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QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements about a Smart Link group are true?
A. Smart Link group consists of a maximum of two interfaces. Where there are two interfaces, one is an active interface, and the other a standby interface.
B. Of the two interfaces in a Smart Link group, one is active, and the other is standby.
C. When an active interface goes Down, the Smart Link group automatically blocks it and changes the status of the standby interface to active.
D. When an active interface recovers, the standby interface is blocked and traffic is switched back to the active interface.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements about Flush packets in a Smart Link group are true?
A. A Smart Link group sends Flush packets to instruct other devices to update the address table.
B. Flush packets use IEEE 802. 3 encapsulation*
C. The destination MAC address of Flush packets is an unknown unicast address, which is used to distinguish protocols.
D. The destination MAC address of Flush packets is a special multicast address, which is used to distinguish protocols.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 3
When links are switched in a Smart Link group, which of the following mechanisms can be used to refresh MAC and ARP entries?
A. MAC and ARP entries are refreshed automatically with respect to traffic.
B. The Smart Link group uses a new link to send Flush packets.
C. MAC entries are refreshed after the aging time expires.
D. ARP entries are refreshed after the aging time expires
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements about link aggregation are true?
A. link aggregation binds a group of physical interfaces together as a logical interface to increase the bandwidth and reliability.
B. Link aggregation complies with IEFE 802. 3ah.
C. The logical link formed by bundling multiple physical links together is called a link aggregation group (IAG) or atrunk.
D. Active and inactive interfaces exist in link aggregation. Active interfaces forward data, whereas inactive interfaces do not.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements about link aggregation are true?
A. link aggregation can be performed in manual load balancing or LACP mode. In manual loading balancing mode, LACP is disabled; in I.ACP mode, LACP is enabled.
B. In manual load balancing mode, all active member interfaces forward data and perform load balancing.
C. In static LACP mode, the creation of the Eth-Trunk and the addition or member interfaces to the Eth-Trunk are performed manually. Compared with link aggregation in manual load balancing mode, active interfaces in static LACP mode are selected by sending I.ACP Data Units (LACPDUs).
D. In dynamic LACP mode, the creation of the Eth-Trunk, the addition of member interfaces, and the selection of active interfaces are performed based on LACP negotiation.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements about LACP are true?
A. It complies with IEEE 802. 3ad.
B. A device enabled with LACP exchanges Link Aggregation Control Protocol Data Units (LACPDUs) with its peer.
C. Devices at both ends determine the active interface according to the interface priority of the active device.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 7
Which of the following reliability designs are related to routers?
A. Reliability design of the system and hardware
B. Reliability design of the software
C. Reliability test authentication
D. Reliability design of the lP network
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 8
Which of the following can speed up OSPF fast convergence?
A. Configuring dynamic BFD for OSPF
B. Adjusting the interval at which OSPF calculation is performed
C. Configuring the interval at which an LSA are retransmitted
D. Configuring the maximum number of external LSAs in the LSDB
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
When the GR Restarter performs the active/standby switchover, the neighbor performs which of the following operations when detecting that a TCP disconnection?
A. Keeping the routing tables of various address families advertised by the GR Restarter during negotiation, marking entries in these tables with stale tags, and starting a stale timer
B. Starting a restart timer.
C. Clearing all routing entries and forwarding entries related to the GR restarter if the GR restarter fails to re-establish the BGP connection with the neighbor after the restart timer expires.
D. Remaining the neighbor relationship unchanged.
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 10
RTA connected to a LAN by e0/0 whose IP address is 10. 1. 1. 251 and network Mask is 255.
255. 255. 0. Now
create a virtual router with ID I and virtual IP address 10.1.1.254 0n RTA.
Which of the following commands are correct?
A. [RTA-Ethernet0/0]vrrp vrid l virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254
B. [RTA]vrrp vrid I virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254
C. ERTA-Ethernet0/0]vrrp vrid l virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254 mask 255. 255. 255. 0
D. [RTA]vrrp vrid l virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254 mask 255. 255. 255. 0
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements about IACP are true?
