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To ensure project success, what do teams need to pay attention to? (Choose two.)
A. creating a Use Case Diagram for the requirements
B. involving users as early as possible
C. creating a clear statement of business objectives
D. reviewing and validating requirements with stakeholders to achieve a shared vision and concurrence
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 2
What does a business process diagram represent?
A. global processes
B. enterprise processes
C. organizational processes
D. company to company processes
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 3
With the appropriate privileges, which three actions can users take to manipulate folders? (Choose three.)
A. move artifacts between folders within the same project area
B. move folders within a project within the same project area
C. copy folders from one project area to another
D. delete folders within a project within the same project area
E. link folders between project areas
Answer: B,D
Which valid system files can be uploaded to a Rational Requirements Composer project?
A. Word, Excel, CSV, and HTML only
B. Word, Excel, HTML, and images only
C. Word, Excel, CSV, HTML, and images
D. Word, Excel, HTML, and images only
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 5
Which detailed requirements do use cases contain?
A. functional requirements
B. non-functional requirements
C. testable requirements
D. feature requirements
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 6
Which two capabilities in Rational Requirements Composer allow authors to create and modify artifact content, attributes, and links in the Artifact editor? (Choose two.)
A. artifact format
B. Open Artifact checkbox
C. Edit button
D. double-clicking the artifact
E. right-clicking the artifact
Answer: B,C
Which two actions can be taken against each artifact under review? (Choose two.)
A. approve
B. pass
C. disapprove
D. reject
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 8
Which statement best describes the process of creating saved filters?
A. Saved filters are created, and then you define the filters that go into it.
B. After you have defined your collection, you can then decide which artifacts appear in the saved filter.
C. After you have created your artifacts, you can associate the artifacts to your filter.
D. After you have defined filter criteria, you can save the filter for future use.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 9
What does the use case model consists of?
A. actors and use cases
B. diagrams only
C. text only
D. diagrams and text
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
An administrator wants to prevent a user role from updating project and personal dashboards.
Where should the administrator manage this from?
A. Manage Project Properties
B. Open My Personal Dashboard (default)
C. Manage this Project Area
D. Lifecycle Project Administration
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 11
Where is a process performed?
A. only within a company
B. within or across companies only
C. within or across organizations only
D. within or across companies and organizations
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
When does a review reach the Finalized state?
A. when all required reviewers have marked the review complete
B. when all required reviewers have Approved, Disapproved, or Abstained on all artifacts in the review
C. when all required reviewers have marked the review complete, and the review creator has clicked the Finalize Review button
D. when all required reviewers have marked all artifacts Approved
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
Besides derivation and impact analysis, what does traceability support?
A. elaboration, progress analysis, and lifecycle coverage analysis
B. progress analysis and lifecycle coverage analysis only
C. elaboration and progress analysis only
D. elaboration and lifecycle coverage analysis only
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14
A business analyst on a project wants to identify which requirements were changed last week by a specific team member. Which attributes should be selected and filtered to only display those artifacts?
A. Name and Last modified on
B. Name and Status
C. Last modified on and Last modified by
D. Created on and Created by
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 15
Which three OSLC link types would be used in a Saved Filter to get Lifecycle Traceability across the Collaborative Lifecycle Management (CLM) solution from Rational Requirements Composer? (Choose three.)
A. Tracked by
B. Validated by
C. Implemented by
D. Developed by
E. Tested by
Answer: A,B,C
After an artifact is embedded in another artifact, which two controls can be used to manipulate the embedded requirement? (Choose two.)
A. hide
B. show
C. maximize
D. delete
E. minimize
Answer: C,E
QUESTION NO: 17
A requirements collection has been completed by the business analysts, and is now ready for the development team to start working. What should the business analyst link to?
A. Requirement Implementation plan
B. Development plan
C. Test plan
D. User Story
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
Which lifecycle states do both formal and informal reviews have?
A. New, In progress, Reviewed, Complete
B. Draft, In progress, Paused, Reviewed, Finalized
C. New, Under review, Reviewed, Finalized
D. Draft, Under review, Paused, Complete, Finalized
Answer: B
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Question No : 1
What is the annotation for local interface?
