Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure 312-76 VCE dumps: http://www.pass4itsure.com/312-76.html
All know that our products can help you master Citrix 1Y0-400 Management points, clearly shows that you need a key point in the exam. Learning we offer Citrix 1Y0-400 exam sample questions you will learn better without having to participate in other expensive courses. Since the competitiveness of the IT world has been increased recent years, IT certifications become the basic necessities if you want to have a boost in your career path. Passing Citrix 1Y0-400 exam is treated as the most crucial way to get the Citrix 1Y0-400 certification. The Citrix 1Y0-400 strengthens the employment prospects and opens up myriads of opportunities for them. FLYDUMPS Citrix 1Y0-400 exam sample questions provide the useful information about the Citrix 1Y0-400 exam.
QUESTION 21
Scenario: An architect is designing a NetScaler solution that implements GSLB. The solution must provide StoreFront access through a single URL worldwide and maintain a highly available configuration globally as well as locally.
How many StoreFront servers are recommended to implement this configuration?
A. Six, one site for each store
B. Six, two in each datacenter
C. Three, one in each datacenter
D. Four, two in the primary and two in the backup datacenter Correct Answer: B QUESTION 22
Scenario: Personnel are being trained using a test XenDesktop site. They must be restricted to accessing this site only while on company premises. Which StoreFront configuration should the architect recommend?
A. Enable the Domain pass-through authentication method on the store.
B. Disable the Pass-through from NetScaler authentication method on the store.
C. Configure the StoreFront servers with a separate store for this site, NOT enabled for remote access.
D. Install a certificate issued by the internal Windows Certificate Services server on the StoreFront servers.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23
Which two design decisions should the architect recommend to improve the user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Configure Clipboard policy
B. Configure Drive encryption
C. Configure Flash redirection
D. Configure Media redirection Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 24
Which two manually performed tasks can be streamlined by implementing a Citrix environment? (Choose two.)
A. Database backup
B. Application patching
C. Security assessment
D. Certificate management
E. Operating system installation Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 25
The company’s HDX policies must apply to a pooled virtual desktop environment without affecting any virtual applications.How should an architect apply the HDX policies?
A. By using a SmartAccess filter
B. By using a client name policy filter
C. By using a delivery group type policy filter
D. By giving the virtual desktop policy a higher priority than the virtual application policy Correct Answer: C QUESTION 26
Scenario: HR staff have a requirement to print confidential information to USB-attached printers in their offices. Any printer model may be used for this purpose. Which two recommended options should the architect consider for this solution? (Choose two.)
A. Configuring ‘Client printer names’
B. Configuring ‘Auto-create client printers’
C. Configuring ‘Universal print driver usage’
D. Enabling ‘Automatic installation of in-box printer drivers’
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 27
The architect should recommend a Universal License because it is required for __________. (Choose the phrase that correctly completes the sentence.)
A. ICA Proxy
B. SmartAccess
C. two-factor authentication
D. SSL access inside the network Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
An architect recommends full SSL VPN connections for remote users. Which type of NetScaler license should be applied for these users?
A. User
B. Device
C. Platform
D. Universal
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 29
Which action should an architect avoid recommending when designing a monitoring solution?
A. Installing vendor-supplied tools to monitor physical hardware
B. Installing Command Center to monitor NetScaler appliances
C. Installing agents onto NetScaler appliances to monitor utilization
D. Installing Citrix Director to monitor the XenDesktop environment Correct Answer: C QUESTION 30
An architect is explaining options for profile management. What is one issue that the architect must address in the current environment?
A. Folder redirection is implemented.
B. Roaming users have local profiles.
C. Startup scripts are used in the environment.
D. PositivelyFinance does NOT work with roaming profiles.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 31
Which tool should the architect use in preparation for migration to Windows Server 2012 to determine application compatibility and suitability for virtualization?
