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Exam Code: 070-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Sep 08, 2017
Q&As: 503

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Microsoft 070-410 Dumps Exam Topics Covered:

The following list includes the topic areas covered on this exam.
• Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
• Introduction to Active Directory Domain Services
• Managing Active Directory Domain Services Objects
• Automating Active Directory Domain Services Administration
• Implementing Networking Services
• Implementing Local Storage
• Implementing File and Print Services
• Implementing Group Policy
• Implementing Server Virtualization with Hyper-V

070-410 dumps

Free Pass4itsure Microsoft 070-410 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION  1. In Report Studio, an author merges Query1 and Query2 into one result set (Query3) using a union set operator, Query1 contains two data items: Order method and Revenue, Query2 also contains two data items: Product line and Quantity sold. The author wants to display the data from Query3 in a list report, how can the author ensure that all the order method results appear together line results appear together in the report?
A. The author must add a sort key data item directly to Query3.
B. The author must sort the Order method data item in Query1 and the Product line data item in Query2.
C. The author must sort the data item in Query3 that retrieves both Order method and Product line data. D.
The author must add a sort key data item to Query1 and Query2,and then add this sort key data item to
Query3.
070-410 exam Answer: C
QUESTION  2. Which member is used for dimensions in package that are not referenced in the expression?
A. Tabular data includes a column for each data item in the query, No grouping is applied to the tabular
data.
B. Tabular data includes a column for each data item in the query. Grouping applied in the report layout is
also applied to the tabular data.
C. Tabular data can only include columns for data items that appear in the layout. No grouping is applied
to the tabular data.
D. Tabular data includes a column for data item that appears in both the query and the layout. Grouping
applied in the report layout is also applied to tabular data.
Answer: A
QUESTION  3. In Report Studio, an author uses the tuple function to retrieve the intersection of members from two dimensions. Which member is used for dimensions in the package that are not referenced in the
expression?
A. No member is used.
B. The root member is always used.
C. The last sibling of the lowest member is always used.
D. The default member for that Dimension is always used.

070-410 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION  4. In Report Studio, an author wants to use a join object to create a relationship between two queries. Which of the following is true?
A. The author can use a join object to create either an inner or outer join between the queries.
B. The author can use a join object only if both queries contain data from OLAP data sources.
C. The author can use a join object only if both queries contain data from relational sources that has not
been modeled dimensionally.
D. Both queries must contain the same number of data item, the data items must be compatible and must
appear in the same order.
Answer: D
QUESTION  5. In Event Studio, which of the following tasks are available to a report author?
A. Run an agent
B. Run an export
C. Run an import
D. Run an index update
070-410 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION  6. In Report Studio, an author wants to conditionally format a list report according to the revenue generated by each product line. The Revenue data item does not appear in the list report but is contained in Quety1. Which of the following must the author do in order to apply this conditional formatting?
A. Make the Revenue data item a property of Queery1.
B. Make the Revenue data item a property of the list object.
C. Make the Revenue data item a property of the Page object.
D. Make the Revenue data item a property of the Variable object.
Answer: B
QUESTION  7. In an OLAP package, the Years dimension appears as show below:
If the expression for Year level in this dimension is [great_outdoors_company].[Years]. [Year].which

member will be retrieved by the following expression?
descendants(closingPeriod([great_outdoors_company].[Years],2)
A. Ench Month member for the latest year in the Year level.
B. The latest Month member for the each year in the Year level.
C. Each Quarter member for the latest year in the Year level.
D. Each Month member from the latest quarter in the Quarter level.
070-410 exam questions Answer: A
QUESTION  8. In Report Studio, an author edits the SQL statement that a query uses to retrieve data for a corsstab. After editing the SQL, the author wants to add a new data item to the query. How can the author add the data item?
A. The author must convert the edited SQL back to a query object and then add the data item.
B. The author must edit SQL statement so that the query retrieves an additional data item.
C. The author must add the data item to the query from the package displayed on the Source tab.
D. The author must add a query reference to the existing query and then add the data item to the
referenced query.
Answer: B
QUESTION  9. In Report Studio, an author creates a list report containing columns for staff Name, Order number, and Revenue. The author wants to burst this report to various sales staff members. Each member should see only data relating to sales they have made. What must the author do to specify that the burst report output will contain only data for the appropriate sales staff member?
A. In the report layout, create a master-detail relationship on the staff Name data item.
B. In the report layout, add the staff Name data item as a property of the list object.
C. In the burst options for the report, use the Staff Name data item to specify the Burst Recipients.
D. In the burst options for the report , use the Staff Name data item to specify the Burst Groups.
070-410 dumps Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You add a 4-TB disk named Disk 5 to Server1. You need to ensure that you can create a
3-TB volume on Disk 5. What should you do?
A. Create a storage pool.
B. Convert the disk to a dynamic disk.
C. Create a VHD, and then attach the VHD.
D. Convert the disk to a GPT disk.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that has a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the File Server server role installed. You need to upgrade Server1 to Windows Server 2012 R2 with the graphical user interface (GUI). The solution must meet the following
requirements: Preserve the server roles and their configurations. Minimize Administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
B. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature.
C. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
D. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature
070-410 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to install the Remote Desktop Services server role
on Server2 remotely from Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. The dsadd.exe command
B. The Server Manager console
C. The Remote Desktop Gateway Manager console
D. The Install-RemoteAccess cmdlet
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
You have a server named Server1 that runs a full installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to uninstall the graphical user interface (GUI) on Server1.
You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of Administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Reinstall Windows Server 2012 R2 on the server.
B. From Server Manager, uninstall the User Interfaces and Infrastructure feature.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature PowerShell-ISE

D. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature Desktop-Experience.
070-410 exam questions Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual
machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

070-410 dumps

You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to ensure that the next time VM2 restarts, you can
connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
Which virtual machine setting should you configure for VM2?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 15. In Report Studio, why would an author use a filter 070-410 dumps function when querying dimensional data?
A. To retrieve a set of members that meet a String condition.

