Month: August 2016
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QUESTION 176
Which policy map configuration command can be used to mitigate the problem of TCP global synchronization?
A. random-detect
B. queue-limit 10
C. compression header ip tcp
D. priority 24
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
Given the above output, what is the current CIR for this VC?
A. 1000
B. 2000
C. 8000
D. 100000
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
Which command associates a map class with an interface or subinterface when configuring Frame Relay traffic shaping?
A. frame-relay map
B. frame-relay class
C. map-class frame-relay
D. frame-relay map-class
E. map frame-relay class
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 179
Given the partial configuration, what function does the command dialer watch-group 8 have?
A. Any IP traffic, except OSPF traffic, will cause interface BRI0 to dial RouterB
B. When the watched route, 172.22.53.0/24, is removed from the routing table and there is no other valid route, dialer watch then initiates a call to RouterB.
C. When the watched route, 172.22.53.0/24, is removed from the routing table, regardless of whether there is another valid route pointing to an interface other than interface BRI0, dialer watch initiates the call to RouterB
D. When the load threshold is met and any IP traffic, except OSPF traffic, is destined for 172.22.53.0/24 network, the dialer watch will initiate the call to RouterB.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 180
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the partial configuration shown, how is this router configured?
A. as a PPPoA client
B. as a PPPoE client
C. as an ISDN PRI group interface
D. as an ISDN BRI group interface
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181
A network administrator needs to provide telecommuters with access to corporate network services. For security reasons, the asynchronous interface should be configured to provide an in-band PPP connection only and not allow an EXEC connection. What must the administrator configure to accomplish this?
A. Router(config-if)# async mode dedicated
B. Router(config-if)# async mode interactive
C. Router(config-if)# async dynamic address
D. Router(config-line)# autoselect ppp during-login
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
Examine the configuration.
When using CBWFQ, what will happen to UDP packets if their destination queue is full?
A. The router will send a BECN message to the host.
B. The packet will be sent to the class-default queue.
C. The host will resend the packet if it does not receive an ACK message
D. Tail dropping will occur.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 183
Which three conditions would suggest using weighted random early detection as an alternative to tail drops when configuring class-based weighted fair queuing? (Choose three.)
A. Your network is designed for a more passive rather than active strategy in discarding packets.
B. You want to enable TCP global synchronization to avoid congestion.
C. You would like to use IP Precedence or DSCP values to make early dropping decisions.
D. The bulk of your traffic is TCP traffic.
E. You would like a chance to decide which packets will be dropped when it becomes necessary.
Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
Refer to the show ip route output of the exhibit. RIP is configured on R1, R2, and R3. All three routers are able to ping each other. However, R2 is not receiving the routes advertised by R3. What can be done to resolve this problem?
A. Configure frame-relay inverse-arp on the R1 serial0.1 subinterface.
B. Configure no frame-relay inverse-arp on the R1 serial0.1 subinterface.
C. Configure ip slit-horizon on the R1 serial0.1 subinterface.
D. Configure no ip slit-horizon on the R1 serial0.1 subinterface.
E. Configure ip slit-horizon on R2 and the R3 serial0 interfaces.
F. Configure no ip slit-horizon on R2 and the R3 serial0 interfaces.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 185
When a PPP connection is being established, which three configuration features are negotiated through the LCP? (Choose three.)
A. callback
B. multilink
C. encryption
D. compression
E. protocol multiplexing
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 186
Identify two characteristics of the RADIUS protocol when associated with AAA? (Choose two.)
A. uses TCP
B. fully encrypts the body of the packet
C. based upon open standards
D. allows router commands to be grouped on a per-user or per-group basis
E. combines the functions of authorization and authentication
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 187
Which statement best describes the following configuration ?
policy-map-Policy1 class Class1 priority 10 class Class2 bandwidth 20 queue-limit 45 class Class3 bandwidth 30 random-detect A. WRED is used in Class1 and Class3. Traffic not matching any classes will be dropped.
B. WRED is used in Class1 and Class3. Traffic not matching any classes will be best effort by a default class
C. WRED is used in Class3. Traffic not matching any classes will be dropped
D. WRED is used in Class3. Traffic not matching any classes will be handled by the class-default class
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 188
Given the above configuration commands, when will additional B channels be added to the multilink PPP bundle?
A. when the total load of outbound traffic reaches 128 k
B. when the total load of inbound traffic reaches 128 k
C. when the maximum calculated load as the larger of the outbound and inbound loads reaches 128 k
D. when the total load of inbound traffic reaches 50 percent of bandwidth utilization
E. when the total load of outbound traffic reaches 50 percent of bandwidth utilization
F. when the load of the inbound or outbound traffic reaches 50% utilization
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 189
Which two encapsulation methods require that an 827 ADSL router be configured with a PPP username and CHAP password? (Choose two.)
A. PPPoE with the 827 configured as a bridge
B. PPPoE with the 827 configured as the PPPoE client
C. PPPoA
D. RFC 1483 Bridged with the 827 configured as the PPPoE client
E. RFC 1483 Bridged with the 827 configured as a bridge
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 190
Which command will allow RTA to test its legacy DDR configuration without having any dialer map statements configured?
A. isdn test call interface bri 0 5551234 speed 56
B. ping 10.10.10.2
C. debug isdn q931
D. debug isdn q921
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 191
In Frame Relay traffic shaping, what does the term committed burst (Bc) refer to?
A. the rate, in bits per second, at which the Frame Relay switch agrees to transfer data
B. the maximum number of bits that the switch agrees to transfer during any Tc
C. the maximum number of uncommitted bits that the Frame Relay switch attempts to transfer beyond the CIR for the first time interval only
D. the number of bits, during any Tc, over the CIR that can be transmitted but will be marked DE
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 192
Given the partial configuration, what function does the command dialer watch-group 8 have?
A. Any IP traffic, except OSPF traffic, will cause interface BRI0 to dial RouterB
B. When the watched route, 172.22.53.0/24, is removed from the routing table and there is no other valid route, dialer watch then initiates a call to RouterB.
C. When the watched route, 172.22.53.0/24, is removed from the routing table, regardless of whether there is another valid route pointing to an interface other than interface BRI0, dialer watch initiates the call to RouterB.
D. When the load threshold is met and any IP traffic, except OSPF traffic, is destined for 172.22.53.0/24 network, the dialer watch will initiate the call to RouterB.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 193
How can an ISDN interface be used as a backup link for a primary interface and still use DDR to communicate with other sites?
A. By using dialer profiles.
B. An ISDN interface cannot be both.
C. With the command backup interface serial 0/0 on the bri0/0 interface along with normal DDR commands.
D. With the command backup interface bri 0/0 on the physical interface and normal DDR commands on the bri0/0 interface
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 194
How is cable broadband technology able to transmit downstream and upstream data while at the same time delivering television content?
A. The cable operator uses the VHF hyperband to transmit and receive data signals.
B. The cable operator assigns any available spectrum to data, depending on how its own television spectrum is being used.
C. The cable operator uses specific bandwidths for data signals specified by DOCSIS.
D. The cable operator places its data signals into clean areas where there is no interference from noise or other signals.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 195
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output generated by the debug dialer command, what solution can be configured on R1 to correct the problem?
