Month: August 2016

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QUESTION 90
Certkiller is the Security Administrator for an online bookstore. Customers connect to a variety of Web servers to place orders, change orders, and check status of their orders. Mrs. Bill checked every box in the Web Intelligence tab, and installed the Security Policy, She ran penetration test through the Security Gateway, to determine if the Web servers were protected from cross-site scripting attacks. The penetration test indicated the Web servers were still vulnerable. Which of the following might correct the problem?
A. The penetration software Certkiller is using is malfunctioning and is reporting a false-positive.
B. Certkiller must create resource objects, and use them in the rule allowing HTTP traffic to the Web servers.
C. Certkiller needs to check the “Products > Web Server” box on the host node objects representing his Web servers.
D. Certkiller needs to check the “Web Intelligence” box in the SmartDefense > HTTP Properties.
E. Certkiller needs to configure the Security Gateway protecting the Web servers as a Web server.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 91
You create two Policy Packages for two NGX Security Gateways. For the first Policy Package, you select Security and Address Translation and QoS Policy. For the second Policy Package, you selected Security and Address Translation and Desktop Security Policy. In the first Policy Package, you enable host-based port scan from the SmartDefense tab. You save and install the policy to the relevant Gateway object. How is the port scan configured on the second Policy Package’s SmartDefense tab?
A. Host-based port scan is disabled by default.
B. Host-based port scan is enabled, because SmartDefense settings are global.
C. Host-based port scan is enabled but it is not highlighted.
D. There is no SmartDefense tab in the second Policy Package.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 92
A digital signature:
A. Uniquely encodes the receiver of the key.
B. Provides a secure key exchange mechanism over the Internet.
C. Guarantees the authenticity and integrity of a message.
D. Automatically changes the shared keys.
E. Decrypts data to its original form.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 93
You are setting up a Virtual Private Network, and must select an encryption scheme. Your data is extremely business sensitive and you want maximum security for your data communications. Which encryption scheme would you select?
A. Tunneling mode encryption
B. In-place encryption
C. Either one will work without compromising performance

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 94
You have just started a new job as the Security Administrator for Certkiller . Your boss has asked you to ensure that peer-to-peer file sharing is not allowed past the corporate Security Gateway. Where should you configure this?
A. SmartDashboard > SmartDefense
B. SmartDashboard > WebDefense
C. By editing the file $FWDIR/conf/application_intelligence.C
D. SmartDashboard > Policy > Global Properties > Malicious Activity Detection
E. SmartDashboard > Web Intelligence

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 95
Amy is configuring a User Authentication rule for the technical-support department to access an intranet server. What is the correct statement?
A. The Security Server first checks if there is any rule tat does not require authentication for this type of connection.
B. The User Authentication rule must be placed above the Stealth Rule.
C. Once a user is first authenticated, the user will not be prompted for authentication again until logging out.
D. Amy can only use the rule for Telnet, FTP, and rlogin services.
E. Amy can limit the authentication attempts in the Authentication tab of the User Properties screen.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 96
How can you unlock an administrator’s account, which was been locked due to SmartCenter Access settings in Global Properties?
A. Type fwm lock_admin -ua from the command line of the SmartCenter Server.
B. Clear the “locked” box from the user’s General Properties in SmartDashboard.
C. Type fwm unlock_admin -ua from the command line of the SmartCenter Server.
D. Type fwm unlock_admin -ua from the command line of the Security Gateway.
E. Delete the file admin.lock in the $FWDIR/tmp/ directory of the SmartCenter Server.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 97
How many administrators can be created during installation of the SmartCenter Server?
A. Only one
B. Only one with full access and one with read-only access
C. As many as you want
D. Depends on the license installed on the SmartCenter Server
E. Specified in the Global Properties
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 98
Which SmartConsole tool verifies the installed Security Policy name?
A. SmartView Status
B. Eventia Reporter
C. SmartView Server
D. SmartUpdate
E. SmartView Tracker

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 99
Ilse manages a distributed NGX installation for Certkiller .com. Ilse needs to know which Security Gateways have licenses that will expire within the next 30 days. Which SmartConsole application should Ilse use to gather this information?
A. SmartView Monitor
B. SmartUpdate
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartView Tracker
E. SmartView Status

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 100
Herman is attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN with one of his firm’s business partner. Herman thinks Phase 2 negotiations are failing. Which SmartConsole application should Herman use to confirm his suspicions?
A. SmartUpdate
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartDashboard
E. SmartView Status

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 101
How can you reset the password of the Security Administrator, which was created during initial installation of the SmartCenter Server on SecurePlatform?
A. Launch cpconfig and select “Administrators”.
B. Launch SmartDashboard, click the admin user account, and overwrite the existing Check Point Password.
C. Type cpm -a, and provide the existing administration account name. Reset the Security Administrator’s password.
D. Export the user database into an ASCII file with fwm dbexport. Open this file with an editor, and delete the “Password” portion of the file. The log in to the account without password. You will be prompted to assign a new password.
E. Launch cpconfig and delete the Administrator’s account. Recreate the account with the same name.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 102
What happens when you select File > Export from the SmartView Tracker menu?
A. It is not possible to export an old log file, only save and switch in SmartView Tracker.
B. Current logs are exported to a new *.log file.
C. Exported log entries are still viewable in SmartView Tracker.
D. Exported log entries are deleted from fw.log.
E. Logs in fw.log are exported to a file that can be opened by Microsoft Excel.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 103
Which type of TCP attack is a bandwidth attack, where a client fools a server into sending large amount of data, using small packets?
A. SMURF
B. Small PMTU
C. Host System Hogging
D. LAN
E. SYN-Flood

