB.
E. You can define specific permissions settings that will be assigned to files and folders created on the share point.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 56
What does the NFS service in Mac OS X Server v10.6 use for authentication when Standard is chosen from the Minimum Security pop-up menu?
A. IP addresses
B. MAC addresses
C. cleartext passwords
D. encrypted passwords
E. Kerberos service tickets

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 54
What are two uses for USB ports on ISRs? (Choose two)
A. increased memory capabilities
B. secure device authentication
C. bulk flash storage
D. control over the types of files that can be stored
E. digital certificate storage

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
When troubleshooting poor network performance, which two symptoms would typically be associated with a network layer problem? (Choose two)
A. Packet loss is more than 30 percent
B. There is excessive broadcast traffic
C. There are excessive CRC errors
D. Pings succeed only part of the time
E. Slips are detected on WAN interfaces
F. ARP requests are timing out

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 56
Which screen on the Cisco ASDM home page would you use to see which access list rules are in effect?
A. NAT
B. Interfaces
C. Routing
D. Security Policy

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Which type of antenna is used when coverage in all directions is required?
A. directional
B. bidirectional
C. omnidirectional
D. patch

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
Which service should be disabled or filtered via a firewall because an attacker could use the service to download a copy of Cisco IOS software from a router (thereby making the router vulnerable to DOC attacks)?
A. PAD service
B. finger service
C. TCP/UDP
D. BOOTP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Which two statement best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two)
A. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router
B. Layer 2 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router
C. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or controllers
D. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSM
E. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSE

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
Refer to the exhibit.

Switches A and C are running PVST+ STP, and switch B is running 802.1Q STP, if the BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VLAN 2, then there is no blocking port in the VLAN 2 topology. The BPDU of VLAN 2 never makes a full circle around the topology, it is replaced by the VLAN 1 BPDU on the B_C link, because B runs only one STP merged with VLAN ! STP of PVST+ Thus, there is a forwarding loop What does PVST+ do to correct this?
A. Switch A sends PVST+BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by switch B) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent, which prevents the loop
B. Switch B sends PVST+BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent, which prevents the loop
C. Switch C sends PVST+BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by switch B) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent, which prevents the loop
D. Switch A sends PVST+BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent, which prevents the loop “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 21 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
What is used to prevent outside resources from accessing private information within the company?
A. IPsec
B. VPN
C. PIN
D. Firewalls

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Which type of security allows visibility into the state of the operating system and is the only way to inspect encrypted traffic?
A. zero updated architecture
B. network-based security
C. endpoint-based security
D. ACLs

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
Which two benefits will a client see from adding a Wireless LAN Controller to their Smart Business Communications System? (Choose two)
A. allow for guest access
B. increase connection speeds
C. add additional access points
D. network management with CLI

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
To avoid carrying every length of cable, lighting arrestors, and splitters when performing site surveys, engineers can outfit their survey kits with which item?
A. Category 5 cable
B. RP-TNC plug
C. antenna attenuator D. RP-TNC connector

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Which two are components of AAA? (Choose two)
A. access control lists
B. Cisco IOS Software
C. Cisco Secure Access Control Server
D. Security Audit wizard
E. network access server

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
Which three business requirements development activities are performed in the prepare phase before creating a technology strategy? (Choose three)
A. identifying and assessing customer business requirements
B. documenting and categorizing customer business requirements in terms of performance, availability, capacity, and security
C. producing a documented technology strategy
D. creating a bill of materials
E. presenting documented business requirements to a customer and having the customer validate them
F. completing a site survey

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
Which port-sales SMART Design documents are available to help you better serve your customers? (Choose three)
A. Design Guide
B. Small Business Product Guide
C. Implementation Guide
D. Solution Profile
E. Cisco Configuration Assistant
F. Application Notes

Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
Which type of VPN is deal for employees who use a home PC or public computer to access the network?
A. IP secemote access VPN
B. mobile VPN
C. dialup 0ffload VPN
D. SSL VPN
E. GET VPN

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
Which benefit can be obtained by using the change management service component in the operate phase?
A. reduced operating costs, due to consistent framework for making necessary changes in an efficient and accountable manner
B. greater accuracy, completeness, and timeliness of network configuration information
C. notification provided to interested parties regarding problems that have been identified, and a system that scales with customer requirements
D. improved system service quality and fewer disruptions

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
Refer to the exhibit.

The tables contain information from the Cisco Configuration Professional configurations of Router A and
Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the site-to-site VPN between
Router A and Router B.
What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?

A. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a Turbo ACL (150199)
B. The IKE encryption methods on the two routers are different
C. The IPSec policy map names on the two routers are different
D. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
Which of the following best describe the customer benefits of change management in the operate phase?
A. reduce unnecessary disruption, delays, rework, and other problems by establishing test cases for use in verifying that the system meets operational, functional, and interface requirements
B. improve its ability to make sound financial decisions by developing a business case based on its business requirements and establishing a basis for developing a technology strategy
C. reduce operating costs and limit changE.related incidents by providing a consistent and efficient set of processes
D. improve the return on investment and hasten migration by identifying and planning for necessary infrastructure changes and resource additions, as well as reduce deployment costs by analyzing gaps early in the planning process to determine what is needed to support the system

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
Which of these is the best definition of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach?
A. It defines the minimum set of services required to successfully deploy and operate a set of Cisco technologies.
B. It determines how best to price Cisco products.
C. It provides partners with a useful way to leverage Cisco resources.
D. It consists of these phases: plan, deploy, support, and troubleshoot.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
What two types of telephony interfaces are used for PSTN connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Digital
B. Optical
C. Analog
D. CDMA

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
Which statement correctly describes the keys witch model of deployment for call processing?
A. All IP Phones are able to answer any incoming PSTN call on any line
B. PSTN calls are routed through a receptionist or automated attendant.
C. All IP Phones in the system have a single unique extension number.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
Which definition best describes the implementation service component within the implement phase?
A. providing a step-by-step plan that details the installation andservicE.commission tasks required in order to create a controlleD.implementation environment that emulates a customer network
B. assessing the ability of site facilities to accommodate proposed infrastructure changes
C. developing and executingprooF-oF-concept tests, validating high-level infrastructure design, and identifying any design enhancements
D. Installing, configuring and integrating systems components based on an implementation plan developed in earlier phases
E. improving a customer’s infrastructure security system

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
A customer with a small enterprise network of 15 remote sites is trying to optimize its VPN by migrating some remote sites using Frame Relay connections to the Internet to using cable connections to the Internet. Minimizing costs is one of the customer’s highest priorities. Only a moderate amount of IP traffic is passing through the network, most of which is from the remote sites to the central site. IPSec should be used to provide VPN functionality and basic confidentiality is desired.
Based on the traffic patterns, which topology would be the easiest for this customer to set up and manage?
A. full mesh
B. partial mesh
C. point-to-multipoint
D. hub and spoke

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
How can the proper configuration of Voice Mail be tested at an end user’s IP phone?
A. Press the “i” button.
B. Press the “Settings” button.
C. Press the “Services” button.
D. Press the “Messages” button

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
In what location is it recommended that the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WLSM be placed?
A. distribution layer
B. core layer
C. access layer
D. network management functional module
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
Which of these is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases?
A. initiation, planning, analysis, design, development, implementation, operations and maintenance
B. project planning, site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing, and operations
C. Prepare, plan design implement operate, and optimize
D. analysis, design, deployment, testing, implementation, and production I E. presales, project planning, development, implementation, operations testing, and operations sign-off

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
What port role assignment would you make for the Gigabit Ethernet port on the Cisco CE520 used in the Smart Business Communications System?
A. IP Phone and desktop
B. Cisco UC520
C. Cisco CE520
D. Cisco 871W

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

Which method list and method is used to authenticate the remote access VPN users? (Choose two.)
A. sdm_vpn_xauth_ml_1
B. sdm_ypn_group_ml_1
C. SDM_CMAP_1
D. local database on the ISR
E. remote TACACS+ server
F. remote Radius Server

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
Refer to the exhibit. Switches A and C are running PVST+ STP, and Switch B is running 802.10 STP. If the
BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VLAN 2, then there is no blocking port in
the VLAN topology. The BPDU of VLAN 2 never makes a “full circle” around the topology; it is replaced by
the VLAN 1 BPDU on the B. C link, because B runs only one STP merged with VLAN 1 STP of PVST+.
Thus, there is a forwardin loop.
What does PVST+ do to correct this?
A. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
B. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
C. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
D. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
E. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
F. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
Which interface on the Cisco UC520 is assigned an IP address either statically or through DHCP?
A. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
B. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
C. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
D. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
E. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
F. WAN interface
G. LAN interface
H. Switch port
I. PSTN Interface

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 84
Which benefit can be obtained by using the change management service component in the operate phase?
A. Reduced operating costs due to a consistent framework for making necessary changes in an efficient and accountable manner
B. Greater accuracy, completeness, and timeliness of network configuration information
C. Notification provided to interested parties regarding problems that have been identified, and a system that scales with customer requirements
D. Improved system service quality and fewer disruptions