A. Configure a dialer-list in global configuration mode.
B. Configure the dialer-group command on the dialer interface.
C. Configure the dialer-group command on the BRI0 physical interface.
D. Configure the dialer pool command on the dialer interface.
E. Configure the dialer pool-member command on the dialer interface.
F. Configure a local username entry for R2.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 196
In the exhibit, R1 is connected over a Frame Relay cloud to R2 and a non-Cisco device, R3. What must be configured on the R1 S0 interface to achieve full connectivity with the spoke routers?
A. encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast
B. encapsulation frame-relay ietf frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast
C. encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast ietf frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast
D. encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast ietf
E. encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast cisco frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 197
Given the output shown in the exhibit, which three statements are true about PPP compression? (Choose three.)
A. The interface is configured with TCP header compression.
B. The interface is configured with STAC compression.
C. The interface is configured with Predictor compression.
D. The actual data throughput of the router is less than what it would be if compression were not being applied.
E. The total amount of data to be transmitted before applying compression is 160,000.
F. The total amount of data to be transmitted after applying compression is 40,000.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 198
Refer to the exhibit. Which policy-map configuration will best ensure that packets classified as voice are not dropped in favor of other network traffic?
A. POLICY-1
B. POLICY-2
C. POLICY-3
D. POLICY-4
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 199
Which type of remote-user VPN has users dial in to an Internet service provider (ISP) where an ISP-owned device establishes a secure tunnel to the users’ enterprise network?
A. client initiated VPN
B. network access server (NAS) initiated VPN
C. intranet VPN
D. extranet VPN
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 200
Which set of commands will accomplish the tasks below?
-Make bri0/0 a backup interface to serial0/0.
–
Activate the backup interface 5 seconds after the primary link fails and deactivate the backup interface 10 seconds after the primary link is re-established.
A.
Router(config)#interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 5 10
B.
Router(config)#interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 5 10
C.
Router(config)#interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 10 5
D.
Router(config)#interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 10 5
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 201
When a cable modem is being provisioned to operate with a host system for Internet services, which two options must occur before Layer 1 and 2 connectivity can occur? (Choose two.)
A. The cable modem must request an IP address and core configuration information from a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server
B. The cable modem powering up must scan and lock on the RF data channel in the downstream path.
C. The modem must request a DOCSIS configuration file from a TFTP server.
D. The cable modem must register with the CMTS.
E. The modem must read specific maintenance messages in the downstream path.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 202
From the CBWFQ configuration referenced in the display, what is the queue-limit for class2?
A. no limit
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
E. 128
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 81
You are adjusting a photograph in the Camera Raw dialog box. You have darkened the top of the image by
dragging the Graduated Filter tool from the top to the bottom of the image, and then decreasing the
Brightness slider. Now you want to lighten the bottom of the photograph.
What should you do?
A. Option-click (Mac OS) or Alt-click (Windows) the red circle icon in the graduated filter you’ve applied to the image; then increase the Brightness slider.
B. Click the + (plus) button to the right of the Brightness slider; then increase both the Brightness and 19 /
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Exposure sliders.
C. Increase the Brightness slider, click the New button, and drag the Graduated Filter tool from the bottom to the top of the photograph.
D. Drag the Graduated Filter tool from the bottom to the top of the photograph; then increase the Brightness slider.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 82
A speck of dust on your camera lens has caused a spot on a raw photograph. In Camera Raw, you select
the Spot Removal tool and click on the spot. The spot is now covered with another unpleasant color so you
want to change the pixel sampling area.
What should you do?
A. Click on a different area of the photo.
B. Drag the green-and-white ring.
C. Delete the Spot Removal tool edits you ve made, and start over.
D. Alt-click (Windows) or Option-click (Mac OS) on a different area of the photo.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 83
Adobe Camera Raw 6 includes controls for reducing which kinds of digital noise? (Choose two.)
A. Luminance noise
B. JPEG artifacts
C. Color noise
D. Color banding
E. Color dithering
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 84
You ve adjusted a raw photograph in Camera Raw. Now you are ready to open the image in Photoshop to
add some text. However, you want to be able to quickly bring the image from Photoshop back into Camera
Raw to change your Camera Raw adjustments.
What should you do?
A. Click the Save Image button in Camera Raw; then open the saved file directly in Photoshop.
B. Click the Done button in Camera Raw; then open the file directly in Photoshop.
C. Hold down the Shift key to change the Open Image button to Open Object, and click that button.
D. Hold down the Option (Mac OS) or Alt (Windows) key and click the done button.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 85
You want to open a JPEG directly into Camera Raw to adjust it there. What should you do? (Choose two.)
A. In Adobe Bridge, select the JPEG thumbnail and press Control+R (Windows) or Command+R (Mac
OS)
B. In Adobe Bridge, hold down Option (Mac OS) or Alt (Windows) and double-click the JPEG thumbnail.
C. In Adobe Bridge, select the JPEG thumbnail and then choose File > Place > In Photoshop.
D. In Photoshop, choose File > Open, select the JPEG file, set the Format menu to Camera Raw, and click Open.
E. In Photoshop, navigate to the JPEG file in Mini Bridge and double-click its thumbnail. 20 / 28 The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 86
You ve adjusted a raw photograph in Camera Raw, and you d like to create a small copy of the adjusted
photograph as a JPEG to attach to an email.
Which is the best workflow to follow?
A. In Camera Raw, click the Open Image button. Then, in Photoshop, open the Save for Web & Devices dialog box, and set the format to JPEG, reduce the file size, and click Save.
B. In Camera Raw, click the Save Image button, and save as JPEG.Then open the file in Photoshop, resize it in the Image Size dialog box, and save as JPEG.
C. In Camera Raw, click the Save Image button, and save as JPEG.Then open the file in Photoshop, open the Save for Web & Devices dialog box, and set the format to JPEG, reduce the file size, and click Save.
D. In Camera Raw, click the Save Image button, and save as JPEG.Then select the file in Mini-Bridge, choose Tools > Photoshop > Image Processor, and resize and save as JPEG from there.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
You have selected the Mixer Brush tool. You want to sample multiple colors from the current image to load
in the brush s paint reservoir.
What should you do?
A. Hold the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key as you click on the photograph in the document window.
B. Turn on the Load the Brush after Each Stroke button in the Options bar.
C. Hold the Shift key as you click on the photograph in the document window.
D. Switch to the photograph layer and hold the Shift key as you click on the photograph in the document window.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 88
You have the Mixer Brush tool selected in the Tools panel. What does the Wet slider in the options bar control?
A. How much paint the brush picks up from the canvas
B. How much of the foreground color the brush uses
C. How much of the background color the brush uses
D. How much the brush tip is cleaned after each stroke
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89
Bristle Tip brush tips work with which tools? (Choose two.)
A. Mixer Brush tool
B. Dodge tool
C. The Gradient tool
D. The Pen tool
E. The Healing Brush tool
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 90
You want to fill an area of your CMYK image with a process color equivalent of a color from a Pantone
21 / 28
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swatch book.