A. AppDNA
B. App-V Sequencer
C. EdgeSight for End Points
D. Windows Upgrade Advisor Correct Answer: A QUESTION 32
All nurses currently use Windows XP workstations to access critical medical applications and require different applications depending on their role.Which two delivery models meet the nurses’ requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Local VM deployment with streamed applications
B. Streamed VHD deployment with streamed applications
C. Hosted server OS deployment with locally installed applications
D. Hosted desktop OS deployment with locally installed applications
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 33
In the new environment, the PositivelyFinance application will be deployed as a server OS- hosted application.Which two policy settings should an architect recommend to prevent data leakage from the PositivelyFinance application? (Choose two.)
A. HDX policy setting with Client drive mapping set to `Prohibited’
B. HDX policy setting with Client Clipboard Redirection set to `Prohibited’
C. HDX policy setting with File redirection on Client Network drives set to ‘Prohibited’
D. Active Directory group policy with the Do not allow clipboard redirection setting set to `Disabled’
E. Active Directory group policy with the Prevent access to drives setting set to `Restrict all drives’
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 34
An architect is evaluating the user profile management solution for the desktop and application virtualization solution.Which two pieces of information should the architect collect? (Choose two.)
A. User time zone
B. User profile size
C. Installed language pack
D. Client device CPU/RAM
E. Application compatibility of profile type
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 35
Which IOPS figures must an architect take into account when determining the IOPS requirements for a user group?
A. logical, logon, and raw
B. functional, logoff, and boot
C. steady state, boot, and raw
D. steady state, logon, and boot
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
Which three statements are true regarding the Radiology group? (Choose three.)
A. Mobility is important to Radiology users.
B. Mobility is unimportant to Radiology users.
C. Virtualization resource requirements are high.
D. Smooth Roaming is important to Radiology users.
E. Virtualization resource requirements are moderate.
F. Smooth Roaming is unimportant to Radiology users.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 37
An architect recommends using the monitoring function of Citrix Director to determine if users can connect to applications.Which Windows service should the architect also include in the monitoring solution?
A. Citrix Configuration Service on the Delivery Controller
B. Citrix Configuration Replication on the StoreFront server
C. World Wide Web Publishing Service on the StoreFront server
D. World Wide Web Publishing Service on the server OS machine
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
An architect is designing a solution that minimizes the storage footprint by utilizing thin provisioning in the datacenter.Which solution should the architect recommend for XenServer shared storage?
A. NFS
B. CIFS
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
Scenario: The company is considering replacing the Windows XP computers with new devices as part of the new solution. The new devices should require minimal support and administration, while providing a centrally managed desktop solution.
Which two methods should an architect consider to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Client OS desktop delivery group accessed from thin-client devices by using Citrix Receiver
B. Server OS desktop delivery group accessed from thin-client devices by using Citrix Receiver
C. Client OS desktop delivery group accessed from Windows-based physical desktops by using Citrix Receiver
D. Server OS application delivery group accessed from Windows-based physical desktops by using Citrix Receiver
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 40
Scenario: Some contractors require access to various corporate applications. They must also be able to install their own applications within the environment for testing purposes.
Which two delivery methods fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Hosted server OS with Profile Management enabled
B. Pooled hosted desktop OS with Personal vDisk enabled
C. Hosted server OS with persistent server operating system
D. Assigned hosted desktop OS with persistent desktop operating system
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 41
An architect is recommending an antivirus policy for Provisioning Services servers that are being used to provision pooled desktops. Which two options should the architect recommend for optimal performance? (Choose two.)
A. Enable scan on read
B. Prohibit write cache scanning
C. Increase scheduled scanning frequency
D. Exclude scanning of the target device drivers
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 42
An architect needs to design a solution that optimizes resource usage for Call Center users. How do server OS machines achieve this goal?
A. By offering optimal performance
B. By providing rapid application rollouts
C. By ensuring the greatest security level by design
D. By accommodating high user density on each server
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 43
The company’s security officer has stated that for compliance reasons, all internal and external network traffic must be encrypted. Which additional type of encryption should the architect recommend?
