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QUESTION 26
What is the indication that a Mac has completed a successful power-on self test (POST)?
A. Startup Chime.
B. A series of beeps.
C. The Login Window starts.
D. The Desktop, Dock, and menu bar load.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
What step is required before upgrading the RAM in a Mac Pro (Early 2009)?
A. Remove the processor tray.
B. Remove the hard drive carriers.
C. Remove the front inlet fan assembly.
D. Remove the Optical Drive and Carrier.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
The Mac Pro (Early 2009) has SMC functionality split between a primary SMC on the backplane board, and a secondary SMC on the processor board. What service issue should a technician be aware of when servicing the Mac Pro (Early 2009)?
A. SMC firmware must always match on both boards.
B. Three internal buttons must be pressed in order to reset both SMCs.
C. It is required to remove the memory riser card in order to reset the SMC.
D. Processor trays are interchangeable between similar Mac Pro (Early 2009) units.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
A customer brings his MacBook Pro (17-inch Mid-2010) in for servicing. It is not functioning correctly and you suspect the machine has been damaged by the customer. As you inspect for accidental damage, you should open the lid and confirm that the hinges are working smoothly and inspect the LCD for scratches on the display coatings or cracks in the glass. You should also ____________________ and __________________. SELECT TWO
A. open the hard disk drive to check for scratches or dust inside
B. look for cracks, dents or scratches on the exterior of the system
C. connect the system to external speakers to check for sound output
D. check for any unusual odors coming from the system, which might indicate spill damage
E. ask the customer to describe in detail how he abused his computer to the point that it no longer functions
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 30
After identifying some accidental damage and pointing it out to the customer, the customer says “Apple’s warranty should cover this kind of problem.” How should you respond?
A. Apple will only cover the internal damage, not the cosmetic damage, so the charge will be less.
B. You’re right, Apple’s warranty does cover this kind of accidental damage, so the repair will be free.
C. Apple’s warranty does not cover this, but the AppleCare Protection Plan might, but only if you buy it now.
D. Apple’s warranty specifically calls out accidental damage as an instance where system failures are not covered.
Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 116
A customer is designing a SAN for each of two data centers. The two data centers are connected by dark fiber, which is owned by the customer. Cisco ONS platforms terminate the fiber and provide service aggregation. The customer requirements include that the SAN in each data center meet or exceed five nines of availability and be interconnected using 16 separate lambdas. The customer has four storage devices in each data center, and each storage device has four Fibre Channel interfaces. Each data center has 32 servers, and each server has two host bus adapters. The majority of the servers require only 20 to 30MBps of throughput on average, but four of the servers require 150 MBps of throughput on average. What will provide the most cost-effective design to satisfy these requirements?
A. two Cisco MDS 9216 Fabric Switches in each data center, each MDS 9216 with Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355 an additional 16-port Fibre Channel line card
B. two Cisco MDS 9216 Fabric Switches in each data center, each MDS 9216 with an additional 32-port Fibre Channel line card
C. two Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Directors with one in each data center, each MDS 9506 with two 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and two 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
D. two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors with one in each data center, each MDS 9509 with two 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and three 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
DRAG DROP
You work as network consultant. Your customer Certkiller .com requires your services. Specifically you are
required to drag Certkiller ‘s business consideration next to the MDS feature that will solve that issue. Note:
You might not have to use all available options.
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 118
What would be a good initial SAN-migration project for a small or medium-sized business that possesses ample WAN bandwidth, but that has an immediate need to reduce spending and to maximize resources?
A. Reduce the WAN bandwidth.
B. Implement FCIP to consolidate all remote SANs.
C. Implement backup consolidation.
D. Centralize the data center and implement an iSCSI solution.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 119
Exhibit:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355 Refer to the exhibit. A customer is designing a SAN for each of two data centers. The two data centers are connected by dark fiber, which is owned by the customer. Cisco ONS platforms terminate the fiber and provide service aggregation. The customer requirements include that the SAN in each data center meet or exceed five nines of availability and be interconnected using 16 separate lambdas. Links between data centers must be able to tolerate failure of any component. The customer has eight storage devices in each data center, and each storage device has eight Fibre Channel interfaces. Each data center has 120 servers, and each server has two host bus adapters. The servers generally require only 10 to 20MBps of throughput. The customer also requires that the solution be efficient on its use of ports, and provide room to grow by at least 10 percent to accommodate server growth over the next year. What is the most cost-effective design to satisfy these requirements?