A. @local
B. @localInterface
C. @Interface
D. @ejbLocal
Answer: A
Question No : 2
Which two are Session Bean interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. local interface
B. remote interface
C. provider interface
D. external interface
Answer: A,B
Question No : 3
A developer needs to check the state of one of the JSF Managed Beans when an application is paused. Although all Managed Beans (and other scoped objects) can be found by looking at the FacesContext object available in the Variables view, finding the objects this way can be difficult and time consuming. What is the simplest way for a developer to check the state of scoped objects and view attributes?
A. create matches for scoped objects and view attributes and view the values at the Expression window
B. print the report of the scoped objects and view attributes, then filter the scoped object out of the list
C. execute the pauseTime.bat under the install_root/eclipse/plug-ins/scopedValue, which will print the values of the scoped objects and view attributes
D. enable the runtime JVMPI values for the variables
Answer: A Question No : 4
A developer needs to debug an application. What can the developer do to get the debug perspective on Rational Application Developer?
A. select Window -> Open Perspective -> (Other) -> Debug
B. select Window -> New Perspective -> Open -> Debug
C. select Window -> Debug
D. select Window -> Application -> Open -> Debug
Answer: A
Question No : 5
What is an example of an application component type?
A. Applet
B. Web Module
C. Resource Adapter
D. Deployment Descriptor
Answer: A
Question No : 6
Web 2.0 technologies improve the user interface of web-based applications and RAD8 provides support for several of these technologies. Which two technologies supported by RAD8 are provided to make Web 2.0 easier? (Choose two.)
A. Dojo Javascript library
B. Web Security Editor
C. Ajax Proxy
D. Dynamic Page Template support (Tiles)
Answer: A,C Question No : 7
A development team is starting a new web application project and building a set of servlets for the first time. Which two methods can be used to create an initial set of servlets for the project? (Choose two.)
A. take an existing Java class and select the Refactor to servlet option and follow the wizard screens to configure the project and servlet parameters
B. create a new class that extends java.com.servlet in a Java project and add the project to the web project as a Java utility project
C. create a new class that extends java.com.servlet and add a “servlet” entry to the web application deployment descriptor
D. create a new class that extends java.com.servlet and add a “servlet” annotation
Answer: C,D
Question No : 8
Which statement is true about displaying perspectives in a Rational Application Developer workbench window?
A. Multiple perspectives can be open, but you can interact with only one in each workbench window.
B. Perspectives can be arranged and viewed simultaneously in the workbench.
C. Perspectives can be tiled into a single view.
D. A single perspective per workbench can be open.
Answer: A
Question No : 9
A developer needs to debug the application RAD8EJBWeb containing redbank.jsp on the server using Rational Application Developer. What can be done to accomplish this task?
A. right-click redbank.jsp and select Debug As -> Debug on Server
B. create a software analyzer configuration and run it
C. right-click redbank.jsp and select Profile As -> Profile on Server
D. Open the Debug perspective as it automatically starts a debug session
Answer: A
Question No : 10
What is WSDL?
A. Web Service Description Language
B. Web Server Description Language
C. Web Simple Description Language
D. Web Service Data Language
Answer: A
Question No : 11
A developer wants to create a Java project in the current workspace. To accomplish this using the workbench menu options, what does the developer do?
A. selects File > New > Java class and types in the Java project name, Workspace name, Package name, and Class name
B. selects File > New > Java project, types in a project name, and selects “Use default location”
C. selects Project > Generate Java project, and types in a name for the project
D. selects Workspace > New Java project
Answer: B
Question No : 12
What are the two JMS destination types available when creating a Message Driven Bean in RAD 8? (Choose two.)
A. Queue
B. Subscription
C. Bean Managed
D. Container Managed
E. Topic
Answer: A,E
Question No : 13
A web application uses a set of Java classes, which are also used by several other web applications. The application designers want to separate out this logic into its own component to allow reuse and still give the developers the ability to edit the code in those classes as the project progresses. What is the best way to achieve this?
A. create a new Java project, export it as a JAR, and import it into the web project into the lib folder
B. copy the Java source code into the web project as into the Java folder
C. create a new Java project and add this project to the deployment assembly list
D. encapsulate the Java logic in an EJB and invoke this from the web project
Answer: C
Question No : 14
Which web services client type can you create in RAD 8?
A. Java Proxy
B. Service Proxy
C. Web Proxy
D. EJB Proxy
Answer: A
Question No : 15
A developer needs to debug a javascript on Rational Application Developer with Firefox with firebug as the default web browser. What does the developer do to debug the javascript?