A. SecureICA
B. IPsec
C. SSL and SecureICA
D. L2TP Correct Answer: C
Flydumps Citrix 1Y0-400 practice test is the best training materials. If you are an IT staff, it will be your indispensable training materials. Do not take your future betting on tomorrow. Flydumps Citrix 1Y0-400 practice test are absolutely trustworthy. We are dedicated to provide the materials to the world of the candidates who want to participate in IT exam. To get the Citrix 1Y0-400 exam certification is the goal of many IT people & Network professionals. The pass rate of Flydumps is incredibly high. We are committed to your success.
Pass4itsure 312-76 dumps with PDF + Premium VCE + VCE Simulator: http://www.pass4itsure.com/312-76.html
Citrix 1Y0-400 Exam Demo, Most Popular Citrix 1Y0-400 Practise Questions On Sale
Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure 1Y0-200 VCE dumps: https://www.pass4itsure.com/1Y0-200.html
Citrix 1Y0-200 exam is a Cisco certification. When wanting to pass Citrix 1Y0-200 exam, you need to choose some study material and practice tests for helping. With the complete collection of Citrix 1Y0-200 exam sample questions, you will cover every field and category in Citrix 1Y0-200 helping to ready you for your successful Riverbed Certification. FLYDUMPS provide you with by far the most upgrades product to organize for any assessments all the Citrix 1Y0-200 exam sample questions can be purchased once your there.
QUESTION 21
A Citrix Administrator creates a session printer for the Engineering group; however, engineers report that
random characters are printed when they print.
Which policy settings could be causing the issue?
A. Printer assignments
B. Universal driver preference
C. Wait for printers to be created
D. Auto-create generic universal printer
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Users accessing applications hosted on a specific server OS machine are unable to connect to printers from within their sessions. What could be the cause of this issue?
A. The Universal Print Server is NOT installed.
B. The universal printer driver policy is disabled.
C. The auto-create client printer policy is enabled.
D. The Citrix Print Manager Service is NOT running.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 23
After a recent upgrade, a user is attempting to launch Microsoft Word 2010 from Receiver for Web and
receives the following error:
Cannot start app ‘Microsoft Word 2010’.
What are two potential reasons for this error? (Choose two.)
A. The application is disabled.
B. The server OS machine is NOT registered.
C. The server OS machine is in maintenance mode.
D. The user does NOT have permission to access the application.
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 24
Scenario: An iPad user is connected to the internal wireless network. The user is attempting to use Microsoft Word 2010. This user can see other hosted applications on the iPad but CANNOT see Microsoft Word. Other users have access to Microsoft Word on their iPads.
What is preventing the user from seeing Microsoft Word 2010 on their iPad?
A. The application is NOT enabled.
B. NetScaler is NOT configured in StoreFront.
C. The user is NOT assigned to the application.
D. The server OS machine is in maintenance mode.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
Scenario: A user attempts to launch their virtual desktop, “Win7 Desktop,” from within Receiver for Web.
The virtual desktop fails to launch, and the user receives a notification stating:
Cannot start desktop “Win7 Desktop”.
Which two methods could a Citrix Administrator use to resolve the issue? (Choose two.)
A. Close Receiver for Web and then reopen it.
B. Restart the virtual desktop using Citrix Director.
C. Install a new SSL Certificate on the StoreFront server.
D. Right-click the desktop icon within Receiver for Web and select ‘Restart’.
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 26
Scenario: A user is unable to access their remote PC. The user has tried to restart the machine but is unable to do so. Why is the user unable to restart the remote PC?
A. The user is still logged in at their remote PC.
B. A user CANNOT remotely restart a remote PC.
C. The Citrix Delivery Service is NOT running on the remote PC.
D. Citrix Studio has NOT been configured to manage the remote PC.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
Scenario: A company has two delivery groups with two server OS machines in each delivery group. One delivery group is for Microsoft Office 2007 server OS machines, and one delivery group is for Microsoft Office 2010 server OS machines.