Which Photoshop features help you do this? (Choose two.)
A. Choose New Spot Channel from the Channels panel menu, click the color icon and choose a color from the Select Channel Color dialog box.
B. Choose Select > Color Range and select the Localized Color Clusters checkbox.
C. Click the foreground color picker then click the Color Libraries button in the Color Picker.
D. Choose a library of swatches presets from the Swatches panel menu then click the color in the panel.
E. Choose Lab sliders from the Color panel menu and then choose a color in the panel.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 91
You want to sample a color from a website to use as the foreground color in Photoshop. You have the website visible in a web browser and both the web browser and Photoshop are visible on your screen. What should you do?
A. Click and hold with the Eyedropper tool in the Photoshop document window, drag from there to your web browser, and release your mouse over the color you want.
B. Select the Eyedropper tool, then hold the Alt key (Windows) or Option key (Mac OS) as you click on the color in the web browser.
C. Select the Eyedropper tool, then hold the Shift key as you click on the color in the web browser.
D. Select the Color Sampler tool, then click on the color you want in the Web browser.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 92
You want to apply a Shadows/Highlights adjustment to a layer in your document. You want to be able to
change the adjustment without causing further degredation to the image later. You have selected the layer
selected.
What should you do to prepare the image, before you choose the command Image > Adjustments >
Shadows/Highlights? (Choose two.)
A. Choose Filter > Convert for Smart Filters.
B. Duplicate the layer, and select the duplicate layer.
C. Choose Convert to Smart Object from the Layers panel menu.
D. Click the Add a Mask button at the bottom of the Layers panel.
E. Click Brightness/Contrast in the Adjustments panel to add a new Brightness/Contrast adjustment layer.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 93
You ve applied a filter to a layer as a Smart Filter. Now you want to reduce the strength of that filter s
effect.
How can you do that? (Choose two.)
A. Double-click the Edit Blending Options icon in the Layers panel, and adjust the opacity.
B. Choose the filter from the Filter menu and adjust the values to the desired strength.
C. Double-click the name of the Smart Filter in the Layers panel, and adjust the filter options.
D. Select the Smart Filter in the Layers panel, and choose Edit > Fade.
E. Select the layer in the Layers panel, and adjust the Opacity slider.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 94
You have the Gradient Tool selected. You want to draw a gradient in your image and set the
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transparency level at a particular point in the gradient.
What should you do?
A. Add a new layer, draw the gradient on the new layer, and set the opacity of the layer.
B. Change the value in the Opacity field of the Options bar before drawing the gradient.
C. Click on the gradient in the Options bar to open the Gradient Editor dialog box, click just above the gradient bar and change the value in the Opacity field.
D. Click on the gradient in the Options bar to open the Gradient Editor dialog box, double-click on a color stop below the gradient bar, and adjust the color in the color picker.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 95
You plan on filling a layer with a noise gradient. The initial gradient you create in the Gradient Editor has
too many overly saturated colors.
What can you do in the Gradient Editor to reduce the saturation of colors in the gradient?
A. Change the Roughness setting.
B. Select the Restrict Colors option.
C. Change the Color Model pop-up menu to LAB
D. Select the Add Transparency option.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 96
You have ten files that you would like to be able to access frequently. You would like to create a collection
that you can view in Mini Bridge. You select the files in Mini Bridge and drag them on top of the Collections
item in the Mini Bridge Navigation area.
What happens?
A. Mini Bridge creates a new collection that contains those files.
B. Mini Bridge creates a smart collection that contains those files.
C. Nothing. You can t create a new collection in Mini Bridge.
D. Mini Bridge creates a new folder on your Desktop that contains those file.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 97
You have an image file currently open in Photoshop. You select the thumbnail of a different image file in
the Mini Bridge panel and choose Tools > Place > In Photoshop.
What happens?
A. The selected image is placed in the open file as a smart object layer above the current image layer.
B. The selected image is placed in the open file as a pixel layer above the current image layer.
C. The selected image replaces the current layer or Background layer in the open file.
D. The selected image is opened in a new tab in the Document window.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 98
You are on a Windows computer, and you want to use a Photoshop plug-in that works only in 32- bit mode. How do you run Photoshop CS5 for Windows as a 32-bit application?
A. Install both a 32-bit and a 64-bit version of Photoshop. Switch between them by quitting one version of Photoshop and launching the other.
B. Right-click the Photoshop application icon, and choose Properties from the context menu.
C. Change the Display mode of your monitor to a lower resolution. 23 / 28 The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
D. Allocate more RAM to Photoshop in Photoshop preferences.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 99
Which color space contains the widest color gamut?
A. ProPhoto RGB
B. Adobe RGB (1998)
C. Color Match RGB
D. sRGB IEC61966-2.1
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 100
You have an RGB image that you want to convert to CMYK.Y our print service bureau has given you a custom ICC profile for their printing conditions that differs from your current Photoshop Color Settings. Which feature should you use to convert to CMYK?
A. Choose Edit > Convert to Profile.
B. Choose Edit > Assign Profile.
C. Choose Image > Mode > CMYK.
D. Choose Edit > Color Settings, and choose the Custom CMYK option from the CMYK menu.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 101
You are dragging a panel toward the edge of the monitor where you have docked other panels. Which key should you hold down as you drag to prevent this panel from docking with the other panels?
A. The Alt key (Windows) or Option key (Mac OS)
B. The Shift key
C. The Esc key
D. The Ctrl key (Windows) or Command key (Mac OS)
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 102
You are creating a custom workspace that facilitates the way you like to work. Which parameters can you save as part of your custom workspace, other than panel locations? (Choose two.)
A. Custom keyboard shortcuts
B. Current color management settings
C. Your CS Live setup
D. Menu changes
E. Changes to Preferences
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 103
You are working on a system with two monitors, and you have two documents open as tabbed documents
on the main monitor. You want to display one of the documents on the second monitor for easier
reference, so you can see both at the same time.
What should you do?
A. Hold down Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) and double-click on the document s tab.
B. Turn off the Open Documents as Tabs preference.
C. Click the document s tab, and drag to the second monitor. 24 / 28 The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
D. Choose Window > Arrange > Tile.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 104
You want to quickly hide all panels and menus and switch the area outside the canvas to black. What should you do?
A. Press Command-F (Mac OS) or Ctrl+F (Windows) twice.
B. Choose View > Proof Setup > Custom.
C. Choose Full Screen Mode from the Application bar s Screen Mode menu.
D. Press F1 twice.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 105
You are sharpening a photograph, and you want to preview the sharpening at 100% view for greatest
accuracy.
How can you display the photograph at 100% in the document window?(Choose two.)
A. Choose View > Actual Pixels.
B. Double-click the Zoom tool in the Tools panel.
C. Double-click the Hand tool in the Tools panel.
D. Press Ctrl+0 (Windows) or Command+0 (Mac OS).
E. Select Scrubby Zoom in the Zoom tool Options bar, and drag in the image.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 106
You are using the Hand tool to pan around a large image. You release the mouse, but the image continues
to scroll.
