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QUESTION 56
Certkiller .com has a 15kw load requirement and wants a solution that will provide redundancy and room to
expand.
Which solution provides enough capacity for a 15kw load and N+1 internal redundancy?
A. Symmetra PX with two power modules
B. Symmetra PX with three power modules
C. Symmetra Rack Mount with four power modules
D. Symmetra Rack Mount with three power modules
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
Exhibit:
Which diagram provides the best method of cooling the rack enclosures utilizing the Computer Room Air Conditioner (CRAC)?
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 58
In an InfraStruxure solution, what is the benefit of having two Main Intelligence Modules (MIMs)?
A. high available design
B. cleaner UPS output voltage
C. remote management of the UPS
D. integrated monitoring of distribution breakers
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 59
Exhibit:
What type of system is shown?
A. air cooled
B. water cooled
C. glycol cooled
D. remote condensing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
A data center has raised-floor air distribution. The equipment racks are aligned in rows facing each other.
An analysis of the power consumption and the installed air conditioners indicates there is plenty of cooling
capacity. However, there are still hot spots in some parts of the room.
Which two solutions will alleviate the hot spot? (choose two)
A. Placing return air vents in the space between the backs of the racks to collect hot air
B. Placing more perforated floor tiles in the space between the backs of the racks to cool the hot equipment exhaust
C. Eliminating all perforated floor tiles in the space between the backs of the racks to keep the cool supply air from mixing with the hot exhaust air
D. Placing return air vents in the space between the fronts of the racks to draw air away from the cooler areas so it can be supplied to the warmer areas.
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 61
Exhibit:
Which UPS topology is shown in the exhibit?
A. standby
B. line interactive
C. standby online hybrid
D. online double conversion
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
What is the advantage of a full enclosure over 2-Post or 4-Post open-frame solutions?
A. cost
B. weight
C. security
D. accessibility
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
A small company is breaking ground on a new building that will have a computer room. They will start with
30kw of load and double that capacity over the next five years.
What is the most available and flexible power solution?
A. a single-module 80KW three-phase UPS
B. two 80KW single-module three-phase UPSs operating in a parallel redundant configuration
C. an Infrastruxure solution with a symmetra 80kw N+1 UPS, initially populated with 4 power modules to provide 30kw N+1 redundancy
D. a single-module three-phase 40kw with a bypass panel that has room for two 40kw UPSs, which will allow for expansion in the future
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 64
Certkiller .com has a 15kw load requirement and wants a solution that will provide redundancy and room to
expand.
Which solution provides enough capacity for a 15kw load and N+1 internal redundancy?
A. Symmetra PX with two power modules
B. Symmetra PX with three power modules
C. Symmetra Rack Mount with four power modules
D. Symmetra Rack Mount with three power modules Correct Answer: B
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Exam A QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit . Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?
A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role? A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reasons that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 7
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
A. discarding
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. disabled
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 10
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
What is one benefit of PVST+?
A. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
B. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.
D. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
What are three characteristics of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. It converges quickly.
B. OSPF is a classful routing protocol.
C. It uses cost to determine the best route.
D. It uses the DUAL algorithm to determine the best route.
E. OSPF routers send the complete routing table to all directly attached routers.
F. OSPF routers discover neighbors before exchanging routing information.
Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 13
Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?
A. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.
B. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
C. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
D. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
A. Bandwidth
B. Bandwidth and Delay C. Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)
A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C. Successor routes are flagged as ‘active’ in the routing table.
D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
The network associate is configuring OSPF on the Core router. All the connections to the branches should be participating in OSPF. The link to the ISP should NOT participate in OSPF and should only be advertised as the default route. What set of commands will properly configure the Core router?
A. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
B. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.13 0.0.0.242 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
C. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.16 0.0.0.15 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
D. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.32 0.0.0.31 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 18
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 16
D. unlimited
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 21
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.
Correct Answer: BG
QUESTION 22
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?
A. ipv6 local
B. ipv6 host
C. ipv6 unicast-routing
D. ipv6 neighbor
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
A router is running three routing processes: RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP, each configured with default characteristics. Each process learns a route to the same remote network. If there are no static routes to the destination and none of the routes were redistributed, which route will be placed in the IP routing table?