Microsoft Office 2010 users are reporting performance issues, including latency and slowness in general.
Which two tools could a Citrix Administrator use to troubleshoot this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Citrix Director
B. Citrix Quick Launch
C. Performance Monitor
D. Microsoft Event Viewer
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 28
Scenario: A CPU-intensive email application is added to a server OS machine. Several users report poor application performance, including high latency and slowness in general. The Help Desk logs show that this issue occurs at varying times of the day and has been reported from multiple remote offices.
Which two utilities should a Citrix Administrator use to troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.)
A. Citrix Studio
B. CDFControl
C. Citrix Director
D. Performance Monitor
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 29
After a Citrix Administrator creates a bonded network on XenServer, provisioned desktops fail to start up from the network. What could be a cause of this issue?
A. UDP 69 is closed.
B. The MTU is incorrectly configured.
C. The connection to the CIFS share is broken.
D. The status of the bonded network shows as ‘Disconnected’.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 30
The Export Provisioning File option in the StoreFront Management Console contains __________. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. the information required to rebuild a store
B. connection details for the Delivery Controller
C. connection details for the hosting infrastructure
D. connection details for stores, including any Access Gateway deployments and beacons configured for the stores
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 31
Which three 60-minute historical trends can a Citrix Administrator view when using Citrix Director? (Choose three.)
A. CPU usage
B. Machine failures
C. License checkouts
D. Connection failures
E. Concurrent sessions
F. Memory consumption
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 32
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator replaces the production StoreFront server with a new StoreFront server. Users access their resources from StoreFront through NetScaler.
Which NetScaler policy must the administrator modify in order to allow users to continue to access resources securely from external locations?
A. Traffic
B. Session
C. Authorization
D. Authentication
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
The Sales team requests that a Citrix Administrator enhance the user experience on tablet devices. Which policy setting should the administrator enable to meet the requirements of the Sales team?
A. Multimedia Conferencing
B. Flash Content Redirection
C. Windows Media Redirection
D. Launch touch-optimized desktop
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
A Citrix Administrator needs to ensure that individual support teams are only able to control the delivery groups for their units.
Which feature should the administrator configure to ensure that the appropriate teams have administrator access to the desktops for their particular unit?
A. Scopes
B. Exclusion filters
C. User assignment
D. SmartAccess settings
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which two actions should a Citrix Administrator take prior to deleting desktop OS machines from a machine catalog? (Choose two.)
A. Turn off the desktop OS machines.
B. Place the desktop OS machines in maintenance mode.
C. Remove the desktop OS machines from the hypervisor.
D. Delete the Active Directory account for the desktop OS machines.
E. Enable maintenance mode on the hypervisor hosting the desktop OS machines.
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 36
Which two methods could a Citrix Administrator use to ensure that users are able to launch multiple virtual desktop sessions? (Choose two.)
A. Change the ‘Desktops per user’ setting in the delivery groups settings.
B. Give the user multiple devices so that they can have a session open on each.
C. Create two host connections from the Delivery Controller to different hypervisors.
D. Create two delivery groups from the same catalog and assign the users to both delivery groups.
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 37
A Citrix Administrator publishes an application but receives reports that the application is NOT visible in Receiver through StoreFront.
Why is the application NOT visible to users?
A. The application is disabled.
B. The path to the executable is incorrect.
C. There are some user groups NOT assigned to the application.
D. There are NO available server OS machines in the machine catalog.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 38
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is publishing a text editor for developers to use when they need to edit their configuration files. The administrator needs to ensure that the text editor launches when a developer attempts to open a configuration file.
What should the administrator implement to ensure that the hosted application launches when a developer attempts to edit a configuration file?
A. Application Security
B. Applications Strings
C. Content Redirection
D. Advanced Access Control
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 39
Which action should a Citrix Administrator take to add pooled desktops with personal vDisk to an existing Provisioning Services farm?
