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This exam is designed for candidates looking to demonstrate foundational level knowledge of cloud services and how those services are provided with Microsoft Azure. The exam is intended for candidates with non-technical backgrounds, such as those involved in selling or purchasing cloud-based solutions and services or who have some involvement with cloud-based solutions and services, as well as those with a technical background who have a need to validate their foundational level knowledge around cloud services. Technical IT experience is not required however some general IT knowledge or experience would be beneficial.
Skills measured
Understand cloud concepts (15-20%)
Understand core Azure services (30-35%)
Understand security, privacy, compliance, and trust (25-30%)
Understand Azure pricing and support (25-30%)
Microsoft Azure AZ-900 Online Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure environment that contains 10 web apps. To which URL should you connect to manage all the Azure
resources? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your company plans to purchase Azure. The company\\’s support policy states that the Azure environment must provide an option to access support engineers by phone or email. You need to recommend which support plan meets the support policy requirement. Solution: Recommend a Premier support plan. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/support/plans/
QUESTION 3 A team of developers at your company plans to deploy, and then remove, 50 customized virtual machines each week. Thirty of the virtual machines run Windows Server 2016 and 20 of the virtual machines run Ubuntu Linux. You need to recommend which Azure service will minimize the administrative effort required to deploy and remove the virtual machines. What should you recommend? A. Azure Reserved Virtual Machines (VM) Instances B. Azure virtual machine scale sets C. Azure DevTest Labs D. Microsoft Managed Desktop Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 In which Azure support plans can you open a new support request? A. Premier and Professional Direct only B. Premier, Professional Direct, and Standard only C. Premier, Professional Direct, Standard, and Developer only D. Premier, Professional Direct, Standard, Developer, and Basic Correct Answer: C References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/support/plans/
QUESTION 5 HOTSPOT For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. If a resource group named RG1 has a delete lock, only a member of the global administrators group can delete RG1. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed B. the delete lock must be removed before an administrator C. an Azure policy must be modified before an administrator D. an Azure tag must be added before an administrator Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 You plan to implement an Azure database solution. You need to implement a database solution that meets the following requirements: Can add data concurrently from multiple regions Can store JSON documents Which database service should you deploy? To answer, select the appropriate service in the answer area. Hot Area:
QUESTION 8 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. From Azure Monitor, you can view which user turned off a specific virtual machine during the last 14 days. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed B. Azure Event Hubs C. Azure Activity Log D. Azure Service Health Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-audit
QUESTION 9 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. You have an Azure virtual network named VNET1 in a resource group named RG1. You assign an Azure policy specifying that virtual networks are not an allowed resource type in RG1. VNET1 is deleted automatically. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed B. is moved automatically to another resource group C. continues to function normally D. is now a read-only object Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/overview
QUESTION 10 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have an Azure environment. You need to create a new Azure virtual machine from an Android laptop. Solution: You use Bash in Azure Cloud Shell. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 HOTSPOT You plan to extend your company network to Azure. The network contains a VPN appliance that uses an IP address of 131.107.200.1. You need to create an Azure resource that identifies the VPN appliance. Which Azure resource should you create? To answer, select the appropriate resource in the answer area. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12 A support engineer plans to perform several Azure management tasks by using the Azure CLI. You install the CLI on a computer. You need to tell the support engineer which tools to use to run the CLI. Which two tools should you instruct the support engineer to use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Command Prompt B. Azure Resource Explorer C. Windows PowerShell D. Windows Defender Firewall E. Network and Sharing Center Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 13 Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains 5,000 user accounts. Your company plans to migrate all network resources to Azure and to decommission the on-premises data center. You need to recommend a solution to minimize the impact on users after the planned migration. What should you recommend? A. Implement Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) B. Sync all the Active Directory user accounts to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) C. Instruct all users to change their password D. Create a guest user account in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) for each user Correct Answer: B
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The latest updates Microsoft MCSD 70-483 dumps, 70-483 pdf free download, 70-483 exam practice test questions to improve your skills. “Programming in C#” 70-483 Exam. Easy to pass the exam: Pass4itsure.com!