A. the route learned through EIGRP
B. the route learned through OSPF
C. the route learned through RIP
D. the route with the lowest metric
E. all three routes with the router load balancing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit.
Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?
A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.154.154.1
C. 172.16.5.1
D. 192.168.5.3
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router.
Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)
A. Corp-1
B. Corp-2
C. Corp-3
D. Corp-4
E. Branch-1
F. Branch-2
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 26
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?
A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
The network is converged. After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
A. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthernet 0/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
B. O 208.149.23.64 [110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
C. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
D. O 208.149.23.64 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
The following configuration is applied to a Layer 2 Switch: interface fastethernet 0/4 switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security mac-address 0000.1111.1111 switchport port-security maximum 2 swithcport port-security What is the result of the above configuration being applied to the switch?
A. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and up to two other hosts can connect to FastEthernet 0/4 simultaneously
B. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and one other host can connect to Fast Ethernet 0/4 simultaneously
C. Violating addresses are dropped and no record of the violation is kept
D. The switch can send an SNMP message to the network management station
E. The port is effectively shutdown
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.
Which of these correctly describes the results of port security violation of an unknown packet?
A. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; no SNMP or syslog messages
B. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; SNMP or syslog messages
C. port disabled; no SNMP or syslog messages
D. port disabled; SNMP or syslog messages
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit.
What three actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source MAC address arrives at the interface? (Select three.)
A. Send an SNMP trap.
B. Send a syslog message.
C. Increment the Security Violation counter.
D. Forward the traffic.
E. Write the MAC address to the startup-config.
F. Shut down the port.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 33
A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
What does the frame-relay interface-dlci command configure?
A. local DLCI on the subinterface
B. remote DLCI on the main interface
C. remote DCLI on the subinterface
D. local DLCI on the main interface
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?
A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.
B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.
C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.
D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit.
What information about the interfaces on the Main_Campus router is true?
A. The LAN interfaces are configured on different subnets.
B. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is configured as a trunk.
C. The Layer 2 protocol of interface Serial 0/1 is NOT operational.
D. The router is a modular router with five FastEthernet interfaces.
E. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is administratively deactivated.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit.
C-router is to be used as a “router-on-a-stick” to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration?
A. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router eigrp 123 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
B. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router ospf 1 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
C. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router rip C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
D. No further routing configuration is required.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit.
Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In addition, assume that OSPF has been correctly configured on router R2. How will the default route configured on R1 affect the operation of R2?
A. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be dropped.
B. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately.
C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately because of the lack of a gateway on R1.
D. The networks directly connected to router R2 will not be able to communicate with the 172.16.100.0, 172.16.100.128, and 172.16.100.64 subnetworks.
E. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit.
Assume that all of the router interfaces are operational and configured correctly. How will router R2 be affected by the configuration of R1 that is shown in the exhibit?
A. Router R2 will not form a neighbor relationship with R1.
B. Router R2 will obtain a full routing table, including a default route, from R1.
C. R2 will obtain OSPF updates from R1, but will not obtain a default route from R1.
D. R2 will not have a route for the directly connected serial network, but all other directly connected networks will be present, as well as the two Ethernet networks connected to R1.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 41
Refer to the exhibit.
The show interfaces serial 0/1 command was issued on the R10-1 router. Based on the output displayed which statement is correct?
A. The cable connected to the serial 0/1 interface of the R10-1 router is a DTE cable.
B. The R10-1 router can ping the router interface connected to the serial 0/1 interface.
C. The clock rate used for interface serial 0/1 of the R10-1 router is 1,544,000 bits per second.
D. The CSU used with the serial 0/1 interface of the R10-1 router has lost connection to the service provider.
E. The interface of the remote router connected to the serial 0/1 interface of the R10-1 router is using the default serial interface encapsulation.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 42
Refer to the exhibit.
RTA is configured with a basic configuration. The link between the two routers is operational and no routing protocols are configured on either router. The line shown in the exhibit is then added to router RTA . Should interface Fa0/0 on router RTB shut down, what effect will the shutdown have on router RTA?
A. A route to 172.16.14.0/24 will remain in the RTA routing table.
B. A packet to host 172.16.14.225 will be dropped by router RTA
C. Router RTA will send an ICMP packet to attempt to verify the route.
D. Because router RTB will send a poison reverse packet to router RTA, RTA will remove the route.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.