B. To suppress a set of members that meet a String condition. C.
To retrieve a set of members that meet a Boolean condition. D.
To suppress a set of members that meet a Boolean condition.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-696 
Exam Name: Managing Enterprise Devices and Apps
Updated: Sep 04, 2017
Q&As: 86

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QUESTION 6
Exhibit:
Given this display, how would you find information similar to the SHOW SWITCH command?
A. Click on STATISTICS, then SHOW, then SWITCH.
B. Click on STATISTICS, then SWITCH, then SHOW.
C. Click on STATISTICS, then SHOW.
D. Click on STATISTICS, then SWITCH.
70-696 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which ExtremeWare feature permits ESRP to increase the number of protected VLANs by placing them
under the control of a master VLAN?
A. ESRP groups
B. ESRP domains
C. ESRP host attach
D. None of these.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
STPDs s0, s1, and s2 have been created. How would you activate only s1 while leaving the other STPDs
inactive?
A. enable stpd s1
B. enable s1 stpd
C. None of these
70-696 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
SNMP access to ExtremeWare can be limited by the following methods:
A. Use an access list
B. Use an access profile

C. Use the disable snmp access command
D. None of these
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 10
How would you change the password for John Doe’s management account?
A. Enter config jdoe and then enter the new password twice.
B. Enter config jdoe user account and then enter the new password twice.
C. Enter config user account jdoe and then enter the new password twice.
D. Enter config account jdoe and then enter the new password twice.
70-696 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
What is the minimum ExtremeWare software version that supports the Summit48i?
A. ExtremeWare 4.x
B. ExtremeWare 5.x
C. ExtremeWare 6.x
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
When using Spanning Tree Protocol, ExtremeWare permits VLANs in different STPDs to share the same
port when tagged.
A. True
B. False
70-696 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which of the following routes will be used to forward a frame to 192.168.1.174?
A. 192.168.1.0/29
B. 192.168.1.128/30
C. 192.168.1.128/25
D. None of these.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
In RIP, poison reverse means that:
A. A route is not advertised to the interface from which it was learned.
B. A route is advertised as unreachable to the interface from which it was learned.
C. Traffic whose source interface does not match the routing table is blackholed.
D. None of these.
70-696 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
RIP version 2 uses a composite metric that includes link speed and delay.
A. True

B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Unlike VRRP, the Extreme Standby Router Protocol provides redundancy at both the data link and network
layers.
A. True
B. False
70-696 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
__________ allow(s) multiple VLANs to be controlled by a single ESRP instance.
A. ESRP domains
B. ESRP groups
C. ESRP host-attach
D. None of these.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
QoS policy is applied _____ in an Extreme switch.
A. per port
B. per queue, per port
C. per queue
D. None of these.
70-696 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Without QoS, all packets are allowed equal access to an egress port.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Which of the following is not advertised in an OSPF Link State Advertisement?
A. Costs
B. Link utilization
C. Router interfaces
D. Neighbor information
70-696 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
A VLAN can be a member of up to 64 STPDs.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
What type of area is used to limit external routes?
A. Stub area
B. Normal area
C. Backbone area
D. None of these
70-696 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
All OSPF routers in the same area must have the same LSDB.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Which 70-696 dumps RIP settings are enabled by default?
A. Triggered updates
B. Poison Reverse
C. Split Horizon
D. Route redistribution
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 25
What is the default STP forward delay value?
A. 2 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 20 seconds
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Which command would you use to configure the switch to disregard STP for selected VLANs?
A. enable ignore-stp vlan <stpd>
B. enable ignore-bpdu vlan <vlan>
C. enable ignore-bpdu stpd <stpd>
D. enable ignore-stp vlan <vlan>
70-696 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
When the command disable stpd port 4:1-4:8 is entered what is the result?
A. Ports 4:1-4:8 are placed into the blocking state.
B. Ports 4:1-4:8 are placed into the listening state.
C. Ports 4.1-4.8 are placed into the learning state.
D. Ports 4:1-4:8 are placed into the forwarding state.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
How can you tell which ports are disabled?
A. Flashing amber light
B. Flashing green light
C. Flashing red light
D. None of these
70-696 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
Your Summit5i switch is connected to a 3rd party switch. By issuing the show ports rxerrors command you
can see numerous CRC errors listed. What is the first step you should take to resolve this issue?
A. Examine the log for errors.
B. Ping between the two switches.
C. Match the speed and duplex settings for the two devices.
D. Call the Extreme Networks TAC.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
You have been assigned the task of configuring an 8-port load share group between two switches that
uses the round robin-based algorithm. Which of the following commands will provide you with the desired
result?
A. Summit #1: config sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm round-robin, Summit #2: configsharing 1 grouping
1-8 algorithm round-robin
B. Summit #1: enable sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm round-robin, Summit #2: enablesharing 8 grouping
1-8 algorithm round-robin

C. Summit #1: config sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm round-robin, Summit #2: configsharing 8 grouping
1-8 algorithm round-robin
D. Summit #1: enable sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm round-robin, Summit #2: enablesharing 1 grouping
70-696 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
Routing is disabled in all VLANs by default.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
What 70-696 dumps information can you find using the show edp command?
A. ExtremeWare code version used by remote switch.
B. The ports that are disabled on the remote switch.
C. The master port of any load share groups.
D. The speed and duplex settings of the ports connecting the two switches.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
How could you verify that MAC address learning is disabled for ports 1-8 on a Summit7i switch?
A. Enter the show ports config detail command.
B. Enter the show ports management detail command.
C. Enter the show ports statistics detail command.
D. Enter the show ports info detail command.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
Which of the following are valid ESRP master election algorithms?
A. ports_track_priority_mac
B. ports_priority_track_mac
C. track_ports_priority_mac
D. track_priority_ports_mac
70-696 pdf Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 35
What is the command you would use to configure a VLAN for ESRP?
A. enable esrp vlan <vlan>
B. enable esrp vlan <vlan> detail
C. config esrp vlan <vlan>
D. config esrp vlan <vlan> detail
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
Which command would you use to configure ESRP ping tracking for the gateway address 10.0.0.1 with a
frequency of 2 seconds and a miss threshold of 5?

A. enable vlan <vlan> add track-ping add 10.0.0.1 frequency 2 miss 5
B. enable esrp add track-ping add 10.0.0.1 frequency 2 miss 5
C. config esrp track-ping add 10.0.0.1 frequency 2 miss 5
D. config vlan <vlan> add track-ping 10.0.0.1 frequency 2 miss 5
70-696 vce Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 070-489
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Updated: Aug 19, 2017
Q&As: 97