A. It complies with IEEE 802. 3ad.
B. A device enabled with LACP exchanges Link Aggregation Control Protocol Data Units (LACPDUs) with its peer.
C. Devices at both ends determine the active interface according to the interface priority of the active device.
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 12
Which of the following statements about the reliability requirement level are true?
A. Faults seldom occur in the system software or hardware.
B. System functions are not affected by faults.
C. System functions are affected by faults but can rapidly recover.
D. System functions can be ensured by using redundancy design, switchover policy, and high success rate in switchover.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 13
Which of the following are end-to-end link protection modes?
A. 1:1
B. M: N
C. N: 1
D. 1+1
Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 14
On a BGP/MPLS IPv4 VPN, OSPF, LDP, and static routes are configured. Which of the following protocols need to be enabled with GR to achieve NSF on PEs?
A. OSPF
B. MPLS LDP
C. BGP
D. Static routes
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 15
In VRP 5.7, which of the following dynamic protocols support GR?
A. MPLS LDP/RSVP
B. IS-IS/OSPF
C. BGP
D. MSTP
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 16
Which of the following statements about BFD are true?
A. It cannot be used to detect MPLS networks.
B. It provides low-load and short-duration detection for paths between adjacent forwarding engines.
C. It provides a unified mechanism for detecting all types of media and BFD-supporting protocols.
D. It is a bidirectional detection mechanism.
Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements about the setup of a BFD session are true?
A. A BFD session can be set up in either static or dynamic mode.
B. A static BFD session is set up by manually configuring BFD session parameters and delivering requests for setting up a BFD session. BFD session parameters include the local and remote discriminators.
C. A dynamic BFD session is set up by dynamically allocating local discriminators.
D. Static and dynamic E3FD sessions are not differentiated.
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 18
How many hosts are available per subnet if apply a /21 mask to the class B network?
A. 510
B. 512
C. 1022
D. 2046
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 19
For a network like 175.25.128.0/19, the mask value is?
A. 250. 255. 0. 0
B. 200. 205. 224. 0
C. 250. 255. 24. 0
D. Different based on the address type
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20
The network 154.27.0.0 without any subnet can support ( ) hosts?
A. 204
B. 1024
C. 65, 534
D. 16, 777, 206
Correct Answer: C
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Question No : 1 – (Topic 1)
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?
A. Strategic plan
B. Project charter
C. Project management plan
D. Service level agreement
Answer: C
Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?
A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.
B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.
Answer: C
Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)
Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
A. Document analysis
B. Observations
C. Product analysis
D. Expert judgment
Answer: D
Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)
Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?
A. Independent estimates
B. Market research
C. Analytical techniques
D. Bidder conferences
Answer: B
Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:
A. Communication models.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational communications,
D. Organizational cultures and styles.
Answer: B
Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?
A. Expert judgment
B. Forecasting methods
C. Earned value management
D. Analytical techniques
Answer: D
Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning
Answer: A
Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Define Scope
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Collect Requirements
Answer: C
Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
Answer: D
Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:
A. Plan Schedule Management.
B. Develop Project Charter.
C. Develop Schedule.
D. Plan Scope Management.
Answer: A
Question No : 11 – (Topic 1)
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?
A. Issue log
B. Change log
C. Expert judgment
D. Change requests
Answer: B
Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)
An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:
A. The project charter.
B. The stakeholder analysis.
C. A communication management plan.
D. A stakeholder register.
Answer: D
Question No : 13 – (Topic 1)
An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
A. Cost estimates.
B. Resource calendars,
C. The project charter,
D. The risk register.
Answer: C Question No : 14 – (Topic 1)
A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:
A. Product analysis.
B. Variance analysis.
C. Document analysis,
D. Decomposition.
Answer: B
Question No : 15 – (Topic 1)
The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:
A. Develop Project Team.
B. Manage Project Team.
C. Acquire Project Team.
D. Plan Human Resource Management.
Answer: D
Question No : 16 – (Topic 1)
Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?
A. Mandatory
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. External
Answer: A Question No : 17 – (Topic 1)
During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Control Scope
Answer: C
Question No : 18 – (Topic 1)
An input to the Manage Project Team process is:
A. Work performance reports.
B. Change requests.
C. Activity resource requirements.
D. Enterprise environmental factors.
Answer: A
Question No : 19 – (Topic 1)
Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?