The latest Microsoft MCSD 70-483 pdf free download
Exam 70-483: Programming in C# – Microsoft: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-483.aspx Candidates for this exam are developers with at least one year of experience programming essential business logic for a variety of application types, hardware, and software platforms using C#.
Candidates should also have a thorough understanding of the following:
Managing program flow and events
Asynchronous programming and threading
Data validation and working with data collections including LINQ
Handling errors and exceptions
Working with arrays and collections
Working with variables, operators, and expressions
Working with classes and methods
Decision and iteration statements
pass4itsure 70-483 exam Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.
Manage Program Flow (25-30%)
Create and Use Types (25-30%)
Debug Applications and Implement Security (25-30%)
Implement Data Access (25-30%)
Latest Microsoft MCSD 70-483 Exam Practice Test Questions and Answers
QUESTION 1 You are developing an application that includes the following code segment:
You need to implement the Open() method of each interface in a derived class named UseResources and call the Open() method of each interface. Which two code segments should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: AC * An interface contains only the signatures of methods, properties, events or indexers. A class or struct that implements the interface must implement the members of the interface that are specified in the interface definition. * Example: interface ISampleInterface { void SampleMethod(); } class ImplementationClass : ISampleInterface { // Explicit interface member implementation: void ISampleInterface.SampleMethod() { // Method implementation. } static void Main() { // Declare an interface instance. ISampleInterface obj = new ImplementationClass(); // Call the member. obj.SampleMethod(); } }
QUESTION 2 You are developing a method named GetHash that will return a hash value for a file. The method includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
You need to return the cryptographic hash of the bytes contained in the fileBytes variable. Which code segment should you insert at line 05?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: D Explanation: The hashAlgorithm.ComputeHash computes the hash value for the input data. Reference: HashAlgorithm.ComputeHash Method https://msdn.microsoft.com/en us/library/system.security.cryptography.hashalgorithm.computehash(v=vs.110).aspx
QUESTION 3 You are developing an application that will convert data into multiple output formats. The application includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
You are developing a code segment that will produce tab-delimited output. All output routines implement the following interface:
You need to minimize the completion time of the GetOutput() method. Which code segment should you insert at line 06?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: B A String object concatenation operation always creates a new object from the existing string and the new data. A StringBuilder object maintains a buffer to accommodate the concatenation of new data. New data is appended to the buffer if room is available; otherwise, a new, larger buffer is allocated, data from the original buffer is copied to the new buffer, and the new data is then appended to the new buffer. The performance of a concatenation operation for a String or StringBuilder object depends on the frequency of memory allocations. A String concatenation operation always allocates memory, whereas a StringBuilder concatenation operation allocates memory only if the StringBuilder object buffer is too small to accommodate the new data. Use the String class if you are concatenating a fixed number of String objects. In that case, the compiler may even combine individual concatenation operations into a single operation. Use a StringBuilder object if you are concatenating an arbitrary number of strings; for example, if you\\’re using a loop to concatenate a random number of strings of user input. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.text.stringbuilder(v=vs.110).aspx
QUESTION 4 You need to create a method that can be called by using a varying number of parameters. What should you use? A. derived classes B. interface C. enumeration D. method overloading Correct Answer: D Explanation: Member overloading means creating two or more members on the same type that differ only in the number or type of parameters but have the same name. Overloading is one of the most important techniques for improving usability, productivity, and readability of reusable libraries. Overloading on the number of parameters makes it possible to provide simpler versions of constructors and methods. Overloading on the parameter type makes it possible to use the same member name for members performing identical operations on a selected set of different types.