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Question: 1
Which of the following is an example of a taxable gift for federal gift tax purposes?
A – A father gives his 19-year-old daughter a note promising to give her his Rolls Royce when she
reaches the age of 21.
B – Instead of parents paying an outside executive $60,000, a son runs their business for 8
months without charging a fee.
C – The parents of a married son permit their son and his family to use a summer cottage that
rents for $3,000 per month on a rent-free basis.
D – A father cancels a $50,000 note his daughter gave him when he made a loan to her 2 years
ago.
070-489 exam 
Answer: D
Question: 2
The following are facts concerning a decedent’s estate:
Taxable estate $1.700, 000
Pre-1977 taxable gifts 200, 000
Post-1976 adjusted taxable gifts 50, 000
Post-1976 gifts made to a qualified charity 100, 000
The tentative tax base of this estate is
A – $1,700,000
B – $1,750,000
C – $1,850,000
D – $1,900,000
Answer: B
Question: 3
An executor elects to value the assets of the estate at the alternative valuation date 6 months
after death. Which of the following statements concerning the estate tax value of assets included
in this estate is correct?
A – An annuity included in the gross estate that diminishes with the mere passage of time is
includible at the date of death value.
B – Property sold before the alternate valuation date is valued at the alternate valuation date.
C – Property that has increased in value since the date of death may be valued at the date of
death if the executor so elects.
D – Property distributed under the will before the alternate valuation date is valued at the date of
death.
070-489 dumps 
Answer: A
Question: 4
A father and son have been farming land owned by the father for the past 12 years. Just prior to
his death, the father was offered $1200, 000 for his farm because of its possible use as a
shopping center. The son would like to continue to farm the land if it can be included in his
father’s estate at its current use value. Additional facts are:
1. Average annual gross rentals from nearby farms of similar acreage are $56,000.
2. Average annual state and local real estate taxes on the farm are $6,000.
3. The interest rate for loans from the Federal Land Sank is 8 percent.

For federal estate tax purposes, the farm method valuation formula would result in a current use
value for the farm of
A – $500,000
B – $600,000
C – $700,000
D – $820,000
Answer: B
Question: 5
Which of the following types of real properly ownership will be deemed to be a tenancy in
common?
A – Two brothers own equal amounts of all the common stock in a corporation, the only asset of
which is real property.
B – Two brothers own equal undivided interests in a piece of real properly, with each brother
being able to divest himself of his interest by sale, gift, or will.
C – Two brothers are equal partners in a general partnership that owns a piece of real property
used in the partnership business.
D – Two brothers own equal fractional interests in a piece of real property and at the death of one
of the brothers the survivor will own the entire piece of property.
070-489 pdf 
Answer: B
Question: 6
Which of the following statements concerning property ownership by a married couple residing in
a community-property state is correct?
A – All property owned by the couple is community property.
B – Community property loses its identity when a couple moves from a community-property state
to a common-law state.
C – Property inherited by one spouse during a marriage becomes community property
D – Income earned by one spouse becomes community property.
Answer: D
Question: 7
Which of the following statements concerning a simple trust is correct?
A – Income and principal may be distributed to a qualified charily.
B – It receives a special tax deduction for income distributed to its beneficiaries.
C – Income is accumulated at the discretion of the trustee.
D – It limits the number of permissible beneficiaries.
070-489 vce 
Answer: B
Question: 8
On the advice of their attorney and accountant, Betsy and John have decided to make substantial
transfers. They would like to pass most of their considerable wealth to their grandchildren. Which
of the following statements concerning gifts made to their grandchildren is correct?
A – The GSTT annual exclusion may be utilized by Betsy and John for each grandchild during
life time and at death.

B – The value of Betsy and John’s GSTT exemption amounts are slightly increased when used at
death rather than during life time.
C – The GSTT annual exclusion is unavailable for years in which Betsy and John make tuition
gifts for the grandchildren.
D – Betsy and John may elect to split any GSTT transfers to the grandchildren.
Answer: D
Question: 9
The decedent, D, died this year. The facts concerning D estate are:
Gross estate $3,400,000
Marital deduction 0
Charitable deduction 600,000
Funeral & administration expenses 00,000
Gifts made after 1976 170,000
State death taxes payable 192,000
What is D taxable estate?
A – $2,138,000
B – $2,358,000
C – $2,528,000
D – $2,720,000
070-489 exam 
Answer: C
Question: 10
On January 1, 2004 a father gave his daughter a $200,000 straight (ordinary) life insurance policy
on his life. Premiums are paid annually. The pertinent facts about the policy are:
Date of issue: July 1, 1992
Premium paid on July 1, 2003 $3200
Terminal reserve on July 1, 2003 20,000
Terminal reserve on July 1, 2004 24,000
What is the value of the policy for federal gift tax purposes?
A – $ 21,600
B – $23,200
C – $23,600
D – $200,000
Answer: C
Question: 11
A married man has two adult sons. His entire estate is in excess of $1,500,000 and consists
entirely of probate assets. He wants to make certain that if he predeceases his wife she will
receive all estate income as long as she lives, and the assets remaining at her death will pass
equally to their two sons. He wants to pass all assets to this wife and sons as free of federal
estate taxes as possible. To best accomplish these objectives, the man should include which of
the following estate plans in his will?
A – Establish a QTIP trust for half his estate and bequeath the remainder to his wife
B – Establish a marital deduction trust with a general power of appointment for half his estate and

place the remainder in a QTIP trust
C – Establish a bypass trust equal to the applicable exclusion amount and place the remainder of
his estate in a QTIP trust
D – Establish a QTIP trust for his entire estate
070-489 dumps 
Answer: C
Question: 12
Among the assets in a decedent’s gross estate is stock in a closely held corporation that was left
to a nephew. The interest passing to the nephew is required to bear the burden of all estate taxes
and expenses. The relevant facts about this estate are:
Adjusted gross estate $1,200,000
Fair market value of stock in the
closely held corporation 500,000
Administration and funeral expenses 25,000
State inheritance taxes 40,000
Federal estate taxes 160,000
What amount of closely held corporate stock may be redeemed under IRC Section 303 so that
the redemption will be treated as a sale or exchange rather than a dividend distribution?
A – 0
B – $ 65,000
C – $225,000
D – $500,000
Answer: C
Question: 13
A married man died this year leaving a gross estate of $3,200,000. Additional facts concerning
his estate are:
Administration expenses and debts $ 250,000
Marital deduction 1,200,000
Applicable credit amount (2005) 555,800
Applicable exclusion amount (2005) 1,500,000
State death taxes payable 20,400
Under the Unified Rate Schedule for computing estate taxes if the amount with respect to which
the tentative tax to be computed is over$1,000,000 but not over $1,250,000, the tentative tax is
$345,800, plus 41 percent of the excess of such amount over $1,000,000. If the amount is over
$1,250,000 but not over $1,500,000, the tentative tax is then $448,300, plus 43 percent of the
excess of such amount over $1,250,000. If the amount is over $1,500,000 but not over
$2,000,000, the tentative tax is then $555,800 plus 45% of the excess of such amount over
$1,500,000. Based on these facts, the net federal estate tax payable is
A – 0
B – $103,320
C – $123,720
D – $128,280
070-489 pdf 
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 210-250
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Updated: Aug 19, 2017
Q&As: 80