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 104
What is the proper command for exporting users in LDAP format?
A. fw dbexport -f c:\temp\users.txt
B. fw dbimport -f c:\temp\users.ldif -l -s “o=YourCity.com,c=YourCountry”
C. fw dbimport -f c:\temp\users.ldap
D. fw dbexport -f c:\temp\users.ldap -l -s
E. fw dbexport -f c:\temp\users.ldif -l -s “o=YourCity.com,c=YourCountry”

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 105
Shauna is troubleshooting a Security Gateway that is dropping all traffic whenever the most recent Security Policy is installed. Working at the Security Gateway, Shauna needs to uninstall the Policy, but keep the processes running so she can see if there is an issue with the Gateway’s firewall tables. Which of the following commands will do this?
A. fw dbload 10.1.1.5
B. fw unload 10.1.1.5
C. cprestart
D. fw tab -x -u
E. cpstop

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 106
You have blocked an IP address via the Block Intruder feature of SmartView Tracker. How can you see the addresses you have blocked?
A. In SmartView Status click the Blocked Intruder tab.
B. Run fwm blocked_view.
C. Run fw sam -va.
D. Run fw tab -t sam_blocked_ips.
E. In SmartView Tracker, click the Active tab, and the actively blocked connections display.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 107
Your internal Web server in the DMZ has IP address 172.16.10.1/24. A particular network from the Internet tries to access this Web server. You need to set up some type of Network Address Translation (NAT), so that NAT occurs only from the HTTP service, and only from the remote network as the source. The public IP address for the Web server is 200.200.200.1. All properties in the NAT screen of Global Properties are
enabled.
Select the correct NAT rules, so NAT happens ONLY between “web_dallas” and the remote network.

A. 1. Create another node object named “web_dallas_valid”, and enter “200.200.200.1” in the General Properties screen.
2.
Create two manual NAT rules above the automatic Hide NAT rules for the 172.16.10.0 network.

3.
Select “HTTP” in the Service column of both manual NAT rules.

4.
Enter an ARP entry and route on the Security Gateway’s OS.
B. 1. Enable NAT on the web_dallas object, select “static”, and enter “200.200.200.1” in the General Properties screen.
2.
Specify “HTTP” in the automatic Static Address Translation rules.

3.
Create incoming and outgoing rules for the web_dallas server, for the HTTP service only.
C. 1. Enable NAT on the web_dallas object, select “hide”, and enter “200.200.200.1” for the Hide NAT IP address.
2.
Specify “HTTP” in the Address Translation rules that are generated automatically.

3.
Create incoming and outgoing rules for the web_dallas server, for the HTTP service only.
D. 1. Create another node object named “web_dallas_valid”, and enter “200.200.200.1” in the General Properties screen.
2.
Create two manual NAT rules below the Automatic Hide NAT rules for network 172.16.10.0, in the Address Translation Rule Base.

3.
Select “HTTP” in the Service column of both manual NAT rules.

4.
Enter an ARP entry and route on the Security Gateway’s OS.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 108
Using SmartDefense how do you notify the Security Administrator that malware is scanning specific ports? By enabling:
A. Network Port scan
B. Host Port scan
C. Malware Scan protection
D. Sweep Scan protection
E. Malicious Code Protector

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 109
Jack’s project is to define the backup and restore section of his organization’s disaster recovery plan for his
organization’s distributed NGX installation. Jack must meet the following required and desired objectives:
Required objective: The security policy repository must be backed up no less frequently than every 24
hours.
Desired objective: The NGX components that enforce the Security Policies should be backed up no less
frequently than once a week.
Desired objective: Back up NGX logs no less frequently than once a week. Administrators should be able
to view backed up logs in SmartView Tracker.
Jack’s disaster recovery plan is as follows:
Use the cron utility to run the upgrade_export command each night on the SmartCenter Servers. Configure
the organization’s routine backup software to back up the files created by the upgrade_export command.
Configure the SecurePlatform backup utility to back up the Security Gateways every Saturday night.
Use the cron utility to run the upgrade_export command each Saturday night on the Log Servers.
Configure an automatic, nightly logexport. Configure the organization’s routine backup software to back up
the export log every night.
Jack’s plan:

A. Meets the required objective but does not meet either desired objective.
B. Meets the required objective and both desired objectives.
C. Meets the required objective and only one desired objective.
D. Does not meet the required objective.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 110
Anna is working at Certkiller .com, together with three other Security Administrators. Which SmartConsole tool should she use to check changes to rules or object properties other administrators made?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartView Tracker
C. Eventia Tracker
D. Eventia Monitor
E. SmartView Monitor

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 111
When you find a suspicious connection from a problematic host, you want to block everything from that whole network, not just the host. You want to block this for an hour, but you do not want to add any rules to the Rule Base. How do you achieve this?
A. Create a Suspicious Activity rule in SmartView Tracker.
B. Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in SmartView.
C. Create an “FW SAM” rule in SmartView Monitor.
D. Select “block intruder” from the Tools menu in the SmartView Tracker.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 112
Your internal network is using 10.1.1.0/24. This network is behind your perimeter NGX VPN-1 Gateway, which connects to your ISP provider. How do you configure the Gateway to allow this network to go out to the Internet?
A. Use automatic Static NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24.
B. Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the internal interface of your perimeter Gateway.
C. Use manual Static NAT on the client side for network 10.1.1.0/24
D. Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the external IP address of your perimeter Gateway.
E. Do nothing, as long as 10.1.1.0 network has the correct default Gateway.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 113
Which of these changes to a Security Policy optimizes Security Gateway performance?
A. Using domain objects in rules when possible
B. Using groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base
C. Putting the least-used rule at the top of the Rule Base
D. Logging rules as much as possible
E. Removing old or unused Security Policies from Policy Packages