QUESTION 5 You are developing an application that uses structured exception handling. The application includes a class named Logger. The Logger class implements a method named Log by using the following code segment: public static void Log(Exception ex) { } You have the following requirements: Log all exceptions by using the Log() method of the Logger class. Rethrow the original exception, including the entire exception stack. You need to meet the requirements. Which code segment should you use?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 You are developing an application that uses the Microsoft ADO.NET Entity Framework to retrieve order information from a Microsoft SQL Server database. The application includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
The application must meet the following requirements: Return only orders that have an OrderDate value other than null. Return only orders that were placed in the year specified in the year parameter. You need to ensure that the application meets the requirements. Which code segment should you insert at line 08?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 You have the following code:
You need to retrieve all of the numbers from the items variable that are greater than 80. Which code should you use?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: B Explanation: Enumerable.Where Method (IEnumerable, Func) Filters a sequence of values based on a predicate. Example: List fruits = new List { “apple”, “passionfruit”, “banana”, “mango”, “orange”, “blueberry”, “grape”, “strawberry” }; IEnumerable query = fruits.Where(fruit => fruit.Length foreach (string fruit in query) { Console.WriteLine(fruit); } /* This code produces the following output: apple mango grape */
QUESTION 8 You are developing an application by using C#. The application includes an object that performs a long running process. You need to ensure that the garbage collector does not release the object\\’s resources until the process completes. Which garbage collector method should you use? A. RemoveMemoryPressure() B. ReRegisterForFinalize() C. WaitForFullGCComplete() D. KeepAlive() Correct Answer: D Explanation: The purpose of the KeepAlive method is to ensure the existence of a reference to an object that is at risk of being prematurely reclaimed by the garbage collector. Reference: GC.KeepAlive Method (Object) https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.gc.keepalive(v=vs.110).aspx
QUESTION 9 You are developing an assembly that will be used by multiple applications. You need to install the assembly in the Global Assembly Cache (GAC). Which two actions can you perform to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.) A. Use the Assembly Registration tool (regasm.exe) to register the assembly and to copy the assembly to the GAC. B. Use the Strong Name tool (sn.exe) to copy the assembly into the GAC. C. Use Microsoft Register Server (regsvr32.exe) to add the assembly to the GAC. D. Use the Global Assembly Cache tool (gacutil.exe) to add the assembly to the GAC. E. Use Windows Installer 2.0 to add the assembly to the GAC. Correct Answer: DE There are two ways to deploy an assembly into the global assembly cache: * Use an installer designed to work with the global assembly cache. This is the preferred option for installing assemblies into the global assembly cache. * Use a developer tool called the Global Assembly Cache tool (Gacutil.exe), provided by the Windows Software Development Kit (SDK). Note: In deployment scenarios, use Windows Installer 2.0 to install assemblies into the global assembly cache. Use the Global Assembly Cache tool only in development scenarios, because it does not provide assembly reference counting and other features provided when using the Windows Installer. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/yf1d93sz%28v=vs.110%29.aspx
QUESTION 10 You are developing an application that includes a class named UserTracker. The application includes the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
You need to add a user to the UserTracker instance. What should you do?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have the following C# code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
You need the foreach loop to display a running total of the array elements, as shown in the following output. Solution: You insert the following code at line 02:
QUESTION 12 An application will upload data by using HTML form-based encoding. The application uses a method named SendMessage. The SendMessage() method includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
The receiving URL accepts parameters as form-encoded values. You need to send the values intA and intB as form-encoded values named a and b, respectively. Which code segment should you insert at line 04?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: D WebClient.UploadValuesTaskAsync – Uploads the specified name/value collection to the resource identified by the specified URI as an asynchronous operation using a task object. These methods do not block the calling thread. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.net.webclient.uploadvaluestaskasync.aspx
QUESTION 13 You are implementing a new method named ProcessData. The ProcessData() method calls a third-party component that performs a long-running operation to retrieve stock information from a web service. The third party component uses the IAsyncRcsult pattern to signal completion of the long- running operation so that the UI can be updated with the new values. You need to ensure that the calling code handles the long-running operation as a 5ystem.Threading_Tasks.Task object to avoid blocking the Ul thread. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.) A. Apply the async modifier to the ProcessData() method signature. B. Call the component by using the TaskFactory FromAsync() method. C. Apply the following attribute to the ProcessDataO method signature:[Methodlmpl (MetrhodlmplOptiions . Synchronized) ] D. Create a TaskCompletionSource object. Correct Answer: BD
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QUESTION 1
Which option describes the correct sequence to discover an ESX server in the fabric without a blade
switch or multiple Layer 2 hops?