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QUESTION 09
Consider a FileMaker Pro 11 database with the following tables and fields:
Assuming only the above relationships between table occurrences, using sorting if necessary, which two
actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. create a value list that shows all Invoices for a chosen Customer
B. create a value list on a Product layout which displays all Customers
C. find all of the Customers who have ever ordered a specific Product
D. create a portal to display each Product that has been ordered by a Customer
E. display all records from the Customer table in a portal on a layout for an Invoice Item record
210-250 exam Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 10
Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event ID has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID.
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records… nor the Delete
related records… settings to be enabled for the Event table.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
On the RSTP network as shown in the figure, what RSTP operations will occur after the E1 port of SWB
fails? (Select 3 Answers)
A. SWB deletes the MAC address entries with the E1 port as the destination interface.
B. The spanning tree is recalculated and the E2 port is elected as the new root port.
C. All the interfaces in forwarding state send topology change notifications (TCNs) to notify other switches
of the topology change.
D. All the non-edge ports in forwarding state send TCNs to notify other switches of the topology change.
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 12
Which is the port state defined in RSTP?
A. Discarding
B. Learning
C. Forwarding
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
RSTP has all functions that STP has and it is backward compatible with STP.
A. True

B. False
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
RSTP adopts fast convergence mechanism. So, there is no Forward Delay interval in RSTP.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Two switches are directly connected to each other and they are working in full duplex mode. By default,
RSTP will consider the link between the switches as point-to-point link.
A. True
B. False
210-250 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
In RSTP network environment, a port can be set as edge port when it is directly connected with terminal.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements about RSTP and STP is true?
A. STP has more port states than RSTP.
B. The port roles used in RSTP is less than the port roles used in STP.
C. Since RSTP adopts fast convergence mechanism, it does not have Learning state which is available in
STP.
D. Same as STP, the ports will enter into Listening state once the RSTP has been enabled. Then, the
ports can receive BPDU and calculate the spanning tree.
210-250 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
In a switching network that runs RSTP, the topology change notification message will not be sent when the
switch detects that the Alternate Port is failed.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
When the topology of a network running RSTP changes, what happens after the change?
A. Flooding on the entire network.
B. The aging time of MAC address entries is changed.
C. Some MAC address entries are deleted.
D. All of the above
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which ports defined by RSTP cannot work in Forwarding state? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Root Port
B. Designated Port
C. Backup Port
D. Alternate Port
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 21
On an RSTP network, when an edge port is in protected state, what operation is performed after the edge
port receives BPDUs?
A. The edge port forwards BPDUs.
B. The edge port discards BPDUs.
C. The edge port is shut down.
D. The edge port obtains required information from BPDUs.
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
In RSTP, the port status can be discarding and learning. Which statements about the port status are true?
(Select 2 Answers)
A. The port in discarding or learning state does not forward data frames.
B. The port in discarding state does not learn MAC addresses.
C. The port in learning state does not learn MAC addresses.
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 23
On the RSTP network as shown in the figure, what is the port role of SWC E0/1 according to the
configuration? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Designated port
B. Root port
C. Alternate port

D. Edge port
210-250 vce Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 24
As shown in the figure, when the link between SWC and LAND is faulty, through which path are TCA
BPDUs sent?
A. From SWA to SWB
B. From SWB to SWC
C. From SWB to SWA
D. From SWC to SWB
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
As shown in the figure, when the STP network runs properly, which device does the designated port of
LANC reside?
A. SWA
B. SWB
C. SWC
D. None of the above
210-250 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
In STP configuration, which statement about BPDUs is true?
A. BPDUs cannot be sent from the designated port.
B. BPDUs can be sent only from the designated port.
C. BPDUs can be sent from any port.
D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
On an STP network, after the network topology changes, which BPDUs are sent during flooding of
topology change information on the entire network?
A. BPDUs with the TCN flag
B. BPDUs with the TCA flag
C. BPDUs with the TC flag
D. All of the above
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
After an STP switch starts, it considers itself as the root switch. Which statements about BDPU parameter
setting are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The switch is the designated root.
B. The designated cost is 0.

C. The switch is the designated bridge.
D. The designated port is 0.
Correct Answer: ABC

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Exam Code: 70-357
Exam Name: Developing Mobile Apps
Updated: Aug 08, 2017
Q&As: 66

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QUESTION 1. Which of the following device communication methods is used by MIB Tools?
A. SNMPv1
B. SNMPv3 Credential
C. SNMPv3 Profile
D. Max Access/Super User
E. All of the above
F.A and C only
70-357 exam Answer: E
QUESTION 2. Which of the following definition(s) best describes the difference between managers and agents in
SNMPv1 and SNMPv3?
A. In SNMPv1, the manager and agent were distinctly different but performed overlapping functions.
Managers resided on workstations; agents on remote devices.
B. In SNMPv3, a distributed interacting collection of SNMP entities can reside on both management
workstations and remote devices. Because each entity implements a portion of SNMP capability, an entity
can act as an agent, a manager, or a combination of the two.
C. In SNMPv1, the manager and agent were distinctly different and performed discrete functions: the
manager ran applications; the agent provided functionality. Managers resided on workstations; agents on
remote devices.
D.Aand B
E.B and C
F.All of the above
Answer: E
QUESTION 3. A MIB not supported on all devices should be assigned to which SNMP Request Group, when defining
a FlexView?
A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4

E. All of the above F. B or C only
70-357 dumps Answer: F
QUESTION 4. What are the three predefined groups in Inventory Manager Network Elements?
A. Chassis, Device Type and IP
B. Chassis, Matrix and X-Pedition
C. Matrix, SmartSwitch and X-Pedition
D. Matrix, X-Pedition and IP
Answer:A
QUESTION 5. How can network masks be displayed in CIDR notation in Router Services Manager?
A. By selecting CIDR in the Network Mask option of Tools > Options
B. By selecting CIDR in the device properties window
C. By selecting Dot Delimited in the Display option of Tools > Options
D. It is not possible to have network masks displayed in CIDR notation
70-357 pdf Answer:A
QUESTION 6. The MIB Tools Utility allows you to do all of the following, EXCEPT
A. View object definitions
B. Set object values
C. Change IP addresses on devices
D. Search for objects
E. Browse the MIB database
Answer: C
QUESTION 7. Which of the following statements are true about FlexViews?
A. You can use the FlexView editor to define as many FlexViews as you want.
B. You can create custom tabs to display desired MIB information.
C. The FlexView Wizard is not available with Atlas Lite.
D. All of the ab
ove