B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 44
The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows “PVC STATUS = INACTIVE”. What does this mean?
A. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected for more than five minutes.
B. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address of the remote router.
C. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger a call to the remote router.
D. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC
E. The PVC is not configured on the local switch.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit.
Hosts in network 192.168.2.0 are unable to reach hosts in network 192.168.3.0. Based on the output from RouterA, what are two possible reasons for the failure? (Choose two.)
A. The cable that is connected to S0/0 on RouterA is faulty.
B. Interface S0/0 on RouterB is administratively down.
C. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is configured with an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The IP address that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB is not in the correct subnet.
E. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU.
F. The encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB does not match the encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterA
Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit.
The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit.
When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?
A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers
B. Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected
C. The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C
D. Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48
Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?
A. converged
B. redundant
C. provisioned
D. spanned
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 49
What command is used to verify the DLCI destination address in a Frame Relay static configuration?
A. show frame-relay pvc
B. show frame-relay lmi
C. show frame-relay map
D. show frame relay end-to-end
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 50
Refer to the exhibit.
A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Sw11 as an access link in VLAN 1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on Sw12, what will be the result of making this change on Sw11?
A. Only the hosts in VLAN 1 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
B. The hosts in all VLANs on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
C. Only the hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 15 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
D. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Refer to the exhibit.
What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-if)# no shut down
B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# no shut down Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0
D. Switch1(config)# vlan database Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 52
Refer to the exhibit.
How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?
A. The router will drop the packet.
B. The router will return the packet to its source.
C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2.
D. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 53
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 54
What is the advantage of using a multipoint interface instead of point-to-point subinterfaces when configuring a Frame Relay hub in a hub-and-spoke topology?
A. It avoids split-horizon issues with distance vector routing protocols.
B. IP addresses can be conserved if VLSM is not being used for subnetting.
C. A multipoint interface offers greater security compared to point-to-point subinterface configurations.
D. The multiple IP network addresses required for a multipoint interface provide greater addressing flexibility over point-to-point configurations.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
Which two statistics appear in show frame-relay map output? (Choose two.)
A. the number of BECN packets that are received by the router
B. the value of the local DLCI
C. the number of FECN packets that are received by the router
D. the status of the PVC that is configured on the router
E. the IP address of the local router
Correct Answer: BD
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QUESTION 60
You have an RGB image open.In the Layers panel, you have added a Curves adjustment layer above your
image layer, but you would like to limit this adjustment to only the yellow tones of the image.
What should you do?
A. Adjust only the Blue curve in the Adjustments panel.
B. Select the adjustment layer s mask in the Layers panel, and use the Masks panel s Color Range option.
C. Add a Selective Color adjustment layer, and link it to the Curves adjustment layer.
D. Copy the yellow channel in the Channels panel, and paste it into the Curves adjustment layer mask.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
You added a Levels adjustment layer and experimented with different settings. Now you want to start over
again with the default settings.
What should you do?
A. Click the Auto button in the Adjustments panel.
B. Choose Reset Levels from the Adjustments panel menu.
C. Choose Reset Styles from the Styles panel menu.
D. Click the Previous State icon in the Adjustments panel.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
Click the Exhibit button.
You want to lighten and bring out detail in the dark statue in this photograph without making the sky too light. You add a Curves adjustment layer and set an anchor point on the curve to protect the highlights. What should you do next?
A. Select the On-image Adjustment tool in the Adjustments panel. Then click on a dark tone in the statue and drag vertically.
B. Select the Black Eyedropper tool in the Adjustments panel. Then click on a dark tone in the statue and drag vertically.
C. Select the Gray Eyedropper tool in the Adjustments panel. Then click on a dark tone in the statue and drag horizontally.
D. Select the White Eyedropper tool in the Adjustments panel. Then hold the Alt key (Windows) or Option key (Mac OS) as you click on a dark tone in the statue and drag horizontally.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 63
You create a Hue/Saturation adjustment layer, and want to adjust the hue of a color in the image. After you choose the On-image adjustment tool in the Adjustments panel, what should you do?