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 114
Nelson is a consultant. He is at a customer’s site reviewing configuration and logs as a part of a security audit. Nelson sees logs accepting POP3 traffic, but he does not see a rule allowing POP3 traffic in the Rule Base. Which of the following is the most likely cause? The POP3:
A. service is a VPN-1 Control Connection.
B. rule is hidden.
C. service is accepted in Global Properties.
D. service cannot be controlled by NGX.
E. rule is disabled.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 115
When you hide a rule in a Rule Base, how can you then disable the rule?
A. Open the Rule Menu, and select Hide and View hidden rules. Select the rule, right-click, and select Disable.
B. Uninstall the Security Policy, and the disable the rule.
C. When a rule is hidden, it is automatically disabled. You do not need to disable the rule again.
D. Run cpstop and cpstart on the SmartCenter Server, then disable the rule.
E. Clear Hide from Rules drop-down menu, then right-click and select “Disable Rule(s)”.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 116
Mary is the IT auditor for a bank. One of her responsibilities is reviewing the Security Administrators activity and comparing it to the change log. Which application should Mary use to view Security Administrator activity?
A. NGX cannot display Security Administrator activity
B. SmartView Tracker in Real-Time Mode
C. SmartView Tracker in Audit Mode
D. SmartView Tracker in Log Mode
E. SmartView Tracker in Activity Mode

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 117
Andrea has created a new gateway object that she will be managing at a remote location. She attempts to install the Security Policy to the new gateway object, but the object does not appear in the “install on” box. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. Andrea has created the object using “New Check Point > VPN-1 Edge Embedded Gateway”
B. Andrea created the gateway object using the “New Check Point > Externally Managed VPN Gateway” option from the Network Objects dialog box.
C. Andrea has not configured anti-spoofing on the interfaces on the gateway object.
D. Andrea has not configure Secure Internal Communications (SIC) for the oject.
E. Andrea created the Object using “New Check Point > VPN-1 Pro/Express Security Gateway” option in the network objects, dialog box, but still needs to configure the interfaces for the Security Gateway object.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 118
Certkiller is recently hired as the Security Administrator for Certkiller .com. Jack Bill’s manager has asked
her to investigate ways to improve the performance of the firm’s perimeter Security Gateway. Certkiller
must propose a plan based on the following required and desired results:
Required Result #1: Do not purchase new hardware.
Required Result #2: Use configuration changes the do not reduce security. Desired Result #1: Reduce the
number of explicit rules in the Rule Base.
Desired Result #2: Reduce the volume of logs.
Desired Result #3: Improve the Gateway’s performance.
Proposed solution:

*
Replace all domain objects with network and group objects.

*
Check “Log implied rules” and “Accept ICMP requests” in Global Properties.

*
Use Global Properties, instead of explicit rules, to control ICMP, VRRP, and RIP. Does Certkiller’s
proposed solution meet the required and desired results?
A. The solution meets all required and desired results.
B. The solution meets all required, and one of the desired results.
C. The solution meets all required, and two of the desired results.
D. The solution meets all required, and none of the desired results.
E. The solution does not meet the required results.

Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 55
Network users often have multiple passwords, a distinct password for each network service they caccess.
Which is NOT a valid way to simplify this situation for users in Mac OS X v10.3?
A. Set up a Kerberos environment on the network.
B. Have users store their login information for different server in Keychain.
C. Set up a directory service to make user and password information available to all computers.
D. Have users access network servers without authentication, using the Network icon in the Finder -rather than using the Connect to Server command, which requires users to authenticate.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
What are two ways to configure Mac OS X v10.3 to get LDAP information? Choose two.
A. Use Directory Access to configure Mac OS X v10.3 to get LDAP information from a DNS server.
B. Use Directory Access to configure Mac OS X v10.3 to use DHCP-supplied LDAP server information.
C. Use Directory Access to configure Mac OS X v10.3 with the IP address, type, and search base of a specific LDAP server.
D. Use the Sharing pane of System Preferences to configure Mac OS X v10.3 to use an Active Directory server as an LDAP server.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 57
Authentication is ______________.
A. The system feature that determines whether you can access a file as Owner, Group, or Other.
B. The process whereby you prove your claimed identity to the computer system.
C. The association between your claimed user name and UID.
D. Used as a substitute for a password.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
Which statements are true of Kerberos? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Kerberos uses tickets.
B. Kerberos requires LDAP.
C. Kerberos requires service discovery.
D. Kerberos is a way to perform authentication.
E. Your computer presents your user name and password to each server.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 59
In Mac OS X v10.3, you cannot use the Finder’s “Connection to Server” command to select ______________.
A. WebDAV servers
B. SSH servers
C. AFP servers
D. Your iDisk
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
Dynamic service discovery protocols on Mac OS X v10.3 include ____________. Choose all that apply.
A. Active Directory
B. Rendezvous
C. AppleTalk
D. Netinfo
E. LDAP
F. SMB

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 61
Some computers on a subnet have statically assigned IP addresses that start with “10”. And others are using the built-in Rendezvous protocol to self-assign link-local IP addresses. All the computers have file sharing turned on. What statement is FALSE?
A. A user on a computer with a link-local address can browse a computer with a static address.
B. A user on a computer with a static address can browse a computer with a link-local address.
C. A user on a computer with a link-local address can browse a computer with a link-local address.
D. A user on a computer with a static address can browse a computer with a static address by specifying the IP address.
E. A user on a computer with a link-local address can connect to a computer with a static address by specifying the IP address.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
Which can you NOT do using the Kerberos application in Mac OS X v10.3?
A. View a ticket.
B. Renew a ticket.
C. Force a network service to accept a ticket.
D. Change the password you sue to get a ticket.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
Using Directory Access, you can configure your computer to__________.
A. Use a specific WINS server for SMB service discovery.
B. Be a member of more than one Windows workgroup.
C. Disable Finder’s Connect to Server feature.
D. Use AppleTalk to discover SMB services.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 64
Over which three of these protocols can network volumes be mounted using the “Connect to Server” command from the Finder? Choose three.
A. SMB
B. POP
C. FTP
D. DSL
E. NFS
F. IPP
Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 65
In Mac OS X v10.3, the default permission for Group and Others on the Drop Box folder in a user’s Public folder are ____________.
A. Read only
B. Write only
C. No Access
D. Read & Write