How can you disable this feature?
A. Hold down the Alt key (Windows) or Option key (Mac OS) while scrolling.
B. Turn off Enable Flick Panning in the Preferences dialog box.
C. Turn off Animated Zoom in the Preferences dialog box.
D. Replace the video card with one that supports Open GL.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 107
You re making a new file in which to create a banner ad for a website.
Which settings should you choose in the new dialog box?
A. Width: 728 pixels, Height: 90 pixels, Resolution: 72 pixels/inch, Color ModE:RGB Color, 8 bit
B. Width: 1024 pixels, Height: 768 pixels, Resolution: 72 pixels/inch, Color Mode:RGB Color, 16 bit
C. Width: 14.2 inches, Height: 2.8 inches, Resolution: 72 pixels/inch, Color Mode:LAB Color, 8 bit
D. Width: 10.7 inches, Height: 2.1 inches, Resolution: 72 pixels/inch, Color Mode:CMYK Color, 8 bit
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 108
You are creating a document that will be printed on a commercial offset printing press. The printer has asked that you provide your images at 1.5 times the halftone screen and stated that the job will be printed at 150 LPI. The job will be 8×10 inches plus a .125-inch bleed. Which settings should you choose as you create the new document?
A. Width: 8.125 inches, Height: 10.125 inches, Resolution: 300 ppi, ColorMode:CMYK Color
B. Width: 8.25 inches, Height: 10.25 inches; Resolution: 300 ppi, ColorMode:CMYK Color 25 / 28 The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
C. Width: 8.25 inches, Height: 10.25 inches; Resolution: 225 ppi, ColorMode:CMYK Color
D. Width: 8.125 inches, Height: 10.125 inches; Resolution: 150 ppi, ColorMode:LAB Color
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 109
You want to upsample a photograph to a higher resolution. Which interpolation method in the Image Size dialog box is likely to give you the best result?
A. Bicubic Smoother
B. Bilinear
C. Bicubic Sharper
D. Nearest Neighbor
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 110
You have 20 images of varying sizes and resolutions. You want to adjust each one to be 5×7 inches at 300
ppi.
Which tool will allow the fastest processing of the images?
A. The Rectangular Marquee tool
B. The Direct Selection tool
C. The Crop tool
D. The Quick Selection tool
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 111
You want to add a white, 20 pixel border around all four outside edges of a flattened photograph. What should you do?
A. Choose Select > All.Then choose Edit > Stroke.Set the stroke Location to Outside, the Width to 20 px, the Color to white, and the Blending Mode to Normal.Click OK.
B. Choose Image > Canvas Size.Then select the Relative checkbox, select the center anchor square, set Width and Height to 40 pixels, and choose White as the Canvas Extension Color.
C. Choose the Line tool.In the Options bar, set the Color to white and Weight to 20 px.Switch to the Rectangle tool, and drag diagonally from one corner of the photograph to the opposite corner.
D. Set the Foreground color to white.Choose Image > Image Size.Deselect Constrain Proportions, choose pixels as the unit of measurement, add 40 to both the Width and Height fields, and click OK.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 112
You want to reshape a photograph from landscape (horizontal) to portrait (vertical) orientation using the
Content-Aware Scale command.
What should you do to ensure important details in the image are not distorted?
A. Click the Lock Image Pixels button in the Layers panel.
B. Copy the important details to a new layer before you choose Edit > Content Aware Scale.
C. Make a selection around the important areas before you choose Edit > Content Aware Scale.
D. Select an alpha channel in the Protect menu in the Options bar.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 113
You have a photograph of a skyscraper in which the building appears tilted to the left. You ?like to
straighten the building vertically and crop away any resulting transparent pixels in as few steps as
26 / 28
The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
possible.
What should you do?
A. Drag the Ruler tool along the edge of the skyscraper; then click the Straighten button in the Options bar.
B. Drag the Ruler tool along the building edge; then choose Image > Image Rotation > Arbitrary.
C. Drag the Crop tool over the image, rotate the bounding box so that one edge is in line with the building edge, and press Enter (Windows) or Return (Mac OS).
D. Hold down the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key while dragging the Line tool along the building edge; then press Enter (Windows) or Return (Mac OS).
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 114
You re using the Crop tool to crop a photograph of a building. The Crop Guide Overlay menu in the Options bar is particularly useful for which tasks? (Choose two.)
A. Displaying a grid you can use as a guide for fixing the building s distorted perspective.
B. Improving the composition of the photograph with reference to the Rule of Thirds.
C. Adding crop and trim marks to the photograph for printing.
D. Changing the orientation of the photograph from landscape to portrait.
E. Enlarging the canvas size to make room for a caption under the photograph.
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 115
You need to add copyright metadata to hundreds of images. Which is the most efficient way to do this?
A. Create an action in Photoshop.
B. Use a metadata template in Bridge.
C. Choose File > Automate > Batch in Photoshop.
D. Use the File Info dialog box in Bridge.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 116
You want a list of edits performed on an image to automatically travel with the image file for future
reference.
What should you do?
A. Choose Preferences > General. Select History Log > Save Log Items To > Metadata.
B. Choose History Options from the History panel menu, and choose Automatically Create New Snapshot When Saving.
C. Choose File > File Info. Then select the History tab and click Import.
D. Choose File > Scripts > Scripts Event Manager
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 117
When you save a layered image in Photoshop (PSD) format, the Photoshop Format Options dialog box
appears. By default, the Maximize Compatibility option selected.
Why might you leave Maximize Compatibility selected?
A. To allow older versions of Photoshop to open a flattened composite of the layered file.
B. To preserve the appearance of layer masks and alpha channels in the document.
C. To reduce the file size of the document by compressing layer data. 27 / 28 The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
D. To preserve the editability of text and vector objects within the document.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 118
You have a layered document that contains both vector and raster elements. You want to place it in a
page-layout program for printing on a printing press.
Which format should you choose to ensure vector elements print at the highest quality?
A. Photoshop PDF
B. Photoshop PSD
C. TIFF
D. JPEG
Correct Answer: A
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Question: 31
Which of the following statements concerning revocable trusts is correct?
A – The transfer of properly to a revocable trust is typically motivated by non tax reasons.
B – A transfer of property to a revocable trust is treated as a completed gift.
C – A transfer of income-producing properly to a revocable trust will result in favorable income tax
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
treatment for the grantor. D – Property of a revocable trust will be included in the grantor’s probate property.
Answer: A
Question: 32
A man recently died with only probate assets. Under the terms of his will, he left his entire probate estate out right to his wife. The following are relevant facts concerning the estate:
Gross estate $2,400,000 Estate administration expenses 85,000 Debts of decedent 100,000 Allowable funeral expenses 10,000
The amount of the allowable marital deduction is
A – $2,205,000 B – $2,215,000 C – $2,305,000 D – $2,315,000
Answer: A
Question: 33
A wife makes outright gifts of $40,000 to her son this year, and her husband agrees to split the gifts with her. Which of the following correctly states the amount of the taxable gifts?