A. Procurement statement of work
B. Purchase order
C. Source selection criteria
D. Bidder conference
Answer: A
Question No : 20 – (Topic 1)
A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which
Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing
Answer: B
Question No : 21 – (Topic 1)
A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?
A. Efficient
B. Effective
C. Push
D. Pull
Answer: B
Question No : 22 – (Topic 1)
Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:
A. Performance measurement baseline.
B. Analysis of project forecasts,
C. Summary of changes approved in a period,
D. Analysis of past performance.
Answer: A
Question No : 23 – (Topic 1)
A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:
A. Adaptive
B. Predictive
C. Incremental
D. Iterative
Answer: B
Question No : 24 – (Topic 1)
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?
A. 0.50
B. 0.67
C. 1.50
D. 2.00
Answer: A
Question No : 25 – (Topic 1)
Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?
A. Schedule data
B. Activity list
C. Risk register
D. Scope baseline
Answer: D
Question No : 26 – (Topic 1)
When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?
A. Interactive communication
B. Claims administration
C. Conflict management
D. Performance reporting
Answer: B
Question No : 27 – (Topic 1)
Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?
A. Interrelationship digraphs
B. Tree diagram
C. Affinity diagram
D. Network diagram
Answer: B
Question No : 28 – (Topic 1)
The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:
A. Planning.
B. Executing,
C. Monitoring and Controlling.
D. Closing.
Answer: C
Question No : 29 – (Topic 1)
Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Acquire Project Team
C. Develop Project Team
D. Plan Human Resource Management
Answer: D
Question No : 30 – (Topic 1)
Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?
A. Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques
B. Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings
C. Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis
D. Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings
Answer: D
Question No : 31 – (Topic 1)
A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?
A. Projectized
B. Weak matrix
C. Functional
D. Balanced matrix
Answer: A
Question No : 32 – (Topic 1)
A project charter is an output of which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Initiating
D. Closing
Answer: C
Question No : 33 – (Topic 1)
Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?
A. Inspection
B. Variance analysis
C. Decomposition
D. Product analysis
Answer: D
Question No : 34 – (Topic 1)
An element of the project scope statement is:
A. Acceptance criteria.
B. A stakeholder list.
C. A summary budget,
D. High-level risks.
Answer: A
Question No : 35 – (Topic 1)
Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?
A. Cost baseline
B. Service level agreement
C. Memorandum of understanding
D. Business case
Answer: D Question No : 36 – (Topic 1)
Which process involves monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing changes to the cost baseline?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Plan Cost Management
Answer: B
Question No : 37 – (Topic 1)
Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions?
A. Project team
B. Focus group
C. Change control board
D. Project stakeholders
Answer: C
Question No : 38 – (Topic 1)
Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?
A. Project Scope Management
B. Project Human Resource Management
C. Project Integration Management
D. Project Time Management
Answer: D
Question No : 39 – (Topic 1)
An output of the Validate Scope process is:
A. A requirements traceability matrix.
B. The scope management plan.
C. Work performance reports.
D. Change requests.
Answer: D
Question No : 40 – (Topic 1)
The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Planning
Answer: C
Question No : 41 – (Topic 1)
Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?
A. Project charter
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Stakeholder register
D. Organizational process assets
Answer: A
Question No : 42 – (Topic 1)
Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management?
A. Work performance data
B. Project documents
C. Scope baseline
D. Requirements documentation
Answer: B
Question No : 43 – (Topic 1)
Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?
A. Control Quality
B. Control Scope
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
Answer: D
Question No : 44 – (Topic 1)
The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule compared to the contract is known as:
A. Work performance information.
B. Inspections and audits.
C. Payment systems.
D. Procurement performance reviews.
Answer: D
Question No : 45 – (Topic 1)
The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?
A. Project Communications Management
B. Project Integration Management
C. Project Risk Management
D. Project Scope Management
Answer: B
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QUESTION 46
What utility do you use to create and configure share points in Mac OS X Server?