A. The leaf sends LLDP/CDP to the ESX, the ESX sends parsed UDP/CDP information to the vCenter,
the AP1C receives LLDP/CDP information from the vCenter, and the APIC downloads the policy for
VMs behind the ESX to the leaf node.
B. The APIC downloads the policy for VMs behind ESX to the leaf node, the leaf sends LLDP/CCP to the
ESX, the ESX sends parsed LLDP/CDP information to the vCenter, and the APIC receives LLDP/CDP
information from the vCenter.
C. The ESX sends parsed LLDP/CDP information to the vCenter, the leaf sends LLDP/CCP to the ESX,
the APIC downloads the policy for VMs behind the ESX to the leaf node, and the APIC receives LLDP/
CDP information from the vCenter.
D. The ARC receives LLDP/CDP information from the vCenter, the APIC downloads policy for VMs
behind ESX to the leaf node, the leaf sends LLDP/CCP to the ESX, and the ESX sends parsed LLDP/
CDP information to the vCenter.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which three statements about fitter and contract are true? (Choose three.)
A. A contract can be consumed and provided by as many EPGs as are needed by the network design.
B. A fitter can be used by multiple contracts.
C. A fitter contains groups of IP subnet
D. A contract can be consumed by a single EPG
E. A contract can be provided by a single EPG
F. A filter contains EtherType, IP protocol, TCP flags, and Layer 4 ports.
Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 3
In the Cisco Nexus 9508 chassis, how many Broadcom T2 ASICs are on the fabric module?
A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which two statements about tenant bridge domain Layer 2 unknown unicast forwarding modes are true’?
(Choose two.)
A. If forwarding mode is flood, unknown Layer 2 unicast is sent to all Layer 2 ports in the bridge domain.
B. If forwarding mode is proxy, unknown Layer 2 unicast packets are sent to border leaf proxy for
forwarding.
C. By default, multicast traffic is always flooded within the bridge domain VLAN.
D. Layer 2 unknown unicast can be set to flood or proxy, the default is flood.
E. If border leaf proxy cannot resolve the destination, packet is flooded.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 5
Which messaging protocol is used by the vPC peers to communicate with each other?A. LLDP
B. CFS
C. ZMQ
D. VPCT
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
If a Cisco ARC cluster is fully operational, how many replica copies does each shard have in addition to
the leader replica?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 1
D. 2
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which option describes the ASICs that comprise the 2 RU spine chassis PID Cisco Nexus 9336PQ?
A. three Broadcom and one Alpine
B. two Broadcom and two Alpine
C. two Broadcom and one Alpine
D. one Broadcom and two Alpine
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which two statements about when the ARP request/response is not set to flooding on an Cisco ACI Fabric
are true? (Choose two.)
A. Static endpoint entries can be configured under the Tenant Networking section of the Cisco ACI Ul for
silent hosts to communicate with each other.
B. When the ARP originator and ARP target are known to the proxy, forwarding can no longer occur using
the proxy because the source and destination are now known
C. When an ARP target device responds, a response is sent to the proxy, which has an entry (or the ARP
originator, so it is then forwarded to the leaf where ARP originator resides.
D. When ARP response is known by the proxy, the ARP is forwarded from the leaf that received the ARP
to the spine, and onto the leaf where the ARP target resides.
E. The proxy age time has no limit If the target of the ARP has not sourced a frame for some lime, the
entry remains indefinite because this i$ the only way forwarding can work between silent hosts.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 9
Which packets are counted after the atomic counters are configured?
A. packets that are switched in the hypervisors
B. packets that are locally switched
C. packets that are switched via AVS
D. packets that traverse the fabric
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which scope type is used when the subnet address needs to be ‘leaked” to a different context or tenant?A. public
B. shared
C. infra
D. private
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
What is the minimal number of operational Cisco APICs .n a cluster that are needed to ensure that policy
modification is still possible?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which command allows you to log in to a line card on a leaf switch?