E. A and C only
70-357 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 8. What is the name of the file that defines the absolute path to your NetSight Plug-In applications?
A. PlugIn.details
B. common
C. NetSight.properties
D. Atlas.config
Answer: C
QUESTION 9. The relationship among remote devices in each map is automatically generated by Console when you
click the Retrieve button.
A. True
B. False
70-357 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 10. What are the three tabs in the left panel of Inventory Manager?
A. Devices, Traps, Archives
B. Network Elements, Firmware Management, Configuration Management
C. Details View, Archives, Chassis
D. Properties, VLAN, Compass
Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following password cracking techniques is used when the attacker has some information
about the password?
A. Hybrid Attack
B. Dictionary Attack
C. Syllable Attack
D. Rule-based Attack
70-357 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is an application alert returned by a web application that helps an attacker guess a
valid username?
A. Invalid username or password
B. Account username was not found
C. Incorrect password
D. Username or password incorrect
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
A pen tester has extracted a database name by using a blind SQL injection. Now he begins to test the
table inside the database using the below query and finds the table:
http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (LEN(SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=’U’)=3)
WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′–
http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects
where xtype=char(85)),1,1)))=101) WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′– http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF
(ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=char(85)),2,1)))=109)
WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′– http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT
TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=char(85)),3,1)))=112) WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′–
What is the table name?
A. CTS
B. QRT
C. EMP
D. ABC
70-357  pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
When you are running a vulnerability scan on a network and the IDS cuts off your connection, what type of
IDS is being used?
A. Passive IDS
B. Active IDS
C. Progressive IDS
D. NIPS
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
HTTP protocol specifies that arbitrary binary characters can be passed within the URL by using %xx
notation, where ‘xx’ is the

A. ASCII value of the character
B. Binary value of the character
C. Decimal value of the character
D. Hex value of the character
70-357  vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which of the following appendices gives detailed lists of all the technical terms used in the report?
A. Required Work Efforts
B. References
C. Research
D. Glossary
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
An external intrusion test and analysis identify security weaknesses and strengths of the client’s systems
and networks as they appear from outside the client’s security perimeter, usually from the Internet. The
goal of an external intrusion test and analysis is to demonstrate the existence of known vulnerabilities that
could be exploited by an external attacker.
During external penetration testing, which of the following scanning techniques allow you to determine a
port’s state without making a full connection to the host?
A. XMAS Scan
B. SYN scan
C. FIN Scan
D. NULL Scan
70-357  exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Passwords protect computer resources and files from unauthorized access by malicious users. Using
passwords is the most capable and effective way to protect information and to increase the security level
of a company.

Password cracking is the process of recovering passwords from data that have been stored in or
transmitted by a computer system to gain unauthorized access to a system.

Which of the following password cracking attacks tries every combination of characters until the password
is broken?
A. Brute-force attack
B. Rule-based attack
C. Hybrid attack
D. Dictionary attack
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Rules of Engagement (ROE) document provides certain rights and restriction to the test team for
performing the test and helps testers to overcome legal, federal, and policy-related restrictions to use
different penetration testing tools and techniques.

What is the last step in preparing a Rules of Engagement (ROE) document?
A. Conduct a brainstorming session with top management and technical teams

B. Decide the desired depth for penetration testing
C. Conduct a brainstorming session with top management and technical teams
D. Have pre-contract discussions with different pen-testers
70-357  dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Which of the following is a framework of open standards developed by the Internet Engineering Task
Force (IETF) that provides secure transmission of the sensitive data over an unprotected medium, such as
the Internet?
A. DNSSEC
B. Netsec
C. IKE
D. IPsec
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
Mason is footprinting an organization to gather competitive intelligence. He visits the company’s website
for contact information and telephone numbers but does not find any. He knows the entire staff directory
was listed on their website 12 months. How can he find the directory?
A. Visit Google’s search engine and view the cached copy
B. Crawl and download the entire website using the Surfoffline tool and save them to his computer
C. Visit the company’s partners’ and customers’ website for this information
D. Use WayBackMachine in Archive.org web site to retrieve the Internet archive
70-357  pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Application security assessment is one of the activity that a pen tester performs in the attack phase. It is
designed to identify and assess threats to the organization through bespoke, proprietary applications or
systems. It checks the application so that a malicious user cannot access, modify, or destroy data or
services within the system.

Identify the type of application security assessment which analyzes the application-based code to confirm
that it does not contain any sensitive information that an attacker might use to exploit an application.
A. Web Penetration Testing
B. Functionality Testing

C. Authorization Testing
D. Source Code Review
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a firewall?
A. Manages public access to private networked resources
B. Routes packets between the networks
C. Examines all traffic routed between the two networks to see if it meets certain criteria
D. Filters only inbound traffic but not outbound traffic
70-357 vce Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Updated: Aug 02, 2017
Q&As: 275

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QUESTION NO: 16
A text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 12 is set to auto-enter the following formula:
FirstName & ” ” & LastNarne
FirstName and LastNarne are text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all
referenced fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any
is checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field
(Choose two.)
A. a record is first created
B. each time the value of the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified
C. a user selects the menu item Records > Relookup Field Contents
D. any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
210-260 exam Answer: A,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
Consider a FileMaker Pro 12 database with the following tables:
210-260 dumps