A. Use the XenDesktop Setup Wizard from the Provisioning Services Console.
B. Create the virtual machines manually and import the target devices using a .CSV file.
C. Create target devices in the Provisioning Services Console using the MAC addresses.
D. Enable ‘Auto-Add’ in the Provisioning Services Console and start up the virtual machines from the network.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40
A Citrix Administrator needs to change the port used for communication between StoreFront and the Delivery Controller.
Which configuration in the StoreFront Management Console should the administrator modify to meet this goal?
A. Stores
B. Beacons
C. Gateways
D. Authentication
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 41
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator uses Machine Creation Services to provision desktops in an environment. Productivity applications are installed locally into desktop OS machines. The administrator is instructed to update the productivity applications.
Which action should the administrator take after updating the applications in order to ensure that users are provided with the updated applications?
A. Update the master image then update the delivery group.
B. Update the machine catalog then update the delivery group.
C. Update the desktops then update the appropriate machine catalog.
D. Update the master image then update the appropriate machine catalog.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 42
Users report that when they work remotely on weekends, they experience noticeably longer desktop launch times. Which action should a Citrix Administrator take to resolve this issue?
A. Set peak hours for the weekend.
B. Analyze the logon times in Citrix Director.
C. Schedule the weekend backups to run at night.
D. Increase the number of active machines during the weekends.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 43
Which two tools could a Citrix Administrator use to back up XenServer metadata? (Choose two.)
A. Citrix Studio
B. Citrix Director
C. Citrix XenCenter
D. XenServer Host Console
E. XenServer Web Self Service
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 44
Which command enables a Citrix Administrator to back up the XenServer pool configuration database?
A. xe pool-ha-disable
B. xe pool-sync-database
C. xe pool-dump-database
D. xe pool-restore-database
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 45
Which two steps must a Citrix Administrator take to adjust the size of a vDisk assigned to a server OS machine? (Choose two.)
A. Create a new vDisk.
B. Edit properties of the vDisk.
C. Edit the .PVP file with Notepad.
D. Use BNImage to reverse the image.
E. Mount the vDisk on the Provisioning Server.
Correct Answer: AD
There are a lot of sites provide the Citrix 1Y0-200 exam certification and other training materials for you . Passcert is only website which can provide you Citrix 1Y0-200 exam certification with high quality. In the guidance and help of Flydumps, you can through your Citrix 1Y0-200 exam the first time. The Citrix 1Y0-200 practice test provided by Flydumps are IT experts use their extensive knowledge and experience manufacturing out. It can help your future in the IT industry to the next level.
Pass4itsure c_fsutil_60 dumps with PDF + Premium VCE + VCE Simulator: https://www.pass4itsure.com/1y0-200.html
Citrix 1Y0-200 Vce Dumps Files, Sale Best Citrix 1Y0-200 Online Exam For Download
Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure 70-680 VCE dumps: http://www.pass4itsure.com/070-680.html
It’s easy to understand questions and answers are in PDF making it simple for you to download and utilize. A lot of faith has been shown for Polycom 1K0-002 exam sample questions by successful candidates. Just take Polycom 1K0-002 exam at once. FLYDUMPS provides corresponding original museum of Polycom 1K0-002 replying to the royal bag students and professionals. These measures include in a whole section of packaging materials. The corresponding original museum Polycom 1K0-002 replying to test in reducing bag can buy corresponding Polycom 1K0-002 replying to the price of library.
QUESTION 69
What is the correct frequency response for the G.711 audio algorithm?
A. 300Hz to 3.4kHz
B. 50Hz to 7kHz
C. 300Hz to 7kHz
D. 50Hz to 3.4kHz
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
Which of the following describes one ISDN B-Channel?
A. Network that provides 64 kilobits per second
B. Network that provides 4800 kilobits per second
C. Network that provides various rates up to 1,920,000 bits per second
D. Network that is unable to function
E. Network that provides 1,536,000 bits per second
F. Network that provides 128 kilobits per second
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 71
Which of the following correctly describes echo as it relates to acoustic echo cancellations?