A. Click on the color in the image, and drag up or down.
B. Click on the color in the image, and drag left or right. 15 / 28 The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
C. Alt-click (Windows) or Option-click (Mac OS) on the color in the image, and drag left or right.
D. Ctrl-click (Windows) or Command-click (Mac OS) on the color in the image, and drag left or right.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
You want to convert a photograph to grayscale. When you choose Image > Mode > Grayscale, the
different areas of the image appear too similar in tone.
Which method should you use to get better results?
A. Add a Black & White adjustment layer.
B. Use Hue/Saturation or Curves to adjust the image s color range before converting to grayscale.
C. Choose Image > Adjustments > Desaturate.
D. Choose Filter > Convert for Smart Filters before converting to grayscale.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
You have a color image that you want to convert to grayscale. You would like to use a Black & White
adjustment layer to accomplish that, but it is unavailable in the Adjustments panel.
What might be the cause of that?
A. The image is in CMYK mode.
B. The currently selected layer is a shape layer.
C. The currently selected layer is a type layer.
D. The image is in 16 Bits/Channel mode.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 66
What does the Photomerge feature use to blend multiple photographs into a multi-layered panorama?
A. Layer masks
B. Adjustment layers
C. Layer blending modes
D. Layer comps
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 67
You are trying to merge photos into a panorama, but Photomerge is having trouble aligning your photos. What amount of overlap is optimal when shooting photographs for Photomerge to best align them?
A. About 10%
B. About 25%
C. About 40%
D. About 70%
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 68
You are adjusting a combined HDR image in the Merge to HDR Pro dialog box, using the Local Adaptation tone-mapping method. You want to add contrast between the shadow and highlight areas of the image. Which control should you adjust?
A. The Gamma slider
B. The Exposure slider 16 / 28 The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
C. The Vibrance slider
D. The Radius slider
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 69
Which lens-related errors can be corrected in the Auto Correction tab of the Lens Correction filter?
A. Geometric Distortion, Chromatic Aberration, and Vignette
B. Lens flare, Geometric Distortion, and Chromatic Aberration
C. Lens flare, Chromatic Aberration, and Vignette
D. Dust spots, Geometric Distortion, and Vignette
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
Why might you want to adjust vignetting in the Custom tab of the Lens Correction filter? (Choose two.)
A. To draw the viewers attention to the center of a photograph.
B. To reduce the dark corners in a photograph shot with a wide-angle lens.
C. To increase the contrast from dark to light vertically (top to bottom) or horizontally (left to right) in the image.
D. To correct vertical or horizontal perspective in a photograph.
E. To apply a radial gradient that frames the subject of a photograph.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 71
You have a photograph open and have opened the Basic view of the Smart Sharpen dialog box. You
notice that your adjustments have added too much noise in the shadow areas. You switch to Advanced
view.
What should you do there?
A. Increase the Fade Amount setting in the Shadow tab.
B. Change the Remove option to Lens Blur in the Sharpen tab.
C. Check the More Accurate option in the Sharpen tab.
D. Decrease the Fade Amount setting in the Highlight tab.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 72
You want to sharpen a photograph.
What should you do to prevent significant color shifts?
A. Sharpen each channel separately.
B. Sharpen only the Blue channel.
C. Use the Reduce Noise filter on each channel before sharpening.
D. Duplicate the layer, set it to the Luminosity blending mode, and sharpen it.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 73
You are using the Healing Brush tool to reduce dark undereye circles in a photograph of a face. Which is the best blending mode to choose from the Mode menu in the Options bar?
A. Lighten
B. Screen
C. Luminosity
D. Replace 17 / 28 The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 74
You are retouching a portrait, and you want your changes to be located on a separate layer so you can
hide or show them.
Which retouching tool allows this?
A. The Patch tool
B. The Spot Healing Brush tool
C. The Color Replacement tool
D. The Red Eye tool
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 75
You have shot overlapping photographs of a wide landscape and then used Photomerge to align and
merge the photographs into a panorama. The result has large areas of transparent pixels at the top and
bottom of the image.
Which is the best way to eliminate those blank areas without deleting any part of the image?
A. Select the transparent pixels; then choose Edit > Fill and choose Content-Aware from the Use menu.
B. Select the transparent pixels, choose Select > Inverse, and then choose Image > Crop.
C. Select the transparent pixels. Then select the Patch tool, enlarge the brush tip, and click and drag inside the selection.