A – Wife 0, husband $18,000 B – Wife $9,000, husband $9,000 C – Wife$19,000, husband$19,000 D – Wife $18,000, husband 0
Answer: B
Question: 34
A woman is the income beneficiary of an irrevocable trust. Which of the following powers given to her will cause all the assets in the trust to be includible in her gross estate for federal estate tax purposes?
A – The testamentary power to direct the trustee to use trust assets to pay her estate taxes B – The power to direct the trustee to pay trust assets to her limited in amount to an ascertainable standard relating to her health and education C – The power each year to direct the trustee to pay her an amount of trust assets not exceeding the greater of $5,000 or 5 percent of the assets held by the trust D – The testamentary special or limited power to direct the trustee to distribute trust assets to her children
Answer: A
Question: 35
A single man with substantial assets and income is supporting his 80-year-old partially senile mother with monthly cash gifts. He is trying to find a practical way to support his mother while at the same time saving federal gift and income taxes without giving up ultimate control of any assets. Which of the following courses of action will best accomplish these objectives?
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
A – Make her an interest free loan with a principal amount large enough to produce sufficient income for her support when invested in corporate bonds B – Make her annual gifts of enough interest income from the tax free municipal bonds in his portfolio so that she will be able to support herself C – Make her a gift of enough corporate bonds from his port folio so that she will be able to support herself from the interest payments D – Purchase corporate bonds that pay interest in an amount sufficient for her to support herself and assign the interest payments to her
Answer: B
Question: 36
An individual who is a resident of State W is also the sole proprietor of a business located in State
W. He owns real property located in State X that is used by the proprietorship. While on vacation in State Y, the individual meets an untimely death. Under the terms of his will, his entire estate is bequeathed to a resident of State Z. Which state will tax the real property used by the proprietorship?
A – State W B – State X C – State Y D – State Z
Answer: B
Question: 37
Which of the following life insurance settlement options will qualify for the federal estate tax marital deduction?
l. Proceeds left to the surviving spouse under the interest option, with interest payable to the surviving spouse who has the unrestricted right to withdraw proceeds and with any proceeds not withdrawn payable equally to her children per stripes
ll. Proceeds left to the surviving spouse under an installment option, with any installments remaining at her death to be commuted and paid to her estate
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither l nor ll
Answer: C
Question: 38
Which of the following statements concerning a power of appointment is (are) correct?
l. A power of appointment can be designed to restrict the donee’s right to appoint the property in favor of a specific class of recipients.
ll. A power of appointment can be designed to restrict the time period during which the donee may exercise the power.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and II D – Neither I nor II
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
Answer: C
Question: 39
Which of the following statements concerning ante nuptial agreements is (are) correct?
l. They are frequently used to protect the interests of children of former marriages.
II. They can legally deprive a surviving spouse of his or her elective share of a deceased spouse’s estate.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: C
Question: 40
Which of the following statements concerning the joint tenancy with right of survivorship form of real property ownership is (are) correct?
l. The property is part of the probate estate of the first tenant to die.
ll. An owner can sell his interest in the property at any time without destroying the form of ownership.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: D
Question: 41
A number of states have passed statutes governing “living wills.” Which of the following statements concerning a living will is (are) correct?
l. A living will is an alternative to an inter vivos trust under certain circumstances.
ll. A living will is an oral will made by the testator during a final illness when it is impossible to write one.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor Il
Answer: D
Question: 42
Which of the following actions on the part of a trustee is (are) a breach of his duties?
I. Placing substantial amounts of cash from the sale of securities in a no interest bearing checking account for a period of years
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
II. Investing all trust assets in securities that favor income beneficiaries to the detriment of remainder persons
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: C
Question: 43
Which of the following are ways of passing property from a deceased spouse to a surviving spouse so that the properly will qualify for the federal estate tax marital deduction?
I. When the surviving spouse receives the property by electing to take against the deceased spouse’s will
ll. When the surviving spouse receives the property as a consequence of the qualified disclaimer of another beneficiary
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: C
Question: 44
Which of the following statements concerning wills is (are) correct?
l. A will should be reviewed periodically to assure that the property owner’s most recent intentions are honored at death.
ll. Once signed, a will’s provisions may not be changed without the consent of all the beneficiaries under the will.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: A
Question: 45
Which of the following statements concerning the generation-skipping transfer tax (GSTT) is (are) correct?
I. An annual exclusion against GSTT will shelter gifts by a grandparent to a trust benefiting multiple grandchildren.
II. Tuition payments made directly by a grandparent to a university for a grandchild’s education
are exempt from GSTT.
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
A – l only B – II only C – Both land ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: B
Question: 46
In which of the following situations will the grantor be taxed on income from trust property.
l. The grantor of a trust gives one of the trust beneficiaries the right to add or delete beneficiaries.
ll. An adverse party to the grantor holds the power to determine the timing to trust distributions to the beneficiaries.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: D
Question: 47
Which of the following statements concerning a grantor-retained annuity trust (GRAT) is (are) correct?
l. The grantor is taxed on trust income during the retained term.
II. The grantor makes an irrevocable transfer to the remainder person(s) when the trust is created.
A – I only B – II only C – Both I and lI D – Neither I nor II
Answer: C
Question: 48
Alan, a widower, is a retired executive with substantial assets. He wishes to provide for the financial security of his two grandchildren since their father, Alan’s son, has always managed money poorly. This year Alan would like each grandchild to receive a substantial gift. Which of the following statements concerning the generation-skipping transfer tax (GSTT) on these gifts is (are) correct?
I. Federal estate or gift tax will not be imposed if the gift is otherwise subject to the GSTT.
II. Assuming no prior gifts, Alan can gift a cumulative total of (not including the annual exclusion) $1.5 million to his grandchildren without the imposition of the GSTT.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither l nor ll
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
Answer: B
Question: 49
Which of the following statements concerning filing the federal estate tax return is (are) correct?
l. The estate tax return must be filed within 9 months of death unless an extension is granted by the IRS.
ll. For persons dying this year. an estate tax return must be filed for gross estates plus adjusted taxable gifts that exceed $1.5 million.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and II D – Neither l nor ll
Answer: C
Question: 50
Which of the following statements concerning the gift or estate tax charitable deduction is (are) correct?
l. A donor is denied a charitable deduction for property that passes to a qualified charity as the result of a qualified disclaimer if the donor original transfer was to a no charitable donee.
ll. A decedent-spouse estate may obtain both marital and charitable deductions for interests contributed to a charitable remainder trust when the surviving spouse is the only no charitable income beneficiary for life.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: B
Question: 51
Which of the following statements concerning pooled-income funds are correct?
l. The fund contains commingled donations from many sources.
ll. A decedent donation purchases units in the fund which generate income that is paid at least annually to a charity.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: A
Question: 52
Which of the following factors is (are) used to make a choice between having an entity-purchase or cross-purchase partnership buy-sell agreement?