A. two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors in each data center, each MDS 9509 with two 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and five 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
B. two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors in each data center, each MDS 9509 with seven 16-port Fibre Channel line cards
C. two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors in each data center, each MDS 9509 with one 16-port Fibre Channel line card and six 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
D. two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors in each data center, each MDS 9509 with seven 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
A customer has 80% of the total storage space directly connected to servers. The storage space needs are growing at 50% per year. Given these facts, which solution is recommended?
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. increase in server capacity
B. server consolidation
C. storage consolidation
D. storage expansion
E. SAN consolidation
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
In addition to providing secure computer room access, what three MDS 9000 features can help enhance physical security? (Choose three.)
A. the placement of all unused FC ports in a VSAN set to “deny”
B. the placement of every host in its own ZoneSet that includes its storage devices
C. the use of the port security feature to bind pWWNs and sWWNs to specific ports
D. the use of DH-CHAP authentication to ensure fabric level security
E. the use of SSH to block access to all unused ports
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 122
DRAG DROP Your Certkiller .com trainee Sandra asks you to match the applications with its most appropriate corresponding N-tier layer. You must comply.
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 123
A customer has two data centers connected by dark fiber and also has a requirement for synchronous data replication between the data centers. If the data centers are 48 km apart, what is the most cost effective solution?
A. CWDM
B. IVR
C. FSPF
D. DWDM
E. Native FC
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Which SFP and media-type combination would be recommended for a high-speed 10-kilometer link between two Cisco MDS switches?
A. 2-Gbps-SW, LC SFP, 50/125-micron multimode media
B. 2-Gbps-SW, LC SFP, 62.5/125-micron multimode media
C. 2-Gbps-LW, LC SFP, 9/125-micron single-mode media
D. 1-Gbps-SW, LC SFP, 50/125-micron multimode media
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
Exhibit:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
642-355
Refer to the exhibit. What port type should be used between the two switches to maximize performance?
A. B
B. E
C. F
D. NL
E. TE
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
An administrator is concerned about security and wants to have host bus adapters authenticate against an authoritative server upon fabric login. The administrator configures the fabric and hosts accordingly but needs to configure an authoritative server. Which two authentication servers can the MDS be configured to use?(Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Active Directory
B. LDAP
C. RADIUS
D. TACACS+
E. NIS Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
What MDS 9000 feature provides more efficient SAN utilization by creating hardware-based isolated environments within a single physical SAN infrastructure?
A. VSAN
B. SPAN
C. trunking
D. port channel
E. zones
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
Which statement is true about LUN zoning in a heterogeneous environment?
A. Hardware-enforced LUN zoning helps to ensure that LUNs are accessible by all hosts.
B. Use LUN zoning instead of LUN masking to centralize management in mixed storage environments.
C. LUN zoning requires no special configuration on storage arrays.
D. LUN masking should be used in all situations.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
What are two reasons that remote backup (remote vaulting) is a core application of FCIP? (Choose two.)
A. FCIP is relatively inexpensive when compared with optical storage networking.
B. Enterprises and storage service providers (SSPs) can provide remote-vaulting services by using existing FCIP WAN infrastructures.
C. FCIP is very reliable because it always uses host-based synchronous replication.
D. FCIP is very reliable because it always uses disk-based asynchronous replication.
E. Applications are often sensitive to high latency, but in a properly designed FCIP backup implementation, the application can be protected from problems with the backup process by using techniques such as snapshots and split mirrors. Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
Which SAN topology should be used for the largest SAN fabrics?
A. arbitrated loop
B. full mesh
C. core-edge
D. cascade
E. collapsed core
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 131
Which Cisco MDS feature alleviates a head-of-line blocking condition when occasional bursts of traffic exceed the capacity of an end device to receive data?
A. virtual output queues
B. VSAN allowed list
C. VSANs
D. quality of service
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
What are three key benefits of Cisco’s collapsed-core switch configuration? (Choose three.)
A. ease of management
B. increased port channel utilization
C. reduction in equipment and installation cost
D. higher effective port count
E. reduction in total disk space requirements
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
What are three host characteristics that are crucial when planning a SAN design? (Choose three.)
A. host operating system
B. data replication
C. application I/O throughput
D. type of file system
E. CUP and memory resources
F. multipathing
Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
A customer is designing a storage network infrastructure to support a database application. Each server will have two 1-Gbps host bus adapters, one connected to each of the two physical fabrics. The disk array has two 2-Gbps Fibre Channel interfaces. Each server will need to drive 20 MBps (encoded) of throughput continuously per host bus adapter, and the multipathing software on each server is not configured for load balancing.What is the maximum number of servers that can be connected to this disk array while satisfying the performance requirement?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
In the design of an iSCSI implementation in conjunction with a Cisco MDS-based SAN, which technology provides for diverse connections into multiple SAN switches and is used to provide automatic failover using a single target IP address?