A. Leaf# vsh_lc
B. Leaf#vsh
C. Leaf*vsh-lc
D. Leaft vshell -lc
E. Leafs vsh-hw
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 13
Which three states are distributed to each node in the fabric? (Choose three)
A. fabric node vector
B. iVXLAN vector
C. appliance vector
D. replica vector
E. diameter ID
F. cluster vector
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 14
Which three AVS switching modes are supported on Cisco ACI? (Choose three)
A. VXLAN, no local switching
B. VPC-HM
C. VXLAN, local switch
D. VLAN, no local switching
E. MAC pinning
F. VLAN, local switching
Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 15
Which two policies can be set within the vswitch policies of an Attachable Access Entity Profile on 1.0?
(Choose two.)A. PortChannel Policy
B. Monitoring Policy
C. CDP Policy
D. LACP Policy
E. VLAN Policy
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 16
What does the acronym OBFL stand for?
A. Onboard Failure Logging
B. Out of band Failure Logic
C. Onboard Forwarding Logic
D. Oversubscription Forwarding Level
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which two statements about troubleshooting common ARP forwarding issues ma Cisco ACI Fabric are
true? (Choose two.)
A. If IPManager On the spine rejected a tenant VRF/route configuration, the spine command show ip
route vrf can be used to verify all tenant VRF configurations.
B. The BD SVI IP address can be verified with the vsh_ Ic show platform internal ns forwarding router-ip
command.
C. The tcpdum command can be used on all Cisco ACI switches to capture and verity tenant EPGdata
plan traffic.
D. The VLAN membership for an interface on the Broadcom ASIC can be verified with the show hardware
vlans programmed command.
E. VLAN membership of an Interface can be vended wrth the VSh_lC show system Internal eltmc Info
interface x/x command.
Correct Answer: CD
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QUESTION 1
Which are two advantages of a “one switch at a tune’ approach to integrating SD-Access into an existing
brownfield environment? (Choose two.)
A. appropriate for campus and remote site environments
B. allows simplified testing prior to cutover
C. deal for protecting recent investments while upgrading legacy hardware
D. involves the least risk of all approaches
E. opens up many new design and deployment opportunities
F. allows simplified roll back
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 2
What statement is true regarding the current time in Enterprise Networking history?
A. advent of cloud computing
B. pace of change
C. pervasive use of mobile devices
D. advent of loT
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which three key differentiators that DNA Assurance provides that our competitors are unable match?
(Choose three)
A. Support for Overlay Virtual Transport
B. On-premise and cloud-base analytics
C. Apply Insights
D. VXLAN support
E. Proactive approach to guided remediation
F. Network time travel
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 4
Which are the three focus areas for reinventing the WAN? (Choose three.)
A. Centralized device authentication
B. Secure Elastic Connectivity
C. Application Quality of Experience
D. Operations
E. Cloud Fast
F. Execution
Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 5
Which feature is supported on the Cisco vEdge platform?
A. single sign on
B. IPv6 transport (WAN)
C. 2-factor authenticationD. license enforcement
E. reporting
F. non-Ethernet interfaces
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true regarding Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. The major business outcomes of ISE are enhanced user experience and secure VLAN segmentation
B. ISE plays critical role in SD Access
C. Without integration with any other product, ISE can track the actual physical location of a wireless
endpoint as it moves
D. ISE am provide data about when a specific device connected to the network
E. An ISE deployment requires only a Cisco ISE network access control appliance
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true regarding SD-WAN demonstrations? (Choose two.)
A. As a Cisco SD-WAN SF, you should you should spend your time learning about the technology rather
than contributing to demo innovation
B. Use demonstrations primarily for large opportunities and competitive situations
C. During a demo, you should demonstrate and discuss what the team considers important details
D. There is a big difference between demos that use a top down approach and demos that use a bottom
up approach
E. During a demo you should consider the target audience and the desired outcome
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 8
Which Cisco vEdge route offers 20 Gb of encrypted throughput?