And the relationship is configured as follows:
210-260 dumps

Which two statements are true about this situation? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible to create new Salesperson records by importing data into the Order table.
B. Users may create new Order records by entering data into a portal on a Salesperson Detail
layout.
C. A merge field can be used on layouts based on the Salesperson table occurrence to show a list
of all of a salesperson’s orders.
D. Removing the sort from the Order side of the relationship will not change the way that Order
records are displayed in a portal on a Salesperson Detail layout.
E. List (Salesperson:: Salesperson ID) calculated from the context of the Order table returns a list
containing the Salesperson ID for the current order.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event id has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records … nor the
Delete related records … settings to be enabled for the Event table.
210-260 dumps Answer:: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an
External ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation
B. These fields may be indexed unless they are of type Summary.
C. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL when the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
D. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button
in the FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
A FileMaker Pro 12 database has two tables called Company and Customer. Both tables have a
number field called CompanyID. The two tables have a relationship between them formed by the
condition Company:: CompanyID = Customer:: CompanyID. Each table also has a text field called
CompanyName. The CompanyName field in the Customer table is defined to Auto-enter
calculated value, with the formula: Company:: CompanyName and the option Do not replace
existing value of field unchecked.
Under which circumstances will the value of the CompanyName field on a Customer record be
refreshed with data from the related Company record?
A. any time the Customer record is modified
B. any time the index of the Company:: CompanyID field is rebuilt
C. any time the related Company:: CompanyName field is modified
D. any time the CompanyID field on the Customer record is modified
E. any time a user chooses Refresh Window from the Records menu while viewing the Customer
record
210-260 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
Which statement is true about container fields in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. If one container field in a given database file is set to Store container data externally, all
container fields in that file must store their data externally
B. If a file larger than a database’s Maximum container file size value is inserted into a container
field. FileMaker Pro 12 will automatically compress the inserted file.
C. If a container field is set to Store container data externally, then the Store only a reference to
the file option is automatically selected for any file inserted into that field.
D. If the setting Generate and store thumbnails for images is chosen in the Manage Containers
dialog for a given database file, all container fields in that file will have thumbnails generated.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
Which two are directly selectable options in the Validation tab of the field options dialog in
FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two.)
A. Existing value
B. Strict data type: Integer
C. Strict data type: Time of Day
D. Strict datatype: Alphanumeric
E. Minimum number of characters
210-260 vce Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
Which two statements are true about fields using global storage in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose
two.)
A. Globally stored fields are always empty at the start of a user’s session.
B. Fields using global storage can be used as match fields in a relationship.
C. A container field using global storage may not be configured to store its data externally.
D. Globally stored fields can only be accessed from within the file in which they are defined.
E. Changes to data in globally stored fields in a shared file are stored when the server cache is
flushed.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
What is possible when working with shadow fields from an External ODBC Data Source?
A. creating a two-column value list
B. saving formatted text (bold, italic, etc.)
C. checking the Auto-complete using previously entered values checkbox in the Field/Control
Setup dialog
D. inserting binary data such as a PDF file, provided the field options are set to Store container
data externally
210-260 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
Which three field options may be set for a shadow field from an External ODBC Data Source?
(Choose three.)
A. Validation: not empty
B. Validation: unique value
C. Validation: existing value
D. Auto-enter creation timestamp
E. Auto-enter serial number, on creation
F. Storage: automatically create indexes as needed
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 26
A table in a FileMaker Pro 12 database has a text field CompanyName. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
– Validate data in this field only during data entry
– Allow user to override during data entry
– Require not empty
– Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName
field. What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides
the error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see the specified
custom message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog
from the FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors,
along with a count of those records.
210-260 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
Given a text field Full Name, Auto-Enter by Calculated value has been selected in the field
options, using the following formula:
Name First &.” “& Name Last
The developer then disables (unchecks) the option Do not replace existing value of field (if any).
For which two cases will the results of the specified formula be inserted into the field Full Name?
(Choose two.)
A. When the record is first created
B. When the field Full Name itself is modified
C. Only when the field Full Name was previously empty
D. When either of the fields Name First or Name Last is modified
E. When the field Full Name itself is modified and the record is committed
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28
A new database is created with two tables, Client and Contracts. The only modification made on
the Relationships Graph is to establish a relationship between them which is set to delete related
records in Contracts when a record in Client is deleted.

What happens when the Client table occurrence is deleted from the Relationships Graph?
A. Since it is the only occurrence of the Client table on the graph, it can not be deleted.
B. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records are deleted.
C. The formula in the calculation field Name Full (defined as Name First & ” ” & Name Last) will be
broken.
D. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records will have values
in the client id field deleted.
210-260 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
Consider two FileMaker files, Collection and Item, where tables from Item are included in the
Relationships Graph of Collection.
Which method will preserve all functionality in the Relationships Graph of Collection after
renaming the Item file to Artifact?

A. Choose File > Manage > External Data Sources… for Collection and reset the file path
B. Click the Repair Reference button in the Relationships Graph for Collection and reset the file
path
C. Delete referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and
recreate them for Artifact
D. Select referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and right
click to choose Rename File Source…
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30
Which two FileMaker Pro 12 objects will display data contents even when unrelated to the current
layout’s table occurrence? (Choose two.)
A. Merge variable
B. Indexed tirnestarnp field
C. A text field from a shadow table
D. Globally stored number field placed in a portal
E. A container field defined with the Store as reference only option enabled
Answer: A,D
210-260 vce Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what is known about this database?
A. The Event table occurrence references a table from an external ODBC Data Source
B. There can be zero or one, but no more than one, Event record related to any Task record.
C. The corner arrows indicate all three table occurrences reference tables from external data
sources.
D. From a layout based on the Event table occurrence, a portal could be drawn showing both
related Task and Volunteer data.
210-260 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Updated: Jul 17, 2017
Q&As: 402

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 300-101 Dumps  Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION NO: 32
Which GSC describes the degree to which the application communicates directly with the
processor?
A. Data communications
B. Distributed data processing
C. Transaction rate
D. Online update
300-101 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 33
Which of the following statements is a characteristic of the GSC – complex processing?
A. Development of the application is influenced by how the development was carried out
B. Development of the application is influenced by the complexity of data communication
C. Development of the application is influenced by the complexity of the processing logic
D. None of the above
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 34
Which transactional function(s) has (have) the primary intent of presenting information to the user
and must reference a data function to retrieve data or control information?
A. EI
B. EO
C. EQ
D. Both B and C
300-101 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 35
The primary intent of an EQ is to:
A. alter the behavior of the application
B. maintain one or more ILFs
C. present information to a user
D. Both A and C
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 36
An External Inquiry is defined as an elementary process that:
A. Sends data outside the boundary
B. Sends Control Information outside the boundary
C. Has a primary intent to present information to a user through retrieval of data or control
information
D. All of the above
300-101 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 37
Which statement(s) is (are) true regarding mandatory processing logic for an EQ?
A. Data or control information is maintained
B. Conditions are analyzed to determine which are applicable
C. At least one ILF or EIF is referenced
D. Data or control information entering the boundary of the application is accepted
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 38
Which processing logic can be performed by an EQ?
A. Equivalent values are converted
B. Behavior of the application is altered
C. Derived data is created
D. Both A and B
300-101 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 39
The functional complexity of an EQ is based upon the number of:
A. RETs
B. FTRs
C. DETs
D. Both B and C
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 40
Which of the following forms of processing logic is mandatory that an EO perform at least one
(m*)?
A. Behavior of the application is altered
B. Equivalent values are converted
C. At least one ILF or EIF is referenced
D. Information is prepared and then presented outside the boundary
300-101 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 41
Which of the following statements is true regarding EOs?
A. An EO is an elementary process that sends data or control information outside the boundary.
B. An EO includes additional processing logic beyond that of an EQ.
C. An EO always maintains a data function.
D. Both A and B
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Processing logic is defined as any of the requirements specifically requested by the user to
complete an elementary process. Those requirements include which of the following actions?
A. Validations
B. Algorithms or calculations
C. Reading or maintaining a data function
D. All of the above
300-101 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 43
An External Output is defined as an elementary process that:
A. Includes addition processing beyond an external inquiry
B. Sends data outside the boundary
C. Has a primary intent to present information to a user though processing logic or in addition to
retrieval of data or control information.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 44
Which of the following statements about an External Output are true?
A. Processing logic must contain multiple mathematical formulas
B. Processing logic must perform at least one mathematical formula
C. Processing logic creates derived data
D. Processing logic contains derived data
300-101 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 45
An FTR is be defined as a:
A. data function maintained by a base functional component
B. data function read and/or maintained by a transactional function
C. base functional component maintained by a transactional function
D. base functional component read and/or maintained by a transactional function
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 46