A. File Manager
B. Server Admin
C. Server Manager
D. Workgroup Manager
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
The Computer Name of a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer located at alpha.pretendco.com is AlphaCN. The share point on the server is named AlphaSP. When users browse the network from the Finder on Mac OS X v10.5 and Mac OS X v10.6 computers, what name will they see?
A. AlphaCN
B. AlphaSP
C. alpha.local
D. alpha.pretendco.com
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
Your company has a set of site-licensed fonts in a folder named Fonts, on the share point, Resources, on your Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer. You are configuring the Resources share point so that these fonts will be automatically accessible by all your Mac OS X users. After you have enabled the Automount option for the Resources share point, how should you configure the share point in the automount configuration sheet?
A. Choose “Shared Library folder”.
B. Choose “Shared Applications folder”.
C. Choose “User home folders and group folders”.
D. Choose “Custom mount path” and enter “~/Library/Fonts” for the path.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
You are setting up a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer to store the home folders for 10 users. The computer has 510 GB of free space on the volume where the home folders reside. Which of these procedures will ensure that each user has an equal amount of storage space, yet leave at least 10 GB free?
A. In AFP service in Server Admin, select “Limit disk usage to”, and set the value to 50 GB.
B. In AFP service in Server Admin, select “Limit disk usage to”, and set the value to 500 GB.
C. In Workgroup Manager, in the Home pane for each user account, set the Disk Quota to 50 GB.
D. In Workgroup Manager, in the Quota pane for a group containing all of the users, set the Limit to 50 GB.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
You have enabled AFP service on your Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer. You have chosen “Any Method” for Authentication in the Access pane. The server will attempt to authenticate file service users using which authentication methods, and in what order?
A. 1. Kerberos
2. SSH
B. 1. Standard
2. Kerberos
C. 1. Kerberos
2. Standard
D. 1. SSH
2.
Standard
3.
Kerberos
E. 1. Standard
2.
Kerberos
3.
SSH
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 51
The option to allow an administrator to masquerade as any user is enabled for the AFP service on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer. How does the administrator masquerade as the user Fred when connecting to the server?
A. The administrator authenticates using Fred’s user name and the admin user’s password.
B. The administrator authenticates using the admin user name and password, then chooses Fred’s volume in the AFP volume selection dialog.
C. The administrator opens /System/Library/CoreServices/AFP Connect, enters the admin user name and password, followed by Fred’s user name and password.
D. The administrator authenticates using the admin user name and password, then chooses Fred’s name from the Action pop-up menu in the AFP volume selection dialog.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 52
AFP service in Mac OS X Server can be set to log and monitor which three types of user actions? Choose three – partial credit is possible.
A. creation of files
B. deletion of files
C. creation of folders
D. utilization of the CPU
E. changes to file and folder ownership
F. changes to file and folder permissions
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 53
Using Server Admin, what two protocols are available when you are configuring the automount for a share
point?
Choose two – partial credit is possible.
A. AFP
B. FTP
C. NFS
D. SMB
E. HTTP
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 54
A folder that resides on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer is being shared over both AFP and SMB. Why should you NOT enable oplocks on this share point?
A. If you enable oplocks, AFP users will not be able to write data to the share point.
B. If you enable oplocks, AFP users will not be able to connect to or mount the share point.
C. If you enable oplocks, files can be corrupted if they are accessed by AFP and SMB users simultaneously.
D. If you enable oplocks, SMB users will not be able to access files on the share point when an AFP user is connected.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
Which two statements are true of the permissions settings on files or folders created on an SMB share
point that resides on a Mac OS X Server computer?
Choose two – partial credit od possible.
A. The share points Owner and Group always have Read & Write permissions to new files.
B. Permissions settings on files and folders created on the share point are defined by the umask.
C. You can configure the share point so that new files inherit permissions from the parent folder.
D. The permissions set for files and folders do not apply to admin users who mount the share point over SMB.
E. You can define specific permissions settings that will be assigned to files and folders created on the share point.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 56
What does the NFS service in Mac OS X Server v10.6 use for authentication when Standard is chosen from the Minimum Security pop-up menu?
A. IP addresses
B. MAC addresses
C. cleartext passwords
D. encrypted passwords
E. Kerberos service tickets
Correct Answer: A
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