A. Cisco vEdge 5000
B. Cisco vEdge 1000
C. Cisco vEdge 2000
D. Cisco vEdge 100
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which are two Cisco recommendations that demonstrates SDA? (Choose two.)
A. Use the CLI to perform as much of the configuration as possible
B. Show lite customer how to integrate ISL into DMA Center at the end of the demo
C. Focus on business benefits
D. Keep the demo at a high level
E. Be sure you explain the major technologies such as VXLAN and LISP in depth
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 10
Which option will help build your customers platform during the discovery phase?
A. business case
B. detailed designC. POV report
D. high-level design
E. PO
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 11
Which element of the Cisco SD-WAN architecture facilitates the functions of controller discovery and NAT
traversal?
A. vBond orchestrator
B. vManage
C. vSmart controller
D. vEdge
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
How would cisco ISE handle authentication for your printer that does not have a supplicant?
A. ISE would not authenticate the printer as printers are not subject to ISE authentication.
B. ISE would authenticate the printer using 8.2.1X authentication
C. ISE would authenticate the printer using MAB.
D. ISE would authenticate the printer using web authentication.
E. ISE would authenticate the printer using MAC RADIUS authentication
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
When using “Cluster resource percentage” for host failover capacity in vSphere HA Admission Control, the total resource requirements are calculated from which
two values? (Choose two.)
A. Total vCPUs assigned to each VM.
B. Average CPU usage on each VM over time.
C. Memory reservations on each VM.
D. Total memory assigned to each VM.
E. Average active memory on each VM over time.
F. CPU reservations on each VM. Correct Answer: CF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
vSphere HA uses the actual reservations of the virtual machines. If a virtual machine does not have reservations, meaning that the reservation is 0, a default of
0MB memory and 32MHz CPU is applied.
Computing the Current Failover Capacity
The total resource requirements for the powered-on virtual machines is comprised of two components, CPU and memory. vSphere HA calculates these values.
The CPU component by summing the CPU reservations of the powered-on virtual machines. If you have not specified a CPU reservation for a virtual machine, it is
assigned a default value of 32MHz (this value can be changed using the das.vmcpuminmhz advanced option.)
The memory component by summing the memory reservation (plus memory overhead) of each powered-on virtual machine.
QUESTION 2
By default, how often is the vCenter vpx user password automatically changed?
A. 15 days
B. 60 days
C. 30 days
D. 45 days Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which two statements about vCenter HA are correct? (Choose two.)
A. ESXi 5.5 or later is required.
B. vCenter HA network latency between nodes must be less than 50 ms.
C. NFS datastore is supported.
D. It must be deployed on a 3 ESXi host cluster with DRS enabled.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4
Which metric in the Exhibit would identify high latency for a storage device?
A. QAVG/cmd
B. KAVG/cmd
C. DAVG/cmd
D. GAVG/cmd Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
What availability mode does vCenter HA provide?A. Active-Passive
B. Active-Standby
C. Active-Active
D. Load-balanced Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which are the two network requirements for a VMware vSAN 6.5 cluster? (Choose two.)
A. Multicast must be enabled on the physical switches and routers that handle vSAN traffic.
B. vSAN requires IPv6 only.
C. All hosts must have a dedicated 40GbE NIC.
D. The vSAN network supported IPv4 or IPv6.
E. vSAN requires IPv4 only. Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The vSAN network supports both IPv4 and IPv6.
QUESTION 7
Which three design requirements must be satisfied to enable RAID-6 objects in a VMware vSAN cluster? (Choose three.)
A. vSAN Advanced license or higher
B. vSAN stretched cluster
C. at least six hosts contributing storage
D. deduplication and compression
E. All Flash configuration Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 8
What is the VMware-recommended best practice for Fibre Channel zoning?
A. soft zoning
B. single-initiator-multiple-target zoning
C. single-initiator zoning
D. single-initiator-single-target zoning Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which two tasks should a vSphere administrator perform if the vmkernel log reports VMFS metadata errors? (Choose two.)