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 66
The Accounts pane of System Preferences lets you configure an account to __________.
A. Have Read only access.
B. Use a Simple Finder environment
C. Recognize multiple valid passwords
D. Log in to the computer only via FTP

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 67
Which statement about FileVault is TRUE?
A. Once a user enables FileVault, it cannot be disabled.
B. FileVault can only be enabled for non-administrator user accounts.
C. There is no way to recover a FileVault-protected account user’s data if the password is lost.
D. When a user enables FileVault, that user’s home directory is transferred into an encrypted disk image.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 68
In Mac OS X v10.3, where can a non-administrator user named “ann” store her files?
A. /System
B. /Users/ann
C. /Applications
D. /Users/Home/ann

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 69
Which statement about file and folder permissions is TRUE Mac OS X v10.3?
A. Any user can delete a file from another user’s Drop Box.
B. A file’s permissions are always identical to its enclosing folder’s permissions.
C. A user Read only permissions to a folder cannot view any files in that folder.
D. A user with Read & Write permissions to a folder cannot delete any files in that folder.
E. A user with Read only permissions to a folder cannot rename any files in that folder.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 70
When you delete a user named “Certkiller” using the graphical user interface in Mac OS X v10.3, the contents of Certkiller’s home folder can be ______________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. Deleted immediately
B. Moved to a folder named “Certkiller Deleted”
C. Converted to a .sit file and moved to the Deleted Users folder.
D. Converted to a .zip file and moved to the Deleted Users folder.
E. Converted to a .dmg file and moved to the Deletes Users folder.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 71
How does an administrator user delete another user in Mac OS X v10.3 OS X v10.3?
A. Open Terminal and use the du command to delete the selected user.
B. Open the Users control panel, select a user to delete, and click the Delete button.
C. Open the Accounts pane of System Preferences, select a user to delete, and click the Delete (minus sign) button.
D. Open the /Users folder, select a user’s folder to delete, drag the folder to the Trash, and choose Empty Trash from the finder menu.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 72
By default in Mac OS X v10.3, the contents of which folders in a user’s home directory can be accessed by all other user accounts? Choose all that apply.
A. Documents
B. Library
C. Public
D. Music
E. Sites

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 73
What permissions can you set on file named ” Certkiller .rtf” using Ownership & Permissions section of the file’s Info window? Choose all that apply.
A. Delete
B. Read only
C. Write only
D. No access
E. Execute only
F. Read & Write

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 74
During the Mac OS X v10.3 startup sequence, a Macintosh checks for a pressed C key, which tells the computer to start up from a CD volume rather than from a hard disk volume. This checks occurs immediately after _______________.
A. BootX loads
B. Open Firmware is initialzed.
C. The Kernel environment loads
D. The POST (Power On Self Test) passes
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 75
How do you boot a Mac OS X v10.3 computer in a single-user mode?
A. Restart while holding down the S key.
B. Restart while holding down Command-S.
C. Restart while holding down Command-Option-S.
D. Choose “Restart in single-user mode” from the Apple menu.
E. Click the Single User checkbox in the Startup Disk pane of System Preferences, and restart.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
Booting Mac OS X v10.3 in verbose mode is most useful as a troubleshooting tool when _____________.
A. The system repeatedly crashes during startup
B. You repeatedly encounter application crashes.
C. The computer cannot communicate with a printer
D. You repeatedly encounter system crashes after logging in

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 77
After the mach_init and BSD init processes execute successfully, init runs the rc scripts located in _________ to perform basic system initialization tasks.
A. /etc
B. /var
C. /init
D. /System/Library

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 78
Which application provides the most detail about system processes in Mac OS X v10.3?
A. Process Viewer
B. System Profiler
C. Activity Monitor
D. CPU Monitor Expanded Window
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79
The Classic pane of System Preferences lets you____________.
A. Install Mac OS X v10.3 OS 9 applications.
B. Run Mac OS X v10.3 OS 9 Software Updates.
C. Prevent Mac OS 8 applications from being started.
D. Monitor the memory usage of Classic applications and processes.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
UNIX-based applications that require the X Windows System server can be opened in Mac OS X v10.3 using ________________.
A. FreeX98 for Mac OS X.
B. WIN-X for Mac OS X
C. X11 for Mac OS X
D. Console

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 81
Which are ways to force quite an open Mac OS X v10.3 application? Choose all that apply.
A. Use the forcequit command in Terminal.
B. Press Command-Option-Escape and select the application from the list.
C. Press Command-Control-Escape and select the application from the list.
D. Select the application in System Profiler and click the Force Quit button.
E. Choose Force Quit from the Apple menu and select the application from the list.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 82
The function of journaling in the Mac OS Extended file system is to _______________.
A. Provide support for file forks
B. Make the file system case-sensitive
C. Make the file system compatible with the Windows (MS-DOS) format
D. Provide the user with a journal that lists recently created files and directories
E. Help protect the file system integrity in the case of power outages or unforeseen system failures