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
What are two ways to test the LAN connectivity on the Cisco CE520? (Choose two.)
A. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Data Access VLAN from the Cisco UC520 console.
B. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Data VLAN from a device attached to the Cisco CE520
C. Ping default gateway from the Cisco UC520.
D. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-voice VLAN from a device attached to the Cisco CE520.
E. Ping default gateway from the Cisco CE520.
F. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Distribution VLAN from the Cisco UC520 console.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
Which statement correctly describes configuration of the VPN server?
A. It requires definition of a Group ID for remote clients.
B. It requires configuration of port settings for the VPN server on the Cisco UC520.
C. It uses apreshared Key for remote device authentication
D. The WAN interface is preselected.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
In a new Cisco UC520 installation, when must IP routing be configured?
A. When the service provider assigns static IP information
B. When the service provider assigns dynamic IP information.
C. When analog PSTN trunks are used.
D. When digital PSTN trunks are used.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
Which two benefits will a client see from adding a Wireless LAN Controller to their Smart Business Communications System? (Choose two).
A. allow for guest access
B. increase connection speeds
C. add additional access points
D. network management with CLI

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
Which critical issue should you account for when implementing an integrated network security management design?
A. NAT interoperates with encrypted voice traffic
B. host-based intrusion detection systems reside in the network
C. All network devices aretime.synchronized
D. SNMP community read-write strings are configured to allow for total management access

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
In which of these phases is a customer’s current network infrastructure assessed?
A. Plan
B. Design
C. Implement
D. Prepare

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
To save time during rediscovery, which three types of device information does Cisco Configuration Assistant retain? (Choose three.)
A. IP Address
B. MAC Address
C. Host Name
D. Communication Protocol
E. Port Settings
F. Topology

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Which dial plan scenario may require PSTN trunks for outbound calls?
A. All the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and the voiceE-mail system nave direct inward dial numbers using analog trunks.
B. A subset of the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and the voiceE-mail system have direct inward dial numbers, and the remaining employees do not have direct inward dial numbers.
C. All the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and thevoiceE-mail system have direct inward dial numbers using digital interfaces.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
What are two configurable options for Call Control on the Cisco UC520? (Choose two.)
A. Shared Key
B. PBX
C. Key System
D. Encryption
E. Call Waiting

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 94
Refer to the Exhibit. According to Cisco VPN Client Software output Shown, Which two Statement are correct about the connection entry named isr? (Choose Two)

A. HMAC.SHA1 is used to authenticate the remote users.
B. Preshared key is used to authenticate the remote peer
C. AES is used to provide data confidentiality.
D. The Cisco VPN Client software is assigned an internal IP address of 192.168.1.1.
E. The PC that is running the Cisco vpn Client software win not have access to the local LAN once the PC is connected into the VPN

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 35 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
QUESTION 95
Refer to the exhibit. According to the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager window, which statement about address translation is correct?

A. Using Network Address Translation, any host on the DMZ1 subnet (172.16.1.0) will be translated to a mapped address on the outside interface of 192.168.1.11. I
B. Using port address translation, DMZ2 host 172.16.10.2 will be translated on DMZ1 to IP address
172.16.1.22 with a dynamically assigned port address.
C. Using Network Address Translation host 10.0 1.10 on the inside network will be dynamically translated to a mapped address from the address pool of 192.168.1.20 to 192.168.1.94.
D. Using port address translation, outside host 192.168.1.10 with a dynamically assigned port address will be translated to 10.0.1.11 on the inside interface.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Which two are benefits of installing Cisco Monitor Director at an SMB site for the partner selling the solution? (Choose two.)
A. simplifies Smart Business Communications System installation
B. allows the end customer to get free software updates
C. monthly recurring revenue mode
D. automated monthly reporting on system performance

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
Which Cisco Catalyst Express 520 feature optimizes quality of service?
A. Cisco Configuration Assistant
B. Cisco Smart ports
C. Cisco Network Admission Control
D. Cisco Smart Assist

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
Which three business requirements development activities are performed in the prepare phase before creating a technology strategy? (Choose three.)
A. Identifying and assessing customer business requirements
B. Documenting and categorizing customer business requirements in terms of performance, availability, capacity and security
C. Producing a documented technology strategy
D. Creating a bill of materials
E. Presentdocumented business requirements to a customer and having the customer validate them
F. Completing a site survey

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 99
Refer to the exhibit. This display has been truncated to remove information that is not relevant to the question. What would be a reason that there have been 21 ignored packets?

A. EthernetO has no CDP neighbors.
B. There are no free input buffers to accept new packets
C. There are no free output buffers for packets, which are traversing the router, to go into for transmission.
D. EthernetO and the neighbor that it is connected to are not running the same routing protocol.
E. This is not a valid error display. The display has been modified to show that there have been ignored packets.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 55
When troubleshooting poor network performance, which two symptoms would typically be associated with a network layer problem? (Choose two)
A. Packet loss is more than 30 percent
B. There is excessive broadcast traffic
C. There are excessive CRC errors
D. Pings succeed only part of the time
E. Slips are detected on WAN interfaces
F. ARP requests are timing out