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
I. The cost basis of the partner’s business interests.
ll. The amount of the partner’s individual personal net worth’s
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and II D – Neither l nor lI
Answer: A
Question: 53
Which of the following transfers will be successful in removing property from a grantor’s gross estate?
l. A grantor’s transfer of property to a revocable trust if the grantor lives three years after the transfer.
ll. A grantor’s transfer of a personal residence to a qualified personal residence trust if the grantor survives the retained interest term.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: B
Question: 54
Which of the following statements concerning marital transfers to a non-U.S. citizen spouse is (are) correct?
l. A marital deduction is automatically available as long as property is transferred outright to the non-citizen spouse.
Il .A marital deduction is automatically available if the transferor-decedent spouse is a U. S. citizen.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither l nor ll
Answer: D
Question: 55
Which of the following statements concerning the inclusion in a decedent-employee’s gross estate of a lump-sum distribution from a qualified retirement plan to a beneficiary other than the employee’s estate is (are) correct?
l. Lump-sum distributions of payments attributable to the employer’s contributions are excluded from the gross estate.
ll. Lump-sum distributions of payments attributable to the decedent-employee’s contributions are excluded from the gross estate.
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and II D – Neither I nor II
Answer: D
Question: 56
John plans to transfer his life insurance policy to an irrevocable trust for the benefit of his 19-year-old daughter, Jane. Which of the following conditions will enable the gift to qualify for the annual exclusion?
l. Jane is the irrevocable beneficiary of the life insurance trust but cannot withdraw from the trust until the death benefits are paid.
ll. Jane is given “Crummey” demand powers permitting the withdrawal at her discretion of the annual additions to the trust.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: B
Question: 57
Which of the following statements concerning the taxation of estates and trusts is (are) correct?
l. They are taxed similarly to partnership entities.
II. They are taxed on distributable net income (DNI) that is retained.
A – only B – II only C – Both l and lI D – Neither I nor II
Answer: B
Question: 58
Which of the following statements concerning pooled-income funds is (are) correct?
l. A pooled income fund is similar to a mutual fund maintained by a qualified charity.
ll. lt is an irrevocable arrangement in which the remainder interest passes to charity.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither l nor ll
Answer: C Question: 59
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
Which of the following statements concerning ownership of property in the form of a joint tenancy with right of survivorship is (are) correct?
I. Either real or personal property may be owned as a joint tenancy with right of survivorship.
Il. Nonqualified joint tenants with right of survivorship may have unequal separate shares of the property.
A – l only B – II only C – Both I and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: A
Question: 60
Which of the following statements concerning the methods of valuing a closely held business for federal estate tax purposes is (are) correct?
l. The capitalization-of-adjusted-earnings method uses a capitalization rate that varies inversely with the degree of risk and rate of return.
II. The adjusted-book value method involves adjusting the asset components of a business to an approximate fair market value for each component.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: C
Question: 61
Which of the following statements concerning guardians is (are) correct?
l. A guardian is appointed by a court.
Il. A guardian holds equitable title to the property he administers for his or her ward.
A – l only B – II only C – Both l and ll D – Neither I nor II
Answer: A
Question: 62
Which of the following types of partial interests in property may be allowed a charitable deduction for estate tax purposes?
l. A remainder interest in the donor vacation home
ll. A testamentary gift of a percentage of a decedent entire interest in property held in trust
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QUESTION 131
When QoS levels in the Cisco Wireless Control System (WCS) are entered, which profile names are used to identify the access categories?
A. platinum, gold, silver, and bronze
B. voice, gold, silver, and bronze
C. low delay, network critical, business, best effort
D. voice, video, background gold, background silver, and best effort
E. voice, video, best effort, and background F. voice, video, best effort, background, and scavenger
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct about the implementation of QoS across the WANs that are shown? (Choose two.)
A. QoS cannot be maintained across WAN A.
B. The service provider is not involved in providing QoS services in WAN A.
C. The service provider can provide QoS services through the cloud in WAN A.
D. QoS cannot be maintained across WAN B
E. The service provider is not involved in providing QoS services in WAN B.
F. The service provider can provide QoS services through the cloud in WAN B.
Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
Refer to the exhibit. The network in the diagram has contracted with a service provider for the QoS levels that are shown. Which statement is correct about the QoS requirements for the campus and remote branch?
A. Because adequate levels of service are provided across the WAN, campus and remote branch QoS will not be required.
B. The enterprise campus can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.
C. The enterprise remote branch can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.
D. The enterprise campus plus the remote branch can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
Which of the items stated is typically the most expensive method of improving QoS across WAN links?
A. advanced queuing
B. data compression
C. header compression
D. increasing link capacity
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
Which three functions can an Integrated Services Router perform in a VoIP network? (Choose three.)
A. voice stream mixing for conference calling
B. voice gateway
C. call admission control
D. analog or digital phone interfaces
E. XML application services
F. large scale dial plan application
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Using the fewest commands possible, drag the commands on the left to the blanks on the right to configure and apply a QoS policy that guarantees that voice packets receive 20 percent of the bandwidth on the S0/1/0 interface.
Answer
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
To configure Control Plan Policing(CoPP) to deny Telnet access only from 10.1.1.1, drag the commands on the left to the boxes on the right and place the commands in the proper order.
Answer
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
Drag each descriptor on the left to the QoS model on the right to which the descriptor applies. Not all descriptors apply.
Answer
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
Drag the wireless 802.1e priority level groupings on the left to the appropriate Wi-Fi Multimedia(WMM) access categories on the right.(Not all groupings will be used) Answer
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 140
Drag each term on the left to its time definition on the right. There will be one term unused.
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
Add a new wireless LAN controller (WLC) to the WCS wireless management server. From the left, drag each procedure to its step sequence on the right.
Answer A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
Drag each wireless EAP authentication protocol above to its definition below.
Answer A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
Drag each WLSE feature above to its benefit below.
Answer: A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Drag Drop Drag the steps required to convert compressed digital signals to analog signals to their correct order on the right.
Answer
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 145
Exhibit:
Answer:
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Hotspot Answer:
A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Questions:162 Topology
QUESTION 147
Which three characteristics of the traffic flow are taken into consideration when the QoS-for-VPNs feature (QoS pre-classify) provides packet classification and applies appropriate QoS service on tunnel interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. IP precedence bits
B. DSCP bits
C. Original port numbers
D. DE bits
E. Source IP address
F. Destination IP address
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Which two statements about Cisco AutoQoS are true? (Choose two.)
A. A QoS service policy must already be enabled on the interface before Cisco AutoQoS can be enabled.
B. Any interface at or below 1.54 Mbps is classified as a low-speed interface.
C. AutoQoS uses Cisco network-based application recognition (NBAR) to identify various applications and traffic types
D. Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) must be enabled at the interface or ATM PVC.
E. Cisco NBAR is a prerequisite for CEF.
F. On a serial interface, before AutoQoS is enabled, the clock rate command must be used to specify a bandwidth other than the default 1.54Mbps.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 149
When a router converts analog signals to digital signals as part of the VoIP process, it performs
four steps.
Which set of steps contains the steps in their correct sequence?
A. encoding optional compression quantization sampling
B. encoding quantization optional compression sampling
C. optional compression encoding sampling quantization
D. optional compression sampling encoding quantization
E. sampling quantization encoding optional compression
F. sampling quantization optional compression encoding
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
Question: 150
What are three staid Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) types? (Choose three.)