D. Select the Spot Healing Brush tool, and choose the Content-Aware and Replace options in the options bar. Paint over the transparent pixels.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
Click the Exhibit button.
You want to remove the palm fronds at the top of the photograph on the left to achieve the result on the
right.
Which is likely to be the most effective feature to use?
A. Content-Aware Fill
B. Content-Aware Scale
C. The Patch tool
D. The Healing Brush tool 18 / 28 The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 77
Which task is Puppet Warp mode most useful for?
A. Retouching a profile of a model to make his nose appear less prominent
B. Creating a logo by warping an editable type layer to follow a curved path
C. Transforming a horizontal (“landscape”) photograph into a vertical (“portrait”) photograph
D. Creating a navigation bar of web buttons in which the shape of one button is automatically applied to the other buttons
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 78
You shot a photograph of a model for a magazine ad. Your client wants you to make her look more
slender.
Which features are best for accomplishing this task? (Choose two.)
A. Puppet Warp
B. The Liquify filter
C. The Healing Brush tool
D. The Distort command
E. The Displace filter
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 79
You are adjusting a raw photograph in Camera Raw, and you want to increase contrast in the midtones of
the photograph.
Which Camera Raw control should you use?
A. The Clarity slider
B. The Fill Light slider
C. The Brightness slider
D. The Recovery slider
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 80
You want to adjust the brightness of the lightest highlights in a raw photograph. Which control should you use in Camera Raw?
A. Exposure
B. Brightness
C. White Balance
D. Contrast
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 40
You want to print a hard proof on your local printer to see how your image will appear when it is printed on
a printing press. In the Color Management options of the Print dialog box you have selected the option for
Proof. Which setting should you choose in the Color Handling list?
Options:
A. Printer Manages Colors
B. Photoshop Manages Colors
C. Separations
D. No Color Management
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
In the Save for Web & Devices dialog box you have chosen to save an image in GIF format and have
turned on Transparency. Which dithering mode will eliminate any seams?
Options:
A. No Dither
B. Diffusion
C. Pattern
D. Noise
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
You are saving your file for Web output. Which two file formats support transparency? (Choose two.)
Select all that apply.
Options:
A. GIF
B. PNG
C. TIFF
D. JPEG
E. WBMP
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 43
You have a Photoshop document that has areas of transparency. You have chosen Save for Web &
Devices. You have selected JPEG as your output format. Which option should you set to determine the fill
color for the transparent pixels?
Options:
A. Progressive
B. Optimized
C. Blur
D. Matte
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
How do you export a JPEG image with all metadata deleted other than copyright and contact information? Options:
A. Select Optimized in the settings section
B. Select Edit Output Settings from the settings pop-up menu
C. Select Copyright and Contact Info from the Metadata pop-up menu
D. Select None from the Metadata pop-up menu
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Which command lets you export an animation as an animated GIF file? Options:
A. File > Save As (then choose CompuServe GIF from the Format pop-up menu)
B. File > Save for Web & Devices
C. Convert to Frame Animation on the Animation panel menu
D. Export > Render Video
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
You have created frame-based animations by modifying image layers using the Animation panel. You want
to save the animation so that it can be played in a Web browser. Which command and file format should
you use to save the file?
Options:
A. File > Save As, GIF
B. File > Save for Web & Devices, GIF
C. File > Save A, PNG-8
D. File > Save for Web & Devices, PNG-8
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
You are preparing to slice your Photoshop document to prepare it for Web output. Which type of slice will
update if you move or edit layer content?
Options:
A. User slice
B. Auto slice
C. Layer slice
D. Guide slice
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
You are working with a Curves adjustment layer. Which should you choose in the Curves dialog box to be
able to lighten or darken a specific area of the image by dragging?
Options:
A. the black point eyedropper
B. the white point eyedropper
C. the pencil tool
D. the On-image adjustment tool
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
You are viewing an image in Photoshop with no current selection. You click on a color adjustment icon in
the Adjustments panel. How will the color adjustment affect the image?
Options:
A. Photoshop applies the adjustment directly to the entire image layer.
B. Photoshop applies the adjustment to the portion of the image layer viewable in the document window.
C. Photoshop creates an adjustment layer and applies the adjustment to the entire adjustment layer.
D. Photoshop creates an adjustment layer that includes a layer mask that will be black by default.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
You are using a Curves adjustment to adjust the color of an image. You have set the Curves to display
light levels rather than percentages. Moving the point in the top portion of the curve has the greatest affect
on which pixels in the image?