A. set breakpoint on the javascript and debug on the server
B. on the Firefox window, select Preferences -> IDE -> Accept breakpoints -> Enable breakpoints C. on the Firefox window when the page loads, press F5 to enable breakpoints on the javascript
D. on the Firefox window, select Preferences -> Accept breakpoints -> Enable breakpoints
Answer: A
Question No : 16
How does a developer use the Rational Application Developer workbench capabilities to display the Javadoc comments of a class in the Java editor?
A. open a browser and use Google
B. select File > Class > Information
C. select Window > Show View > Javadoc
D. double-click the class in the editor
Answer: C
Question No : 17
To create a new database connection using the Rational Application Developer, which view must be opened?
A. Connection Explorer
B. Data Source Explorer
C. Package Explorer
D. Project Explorer
Answer: B
Question No : 18
A project designer is considering using Dojo as the mechanism for building a Web 2.0 interface. What are three benefits of using the Dojo toolkit with Rational Application Developer? (Choose three.)
A. provides a large set of pre-built Dojo widgets that can be used in web pages B. provides full support for all browsers even without javascript
C. provides support for several data exchange mechanisms depending on the server side implementation
D. provides the capability to develop your own Dojo widgets
E. provides libraries for web application security
Answer: A,C,D
Question No : 19
Each server profile created with Rational Application Developer has its own what?
A. libraries
B. runtime scripts
C. administrative console
D. Java runtime environment
Answer: C
Question No : 20
Which attribute must be defined in JPA Explorer to test JPA entities within UTC?
A. JPA project name
B. JPA test project name
C. name of a created JPA entity
D. persistence-unit name
Answer: D
Question No : 21
A developer has completed a web project but has not applied any security mechanism. Currently all the pages are open for anyone to access. Which two can be configured using the RAD8 Security Editor? (Choose two.)
A. a list of roles and the resources the roles can access
B. the web page to use for login and error
C. the user authentication mechanism used for the application
D. the link between the web application and an external directory (e.g., Microsoft Active Directory)
Answer: A,C
Question No : 22
An organization is considering using Web 2.0 technologies in all projects in order to improve their web applications. Which application would benefit most from the use of Web
2.0 technologies?
A. a web services project
B. an EJB application that implements a banking backend application
C. an existing JSF-based application that has been completed but has serious performance problems
D. an existing web-based application where the user interface is being revitalized
Answer: D
Question No : 23
With Rational Application Developer workbench, what can a developer open only one at a time?
A. workspace
B. view
C. perspective
D. window
Answer: A
Question No : 24
Which term refers to the set of files that defines the runtime environment of a WebSphere Application Server?
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QUESTION 1
What element relates “what” is needed from the system to “how” the system delivers those needs?
A. Stakeholder requests
B. Use cases
C. Design constraints
D. Actors
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
What term identifies a person who is materially affected by the outcomes of a system?
A. Actor
B. Manager
C. Stakeholder
D. Customer
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
What is the purpose of a problem analysis?
A. Understand the root causes of a problem
B. Avoid customer misunderstandings
C. Identify constraints
D. Understand the stakeholder’s needs
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
Which of the following are benefits of using a standard template for a Vision document? (Select all that apply.)
A. Authors can organize sections in the document to suit the individual project.
B. Authors can reuse the work of others, rather than starting from a blank page.
C. Documents appear familiar.
D. Users with update permission can change the document.
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 5
What element relates “what” is needed from the system to “how” the system delivers those needs?
A. Design constraints
B. Use cases
C. Stakeholder requests
D. Actors
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
What does a non-functional requirement specify?
A. How the solution interacts with the outside world
B. How to fulfill stakeholder requests
C. Quality attributes of the system
D. Process used to build the system
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
What is a design constraint of a system?
A. Imposed limitation
B. Suggestion for a class or object
C. Non-functional requirement
D. Functional requirement
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which of the following are benefits of using attributes to manage requirements? (Select all that apply.)
A. Assign resources to requirements
B. Obtain status information about the requirements
C. Enforce keywords such as “shall” and “must” in the requirement text
D. Reduce the ambiguity of the requirements
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
What term is defined as “the continuing modification and addition of requirements, so that the requirements never stabilize”?