A. LEAP
B. EAP-FAST
C. EAP-TLS
D. EAP-AES
E. WEAP
F. WEP
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
What are three benefits of the Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE)? (Choose three.)
A. The decentralized nature of WLSE helps reduce the time and resources that are required to manage a large number of WLAN devices.
B. WLSE helps simplify large-scale deployments by providing automatic configuration of new APs.
C. WLSE minimizes security vulnerabilities by providing security policy misconfiguration alerts and rogue AP detection.
D. WLSE provides AP utilization and client association reports, features which help with capacity planning.
E. WLSE can respond to required changes that are requested by APs.
F. WLSE increases productivity through customization with three possible levels of managemen lightweight, extended, and advanced.
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
What is link fragmentation and interleaving (LFI)?
A. LFI is a QoS mechanism that allots bandwidth and enables the differentiation of traffic according to a policy.
B. LFI is a Layer 2 technique in which header information is sent only at the beginning of the session, stored in a dictionary, and then referenced in later packets by a short dictionary index.
C. LFI is a Layer 3 technique in which header information is sent only at the beginning of the session, stored in a dictionary, and then referenced in later packets by a short dictionary index.
D. LFI is a Layer 2 technique in which large frames are broken into small, equal-sized fragments and transmitted over the link in an interleaved fashion.
E. LEI is a Layer 2 technique in which smaller fragments are combined into large, equal-sized frames, and transmitted over the link in an interleaved fashion.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
Which two statements about packet marking at the data link layer are true? (Choose two.)
A. Through the use of DE markings, Frame Relay QoS supports up to 10 classes of service.
B. Frames maintain their class of service (CoS) markings when transiting a non-802.1p link.
C. IEEE 802.1p supports up to 10 class of service (CoS) markings.
D. In an 802.1q frame, the 3-bit 802.1p priority field is used to identify the class of service (CoS) priority.
E. The 802.1p CoS markings are preserved through the LAN, but are not maintained end to end.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
Which two wireless security statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A TACACS+ server is required to implement 802.1x.
B. MIC protects against man-in-the-middle and replay attacks.
C. The 802.1x standard provides encryption services for wireless clients.
D. The AES (symmetric block cipher) is specified in the IEEE 802.11i specification.
E. The IEEE 802.11i specification uses RC4 as its encryption mechanism.
F. WPA requires TKIP and AES as encryption methods.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Which two statements are true about traffic shaping and traffic policing? (Choose two.)
A. Both traffic shaping and traffic policing cause retransmissions of connection-oriented protocols such as TCP.
B. Both traffic shaping and traffic policing support the marking and re-marking of traffic.
C. The effects of traffic shaping and traffic policing when configured on a router are applied to outgoing traffic.
D. Traffic shaping queues excess traffic whereas traffic policing discards excess traffic.
E. Traffic shaping allows the traffic to exceed the bit rate whereas traffic policing prevents the traffic from exceeding the bit rate.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
Which two queuing methods will allow a percentage of the available bandwidth to be allocated to each queue? (Choose two.)
A. First-in, first-out queuing (FIFO)
B. Priority queuing (PQ)
C. Custom queuing (CQ)
D. Weighted fair queuing (WFQ)
E. Class-based WFQ (CBWFQ)
F. Low latency queuing (LLQ)
Correct Answer: EF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
Which classification tool can be used to classify traffic based on the HTTP URL?
A. Class-based policing
B. Policy-based routing (PBR)
C. Committed access rate (CAR)
D. Network-based application recognition (NBAR)
E. Dial peers
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
What three types of interfaces do voice gateways use to connect to analog interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. E and M
B. E1 CCS
C. FXS
D. FXO
E. serial
F. T1 CAS
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 141
When a PPP connection is being established, which three configuration features are negotiated through the LCP? (Choose three.)
A. callback
B. multilink
C. encryption
D. compression
E. protocol multiplexing
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
A corporation is currently running a Frame Relay network in a hub and spoke topology. To ease the WAN bandwidth bottleneck, the company would like to configure compression in an effort to optimize WAN links. The corporation does use multiple protocols and other applications that require that the IP header remains intact. Which type of compression should this corporation use?
A. link compression
B. payload compression
C. TCP/IP header compression
D. MPPC
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
Instead of purchasing dedicated router ports, a company wants to reduce costs by allowing any one of the available physical BRI interfaces on a central site router to dial out to remote branch offices.
Which two commands provide this capability? (Choose two.)
A. dialer-group
B. multilink ppp
C. interface dialer
D. dialer hunt-group
E. dialer rotary-group
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Which command displays the remote network addresses associated with each PVC?
A. show ip route
B. show frame-relay lmi
C. show frame-relay map
D. show frame-relay pvc
E. show frame-relay status
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
Refer to exhibit. Notice the partial show running-config output on R1. R1 is connected with a multipoint subinterface over the Frame Relay to the spoke routers R2 and R3. The ISDN interface is configured to provide a back-up link should the primary connection to R2 fail.
However, when the PVC to R2 drops, the BRI interface remains in “standby” mode and does not bring up the back-up link. What could the problem be?
A. The EIGRP updates are configured as noninteresting traffic
B. The backup command is configured under the S0.1 multipoint interface of R1
C. The R1 S0 interface remains up because of the active PVC between R1 and R3.
D. The R1 S0.1 interface remains up because of the active PVC between R1 and R3.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Which set of commands will accomplish the tasks below?
-Make bri0/0 a backup interface to serial0/0.
–
Activate the backup interface 5 seconds after the primary link fails and deactivate the backup interface 10 seconds after the primary link is re-established.
A.
Router(config)#interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 5 10
B.
Router(config)#interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 5 10
C.
Router(config)#interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 10 5
D.
Router(config)#interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 10 5
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
Which field is defined in the PPP format that allows PPP to dynamically negotiate link options?
A. address
B. control
C. protocol
D. flag
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
An administrator is attempting to configure TACACS+ AAA authentication for privileged EXEC mode access. The current configuration is as follows:
RTB(config)# tacacs-server host 192.168.1.23 RTB(config)# tacacs-server key CISCO RTB(config)# aaa new-model RTB(config)# aaa authentication enable AAA group tacacs+ enable none
With the above configuration, what will be the result?
A. Authentication will be successful from the TACACS+ server.
B. Authentication will be successful from the local enable password.
C. Because the authentication list is not applied to any lines, authentication will not be successful.
D. Because the authentication enable command cannot used with a named list, authentication will not be successful
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Drag Drop question
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 150
Drag Drop question
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
lab question Please refer to Question 45, but take notice you wil use the same command in this questions, but some paramters like IP address will be different.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Which two debugs should you use to find the cause of an unsuccessful PAP negotiation? (Choose two.)
A. debug ppp pap
B. debug ppp negotiation
C. debug authentication pap
D. debug ppp authentication
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
When the ISAKMP negotiation begins in IKE Phase 1 main mode, ISAKMP looks for an ISAKMP policy that is the same on both peers. Which peer is responsible for matching policies?
A. The peer that initiates the negotiation sends all its policies to the remote peer, and the remote peer tries to find a match with its policies.