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 83
Mac OS X v10.3 administrator users can enable a personal firewall by clicking the Start button in the Firewall pane of _________________.
A. Network Utility
B. NetInfo Manager
C. The Network pane of System Preferences
D. The Sharing pane of System Preferences
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 84
Which statement about FileVault is TRUE?
A. Once a user enables FileVault, it cannot be disabled.
B. FileVault can only be enabled for non-administrator user accounts.
C. There is no way to recover a FileVault-protected account user’s data if the password is lost.
D. When a user enables FileVault, that user’s home directory is transferred into an encrypted disk image.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 85
By default in Mac OS X v10.3, the contents of which folders in a user’s home directory can be accessed by all other user accounts? Choose all that apply.
A. Documents
B. Library
C. Public
D. Music
E. Sites
Correct Answer: CE

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QUESTION 61
You work as the network administrator at Certkiller .com. Certkiller has both Macintosh and Windows client computers. You need to configure a Mac OS X v10.4 computer to share a USB printer for all users on the network. After configuring you Mac OS X to share the printer, what else must you do?
A. In Printer Setup Utility choose Windows from the Printer Sharing menu.
B. In Printer Setup Utility choose Windows Printing from the Printers menu.
C. In the Services pane of Sharing preferences click the Windows Sharing checkbox.
D. In the Sharing pane of Print & Fax preferences click the Windows Printing checkbox.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
In Mac OS X v10.4, which of the following applications can you use to configure networking? (Choose Three)
A. Setup Assistant
B. System Profiler
C. Internet Connect
D. Network preferences
E. Network Location Manager
F. Configuration pane of Network Utility

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 63
You work as a support technician at Certkiller .com. Another support technician, named Jim has enabled Personal Web Sharing on a Mac OS X computer with the domain name finance. Certkiller .com.com. Jim placed HTML files in /Users/jim/Sites. Which URL can web browsers on other computers use to access those files?
A. http://jim.finance. Certkiller .com/
B. http://www.finance. Certkiller .com/
C. http://finance. Certkiller .com/~jim/
D. http://finance. Certkiller .com/Users/jim/

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
Which of the following can be sued to view information about a wide range of system components? (Choose Two)
A. Console
B. Setup Assistant
C. System Profiler
D. Internet Connect
E. Network Diagnostics

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 65
Which of the following statements are true regarding network configuration changes?
A. Changes to the network configuration are user-specific.
B. Changes to the network configuration require administrator authentication.
C. Changes to the network configuration require you to create a new network location.
D. Changes to the network configuration are made in the internet pane of System Preferences.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 66
You work as an administrator at Certkiller .com. You need to enable a personal firewall on a Mac OS X v10.4 computer. What should you do?
A. Click Start in the Firewall pane of Network Utility.
B. Click Start in the Firewall pane of NetInfo Manager.
C. Click Start in the Firewall pane of Sharing performance.
D. Click Start in the Firewall pane of Network performances.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
When would you need to perform a DESTRUCTIVE fix, such as reformatting the hard drive or deleting a user account?
A. When the user has forgotten the Master Password.
B. When the user must adopt case-sensitive file names.
C. When the non-admin user cannot install applications.
D. When the Finder cannot identify applications to open PDF files.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
Which Network Utility commands can be used to verify connectivity between your computer and a Web server of the internet? (Choose Two)
A. Traceroute
B. Lookup
C. Whois
D. Finger
E. Ping

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 69
In Mac OS X v10.4, how can you access the command line?
A. Launch Console
B. Start up in verbose mode
C. Log in remotely using SSH.
D. Start up in single user mode.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 70
In which of the following folders should you perform a split-half search FIRST when troubleshooting a font issue that does NOT involve Classic fonts? (Choose Two)
A. /Library/Fonts
B. ~/Library/Fonts
C. /System/Library/Fonts
D. /System/Library/Caches
E. /System/Library/Font Book

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 71
Which of the following types of VPN connections are supported by default in Mac OS X v10.4? (Choose Two)
A. PPPoE
B. L2TP
C. PPTP
D. NAT
E. P2P
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 72
Which of the following dynamic services discovery protocols does Mac OS X v10.4 support? Select two.
A. Bonjour
B. NetInfo
C. LDAP
D. SMB

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 73
Which of the following statement is true with regard to starting up Mac OS Xv10.4 in Safe Mode in?
A. Items in /Library/StartupItems are executed.
B. Items in /System/Library/StartupItems are executed.
C. The launched process launches items in /Library/LaunchDaemons.
D. The launched process launches items in /System/Library/LaunchDaemons.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 74
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. You need to troubleshoot an Ethernet connectivity problem. Which of the following applications would be MOST helpful? (Choose Two)
A. Port Monitor
B. Internet Config
C. Network Utility
D. Process Manager
E. Network Diagnostics

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 75
You work as a support technician at Certkiller .com. A Certkiller user complains that he is unable to open a document from within an application. How could you resolve this problem? (Choose Three)
A. Try to open a different document with the same application
B. Double-click the document icon in the Finder while holding down the Option key.
C. Try to open the document from another application that supports the same document type.
D. Copy the document to the Shared folder then log in as another user and try to open the document
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 76
What is the function of the Lookup tool in Network Utility?
A. It looks up routing table information.
B. Resolving host names to IP address.
C. It determines which ports are open on a remote computer.
D. It finds the complete route between your computer and another computer on an IP network

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 77
In a default Mac OS X v10.3 configuration, which two methods will launch the Classic environment? Select two.
A. Select eh Mac OS 9 System Folder in the Startup Disk pane of System Preferences and restart.
B. Launch Simple Text from the Applications (Mac OS 9) folder.
C. Click Start in the Classic pane of System Preferences.
D. Open the /System/Library/Classic/Startup file.
E. Launch TextEdit from the Dock

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 78
To find out which firmware version a Macintosh with Mac OS X v10.3 has, you can ____________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. Use System Profiler
B. Choose About This Mac OS X v10.3
C. Start up in verbose mode
D. Start up in Open Firmware
E. Use the Open Firmware utility