A. multipathing
B. EtherChannel
C. VRRP
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
What effect does VSAN technology have on typical capacity planning for a storage network?
A. Because of the complete isolation of VSANs, more ports are required in a VSAN environment than in a non-VSAN environment.
B. When capacity planning where VSANs will be implemented, each VSAN must be capacity planned independently of all other VSANs.
C. VSANs are over provisioned separately to provide for capacity growth.
D. Unused ports can easily be redeployed for other applications in other VSANs.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
A customer has 80% of the total storage space directly connected to servers. The storage space needs are growing at 50% per year. Given these facts, which solution is recommended?
A. increase in server capacity
B. server consolidation
C. storage consolidation
D. storage expansion
E. SAN consolidation
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
Exhibit:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
Refer to the exhibit. What topology allows the customer network, made up of several SAN islands, to be integrated into a single SAN topology, and still retain its existing functionality?
A. Core-Edge Topology
B. VSAN with Collapsed-Core Topology
C. VSAN with Core-Edge Topology
D. Single Large SAN Fabric
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. A customer has deployed two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors. One MDS 9509 is deployed in each of two separate data centers. The primary data center is always active, and the secondary data center is considered a standby site. The data centers are connected together by an unreliable Gigabit Ethernet connection that is shared by many departments. A replication application is using Fibre Channel over IP (FCIP) as its transport mechanism over the Gigabit Ethernet circuit. The administrator is concerned about network stability in the production fabric and the impact of a Gigabit Ethernet circuit outage on the production fabric. The administrator is deploying Inter-VSAN Routing to isolate the production fabric from the standby data center fabric, and only has one license. Where should the administrator install and configure Inter-VSAN Routing?
A. Switch A
B. Switch B
C. The administrator should not install and configure Inter-VSAN Routing.
D. Switch A and Switch B
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 140
A customer has a need to synchronously replicate data from the primary data center to a standby data center that is 30 kilometers away. The customer owns the
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
fiber between the two data centers and uses the link for Gigabit Ethernet connectivity today. The Gigabit Ethernet connection is heavily utilized and generally remains at 90-percent utilization. The customer expects that the replication traffic will require approximately 30 MBps, and is looking for a low-cost solution. Which replication solution would you recommend?
A. FCIP
B. CWDM
C. DWDM
D. iSCSI
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
Which statement best defines storage consolidation?
A. making an enterprise’s total disk space highly available to the entire enterprise, often by placing it in a SAN
B. making an enterprise’s disk space, servers, and tape libraries highly available to the entire enterprise, often by placing them in a SAN
C. making an enterprise’s total storage networking less costly by using iSCSI
D. making an enterprise’s total disk space highly available by transferring copies of an enterprise’s total storage space to an offsite location
E. making an enterprise’s total disk space highly available by connecting all of an enterprise’s storage devices to one (or two) large servers
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
A customer SAN design requires the use of existing non-Cisco storage switches in a core edge topology. What must be considered when attaching an MDS 9000 switch as the core device in this network?
A. Trunking is not supported between the core and edge switches.
B. Zoning cannot be used since the domain IDs are in different ranges.
C. FSPF cannot be used between the core and edge switches.
D. If VSANs are implemented in the core, IVR cannot be used.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
Select three common attributes of Gigabit Ethernet compared to Fibre Channel as a storage transport service. (Choose three.)
A. high bandwidth
B. low bandwidth
C. high latency
D. low latency
E. long distance
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
What are three value-added features in the Cisco MDS 9000 Series of multiprotocol directors? (Choose three.)
A. FSPF
B. FCC
C. link aggregation
D. buffer-to-buffer credits
E. QoS
F. IPFC
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
Which design approach provides the greatest protection against failures when designing for high availability?
A. Segment the SAN architecture by the use of VSANs.
B. Use zoning to isolate applications in a consolidated SAN architecture.
C. Use appropriate MDS QoS mechanisms to guarantee that each application receives the necessary bandwidth.
D. Implement redundant fabrics across redundant physical infrastructures.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 1
What two statements correctly describe vision or mission? (Choose two.)
A. A mission is a statement of the purpose of a company.
B. A vision is what a company wants to become in the mid-term or long-term future.
C. A vision describes actions the organization will take to achieve specific goals.
D. A mission identifies the company’s planned investments to increase revenue.
E. A vision is only used by for-profit companies.
F. A mission is only used by public sector organizations.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2
What two statements are true about Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)? (Choose two.)