B. The remote peer sends all its policies to the initiating peer, and the initiating peer tries to find a match with its policies.
C. Both peers send all their policies to the other peer, and each peer tries to find a match with its policies.
D. Both peers send all their policies to the other peer, but just the initiating peer tries to find a match with its policies.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
Which statement is true about payload compression?
A. Payload compression can be used in conjunction with link compression.
B. The payload compression algorithm uses Predictor or STAC to compress traffic into another data link layer such as PPP.
C. Payload compression is appropriate for virtual network services such as Frame Relay and ATM.
D. With payload compression the complete packet is compressed and the switching information in the header is not available.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Drag Drop question
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
Given the above output, which statement is true?
A. An LMI is not being received from the Frame Relay switch.
B. The DLCI has been removed from the Frame Relay switch.
C. The remote router connection to the Frame Relay switch is not functioning
D. The router is configured to be a Frame Relay switch.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
What are three drawbacks to using RFC 1483/2684 bridging with ADSL? (Choose three.)
A. Bridging is inherently insecure and requires a trusted environment.
B. Bridging depends heavily on broadcasts in order to establish connectivity
C. Bridging requires expensive routing equipment because of the extensive Layer 3 overhead.
D. Bridging architecture may allow IP address hijacking.
E. Bridging, because of its ATM WAN configuration, can require considerable effort during initial troubleshooting.
F. Bridging architecture can be complex to install and maintain.
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
Based on the above output, how many IKE policies were administratively defined?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
What two things will occur when r1 initiates a call to r2 and attempts to make a connection? (Choose two.)
A. Both routers will send a challenge.
B. Only r2 will send a challenge.
C. The r2 router will generate a hash value and send it to r1.
D. The PPP connection establishment will succeed.
E. The PPP connection establishment will fail.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
How can an ISDN interface be used as a backup link for a primary interface and still use DDR to communicate with other sites?
A. By using dialer profiles
B. An ISDN interface cannot be both.
C. With the command backup interface serial 0/0 on the bri0/0 interface along with normal DDR commands.
D. With the command backup interface bri 0/0 on the physical interface and normal DDR commands on the bri0/0 interface.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
Observe the exhibited output from a show isdn status command. Which statement is true?
A. There were five attempts to make calls.
B. Layer 1 is not operational
C. Layer 2 is operational.
D. The router is not exchanging frames with the ISDN switch.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which two of the following events will occur when the router command backup load 60 5 is used? (Choose two.)
A. The backup link activates when the primary link exceeds 60 percent of bandwidth
B. The backup link activates when the primary link exceeds 60 kbps.
C. The backup link deactivates when the primary link falls to 5 percent bandwidth.
D. The backup link deactivates when the combined load falls to 5 percent bandwidth.
E. The backup link deactivates when the combined load falls to 5 kbps.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
How is cable broadband technology able to transmit downstream and upstream data while at the same time delivering television content?
A. The cable operator uses the VHF hyperband to transmit and receive data signals.
B. The cable operator assigns any available spectrum to data, depending on how its own television spectrum is being used.
C. The cable operator uses specific bandwidths for data signals specified by DOCSIS.
D. The cable operator places its data signals into clean areas where there is no interference from noise or other signals.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
Which two commands are used to verify and troubleshoot a PPP session? (Choose two.)
A. show interfaces
B. show PPP
C. debug PPP negotiation
D. debug PPP session
E. debug ppp dialer
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Which type of remote-user VPN has users dial in to an Internet service provider (ISP) where an ISP-owned device establishes a secure tunnel to the users’ enterprise network?
A. client initiated VPN
B. network access server (NAS) initiated VPN
C. intranet VPN
D. extranet VPN
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Which of the following statements is correct based on the Cisco router output of the show isdn status command?
Router#show isdn status Global ISDN Switchtype=basic-ni ISDN BRI0 interface dsl 0, interface ISDN Switchtype=basic-ni Layer 1 Status: ACTIVE Layer 2 Status: TEI=73, Ces=2, SAPI=0, State=TEI_ASSIGNED TEI=74, Ces=1, SAPI=0, State=TEI_ASSIGNED Layer 3 Status : 0 Active Layer 3 Call(s)
A. Layer 1, 2, and 3 status is active.
B. TEI values assigned are not a valid numbers.
C. Layers 1 and 2 status is active but Layer 3 status indicates lost connectivity.
D. Layer 1 status is active but Layer 2 status indicates lost connectivity.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
Based on the above configuration, which statement is true?
A. The backup interface will be used when traffic reaches 80 kbps on the primary interface
B. The backup interface will be disabled when the combined load on the primary and backup interfaces is less than 10%.
C. The backup interface will be disabled when the combined load on the primary and backup interfaces is less than 80 kbps.
D. The backup interface will be disabled when the load on the primary interface is less than 10%.
E. The backup interface will be disabled when the load on the primary interface is less than 80 kbps.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
When radius authentication is being configured on a router, which commands will allow a user to telnet successfully into the router?
Router(config)# radius-server host 192.168.1.23 Router(config)# radius-server key CISCO Router(config)# aaa new-model
A. Router(config)# aaa authentication login AAA group radius local none Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login authentication AAA
B. Router(config)# aaa authentication login AAA group radius local none Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login authentication CISCO
C. Router(config)# aaa authentication login default group radius local none Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login authentication AAA
D. Router(config)# aaa authentication login AAA group radius local none Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login authentication default
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 169
Which two statements are true about the use of the backup load 65 10 command on a router? (Choose two.)
A. The secondary line will terminate when the load of the primary line drops to 10% of the bandwidth of the primary line.
B. The secondary line will terminate when the aggregate load of the primary and backup lines drops to 10% of the primary line bandwidth.
C. The secondary line will come up 10 seconds after traffic on the primary line reaches 65% of the bandwidth of the primary line
D. The secondary line will come up when the traffic on the primary line reaches 65% of the bandwidth of the primary line.
E. The backup interface will come up 65 seconds after the primary link goes down.
F. The secondary interface will terminate the connection 10 seconds after the primary link comes up.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the show frame-relay pvc output?
A. Traffic shaping is enabled.
B. The remote connection is not working correctly.
C. The local connection is not working correctly
D. LMIs are not being received
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
Which timer is reset to the maximum configured value every time an interesting packet is forwarded across the link?
A. wait for carrier timer
B. dialer idle timer
C. dialer enable timer
D. busy timer
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 172
lab question Please refer to Question 22, but take notice you wil use the same command in this questions, but some paramters like IP address will be different.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 173
Given the partial IPSEC datagram, which provides both authentication and confidentiality, identify the header marked as 2.
A. AH header
B. ESP header
C. MPLS VPN header
D. SA header
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
Which traffic queuing method gives a low-volume traffic stream preferential service?
A. FIFO
B. Priority
C. Custom
D. Weighted Fair
E. Low Latency
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
What are two advantages to the use of RFC 1483 to encapsulate IP data over ATM? (Choose two.)
A. multiprotocol support
B. inherently more secure because of the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
C. the CPE in bridge mode performs routing functions
D. ideal for single-user Internet access
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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