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 79
Which is an appropriate FIRST step when performing a software update on multiple computers that have Mac OS X v10.3?
A. Restart each computer in a single-user mode.
B. On one computer, choose Download Checked Items from the Update menu in Software Update.
C. On one computer, choose Copy Update to Multiple Computers from the Update menu in Software Update
D. Copy the Software Update preferences from a computer on which the update has been installed, to all other computers.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 80
To confirm that a software update installed successfully, look for its receipt in the __________ folder.
A. /Library/Receipts
B. /System/Receipts
C. ~/Library/SUReceipts
D. /Applications/Software Update
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 81
Mac OS X v10.3 can only be installed on ___________-formatted volumes. (Choose all that apply).
A. HFS Plus
B. FAT32
C. NTFS
D. HFS
E. UFS

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 82
On a system with Mac OS X v10.3, you see the message, “You need to restart your computer. Hold down the Power button for several seconds or press the Restart button.” What does this message indicate?
A. A kernel panic has occurred.
B. Mac OS X must be reinstalled
C. The computer’s firmware needs to be updated.
D. The user activated a forced quit and restart.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 83
What does the Console utility do?
A. Displays log files.
B. Controls monitor setup.
C. Enables the root user to access hidden files.
D. Allows any user to access the command line.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 84
When a Mac OS X v10.3 administrator user attempts to drag a file to the Applications folder, a message tells him, “The item File.app could not be moved because applicatiosn cannot be modified.” To correct this situation the administrator user should _____________.
A. Reinstall Mac OS X
B. Log in with the Master Password
C. Restart the computer and log in again
D. Click the Repair Permissions button in Disk Utility

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 85
Using the Printer Setup Utility in Mac OS X v10.3, how do you enable printing to a printer Shared by a computer with a Windows operating system?
A. Click Add, choose IP from the pop-up menu, select the Windows printer from the list, and click Add.
B. Click Add, choose Windows Printing from the pop-up menu, type in the printer address and queue name, and click Add.
C. Click Add, choose Windows Printing from the pop-up menu, choose LPD/LPR from the pop-up menu, select the Windows printer from the list, and click Add.
D. Click Add, choose Windows Printing from the pop-up menu, choose the correct workgroup from the Workgroups pop-up menu, select the printer from the list, and click Add.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 86
To allow other Mac OS X v10.3 users on the network to access a USB printer connected to your Macintosh, you can __________.
A. Start Print Service in Mac OS X server.
B. Enable Network Printing in Print Setup Utility
C. Add a network print queue in Print Setup Utility.
D. Enable AppleTalk in the Network pane of System Preferences.
E. Select the option to Share my printers with other computers in the Print & Fax pane of System Preferences.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 87
How do you configure Mac OS X v10.3 to print to a networked IP printer?
A. In the Printer Setup Utility, click on Add, choose IP Printing from the pop-up, menu, enter the IP address of the printer, and click Add.
B. In the Printer Setup Utility, click on Add, choose IP from the pop-up menu, select the printer from the list, and click Add.
C. Open the Choose, select the LaserWrite printer driver icon, and select the printer you want to configure.
D. Open the printer you wish to configure from the list of printers in the /Library/Printers/PPDs folder

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 88
When printing from the Classic Environment, you can use the _______ to select the printer.
A. Chooser
B. Printer Setup Utility
C. Mac OS X v10.3 OS 9 Print Tools
D. Printers control panel

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89
To set up your computer that has Mac OS X v10.3to receive faxes, in the Print & Fax pane of System Preferences, _________.
A. Click the Start Faxing button.
B. Click the Faxing button, then click the “Receive faxes on this computer” checkbox.
C. Click the Faxing button, then select your fax modem from the list of available fax modems.
D. Click the Set Up Printing and Faxing button, click the Add button, then select your fax modem from the list of available fax modems.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
About which three system properties will System Profiler provide information? (Choose three.)
A. Installed PCI cards
B. Default network printer
C. Configured share points
D. Connected USB devices
E. Connected FireWire devices
F. Status of personal file sharing

Correct Answer: ADE

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QUESTION 26
What is the indication that a Mac has completed a successful power-on self test (POST)?
A. Startup Chime.
B. A series of beeps.
C. The Login Window starts.
D. The Desktop, Dock, and menu bar load.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
What step is required before upgrading the RAM in a Mac Pro (Early 2009)?
A. Remove the processor tray.
B. Remove the hard drive carriers.
C. Remove the front inlet fan assembly.
D. Remove the Optical Drive and Carrier.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
The Mac Pro (Early 2009) has SMC functionality split between a primary SMC on the backplane board, and a secondary SMC on the processor board. What service issue should a technician be aware of when servicing the Mac Pro (Early 2009)?
A. SMC firmware must always match on both boards.
B. Three internal buttons must be pressed in order to reset both SMCs.
C. It is required to remove the memory riser card in order to reset the SMC.
D. Processor trays are interchangeable between similar Mac Pro (Early 2009) units.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
A customer brings his MacBook Pro (17-inch Mid-2010) in for servicing. It is not functioning correctly and you suspect the machine has been damaged by the customer. As you inspect for accidental damage, you should open the lid and confirm that the hinges are working smoothly and inspect the LCD for scratches on the display coatings or cracks in the glass. You should also ____________________ and __________________. SELECT TWO
A. open the hard disk drive to check for scratches or dust inside
B. look for cracks, dents or scratches on the exterior of the system
C. connect the system to external speakers to check for sound output
D. check for any unusual odors coming from the system, which might indicate spill damage
E. ask the customer to describe in detail how he abused his computer to the point that it no longer functions