A. contact VMware technical support
B. reformat the datastore
C. check the device with VOMA
D. ignore the messages Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10
Which is required by vCenter Converter Standalone to convert a physical Red Hat Enterprise Linux 7 machine to a virtual machine?
A. The Linux machine must be powered off.
B. The Linux machine must have the SSH daemon started.
C. The Linux machine must use a static IP address.
D. The Linux machine must have a fully-qualified domain name. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
How can a vSphere administrator ensure that a set of virtual machines run on different hosts in a DRS cluster?
A. Use a VM-Host affinity rule.
B. Add the VMs to a vApp.
C. Use a VM-VM affinity rule.
D. Place the VMs in different folders. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Which three types of Content Libraries exist within vSphere 6.5? (Choose three.)
A. Remote Content Library
B. Published Content Library
C. Local Content Library
D. Shared Content Library
E. Subscribed Content Library Correct Answer: BCE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Local Libraries
Subscribed Libraries (You subscribe to a published library by creating a subscribed library.)
QUESTION 13
Which statements regarding datastore clusters meets VMware’s recommended best practices?
A. Clusters should contain only datastores presented from the same storage array.
B. Clusters should contain only datastores with equal hardware acceleration capability.
C. Clusters should contain only datastores with the same capacity.
D. Clusters should contain only datastores using the same connection method (iSCSI, FC, etc.). Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which Host Profile Subprofile configuration is used to configure firewall settings for ESXi hosts?
A. Advanced Configuration Settings
B. General System Settings
C. Security
D. Networking Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In the Web Client interface, you’ll find the firewall configuration under the Security and Services folder of a host profile.
QUESTION 15
An administrator is trying to vMotion a VM from his datacenter to a recovery site. Which is the maximum allowed RTT (Round-Trip Time) latency between source
and destination host?
A. 100 milliseconds
B. 150 milliseconds
C. 15 milliseconds
D. 10 milliseconds Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Round-Trip Time for Long-Distance vMotion Migration If you have the proper license applied to your environment, you can perform reliable migrations between
hosts that are separated by high network round-trip latency times. The maximum supported network round-trip time for vMotion migrations is 150 milliseconds.
This round-trip time lets you migrate virtual machines to another geographical location at a longer distance.
QUESTION 16
A vSphere administrator manages a cluster which includes critical and non-critical virtual machines. The cluster requires different permissions for contractors and
non-contractors.
How can the administrator exclude the contractor group from some of the critical VMs?
A. Apply permission for both contractors and non-contractors on the cluster level.
B. Apply permission for both contractors and non-contractors on the cluster level. Remove permission on the critical VMs for contractors.
C. Remove permission for contractors on the cluster level. Apply permission on the critical VMs for non-contractors.
D. Apply permission for both contractors and non-contractors on the VMs. Remove permission on the critical VMs for contractors. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
What VM Monitoring setting would ensure that the failure interval for a virtual machine is defined as 120 seconds?
A. High
B. Normal
C. Low
D. Medium Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
A vSphere Administrator observes that the Primary VM configured with Fault Tolerance is executing slowly. After further investigation, it is determined that the
Secondary VM is on an overcommitted ESXi host.What two methods will correct the problem? (Choose two.)
A. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the Secondary VM to another datastore.
B. Use vMotion to migrate the Secondary VM to a different ESXi host.
C. Configure a CPU limit on the Primary VM which will also apply to the Secondary VM.
D. Turn off and turn on FT in order to recreate the Secondary VM on a different datastore. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 19
Which command can be run to troubleshoot connectivity problems with vmkernal network interfaces?
A. esxcli network
B. vmkping
C. net-status
D. vicfg-vmknic Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
A vSphere HA cluster with four hosts has admission control configured to tolerate one host failure.
Which statement is true if a fifth host is added?
A. CPU and Memory capacity will be set to 50%.
B. CPU and Memory capacity will be set to 30%.
C. CPU and Memory capacity will be set to 25%.
D. CPU and Memory capacity will be set to 20%. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
Which two configuration options can exclude virtual disks from snapshot operations? (Choose two.)