A. A KPI is a quantifiable metric of the performance of essential operations and/or processes in an organization.
B. A KPI provides the focal point for identifying how much risk a company can take in trying to avoid government fines.
C. A KPI could reflect the performance of Service Providers in achieving their goals and objectives.
D. KPIs are based on judgment, and therefore should be used carefully when defining the value of a technology solution.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4 Select and Place:
Correct Answer: QUESTION 5 Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
Which is a critical first step when thinking about how to communicate technical content to a senior business manager?
A. Identify a person on her staff who can explain details.
B. Listen to the customer to understand her KPIs.
C. Plan out your message to explain potential options.
D. Draft a high level message using language pulled from the top IT vendors.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Your company wants to increase sales by selling in new countries and by getting more repeat orders and revenue from current customers. What is one technique that can help to communicate how technology solutions can improve business outcomes?
A. Prepare a detailed cause and effect model.
B. Benchmark different technology solutions to identify the best mix of hardware and software.
C. Prepare a visual diagram showing the current business operation and possible future scenarios with different technology solutions in place.
D. Create a document that has a summary of current problems followed by detailed descriptions of technology features that reduce operating costs.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
When asked about IT skills gaps, where does “Speak business language” fall in a list of concerns?
A. “Speak business language” would be helpful to improve, but not among the most critcal gaps.
B. The ranking varies depending on the industry and whether the business person is new in their job.
C. “Speak business language” is consistently mentioned as a top concern for IT professionals.
D. “Speak business language” is a very low priority but moving higher because business people need to learn the terms for technologies like cloud.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
What is a recommended technique for building a good relationship with someone who has a dominanting or very strong personality?
A. 1. Be direct and clear. 2. Stick to the topic, with little discussion about things outside of work.
B. 1. Use humor to create an informal environment. 2. Use emotional language or speak in extreme terms — like “outstanding” or “I love that idea”.
C. 1. Make sure to get your points out first and explain why they are right. 2. Be prepared for criticism and have a couple of topics ready where you will immediately give in.
D. 1. Discuss the person’s interests outside of work. 2. Limit the conversation to just two topics, since the conversation will likely go into detailed stories about experiences.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which two communications or interpersonal skills are critical for an Enterprise IT Business Specialist? (Choose two.)
A. Ability to build relationships
B. Ability to explain design decisions in multiple languages
C. Ability to plan and schedule complex data migration
D. Ability to influence others
E. Ability to interpret financial statements
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 6
Which is a critical first step when thinking about how to communicate technical content to a senior business manager?
A. Identify a person on their staff who can explain details to them
B. Gather information and assess their level of interest and knowledge about technical topics
C. Plan out your message to explain the problem, situation and options – before communicating a decision or recommendation
D. Draft a high level message, which uses terms and language pulled from web sites from the top IT vendors
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which is a recommended approach for gaining trust from stakeholders that you understand their needs?
A. Keep the conversations very specific to your areas of technical expertise.
B. Start discussions at a high level before focusing on detailed technical items.
C. Explain how you are fixing problems followed by asking questions such as where lower expenses fall in their list of priorities.
D. Start the discussion by providing examples of what you have done for other departments in the past.
Correct Answer: B Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
Business departments have each selected one person to represent their needs for an improved reporting system. Which is a recommended way to capture, confirm, and prioritize the requirements of the group of departments?
A. Conduct individual interviews then summarize the inputs.
B. Send out a survey to the representatives and the managers of each department.
C. Conduct one or more workshop sessions.
D. Distribute two industry benchmark reports then run a conference call to hear opinions and answer questions.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
What is a primary benefit of asking questions to stakeholders who do not have strong decision authority over project funding, but who do have relevant experience?
A. It shows them that you are interested in their opinions.
B. The more data, the better.
C. It can find requirements or opportunities that are relevant to future discussions.
D. It shows the decision makers you are taking the initiative to get input from people that they might not have identified for interviews.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which two are characteristics of using effective questions to gather information? (Choose two.)
A. They do not bias or influence the respondent to agree with the interviewer’s opinion.
B. They should be structured for a simple “yes” or “no” response.
C. They provide a scenario, so that the respondent can make assumptions in providing her answer.
D. Each question is independent of other questions that may be asked during an interview.
E. They may be tailored to the audience, or could be a standard set of questions for a group of respondents.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 4
Which discovery methods or aids are typically free?
A. Unlimited access to all reports from conferences run by research firms
B. Government reports on the availability of access to broadband within different emerging countries
C. Analysis of private company expenditures on technology
D. White papers authored by consultants, industry professionals, analyst firms, or vendors
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which discovery methods or aids typically cost a fee?