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 30
After identifying some accidental damage and pointing it out to the customer, the customer says “Apple’s warranty should cover this kind of problem.” How should you respond?
A. Apple will only cover the internal damage, not the cosmetic damage, so the charge will be less.
B. You’re right, Apple’s warranty does cover this kind of accidental damage, so the repair will be free.
C. Apple’s warranty does not cover this, but the AppleCare Protection Plan might, but only if you buy it now.
D. Apple’s warranty specifically calls out accidental damage as an instance where system failures are not covered.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 116
A customer is designing a SAN for each of two data centers. The two data centers are connected by dark fiber, which is owned by the customer. Cisco ONS platforms terminate the fiber and provide service aggregation. The customer requirements include that the SAN in each data center meet or exceed five nines of availability and be interconnected using 16 separate lambdas. The customer has four storage devices in each data center, and each storage device has four Fibre Channel interfaces. Each data center has 32 servers, and each server has two host bus adapters. The majority of the servers require only 20 to 30MBps of throughput on average, but four of the servers require 150 MBps of throughput on average. What will provide the most cost-effective design to satisfy these requirements?
A. two Cisco MDS 9216 Fabric Switches in each data center, each MDS 9216 with Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355 an additional 16-port Fibre Channel line card
B. two Cisco MDS 9216 Fabric Switches in each data center, each MDS 9216 with an additional 32-port Fibre Channel line card
C. two Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Directors with one in each data center, each MDS 9506 with two 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and two 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
D. two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors with one in each data center, each MDS 9509 with two 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and three 32-port Fibre Channel line cards

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
DRAG DROP
You work as network consultant. Your customer Certkiller .com requires your services. Specifically you are
required to drag Certkiller ‘s business consideration next to the MDS feature that will solve that issue. Note:
You might not have to use all available options.

Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 118

What would be a good initial SAN-migration project for a small or medium-sized business that possesses ample WAN bandwidth, but that has an immediate need to reduce spending and to maximize resources?
A. Reduce the WAN bandwidth.
B. Implement FCIP to consolidate all remote SANs.
C. Implement backup consolidation.
D. Centralize the data center and implement an iSCSI solution.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 119
Exhibit:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355 Refer to the exhibit. A customer is designing a SAN for each of two data centers. The two data centers are connected by dark fiber, which is owned by the customer. Cisco ONS platforms terminate the fiber and provide service aggregation. The customer requirements include that the SAN in each data center meet or exceed five nines of availability and be interconnected using 16 separate lambdas. Links between data centers must be able to tolerate failure of any component. The customer has eight storage devices in each data center, and each storage device has eight Fibre Channel interfaces. Each data center has 120 servers, and each server has two host bus adapters. The servers generally require only 10 to 20MBps of throughput. The customer also requires that the solution be efficient on its use of ports, and provide room to grow by at least 10 percent to accommodate server growth over the next year. What is the most cost-effective design to satisfy these requirements?

A. two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors in each data center, each MDS 9509 with two 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and five 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
B. two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors in each data center, each MDS 9509 with seven 16-port Fibre Channel line cards
C. two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors in each data center, each MDS 9509 with one 16-port Fibre Channel line card and six 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
D. two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors in each data center, each MDS 9509 with seven 32-port Fibre Channel line cards

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
A customer has 80% of the total storage space directly connected to servers. The storage space needs are growing at 50% per year. Given these facts, which solution is recommended?
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. increase in server capacity
B. server consolidation
C. storage consolidation
D. storage expansion
E. SAN consolidation
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
In addition to providing secure computer room access, what three MDS 9000 features can help enhance physical security? (Choose three.)
A. the placement of all unused FC ports in a VSAN set to “deny”
B. the placement of every host in its own ZoneSet that includes its storage devices
C. the use of the port security feature to bind pWWNs and sWWNs to specific ports
D. the use of DH-CHAP authentication to ensure fabric level security
E. the use of SSH to block access to all unused ports

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 122
DRAG DROP Your Certkiller .com trainee Sandra asks you to match the applications with its most appropriate corresponding N-tier layer. You must comply.

Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 123
A customer has two data centers connected by dark fiber and also has a requirement for synchronous data replication between the data centers. If the data centers are 48 km apart, what is the most cost effective solution?
A. CWDM
B. IVR
C. FSPF
D. DWDM
E. Native FC

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Which SFP and media-type combination would be recommended for a high-speed 10-kilometer link between two Cisco MDS switches?
A. 2-Gbps-SW, LC SFP, 50/125-micron multimode media
B. 2-Gbps-SW, LC SFP, 62.5/125-micron multimode media
C. 2-Gbps-LW, LC SFP, 9/125-micron single-mode media
D. 1-Gbps-SW, LC SFP, 50/125-micron multimode media

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
Exhibit:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
642-355

Refer to the exhibit. What port type should be used between the two switches to maximize performance?
A. B
B. E
C. F
D. NL
E. TE

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
An administrator is concerned about security and wants to have host bus adapters authenticate against an authoritative server upon fabric login. The administrator configures the fabric and hosts accordingly but needs to configure an authoritative server. Which two authentication servers can the MDS be configured to use?(Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Active Directory
B. LDAP
C. RADIUS
D. TACACS+
E. NIS Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
What MDS 9000 feature provides more efficient SAN utilization by creating hardware-based isolated environments within a single physical SAN infrastructure?
A. VSAN
B. SPAN
C. trunking
D. port channel
E. zones

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
Which statement is true about LUN zoning in a heterogeneous environment?
A. Hardware-enforced LUN zoning helps to ensure that LUNs are accessible by all hosts.
B. Use LUN zoning instead of LUN masking to centralize management in mixed storage environments.
C. LUN zoning requires no special configuration on storage arrays.
D. LUN masking should be used in all situations.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
What are two reasons that remote backup (remote vaulting) is a core application of FCIP? (Choose two.)
A. FCIP is relatively inexpensive when compared with optical storage networking.
B. Enterprises and storage service providers (SSPs) can provide remote-vaulting services by using existing FCIP WAN infrastructures.
C. FCIP is very reliable because it always uses host-based synchronous replication.
D. FCIP is very reliable because it always uses disk-based asynchronous replication.
E. Applications are often sensitive to high latency, but in a properly designed FCIP backup implementation, the application can be protected from problems with the backup process by using techniques such as snapshots and split mirrors. Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
Which SAN topology should be used for the largest SAN fabrics?
A. arbitrated loop
B. full mesh
C. core-edge
D. cascade
E. collapsed core