A. Scope creep
B. Scope attribute
C. Scope baseline
D. Scope of requirements
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What MUST be identified during problem analysis?
A. Features
B. Use cases
C. Stakeholders
D. Product requirements
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
In a “suspect traceability link,” what characterizes the link between the two requirements?
A. Either requirement is unstable.
B. The requirements traced to has changed.
C. The requirements traced from has changed.
D. Either requirement has changed.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
What information about a proposed system is usually found in a Supplementary Specification?
A. Non-functional requirements
B. Sub-components
C. Data values
D. Testing procedures
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Why should the Withdraw Cash use case be implemented in the first iteration of an automatic teller machine? (Select all that apply.)
A. Is the system’s principle purpose
B. Easy to implement
C. Important to the customer
D. Includes the architecturally significant interfaces
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 14
Which of the following are artifacts in the requirements process? (Select all that apply.)
A. Vision document
B. Use-case model
C. Change control board
D. Pareto principle
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 15
Which of the following entities can interact with the boundaries of a system? (Select all that apply.)
A. Legacy systems that will be replaced by the product
B. Human users of the product
C. Systems that will interact with the product
D. Reports produced by the product
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 16
What does a non-functional requirement specify?
A. Quality attributes of the system
B. How to fulfill stakeholder requests
C. How the solution interacts with the outside world
D. Process used to build the system
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following expressions partially define “requirement”? (Select all that apply.)
A. Capability that must be performed by the software
B. Structural component that must be part of the software
C. Condition with which the software must comply
D. Test case that must be part of the test suite for the software
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 18
View the illustration by clicking here: Which of the following errors are present in the artifact state illustration? (Select all that apply.)
A. There is an unwanted functionality.
B. The test cases are incomplete.
C. There is scope creep.
D. TST3 indirectly traces to FEAT27.
E. FEAT19 does not trace to a use case.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 19
Which of the following expressions partially define “requirement”? (Select all that apply.)
A. Structural component that must be part of the software
B. Test case that must be part of the test suite for the software
C. Condition with which the software must comply
D. Capability that must be performed by the software
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 20
What term identifies a person who is materially affected by the outcomes of a system?
A. Manager
B. Customer
C. Actor
D. Stakeholder
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
Given: A customer service system is being developed for a telephone company to record and answer questions about telephone installations. Which of the following are system features? (Select all that apply.)
A. Accommodates simultaneously entry of information from up to 100 installers
B. Includes a Phone Installer class
C. Runs on the Windows 95 operating system
D. Produces status reports about telephone installations
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 22
What is the main advantage of using brainstorming to identify software requirements?
A. Allows in-depth explanation of each requirement
B. Focuses on the usability requirements of the system
C. Gives the customer more buy-in to the requirements process
D. Encourages quick generation of many requirements
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 23
Which of the following are artifacts in the requirements process? (Select all that apply.)
A. Vision document
B. Use-case model
C. Change control board
D. Pareto principle
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 24
What term is defined as “the continuing modification and addition of requirements, so that the requirements never stabilize”?
A. Scope of requirements
B. Scope baseline
C. Scope attribute
D. Scope creep
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
Under what circumstances should a domain model be used to capture key terms?
A. Many use cases with complex relationships among them
B. Many stakeholders with complex relationships among them
C. Many requirements with complex relationships among them
D. Many business objects with complex relationships among them
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
What is the purpose of a glossary?
A. Establish a common vision
B. Establish testable requirements
C. Establish common vocabulary
D. Define universal constraints
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
What does a non-functional requirement specify?
A. How to fulfill stakeholder requests
B. How the solution interacts with the outside world
C. Process used to build the system
D. Quality attributes of the system
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
What is the best way to ensure that a URPS requirement is testable?
A. Write the requirement so that a measurement can determine if it is met.
B. Add a traceability link from it back to a feature on which it is based.
C. Place the requirement in the “Special Requirements” property of a Use Case Report.
D. Create a traceability link from the requirement to a testable functional requirement.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 29
Where are constraints such as design constraints, external constraints and other dependencies documented?
A. Design Specifications
B. Use-Case Model Survey
C. Vision Statement
D. Software Requirements Specifications
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 30
Which support characteristics are necessary in an effective process to facilitate managing project scope? (Select all that apply.)