A. White papers authored by consultants, industry professionals, analyst firms, or vendors
B. Unlimited access to all reports from conferences run by research firms
C. Primary Research
D. Crowdsharing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which two are examples of open-ended questions? (Choose two.)
A. What switch models do you currently use in your network?
B. What are the main reasons why customers prefer ordering services from you?
C. What is the planned ROI for this new implementation?
D. What do you think about the future of the Data Center market?
E. What are your working hours?
F. Does your existing infrastructure maintenance become more problematic each year?
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 7
Which two are true of closed questions? (Choose two.)
A. Closed questions are used to retrieve facts.
B. Respondents can answer closed questions more quickly because they seek a limited amount of detail.
C. Closed questions are used to retrieve opinions.
D. Closed questions are used to make decisions based on the data in a report.
E. Closed questions are excellent for workshops where you need people to come to a consensus about a design decision.
Correct Answer: AB
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QUESTION 26
During a network design review, it is recommended that the network with a single large area should be broken up into a backbone and multiple nonbackbone areas. There are differing opinions on how many ABRs are needed for each area for redundancy. What would be the impact of having additional ABRs per area?
A. There is no impact to increasing the number of ABRs.
B. The SPF calculations are more complex.
C. The number of externals and network summaries are increased.
D. The size of the FIB is increased.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
A large enterprise customer is migrating thousands of retail offices from legacy TDM circuits to an Ethernet-based service. The network is running OSPF and has been stable for many years. It is now possible to backhaul the circuits directly to the data centers, bypassing the regional aggregation routers. Which two networking issues need to be addressed to ensure stability with the new design? (Choose two.)
A. Nothing will change if the number of offices is the same.
B. Nothing will change if the number of physical interfaces stays the same.
C. The RIB will increase significantly.
D. The FIB will increase significantly.
E. The amount of LSA flooding will increase significantly.
F. The size of the link-state database will increase significantly.
Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.
The design is being proposed for use within the network. The CE devices are OSPF graceful restart-capable, and the core devices are OSPF graceful restart-aware. The WAN advertisements received from BGP are redistributed into OSPF. A forwarding supervisor failure event takes place on CE A. During this event, how will the routes learned from the WAN be seen on the core devices?
A. via CE A and CE B
B. via CE A
C. via CE B
D. no WAN routes will be accessible
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.
How would you adjust the design to improve convergence on the network?
A. Add an intra-POP link between routers 1A and 1B, and enable IP LFA FRR.
B. Use an IP SLA between the end stations to detect path failures.
C. Enable SSO-NSF on routers 1A and 1B.
D. Use BGP to connect the sites over the WAN.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
A company requests that you consult with them regarding the design of their production, development, and test environments. They indicate that the environments must communicate effectively, but they must be kept separate due to the inherent failures on the development network. What will be configured on the links between the networks to support their design requirements?
A. IBGP
B. EBGP
C. OSPF
D. static routes
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 31
A service provider creates a network design that runs MPLS in its WAN backbone using OSPF as the IGP routing protocol. What would be two effects of additionally implementing MPLS-TE? (Choose two.)
A. MPLS-TE is required to reroute traffic within less than 1 second in case of a link failure inside the backbone.
B. MPLS-TE is required to route different MPLS QoS service classes through different paths.
C. MPLS-TE and OSPF cannot be used together inside one MPLS network.
D. MPLS-TE cannot use OSPF for the traffic path calculation.
E. MPLS-TE is required to create backup paths independently from the IGP.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit.
Your junior design engineer presents this configuration design. What is the next-hop router for CE3, and why?
A. CE1. BGP weight is higher than CE2.
B. CE2. EBGP administrative distance is lower than RIP.
C. CE2. The link between CE2 and PE1 has more bandwidth than CE1-to-PE1.
D. CE1. HSRP on CE1 is in active state.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Which two mechanisms ensure that a network design provides fast path failure detection? (Choose two.)
A. BFD
B. fast hello packets
C. UDLD
D. IP Cisco Express Forwarding
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 34
In which two ways is a network design improved by the inclusion of IP Event Dampening? (Choose two.)
A. reduces processing load
B. provides sub-second convergence
C. improves network stability
D. prevents routing loops
E. quickly detects network failures
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 35
You are evaluating convergence characteristics of various interior gateway protocols for a new network design. Which technology allows link-state routing protocols to calculate paths to destination prefixes that are functionally similar to feasible successors in Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol?