A. Use RDM in virtual mode for virtual disk.
B. Use virtual disks in Independent ?Persistent mode.
C. Use a virtual disk larger than 2 TB in size.
D. Use RDM in physical mode for virtual disk. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 22
Which statement is correct when migrating from a Windows vCenter Server to the vCenter ServerAppliance 6.5?
A. Migration deployments do not migrate local OS users from the source vCenter Server.
B. Migration deployments support DHCP on the source vCenter Server.
C. Migration deployments allow the source vCenter Server to remain powered on afterwards.
D. Migration deployments support custom ports for all services on the source vCenter Server. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
An administrator sets the Failover Capacity for both CPU and Memory at 25%.
Based on the Exhibit below, how much of the cluster’s total CPU resources are still available to power on additional virtual machines?
A. 45%
B. 25%
C. 70%
D. 60% Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Which two components are part of storage I/O multipathing on ESXi? (Choose two.)
A. SATP
B. VASA
C. PSP
D. VAAI Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 25
The administrator wants to power on VM-K2, which has a 2GHz CPU reservation. VM-M1, VM-M2, and VM-K1 are all powered on. VM-K2 is not powered on.
The exhibit shows the parent and child resource reservations.
If Resource Pool RP-KID is configured with an expandable reservation, which statement is true?
A. VM-K2 will be unable to power on because there are insufficient resources.
B. VM-K2 will be able to power on since resource pool RP-KID has 2GHz available.
C. VM-K2 will be unable to power on because only 2GHz are reserved for RP-KID.D. VM-K2 will receive resource priority and will be able to power on this scenario. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
An administrator attempts to manually reclaim space on thin-provisioned VMFS6 volumes but finds that no additional space is being recovered.
Which could be causing this?
A. vSphere 6.5 does not support manual UNMAP.
B. The manual UNMAP operation has been moved to the vSphere web client.
C. The VASA version is use is incompatible.
D. UNMAP is automated for VMFS6. Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
VMFS 6 is the new filesystem of vSphere 6.5. The new filesystem supports 512e advanced format drives and is 4098 sector (4K) aligned. It also supports
automatic UNMAP, which asynchronously tracks freed blocks and sends UNMAPs to backend storage in background.
QUESTION 27
Which feature facilitates the sharing of templates via vCenter Server?
A. Content Library
B. OVF
C. folders
D. vApp Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which iSCSI initiator type can be used with any network interface card?
A. Software iSCSI initiator
B. Software FCoE adapter
C. Hardware Independent iSCSI initiator
D. Hardware Dependent iSCSI initiator Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Software iSCSI Adapter
A software iSCSI adapter is a VMware code built into the VMkernel. It allows your host to connect to the iSCSI storage device through standard network adapters.
The software iSCSI adapter handles iSCSI processing while communicating with the network adapter. With the software iSCSI adapter, you can use iSCSI
technology without purchasing specialized hardware.
QUESTION 29
What tool can capture network traffic at the uplinks, or vSwitch, or virtual port levels?
A. tcpdump-uw
B. wireshark
C. pktcap-uw
D. pcap Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Which are two vCenter Server two-factor authentication methods? (Choose two.)
A. RSA SecurID
B. Smart Card
C. SAML
D. Symantec VIP Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Two-Factor Authentication Methods
The two-factor authentication methods are often required by government agencies or large enterprises.
Smart card authentication
Smart card authentication allows access only to users who attach a physical card to the USB drive of the computer that they log in to. An example is Common
Access Card (CAC) authentication.
The administrator can deploy the PKI so that the smart card certificates are the only client certificates that the CA issues. For such deployments, only smart card
certificates are presented to the user. The user selects a certificate, and is prompted for a PIN. Only users who have both the physical card and the PIN that
matches the certificate can log in.
RSA SecurID Authentication
For RSA SecurID authentication, your environment must include a correctly configured RSA Authentication Manager. If the Platform Services Controller isconfigured to point to the RSA server, and if RSA SecurID Authentication is enabled, users can log in with their user name and token.
See the two vSphere Blog posts about RSA SecurID setup for details