A. Iterative development process
B. Automated testing tools
C. Requirements repository
D. Effective requirements management
Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 31
What is the purpose of a problem analysis?
A. Identify constraints
B. Avoid customer misunderstandings
C. Understand the stakeholder’s needs
D. Understand the root causes of a problem
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
Which of the following are benefits of using attributes to manage requirements? (Select all that apply.)
A. Enforce keywords such as “shall” and “must” in the requirement text
B. Assign resources to requirements
C. Obtain status information about the requirements
D. Reduce the ambiguity of the requirements
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 33
When identifying root causes of a problem, resolving what percentage of the most important root causes will solve 80% of a problem?
A. 60%
B. 40%
C. 80%
D. 20%
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements about a Smart Link group are true?
A. Smart Link group consists of a maximum of two interfaces. Where there are two interfaces, one is an active interface, and the other a standby interface.
B. Of the two interfaces in a Smart Link group, one is active, and the other is standby.
C. When an active interface goes Down, the Smart Link group automatically blocks it and changes the status of the standby interface to active.
D. When an active interface recovers, the standby interface is blocked and traffic is switched back to the active interface.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements about Flush packets in a Smart Link group are true?
A. A Smart Link group sends Flush packets to instruct other devices to update the address table.
B. Flush packets use IEEE 802. 3 encapsulation*
C. The destination MAC address of Flush packets is an unknown unicast address, which is used to distinguish protocols.
D. The destination MAC address of Flush packets is a special multicast address, which is used to distinguish protocols.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 3
When links are switched in a Smart Link group, which of the following mechanisms can be used to refresh MAC and ARP entries?
A. MAC and ARP entries are refreshed automatically with respect to traffic.
B. The Smart Link group uses a new link to send Flush packets.
C. MAC entries are refreshed after the aging time expires.
D. ARP entries are refreshed after the aging time expires
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements about link aggregation are true?
A. link aggregation binds a group of physical interfaces together as a logical interface to increase the bandwidth and reliability.
B. Link aggregation complies with IEFE 802. 3ah.
C. The logical link formed by bundling multiple physical links together is called a link aggregation group (IAG) or atrunk.
D. Active and inactive interfaces exist in link aggregation. Active interfaces forward data, whereas inactive interfaces do not.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements about link aggregation are true?
A. link aggregation can be performed in manual load balancing or LACP mode. In manual loading balancing mode, LACP is disabled; in I.ACP mode, LACP is enabled.
B. In manual load balancing mode, all active member interfaces forward data and perform load balancing.
C. In static LACP mode, the creation of the Eth-Trunk and the addition or member interfaces to the Eth-Trunk are performed manually. Compared with link aggregation in manual load balancing mode, active interfaces in static LACP mode are selected by sending I.ACP Data Units (LACPDUs).
D. In dynamic LACP mode, the creation of the Eth-Trunk, the addition of member interfaces, and the selection of active interfaces are performed based on LACP negotiation.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements about LACP are true?
A. It complies with IEEE 802. 3ad.
B. A device enabled with LACP exchanges Link Aggregation Control Protocol Data Units (LACPDUs) with its peer.
C. Devices at both ends determine the active interface according to the interface priority of the active device.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 7
Which of the following reliability designs are related to routers?
A. Reliability design of the system and hardware
B. Reliability design of the software
C. Reliability test authentication
D. Reliability design of the lP network
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 8
Which of the following can speed up OSPF fast convergence?
A. Configuring dynamic BFD for OSPF
B. Adjusting the interval at which OSPF calculation is performed
C. Configuring the interval at which an LSA are retransmitted
D. Configuring the maximum number of external LSAs in the LSDB
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
When the GR Restarter performs the active/standby switchover, the neighbor performs which of the following operations when detecting that a TCP disconnection?
A. Keeping the routing tables of various address families advertised by the GR Restarter during negotiation, marking entries in these tables with stale tags, and starting a stale timer
B. Starting a restart timer.
C. Clearing all routing entries and forwarding entries related to the GR restarter if the GR restarter fails to re-establish the BGP connection with the neighbor after the restart timer expires.
D. Remaining the neighbor relationship unchanged.
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 10
RTA connected to a LAN by e0/0 whose IP address is 10. 1. 1. 251 and network Mask is 255.
255. 255. 0. Now
create a virtual router with ID I and virtual IP address 10.1.1.254 0n RTA.