A. The result of sound bouncing off the walls in the room caused by the person speaking in that room being picked up by the microphones.
B. The sound one hears when the far-end is talking and one tries to talk at the same time.
C. The sound of the far-end being returned to themselves, caused by the room microphones picking up the audio from the room loudspeakers.
D. The sound of the room reverberation as picked up by the local microphones, amplified and returned to the far-end.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 72
Which signals are being used with Y/C video?
A. Kodachrome and polychrome
B. Chrominance and luminance
C. Red, green and blue
D. Yustra spectrum and composite
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 73
Which of the following are the ITU-T Standard that describes the Transport for T.120?
A. T.121
B. T.124
C. T.123
D. T.126
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 74
The H.239 Standard is best described as
A. Role Management -People and Content Standard for H.320 only.
B. Role Management or People and Content Standard for H.300 Series.
C. Audio Coding and Additional Media Channels.
D. Role Management and Chair Control.
E. Role Management -People and Content Standard for H.321 only.
F. Role Management and Additional Far End Camera Control.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 75
The G.722.1 operates up to frequency response bandwidth of
A. 7000Hz.
B. 12,000Hz.
C. 600Hz.
D. 1200Hz.
E. 4800Hz.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
Which audio coding standards are described by H.320?
A. G.711, G.721, G.722, and G.723
B. G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.723.1
C. G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.726
D. G.711, G.722, G.728, G.723.1, and G.729
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 77
Which of the following is considered 4SIF?
A. 640 X 480
B. 1024 X 768
C. 720 X 480
D. 800 X 600
E. 704 X 576
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 78
High-Definition Videoconferencing will require and use
A. the same camera from NTSC and PAL VTC systems
B. typical off the shelf web camera
C. All of the other alternatives apply.
D. high-definition camera
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 79
BERT testing is used for what purpose?
A. Verifying the number of Audio bit errors
B. Verifying the number of the Network bit errors
C. Verifying the number of Video bit errors
D. None of the other alternatives apply.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 80
Which of the following Call Establishment Packets are used for ISDN Call Setup on the D Channel?
A. SETUP / CALL PROCEDING / IN PROGRESS / ALERT / CONNECT ACK
B. SETUP / CALL ROUTING OPEN / RELEASE COMPLETE
C. SETUP / RECEIVER READY / WAIT INDICATOR
D. None of the other alternatives apply.
E. SETUP / REQUEST FOR CALL / CALL SETUP VALID
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 81
Open System Interconnect describes a Model for
A. 7 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with layer 1 as the most important.
B. 7 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with layer 7 as the most important.
C. None of the other alternatives apply..
D. 3 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with Layer 1 as the most important.
E. 3 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with Layer 3 as the most important.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
Which of the following video display resolutions are true 16:9 Aspect Ratio?
Flydumps products are developed by a lot of experienced IT specialists using their wealth of knowledge and experience to do research for IT certification exams. So if you participate in Polycom 1K0-002 exam, please choose our Polycom 1K0-002 dumps, Flydumps can not only provide you a wide coverage and good quality exam information to guarantee you to let you be ready to face this very professional exam but also help you pass Polycom 1K0-002 exam to get the certification.
Pass4itsure 070-680 dumps with PDF + Premium VCE + VCE Simulator: https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-680.html
Polycom 1K0-002 Free Dowload, Sale Best Polycom 1K0-002 Dump Exam Questions And Answers Are The Best Materials
Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure C2020-011 VCE dumps: http://www.pass4itsure.com/C2020-011.html
Cisco 642-359 test is definitely the new movement among the IT authorities. The sheer number of prospects chasing the following official certifications is usually great and recruiters are likely to use credentialed authorities. Begin money making your Cisco 642-359 exam assessment at this point could really mean substantial positive aspects before i write again. Just after being successful while in the Cisco 642-359 exam sample questions you’re eligible as a Riverbed. You will receive the highest quality and support with Killtest customer service that will fulfill all of your IT certification needs. Purchase our Cisco 642-359 exam sample questions, simply put, FLYDUMPS is your key to opening up new doors for a brighter future.