What is the primary intent of an ILF?
A. Hold data maintained through system tools for use by the application being measured
B. Hold code data for use by the application being measured
C. Hold data maintained through one or more elementary processes of the application being
measured
D. Both A and C
300-101 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 47
Data Element Type is defined as?
A. Functionality provided to the user to meet internal or external data storage requirements
B. An attribute that further describes one or more attributes of another entity
C. Two types of the base functional components identified in the IFPUG International Standard
D. Unique, user recognizable, non-repeated attribute
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 200-105
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Updated: Jul 16, 2017
Q&As: 204

Study Material  for Cisco 200-105 Dumps ICND2 Outline

  1. Cisco Device Management
  2. Troubleshooting Networks
  3. Network Addressing
  4. VLANs and Trunking
  5. Spanning Tree Protocol
  6. Advanced Switch Redundancy
  7. Access Layer Security
  8. Routing Fundamentals
  9. EIGRP Configuration
  10. OSPF Configuration
  11. PPP WANs
  12. eBGP Configuration
  13. Secure VPNs and Tunneling
  14. Intelligent Networks
  15. Quality of Service

200-105

Free Pass4itsure Cisco 200-105 Dumps  Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 7
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a
server with the address of 192.168.13.26. Which commands can the administrator issue to verify that the
access list is working properly? (Choose three.)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
200-105 exam Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

200-105

Correct Answer:

200-105

QUESTION 9
Lab – Access List Simulation
A network associate is adding security to the configuration of the Corp1 router. The user on host C should
be able to use a web browser to access financial information from the Finance Web Server. No other hosts
from the LAN nor the Core should be able to use a web browser to access this server. Since there are

multiple resources for the corporation at this location including other resources on the Finance Web
Server, all other traffic should be allowed.
The task is to create and apply a numbered access-list with no more than three statements that will allow
ONLY host C web access to the Finance Web Server. No other hosts will have web access to the Finance
Web Server. All other traffic is permitted.
Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host.
All passwords have been temporarily set to “cisco”.
The Core connection uses an IP address of 198.18.196.65
The computers in the Hosts LAN have been assigned addresses of 192.168.33.1 – 92.168.33.254
Host A 192.168.33.1
Host B 192.168.33.2
Host C 192.168.33.3
Host D 192.168.33.4
The servers in the Server LAN have been assigned addresses of 172.22.242.17 – 172.22.242.30
The Finance Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172.22.242.23.
The Public Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172.22.242.17

200-105

200-105 dumps Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation
QUESTION 10
A sporting goods manufacturer has decided to network three (3) locations to improve efficiency in inventory
control. The routers have been named to reflect the location: Boston, Frankfurt, and Lancaster.
The necessary networking has been completed at each location, and the routers have been configured
with single area OSPF as the routing protocol. The Boston router was recently installed but connectivity is
not complete because of incomplete routing tables.
Identify and correct any problem you see in the configuration.
Note: The OSPF process must be configured to allow interfaces in specific subnets to participate in the
routing process.

200-105

Correct Answer: The question mentioned Boston router was not configured correctly or incomplete so we
should check this router first. Click on Host B to access the command line interface (CLI) of Boston router.
QUESTION 11
200-105

200-105

200-105

200-105

200-105

200-105

200-105

Why did Branch1 router lose WAN connectivity with R1 router?
A. The IP address is misconfigured on PPP multilink interface on the Branch1 router.
B. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the anch1 serial interfaces.
C. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the R1 serial interfaces.
D. The Branch1 serial interfaces are placed in a shutdown condition.
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a
device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
200-105 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
C. Only RADIUS uses TCP.
D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which IEEE standard does PVST+ use to tunnel information?
A. 802.1x
B. 802 1q
C. 802.1w
D. 802.1s
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client?
A. Ethernet
B. dialer
C. serial
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
200-105 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105

Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105

At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105

A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the
AcmeB router. What action does the router take?

A. forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface
B. forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface
C. forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface
D. forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
A. a backup route, stored in the routing table
B. a primary route, stored in the routing table
C. a backup route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the topology table
200-105 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE

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Exam Code: 70-767
Exam Name: Implementing a SQL Data Warehouse (beta)
Updated: Jul 16, 2017
Q&As: 112

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Free Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-676 PDF Exam Questions and Answers:

Question: 69
This Security Standard addresses the proper functions to be performed on a specific workstation as
well as the physical attributes of its surroundings,
A. information Access Management
B. Workstation Security
C. Access Control
D. Facility Access Controls
E. Workstation Use
70-767 pdf Answer: E

Question: 70
In addition to code sets, HIPAA transactions also contain:
A. Security information such as a fingerprint.
B. Privacy information.
C. Information on all business associates,
D. Information on all health care clearinghouses.
E. Identifiers.
Answer: E

Question: 71
Select the correct statement regarding the administrative requirements of The HIPAA privacy rule.
A. A covered entity must designate, and document, a privacy official, security officer and a HIPAA
compliance officer
B. A covered entity must designate, and document, the same person to be both privacy official and
as the contact person responsible for receiving complaints and providing further information about
the notice required by the regulations.
C. A covered entity must implement and maintain written or electronic policies and procedures with
respect to PHI that are designed to comply with HIPAA standards, implementation specifications and
other requirements.
D. A covered entity must train, and document the training of. at least one member of its workforce
on the policies and procedures with regard to PHI as necessary and appropriate for them to carry
out their function within the covered entity no later than the privacy rule compliance date.
E. A covered entity must retain the document required by the regulations for a period often years
from the time of it’s creation or the time it was last in effect, which ever is later
70-767 vce Answer: C

Question: 72
To comply with the Privacy Rule, a valid Notice of Privacy Practices:
A. Is required for all Chain of Trust Agreements.
B. Must allow for the patient’s written acknowledgement of receipt.
C. Must always be signed by the patient.
D. Must be signed in order for the patient’s name to be sold to a mailing list organization.
E. Is not required if an authorization is being developed.
Answer: B

Question: 73
Security to protect information assets is generally defined as having:
A. Controls
B. PRI
C. Biometrics
D. VPN technology
E. Host-based intrusion detection
70-767 dumps Answer: A

Question: 74
One characteristic of the Notice of Privacy Practices is:
A. It must be written in plain, simple language.
B. It must explicitly describe all uses of PHI.
C. A description about the usage of hidden security cameras for tracking patient movements for
implementing privacy.
D. A description of the duties of the individual.
E. A statement that the individual must abide by the terms of the Notice.
Answer: A