Which of the following commands are correct?
A. [RTA-Ethernet0/0]vrrp vrid l virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254
B. [RTA]vrrp vrid I virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254
C. ERTA-Ethernet0/0]vrrp vrid l virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254 mask 255. 255. 255. 0
D. [RTA]vrrp vrid l virtual-ip 10. 1. 1. 254 mask 255. 255. 255. 0
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements about IACP are true?
A. It complies with IEEE 802. 3ad.
B. A device enabled with LACP exchanges Link Aggregation Control Protocol Data Units (LACPDUs) with its peer.
C. Devices at both ends determine the active interface according to the interface priority of the active device.
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 12
Which of the following statements about the reliability requirement level are true?
A. Faults seldom occur in the system software or hardware.
B. System functions are not affected by faults.
C. System functions are affected by faults but can rapidly recover.
D. System functions can be ensured by using redundancy design, switchover policy, and high success rate in switchover.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 13
Which of the following are end-to-end link protection modes?
A. 1:1
B. M: N
C. N: 1
D. 1+1
Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 14
On a BGP/MPLS IPv4 VPN, OSPF, LDP, and static routes are configured. Which of the following protocols need to be enabled with GR to achieve NSF on PEs?
A. OSPF
B. MPLS LDP
C. BGP
D. Static routes
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 15
In VRP 5.7, which of the following dynamic protocols support GR?
A. MPLS LDP/RSVP
B. IS-IS/OSPF
C. BGP
D. MSTP
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 16
Which of the following statements about BFD are true?
A. It cannot be used to detect MPLS networks.
B. It provides low-load and short-duration detection for paths between adjacent forwarding engines.
C. It provides a unified mechanism for detecting all types of media and BFD-supporting protocols.
D. It is a bidirectional detection mechanism.
Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements about the setup of a BFD session are true?
A. A BFD session can be set up in either static or dynamic mode.
B. A static BFD session is set up by manually configuring BFD session parameters and delivering requests for setting up a BFD session. BFD session parameters include the local and remote discriminators.
C. A dynamic BFD session is set up by dynamically allocating local discriminators.
D. Static and dynamic E3FD sessions are not differentiated.
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 18
How many hosts are available per subnet if apply a /21 mask to the class B network?
A. 510
B. 512
C. 1022
D. 2046
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 19
For a network like 175.25.128.0/19, the mask value is?
A. 250. 255. 0. 0
B. 200. 205. 224. 0
C. 250. 255. 24. 0
D. Different based on the address type
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20
The network 154.27.0.0 without any subnet can support ( ) hosts?
A. 204
B. 1024
C. 65, 534
D. 16, 777, 206
Correct Answer: C
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Question No : 1 – (Topic 1)
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?
A. Strategic plan
B. Project charter
C. Project management plan
D. Service level agreement
Answer: C
Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?
A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.
B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.
Answer: C
Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)
Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
A. Document analysis
B. Observations
C. Product analysis
D. Expert judgment
Answer: D
Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)
Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?
A. Independent estimates
B. Market research
C. Analytical techniques
D. Bidder conferences
Answer: B
Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:
A. Communication models.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational communications,
D. Organizational cultures and styles.
Answer: B
Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?
A. Expert judgment
B. Forecasting methods
C. Earned value management
D. Analytical techniques
Answer: D
Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning
Answer: A
Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Define Scope
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Collect Requirements
Answer: C
Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
Answer: D
Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:
A. Plan Schedule Management.
B. Develop Project Charter.
C. Develop Schedule.
D. Plan Scope Management.
Answer: A
Question No : 11 – (Topic 1)
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?
A. Issue log
B. Change log
C. Expert judgment
D. Change requests
Answer: B
Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)
An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:
A. The project charter.
B. The stakeholder analysis.
C. A communication management plan.
D. A stakeholder register.
Answer: D
Question No : 13 – (Topic 1)
An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
A. Cost estimates.
B. Resource calendars,
C. The project charter,
D. The risk register.
Answer: C Question No : 14 – (Topic 1)
A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:
A. Product analysis.
B. Variance analysis.
C. Document analysis,
D. Decomposition.
Answer: B
Question No : 15 – (Topic 1)
The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:
A. Develop Project Team.
B. Manage Project Team.
C. Acquire Project Team.
D. Plan Human Resource Management.
Answer: D
Question No : 16 – (Topic 1)
Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?