QUESTION 84
NEEDS VERIFICATION. Refer to the exhibit.
What must you do to resolve the connectivity problems over the fc1/7 interface?
A. The interface port type must be set toTE_port.
B. The VSAN load balancing scheme must be changed.
C. The Domain ID on the switch must be Changed.
D. The Beacon should be turned on.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
A customer is connecting some new Cisco MDS switches to an existing Brocade SAN network. The goal is to replace the existing Brocade switches with Cisco switches, while maintaining the existing multivendor SAN fabric. What must be configured to use standard interoperability mo —- between the multivendor equipment?
A. Only VSAN 1 can be used. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 37 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
B. Domain IDs between 97 and 127 must be used.
C. Only port-based zoning can be used.
D. Full zone set distribution must be used.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
Which command in used to configure VLAN 100 on the Gigabit Ethernet 2/1 interface through which iSCSI-enabled servers should be connected to the Fibre Channel targets?
A. interface gigabitethernet 2/1 100
B. interface gigabitethernet 2/1 vlan 100
C. interface gigabitethernet 2/1 encapsulation isl 100
D. interface gigabitethernet2/1 vlan 100
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
Refer to the exhibit.
What alarm will be sent for this RMON event?
A. FCIP link failure
B. Fibre Channel link down
C. Fibre Channel link failure “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 38 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
D. Fibre Channel link reestablishment
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
You have deployed a Fibre Channel network with iSCSI-attached servers and clients in multiple IP networks. In you Fibre Channel network, you have deployed a Cisco MDS 9222i switch as an iSCSI gateway. Which option prevents clients from attaching to different iSCSI virtual targets that are used by servers?
A. Use iSCSI proxy initiator mode on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces for the server side.
B. Deploy static iSCSI initiator maps and attach them to Gigabit Ethernet interfaces.
C. Dedicate one Gigabit Ethernet interface for servers and restrict those iSCSI virtual target advertising to the dedicated Gigabit Ethernet interface.
D. Enable the trespass option for the iSCSI virtual targets.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
Refer to the exhibit. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 39 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
The customer network has blue and red VSANs redundantly connected. Path A having a 4-ISL port channel and Path B having a 2-ISL port channel. Changes to the physical topology are not allowed for the next six months. All the traffic now flows over Path A with congestion occurring on both VSANs at peak times. The blue VSAN is, on the average, generating four times the amount of data than that of the red VSAN. How can the blue and red VSAN traffic be separated over the two paths, while preserving redundancy?
A. Make a zone in the blue VSAN with only ISL ports on Path B, and make another zone in the red VSAN with only ISL ports on Path A.
B. Make a zone in the blue VSAN with only ISL ports on Path A, and make another zone in the red VSAN with only ISL ports on Path B.
C. In the blue VSAN, give Path B a lower FSPF cost than Path A, in the red VSAN, give Path A a lower FSPF cost than Path B.
D. In the blue VSAN, give Path A a lower FSPF cost than Path B, in the red VSAN, give Path B a lower FSPF cost than Path A.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 40 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action should you take to connect the Cisco MDS Switch to an existing Brocade and McData multivendor using interoperability mode 1?
A. Reconfigure the DomainID to 100.
B. Change the sWWN using the McData OUI.
C. Force the principal switch election with priority 1.
D. Disable the VSAN functionality.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Refer to the exhibit. Which two options do you need to deploy for the topology depicted to interconnect the MDS (SAN) and the Nexus 5000 (LAN)? (Choose two.)
A. Fibre Channel expansion module
B. consolidated network adapter
C. Fibre Channel license package
D. FCoE-enabled module
E. generation 3 line cards
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 92
Refer to the exhibit.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 41 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
What is the effect of enabling the VSAN scope with number 500 when creating the SalesUser role?