A. Incremental Shortest Path First
B. Cisco Multiprotocol Label Switching Traffic Engineering Fast Reroute
C. Loop-Free Alternate Fast Reroute
D. partial route calculation
E. Fast-Flooding
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
You are hired to design a solution that will improve network availability for users on a campus network with routed access. If the budget limits you to three components, which three components would you recommend in your design proposal? (Choose three.)
A. redundant power supplies in the access routers
B. standby route processors for SSO in the core routers
C. standby route processors for SSO in the distribution routers
D. standby route processors for SSO in the access routers
E. replace copper links between devices with fiber links
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 37
You are designing a network to support data, voice and video. Which two main factors will you address to improve network convergence? (Choose two.)
A. event propagation delay
B. failure detection delay
C. forwarding engine update delay
D. routing table recalculation delay
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit.
This diagram depicts the design of a small network that will run EIGRP on R1 and R2, and EIGRP Stub on R3. In which two ways will this network be impacted if there is link instability between R1 and R2? (Choose two.)
A. R1 will have routes in its routing table that originate from R2 and R3.
B. R3 will have routes in its routing table that originate from R1 and R2.
C. R2 will have routes in its routing table that originate from R1 and R3.
D. R3 will be transit for traffic between R1 and R2.
E. R3 will not be transit for traffic between R1 and R2.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit.
In this BGP design, what is the next hop for 10.1.1.0/24 on R8 and R7?
A. The next hop for 10.1.1.0/24 on R7 is R8 and the next hop for R8 is R7.
B. The next hop for 10.1.1.0/24 on R7 is R5 and the next hop for R8 is R6.
C. The next hop for 10.1.1.0/24 on R7 is R6 and the next hop for R8 is R5.
D. The next hop for 10.1.1.0/24 on R7 is R3 and the next hop for R8 is R4.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit.
You are developing a migration plan to enable IPv6 in your IPv4 network. Starting at R3 and assuming default IS-IS operations, what is likely to happen when you enable IPv6 routing on the link from R3 to R2?
A. Only R3 and R2 have IPv4 and IPv6 reachability.
B. R2 receives an IPv6 default route from R3.
C. Loopback reachability between all routers for IPv4 is lost.
D. All routers except R2 are reachable through IPv4.
E. R3 advertises the link from R3-R2 to R1, R4 and R5 only.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
You are a network designer and are responsible for ensuring that the network you design is secure. How do you plan to prevent infected devices on your network from sourcing random DDoS attacks using forged source addresses?
A. ACL-based forwarding
B. ACL filtering by destination
C. Unicast RPF loose mode
D. Unicast RPF strict mode
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
Your design plan includes mutual redistribution of two OSPF networks at multiple locations, with connectivity to all locations in both networks. How is this accomplished without creating routing loops?
A. Use route maps on the ASBRs to allow only internal routes to be redistributed.
B. Use route maps on the ASBRs to allow internal and external routes to be redistributed.
C. Use route maps on the ASBRs to set tags for redistributed routes.
D. Use route maps on the ASBRs to filter routes with tags so they are not redistributed.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
A planned EBGP network will use OSPF to reach the EBGP peer addresses. Which of these conditions should be avoided in the design that could otherwise cause the peers to flap continuously?
A. An ACL blocks TCP port 179 in one direction.
B. IP addresses used to peer are also being sent via EBGP.
C. The OSPF area used for peering is nonbackbone (not area 0).
D. The routers are peered by using a default route sent by OSPF.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
When designing a large full mesh network running OSPF, how would you reduce LSA repetition?
A. Elect a DR and BDR.
B. Use access control lists to control outbound advertisements.
C. Choose one or two routers to re-flood LSA information.
D. Put each of the point-to-point links in your full mesh networking into a separate area.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
A data center provider has designed a network using these requirements:
Two data center sites are connected to the public Internet.
Both data centers are connected to different Internet providers.
Both data centers are also directly connected with a private connection for the internal traffic, and public Internet traffic can also be routed at this direct
connection.
The data center provider has only one /19 public IP address block.
Under normal conditions, Internet traffic should be routed directly to the data center where the services are located. When one Internet connection fails, the complete traffic for both data centers should be routed by using the remaining Internet connection. In which two ways can this routing be achieved? (Choose two.)
A. The data center provider must have an additional public IP address block for this routing.
B. One /20 block is used for the first data center and the second /20 block is used for the second data center. The /20 block from the local data center is sent out with a low BGP weight and the / 20 block from the remote data center is sent out with a higher BGP weight at both sites.
C. One /20 block is used for the first data center and the second /20 block is used for the second data center. The /20 block from the local data center is sent out without path prepending and the / 20 block from the remote data center is sent out with path prepending at both sites.