A. Mandatory
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. External
Answer: A Question No : 17 – (Topic 1)
During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Control Scope
Answer: C
Question No : 18 – (Topic 1)
An input to the Manage Project Team process is:
A. Work performance reports.
B. Change requests.
C. Activity resource requirements.
D. Enterprise environmental factors.
Answer: A
Question No : 19 – (Topic 1)
Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?
A. Procurement statement of work
B. Purchase order
C. Source selection criteria
D. Bidder conference
Answer: A
Question No : 20 – (Topic 1)
A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which
Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing
Answer: B
Question No : 21 – (Topic 1)
A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?
A. Efficient
B. Effective
C. Push
D. Pull
Answer: B
Question No : 22 – (Topic 1)
Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:
A. Performance measurement baseline.
B. Analysis of project forecasts,
C. Summary of changes approved in a period,
D. Analysis of past performance.
Answer: A
Question No : 23 – (Topic 1)
A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:
A. Adaptive
B. Predictive
C. Incremental
D. Iterative
Answer: B
Question No : 24 – (Topic 1)
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?
A. 0.50
B. 0.67
C. 1.50
D. 2.00
Answer: A
Question No : 25 – (Topic 1)
Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?
A. Schedule data
B. Activity list
C. Risk register
D. Scope baseline
Answer: D
Question No : 26 – (Topic 1)
When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?
A. Interactive communication
B. Claims administration
C. Conflict management
D. Performance reporting
Answer: B
Question No : 27 – (Topic 1)
Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?
A. Interrelationship digraphs
B. Tree diagram
C. Affinity diagram
D. Network diagram
Answer: B
Question No : 28 – (Topic 1)
The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:
A. Planning.
B. Executing,
C. Monitoring and Controlling.
D. Closing.
Answer: C
Question No : 29 – (Topic 1)
Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Acquire Project Team
C. Develop Project Team
D. Plan Human Resource Management
Answer: D
Question No : 30 – (Topic 1)
Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?
A. Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques
B. Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings
C. Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis
D. Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings
Answer: D
Question No : 31 – (Topic 1)
A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?
A. Projectized
B. Weak matrix
C. Functional
D. Balanced matrix
Answer: A
Question No : 32 – (Topic 1)
A project charter is an output of which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Initiating
D. Closing
Answer: C
Question No : 33 – (Topic 1)
Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?
A. Inspection
B. Variance analysis
C. Decomposition
D. Product analysis
Answer: D
Question No : 34 – (Topic 1)
An element of the project scope statement is:
A. Acceptance criteria.
B. A stakeholder list.
C. A summary budget,
D. High-level risks.
Answer: A
Question No : 35 – (Topic 1)
Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?
A. Cost baseline
B. Service level agreement
C. Memorandum of understanding
D. Business case
Answer: D Question No : 36 – (Topic 1)
Which process involves monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing changes to the cost baseline?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Plan Cost Management
Answer: B
Question No : 37 – (Topic 1)
Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions?
A. Project team
B. Focus group
C. Change control board
D. Project stakeholders
Answer: C
Question No : 38 – (Topic 1)
Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?
A. Project Scope Management
B. Project Human Resource Management
C. Project Integration Management
D. Project Time Management
Answer: D
Question No : 39 – (Topic 1)
An output of the Validate Scope process is:
A. A requirements traceability matrix.
B. The scope management plan.
C. Work performance reports.
D. Change requests.
Answer: D
Question No : 40 – (Topic 1)
The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Planning
Answer: C
Question No : 41 – (Topic 1)
Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?
A. Project charter
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Stakeholder register
D. Organizational process assets
Answer: A
Question No : 42 – (Topic 1)
Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management?
A. Work performance data
B. Project documents
C. Scope baseline
D. Requirements documentation
Answer: B
Question No : 43 – (Topic 1)
Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?
A. Control Quality
B. Control Scope
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
Answer: D
Question No : 44 – (Topic 1)
The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule compared to the contract is known as:
A. Work performance information.
B. Inspections and audits.
C. Payment systems.
D. Procurement performance reviews.
Answer: D
Question No : 45 – (Topic 1)
The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?
A. Project Communications Management
B. Project Integration Management
C. Project Risk Management
D. Project Scope Management
Answer: B
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