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 131
Which Cisco MDS feature alleviates a head-of-line blocking condition when occasional bursts of traffic exceed the capacity of an end device to receive data?
A. virtual output queues
B. VSAN allowed list
C. VSANs
D. quality of service

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
What are three key benefits of Cisco’s collapsed-core switch configuration? (Choose three.)
A. ease of management
B. increased port channel utilization
C. reduction in equipment and installation cost
D. higher effective port count
E. reduction in total disk space requirements

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
What are three host characteristics that are crucial when planning a SAN design? (Choose three.)
A. host operating system
B. data replication
C. application I/O throughput
D. type of file system
E. CUP and memory resources
F. multipathing

Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
A customer is designing a storage network infrastructure to support a database application. Each server will have two 1-Gbps host bus adapters, one connected to each of the two physical fabrics. The disk array has two 2-Gbps Fibre Channel interfaces. Each server will need to drive 20 MBps (encoded) of throughput continuously per host bus adapter, and the multipathing software on each server is not configured for load balancing.What is the maximum number of servers that can be connected to this disk array while satisfying the performance requirement?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
In the design of an iSCSI implementation in conjunction with a Cisco MDS-based SAN, which technology provides for diverse connections into multiple SAN switches and is used to provide automatic failover using a single target IP address?
A. multipathing
B. EtherChannel
C. VRRP
D. OSPF

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
What effect does VSAN technology have on typical capacity planning for a storage network?
A. Because of the complete isolation of VSANs, more ports are required in a VSAN environment than in a non-VSAN environment.
B. When capacity planning where VSANs will be implemented, each VSAN must be capacity planned independently of all other VSANs.
C. VSANs are over provisioned separately to provide for capacity growth.
D. Unused ports can easily be redeployed for other applications in other VSANs.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
A customer has 80% of the total storage space directly connected to servers. The storage space needs are growing at 50% per year. Given these facts, which solution is recommended?
A. increase in server capacity
B. server consolidation
C. storage consolidation
D. storage expansion
E. SAN consolidation

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
Exhibit:

Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
Refer to the exhibit. What topology allows the customer network, made up of several SAN islands, to be integrated into a single SAN topology, and still retain its existing functionality?
A. Core-Edge Topology
B. VSAN with Collapsed-Core Topology
C. VSAN with Core-Edge Topology
D. Single Large SAN Fabric

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. A customer has deployed two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors. One MDS 9509 is deployed in each of two separate data centers. The primary data center is always active, and the secondary data center is considered a standby site. The data centers are connected together by an unreliable Gigabit Ethernet connection that is shared by many departments. A replication application is using Fibre Channel over IP (FCIP) as its transport mechanism over the Gigabit Ethernet circuit. The administrator is concerned about network stability in the production fabric and the impact of a Gigabit Ethernet circuit outage on the production fabric. The administrator is deploying Inter-VSAN Routing to isolate the production fabric from the standby data center fabric, and only has one license. Where should the administrator install and configure Inter-VSAN Routing?
A. Switch A
B. Switch B
C. The administrator should not install and configure Inter-VSAN Routing.
D. Switch A and Switch B

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 140
A customer has a need to synchronously replicate data from the primary data center to a standby data center that is 30 kilometers away. The customer owns the
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fiber between the two data centers and uses the link for Gigabit Ethernet connectivity today. The Gigabit Ethernet connection is heavily utilized and generally remains at 90-percent utilization. The customer expects that the replication traffic will require approximately 30 MBps, and is looking for a low-cost solution. Which replication solution would you recommend?
A. FCIP
B. CWDM
C. DWDM
D. iSCSI

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
Which statement best defines storage consolidation?
A. making an enterprise’s total disk space highly available to the entire enterprise, often by placing it in a SAN
B. making an enterprise’s disk space, servers, and tape libraries highly available to the entire enterprise, often by placing them in a SAN
C. making an enterprise’s total storage networking less costly by using iSCSI
D. making an enterprise’s total disk space highly available by transferring copies of an enterprise’s total storage space to an offsite location
E. making an enterprise’s total disk space highly available by connecting all of an enterprise’s storage devices to one (or two) large servers

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
A customer SAN design requires the use of existing non-Cisco storage switches in a core edge topology. What must be considered when attaching an MDS 9000 switch as the core device in this network?
A. Trunking is not supported between the core and edge switches.
B. Zoning cannot be used since the domain IDs are in different ranges.
C. FSPF cannot be used between the core and edge switches.
D. If VSANs are implemented in the core, IVR cannot be used.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
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Select three common attributes of Gigabit Ethernet compared to Fibre Channel as a storage transport service. (Choose three.)
A. high bandwidth
B. low bandwidth
C. high latency
D. low latency
E. long distance

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
What are three value-added features in the Cisco MDS 9000 Series of multiprotocol directors? (Choose three.)
A. FSPF
B. FCC
C. link aggregation
D. buffer-to-buffer credits
E. QoS
F. IPFC

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
Which design approach provides the greatest protection against failures when designing for high availability?
A. Segment the SAN architecture by the use of VSANs.
B. Use zoning to isolate applications in a consolidated SAN architecture.
C. Use appropriate MDS QoS mechanisms to guarantee that each application receives the necessary bandwidth.
D. Implement redundant fabrics across redundant physical infrastructures.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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