D. One /20 block is used for the first data center and the second /20 block is used for the second data center. Each /20 block is only sent out locally. The /19 block is sent out at both Internet connections for the backup case to reroute the traffic through the remaining Internet connection.
E. One /20 block is used for the first data center and the second /20 block is used for the second data center. The /20 block from the local data center is sent out with a low BGP local preference and the /20 block from the remote data center is sent out with a higher BGP local preference at both sites.
F. BGP will always load-balance the traffic to both data center sites.
Correct Answer: CD
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QUESTION 127
Which statement is true about the Forward Information Base (FIB) table?
A. The FIB is derived from the IP routing table and is optimized for maximum lookup throughput.
B. The FIB table is derived from the Address Resolution Protocol table, and it contains Layer 2 rewrite (MAC) information for the next hop.
C. The FIB lookup is based on the Layer 2 destination MAC address.
D. When the FIB table is full, a wildcard entry redirects traffic to the Layer 3 engine.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
Refer to the exhibit. Both host stations are part of the same subnet but are in different VLANs. On the
basis of the information presented in the exhibit, which statement is true about an attempt to ping from host
to host?
A. A trunk port will need to be configured on the link between Sw_A and Sw_B for the ping command to be successful.
B. The two different hosts will need to be in the same VLAN in order for the ping command to be successful.
C. A Layer 3 device is needed for the ping command to be successful. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
D. The ping command will be successful without any further configuration changes.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
Which switch command enables a trunking protocol that appends a four byte CRC to the packet?
A. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation itef
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation fddi
D. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation isl
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
Which statement describes Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) mode ‘desirable’?
A. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode and negotiates to convert the link into a trunk link.
B. The interface actively attempts to convert the link to a trunk link.
C. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode but prevented from generating DTP frames.
D. The interface is put into a passive mode, waiting to convert the link to a trunk link.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 131
Which three statements are correct with regard to the IEEE 802.1Q standard? (Choose three.)
A. the packet is encapsulated with a 26 byte header and a 4 byte FCS
B. the IEEE 802.1Q frame format adds a 4 byte field to a Ethernet frame
C. the IEEE 802.1Q frame retains the original MAC destination address
D. the IEEE 802.1Q frame uses multicast destination of 0x01-00-0c-00-00
E. protocol uses point-to-point connectivity
F. protocol uses point-to-multipoint connectivity
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
In a customer’s network, VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is running with a domain named main1.
VLANs 1,2,3,4,5,10,20 are active on the network. Suddenly the whole network goes down. No traffic is
being passed on VLANs 2,3,4,5,10,20, however traffic passes on VLAN 1 and indicates all switches are
operational. Right before the network problem occurred, a switch named TEST1 was added to the
network.
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam
http://www.TestInside.com Testinside What three configuration issues on TEST1 could be causing the network outage? (Choose three.)
A. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with a different domain name.
B. TEST1 is not configured to participate in VTP.
C. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with the domain name main1.
D. TEST1 has a lower VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
E. TEST1 has a higher VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
F. TEST1 is configured with only VLAN1.
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
Which DTP switchport mode parameter sets the switch port to actively send and respond to DTP negotiation frames?
A. access
B. trunk
C. no negotiate
D. dynamic desirable
E. dynamic auto
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
Which method of Layer 3 switching uses a forwarding information base (FIB)?
A. route caching
B. flow-based switching
C. demand-based switching
D. topology-based switching
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
Which protocol specified by RFC 2281 provides network redundancy for IP networks, ensuring that
user traffic immediately and transparently recovers from first-hop failures in network edge devices or
access circuits?
A. STP
B. IRDP TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
C. ICMP
D. HSRP
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
In which three HSRP states do routers send hello messages? (Choose three.)
A. standby
B. learn
C. listen
D. speak E. active
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
Which protocol enables a group of routers to form a single virtual router and use the real IP address of
a router as the gateway address?
A. Proxy ARP
B. HSRP
C. IRDP
D. VRRP
E. GLBP
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
Which protocol inserts a four byte tag into the Ethernet frame and recalculates CRC value?
A. VTP
B. 802.1Q
C. DTP
D. ISL
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
What is the cause of jitter?
A. variable queue delays TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
B. packet drops
C. transmitting too many small packets
D. compression
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 140
The original frame is encapsulated and an additional header is added before the frame is carried over
a trunk link. At the receiving end, the header is removed and the frame is forwarded to the assigned VLAN.
This describes which technology?
A. DISL
B. DTP
C. IEEE 802.1Q
D. ISL
E. MPLS
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
On a multilayer Catalyst switch, which interface command is used to convert a Layer 3 interface to a
Layer 2 interface?