Options:
A. highlights
B. midtones
C. shadows
D. fill light
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 51
In the Adjustments panel which method should you use to increase color saturation while preventing skin
tones from being oversaturated?
Options:
A. Select Relative in Selective Color
B. Increase Vibrance value in Vibrance
C. Increase the Gamma setting in Exposure
D. Select Preserve Luminosity in Color Balance
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
When using the Brush tool, which blending mode will allow you to paint with the hue and saturation of your
blend color while preserving the luminance of the base color?
Options:
A. Hue
B. Color
C. Saturation
D. Luminosity
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
You are painting on a layer using the Brush tool with the airbrush option turned off, a flow of 20% and an
opacity of 50%. Which action will result in the building up of the swatch color to a specific area of the
image beyond the flow percentage but not exceeding the opacity setting?
Options:
A. Keeping the mouse button depressed while holding the mouse still.
B. Dragging over the same area of the image repeatedly without lifting the mouse button.
C. Holding down Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) and dragging over the same area of the image repeatedly without lifting the mouse button.
D. Holding down Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS) and dragging over the same area of the image repeatedly without lifting the mouse button.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
You are painting with the Brush tool. You would like the paint to build up when you hold down the mouse
button. What should you do?
Options:
A. Set the blending mode to Darken
B. Set the blending mode to Multiply
C. Turn off the Airbrush
D. Turn on the Airbrush
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
You are creating a custom brush by using the Brushes panel. What do Jitter percentages specify? Options:
A. The randomness of various brush attributes.
B. The direction of a brush tip on its x or y-axis.
C. The fade of a brush attributes over a set number of steps.
D. The variance of brush attributes based on pen pressure.
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 42
Which statement about animation in Flash CS4 is true?
A. A layer with a Motion Tween can contain multiple objects
B. Shape Tweens are no longer supported in Flash CS4
C. Objects can animate on x, y, and z axis
D. Runtime armatures can be animated in the timeline
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 43
Which two color effects can be used to change transparency? (Choose two)
A. None
B. Brightness
C. Tint
D. Alpha
E. Advanced
Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 44
Which statement about shape tweens is true?
A. A light blue arrow in the timeline denotes a shape tween.
B. You must have at least 2 keyframes in order to create a shape tween.
C. Only 1 keyframe is needed. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
D. Each keyframe must contain symbols.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 45
Which button state should you use to create an invisible button?
A. Up
B. Over
C. Down
D. Hit
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 46
Which statement about motion tweens is true?
A. A light green arrow in the timeline denotes a motion tween.
B. You must have at least 2 keyframes in order to create a motion tween.
C. Only 1 keyframe is needed.
D. Each keyframe cannot contain symbols.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 47
You are able to set a property in the Motion Editor, but you are NOT able to adjust the same property
using a graph in the Motion Editor.
Why does this happen?
A. The property cannot be tweened because it can have only one value for the life of the object in the Timeline.
B. The property has not been tweened properly and needs to be edited on the Stage.
C. The property has a custom ease curve applied to it.
D. You are attempting to exceed a minimum or maximum allowable value for the property.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48
Which property can be edited by adjusting a Bezier curve in the Motion Editor?
A. the Quality property of the Gradient Bevel filter
B. the X-position property of a graphic symbol TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
C. the Z-position property of a movie clip symbol
D. the Scale X property of a button symbol.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 49
When should you use the Motion Editor?
A. When you want to edit a single Motion Tween
B. When you want to view multiple Motion Tweens
C. When you want to edit both Motion and Shape Tween
D. When you want to replace an object in the animation
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 50
What does the Motion Editor allow you to do?
A. Finely control animations of movie clips.
B. Finely control keyframes on a timeline.
C. Finely control the tweening of individual properties.
D. Finely control skins and styles of components.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 51
Which two tasks can you complete by using the Motion Editor panel? (Choose two.)
A. Add motion tweens.
B. Add shape tweens.
C. Set the value of individual property keyframes.
D. Create custom ease curves.
E. Add or remove frames.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 52
Which statement about Motion Presets is true?