A. The user connecting to the Fibre Channel fabric would be restricted to VSAN 500.
B. The user would be able to use allowed commands in VSAN 500 only.
C. The user would be excluded from VSAN 500.
D. The user would be able to create VSAN from 1 to 500.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
Which two Cisco MDS features allow fabric-wide consistent and VSAN-independent configurations of the zoning information? (Choose two.)
A. CFS
B. sWWN
C. Fibre Channel alias
D. Device alias
E. Interface ID
F. port-based zoning
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Flydumps.com Cisco 642-359 practice tests are composed of latest exam questions formulate an actual exam scenario with an intent to expose your potentials and latent skills. Our Apple practice tests encompass all the fundamental of Cisco 642-359 exam formats, orients your efforts towards guaranteed success for Cisco 642-359 exams. You can hit your target with assurance if you have opted for our practice test training.
Pass4itsure C2020-011 dumps with PDF + Premium VCE + VCE Simulator: https://www.pass4itsure.com/c2020-011.html
Cisco 642-359 Certification Exam, Most Popular Cisco 642-359 Exam Covers All Key Points
Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure sk0-003 VCE dumps: http://www.pass4itsure.com/sk0-003.html
All know that our products can help you master Apple 9L0-007 Management points, clearly shows that you need a key point in the exam. Learning we offer Apple 9L0-007 exam sample questions you will learn better without having to participate in other expensive courses. Since the competitiveness of the IT world has been increased recent years, IT certifications become the basic necessities if you want to have a boost in your career path. Passing Apple 9L0-007 exam is treated as the most crucial way to get the Apple 9L0-007 certification. The Apple 9L0-007 strengthens the employment prospects and opens up myriads of opportunities for them. FLYDUMPS Apple 9L0-007 exam sample questions provide the useful information about the Apple 9L0-007 exam.
QUESTION 35
To isolate a video problem as hardware or software on a MAC, which of the following steps should you try FIRST?
A. Replace the built-in-display
B. Reinstall the appropriate MAC OS
C. Verify the hard disk with Disk First Aid
D. Startup from a known-good startup disc.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
You are about to begin disassembly of an iMAC (24-inch Mid 2007) to replace the LCD display. Which TWO of the following tools are required to do this? SELECT TWO
A. Multimeter
B. Suction Cups
C. Service stand
D. Anti-static, lint-free gloves
E. Torx T-15 drivers with 5 inch shaft
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 37
The two primary goals of troubleshooting are_____and______. SELECT TWO
A. repairing a product quickly
B. repairing a product cheaply
C. repairing a product properly
D. using as many parts as possible
E. running as many diagnostics as possible
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 38
Where is the best place for a customer to look for information about locating her MAC’s serial number?
A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. Service News
D. User’s manual
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
Which THREE of the following components should you be very careful with, when working inside an Apple portable? SELECT THREE
A. Plastic tab
B. Small screw
C. Deflection coil
D. Ribbon cable
E. Anode aperture
F. Flyback transformer
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 40
On a MACBook Pro, Safe Sleep ensures that __________.
A. Any open IP Ports from services are closed before putting the machine to sleep.
B. The machine is locked with a configured password after specified amount of time.
C. Data stored in main memory will not be lost should the system shut down due to power loss while the machine is asleep.
D. The user is prompted tp save documents in any open applications before machine is put to sleep using the Sleep command from the Apple menu.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
Where is the BEST place to look for information regarding special take-apart tools for an Apple product?
A. Discussions
B. Service News
C. User’s manual
D. Service Manual
Correct Answer: D
Flydumps.com Apple 9L0-007 practice tests hold the key importance and provide a considerable gain for your knowledge base. You can rely on our products with unwavering confidence; Get the profound knowledge and become a pro with Flydumps.com assistance.
Pass4itsure sk0-003 dumps with PDF + Premium VCE + VCE Simulator: http://www.pass4itsure.com/sk0-003.html
Apple 9L0-007 Demos, Offer Apple 9L0-007 Exam Tests Is Your Best Choice