A. switchport
B. no switchport
C. switchport mode access
D. swithport access vlan vlan-id
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
Which two statements concerning STP state changes are true? (Choose two.)
A. Upon bootup, a port transitions from blocking to forwarding because it assumes itself as root.
B. Upon bootup, a port transitions from blocking to listening because it assumes itself as root.
C. Upon bootup, a port transitions from listening to forwarding because it assumes itself as root.
D. If a forwarding port receives no BPDUs by the max_age time limit, it will transition to listening.
E. If a forwarding port receives an inferior BPDU, it will transition to listening.
F. If a blocked port receives no BPDUs by the max_age time limit, it will transition to listening. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
How does 802.1q trunking keep track of multiple VLAN’s?
A. modifies the port index of a data frame to indicate the VLAN
B. adds a new header containing the VLAN ID to the data frame
C. encapsulates the data frame with a new header and frame check sequence
D. tags the data frame with VLAN information and recalculates the CRC value
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Given the above partial configuration, which two statements are true about VLAN traffic? (Choose two.)
A. VLANs 1-5 will be blocked if fa0/10 goes down.
B. VLANs 1-5 will use fa0/10 as a backup only.
C. VLANs 6-10 will use fa0/10 as a backup only.
D. VLANs 6-10 have a port priority of 128 on fa0/10.
E. VLANs 1-10 are configured to load share between fa0/10 and fa0/12.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
Given the above diagram and assuming that STP is enabled on all switch devices, which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
A. DSW11 will be elected the root bridge.
B. DSW12 will be elected the root bridge.
C. ASW13 will be elected the root bridge.
D. P3/1 will be elected the nondesignated port.
E. P2/2 will be elected the nondesignated port.
F. P3/2 will be elected the nondesignated port.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Examine the diagram. A network administrator has recently installed the above switched network using 3550s and would like to control the selection of the root bridge. Which switch should the administrator configure as the root bridge and which configuration command must the administrator enter to accomplish this?
A. DSW11(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
B. DSW12(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
C. ASW13(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
D. DSW11(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096 TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com
Testinside
E. DSW12(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
F. ASW13(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
On a 3550 EMI switch, which three types of interfaces can be used to configure HSRP? (Choose three.)
A. loopback interface
B. SVI interface
C. routed port
D. access port
E. EtherChannel port channel
F. BVI interface
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Which command will need to be added to External_A to ensure that it will take over if serial 0/0 on External_B fails?
A. standby 1 preempt
B. standby 1 track 10.10.10.1 TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
C. standby 1 priority 130
D. standby 1 track fastethernet 0/0
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Examine the router output above. Which two items are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Router A will assume the active state if its priority is the highest.
B. If Ethernet 0/2 goes down, the standby router will take over.
C. When Ethernet 0/3 of RouterA comes back up, the priority will become 105.
D. The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.6.
E. The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.20.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
Which router redundancy protocol cannot be configured for interface tracking?
A. HSRP
B. GLBP
C. VRRP
D. SLB
E. RPR
F. RPR+
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
QUESTION 151
Based on the show spanning-tree vlan 200 output shown in the exhibit, which two statements about
the STP process for VLAN 200 are true? (Choose two.)
A. BPDUs will be sent out every two seconds.
B. The time spent in the listening state will be 30 seconds.
C. The time spent in the learning state will be 15 seconds.
D. The maximum length of time that the BPDU information will be saved is 30 seconds.
E. This switch is the root bridge for VLAN 200.
F. BPDUs will be sent out every 10 seconds.
Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Which two statements are true when the extended system ID feature is enabled? (Choose two.)
A. The BID is made up of the bridge priority value(two bytes) and bridge MAC address (six bytes).
B. The BID is made up of the bridge priority (four bits), the system ID (12 bits), and a bridge MAC address (48 bits).
C. The BID is made up of the system ID (six bytes) and bridge priority value (two bytes).
D. The system ID value is the VLAN ID (VID).
E. The system ID value is a unique MAC address allocated from a pool of MAC addresses assigned to the switch or module.
F. The system ID value is a hex number used to measure the preference of a bridge in the spanning-tree algorithm.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
QUESTION 153
What can be determined about the HSRP relationship from the displayed debug output?
A. The preempt feature is not enabled on the 172.16.11.111 router.
B. The nonpreempt feature is enabled on the 172.16.11.112 router.
C. Router 172.16.11.111 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
16.11.112.
A. Router 172.16.11.112 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 155
16.11.111.
A. The IP address 172.16.11.111 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.
B. The IP address 172.16.11.112 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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