A. You can apply more than one Motion Preset to a symbol.
B. Classic tweens can be saved as Motion Presets.
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D. Motion Presets can contain any type of tween.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Which statement about Motion Presets is true?
A. Motion Presets are pre-configured motion tweens.
B. Motion Presets are pre-configured shape tweens.
C. Motion Presets can be both pre-configured motion tweens and shape tweens.
D. Motion Presets are a new type of tween.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
How do you export a Motion Preset?
A. Select the preset on the Timeline and choose File > Export > Export Movie.
B. Select the preset on the Stage and choose File > Export > Export Movie.
C. Select the preset in the Properties panel and choose File > Export > Export Movie.
D. Select the preset in the Motions Preset panel and choose Export from the panel menu.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
In which file format can Motion Presets can be exported?
A. SWC
B. SWF
C. FLV
D. XML
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Which two sound file formats can be imported into Adobe Flash CS4? (Choose two.)
A. MP3
B. OGG
C. ASND D. GSM
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Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 57
You want to synchronize sound to the occurrence of an event; however, if the sound is already playing
you do NOT want a new instance of the sound to play.
Which sound synchronization option should you choose?
A. Event
B. Start
C. Stop
D. Stream
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 58
What happens when you import audio into a Flash movie?
A. It can be added to a movie clip, graphic or button symbol.
B. It is compressed as an MP3 by default when published.
C. It must be added to a frame in a timeline to be played.
D. It must be added to a symbol to be played.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 59
In which situation should you use ADPCM sound compression?
A. For short sounds.
B. For long playing sounds.
C. For extremely short playing sounds.
D. For voice-overs.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 60
Which two objects can have filters applied to them? (Choose two)
A. MovieClip
B. Vector Graphics
C. Graphic Symbol
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E. Shape
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 61
You want to add a blur filter to a movie clip.
What should you do?
A. Select the movie clip on the Stage and select Blur from the Add filter icon from the Properties panel
B. Select the movie clip in the Library and select Blur from the Add filter icon from the Properties panel
C. Double-click the movie clip on the Stage and select Blur from the Add filter icon from the Properties panel
D. Right-click (Ctrl-click) the movie clip on the Stage and select Edit
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 62
You want to apply a blur effect to your text. What should you do?
A. Convert the text to a symbol then apply the blur filter using the Add Filter option within the Property panel
B. Select the text then apply the blur filter using the Add Filter option within the Property panel
C. Convert the text to device fonts then apply the blur filter using the Add Filter option within the Property panel
D. Break apart the text, then apply the blur filter using the Add Filter option within the Property panel
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 63
You want to add a drop shadow filter to a movie clip. What should you do?
A. Double-click the movie clip on the Stage and select Drop Shadow from the Add filter icon from the Properties panel
B. Select the movie clip in the Library and select Drop Shadow from the Add filter icon from the Properties panel
C. Select the movie clip on the Stage and select Drop Shadow from the Add filter icon from the Properties panel
D. Right-click (Ctrl-click) the movie clip on the Stage and select Edit
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 64
Which is a best practice when it comes to managing file size of external bitmap files?
A. Compress the bitmap file size and dimensions outside of Flash and then bring it onto Flash.
B. Bring the bitmap file into Flash and then reduce the JPEG quality within the Publish Settings dialog box.
C. Bring the bitmap file into Flash and then reduce the dimensions using the Free Transform tool.
D. Bring the bitmap file into Flash and then select Modify > Bitmap > Trace Bitmap.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
Which two bitmap techniques are helpful when managing performance? (Choose two.)
A. Grouping bitmap layers together.
B. Minimizing the use of transparency in PNG files.
C. Using transparency as much as possible.
D. Minimizing the use of vector assets.
E. Utilizing curves rather than corners whenever possible.
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 66
Click the Exhibit button.
Which layer is used to hold an inverse kinematics armature?
A. Layer1
B. Layer2
C. Layer3
D. Layer4
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 67
You want to select all of the bones in an inverse kinematics armature.
What should you do?
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A. double-click a bone with the Selection tool
B. double-click a bone with the Bone tool
C. Control+click (Windows) or Command-click (Mac OS) a bone with the Selection tool
D. Control+click (Windows) or Command-click (Mac OS) a bone with the Bone tool
Correct Answer: A
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