Question: 75
Select the FALSE statement regarding the transaction rule.
A. The Secretary is required by statue to impose penalties of at least $100 per violation on any
person or entity that fails to comply with a standard except that the total amount imposed on any
one person in each calendar year may not exceed $1 .000.000 for violations of one requirement.
B. Health plans are required to accept all standard transactions.
C. Health plans may not require providers to make changes or additions to standard transactions.
D. Health plans may not refuse or delay payment of standard transactions.
E. If additional information is added to a standard transaction it must not modify the definition,
condition, intent, or use of a data element.
70-767 exam Answer: A

Question: 76
Which of the following is primarily concerned with implementing security measures that are
sufficient to reduce risks and vulnerabilities to a reasonable and appropriate level.
A. Access Establishment and Modification
B. Isolating Health care clearinghouse Functions
C. Information System Activity Review
D. Risk Management
E. Risk Analysis
Answer: D

Question: 77
The applicable methods for HIPAA-related EDI transactions are:
A. Remote and enterprise.
B. Claim status and remittance advice.
C. Subscriber and payer.
D. Batch and real-time.
E. HCFA-1500 and 837.

Answer: D

Question: 78
A valid Notice of Privacy Practices must
A. Detail specifically all activities that are considered a use or disclosure
B. Describe in plain language what is meant by treatment, payment, and health care operations
(TPO).
C. Inform the individual that protected health information (PHI) may only be used for valid medical
research.
D. Inform the individual that this version of the Notice will always cover them, regardless of
subsequent changes.
E. State the expiration date of the Notice.
70-767 pdf Answer: B

Question: 79
The office manager of a small doctors office wants to donate several of their older workstations to
the local elementary school. Which Security Rule Standard addresses this situation?
A. Security Management Process
B. Device and Media Controls
C. information Access Management
D. Facility Access Controls
E. Workstation Security
Answer: B

Question: 80
Information in this transaction is generated by the payer’s adjudication system:
A. Eligibility (2701271)
B. Premium Payment 2O)
C. Unsolicited Claim Status (277)
D. Remittance Advice 35)
E. Functional Acknowledgment (997)
Answer: D

Question: 81
The key objective of a contingency plan is that the entity must establish and implement policies and
procedures to ensure The:
A. Creation and modification of health information during and after an emergency.
B. Integrity of health information during and after an emergency.
C. Accountability of health information during and after an emergency.
D. Vulnerability of health information during and after an emergency.
E. Non-repudiation of the entity.
70-767 vce Answer: B

Question: 82
A covered entity’ that fails to implement the HIPAA Privacy Rule would risk:
A. $50O0 in fines.
B. $5000 in fines and six months in prison.
C. An annual cap of $5000 in fines.
D. A fine of up to $50000 if they wrongfully disclose PHI.
E. Six months in prison.
Answer: D

Question: 83
This transaction supports multiple functions. These functions include: telling a bank to move money
OR telling a bank to move money while sending remittance information
A. 277.
B. 276
C. 271
D. 820.
E. 270.
70-767 dumps Answer: D

Question: 84
When PHI is sent or received over an electronic network there must be measures to guard against
unauthorized access. This is covered under which security rule standard?
A. Device and Media Controls
B. Access Controls
C. Transmission Security
D. Integrity
E. Audit Controls
Answer: C

Question: 85
Title 1 of the HIPAA legislation in the United States is about:
A. P1<1 requirements for hospitals and health care providers.
B. Encryption algorithms that must be supported by hospitals and health care providers.
C. Fraud and abuse in the health care system and ways to eliminate the same.
D. Guaranteed health insurance coverage to workers and their families when they change
employers.
E. The use of strong authentication technology that must be supported by hospitals and health care
providers.
Answer: D

Question: 86
Implementing policies and procedures to prevent, detect, contain, and correct security violations is
required by which security standard?
A. Security incident Procedures
B. Assigned Security Responsibility
C. Access control
D. Facility Access Controls
E. Security Management Process
Answer: E

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MCDBAVendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCDBA
Exam Name: UPGRADE:MCDBA Skills to MCITP DB Admin by Using MS SQL 2005
Exam Code: 070-447
Total Questions: 137 Q&As
Last Updated: May 05, 2017

Exam Information:
QUESTION 1
When using a proxy server to manage how BlackBerry Smartphone connect to web pages, what are the types available for creating a proxy profile?
A. SQUID, Microsoft ISA
B. Manual configuration, PAC configuration
C. Filtering, Caching, DNS
D. Transparent Proxy, Onion Router

Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Where can ‘new email notifications be configured?
A. Settings -> Notifications -> Messages
B. Options -> Notifications -> Messages
C. BlackBerry Hub -> Notifications -> Messages
D. BlackBerry Hub -> Advanced -> Notifications -> Messages

Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
A user trying to activate their device over USB logs onto Web Desktop with a version of Internet Explorer notices this error Complete the setup process. The necessary controls have not been installed. The ActiveX control is installed on the user s computer. The user should retry the connection with
A. Internet Explorer 8.0 or later browser.
B. Internet Explorer 7.0 or later browser.
C. Firefox 3.5 or later browser.
D. Internet Explorer 9.0 or earlier browser.

Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
The BDS administrator can create an SCEP profile for a simplified means of:
A. deploying certificates for large-scale implementation to everyday users.
B. generating certificates for large-scale deployment.
C. auditing which accounts have certificates in large-scale implementation for everyday users.
D. creating device shortcut icons that the device owner can use to request certificates.

Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
What are the different methods for assigning an activation password for a BlackBerry device?
A. Login to BlackBerry Administration Console, search the user, and select option Specify an Activation password from the user properties
B. Login to BlackBerry Administration Console, search the user, and select option Generate an Activation Email from the user properties
C. Login to BlackBerry Administration Console, search the user, and select option Assign EA password from the user properties
D. Instruct the user to login to BlackBerry Web Desktop and assign their Activation password

Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: JN0-643
Exam Name: Enterprise Routing and Switching, Professional (JNCIP-ENT)
Updated: Apr 20, 2017
Q&As: 221
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QUESTION 10
— Exhibit
jn0-643 dumps

— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which LSA type will Router R2 inject into Area 1?
A. Type 3 LSA
B. Type 4 LSA
C. Type 5 LSA
D. Type 7 LSA
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 11
— Exhibit —
[edit protocols ospf]
[email protected]# show
area 0.0.0.6 {
nssa {
default-lsa default-metric 10;
area-range 184.23.12.0/24;
}
interface ge-1/1/4;
}
[edit protocols ospf]
[email protected]# show ospf database
OSPF database, Area 0.0.0.0
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Router *192.168.0.2 192.168.0.2 0x80000004 749 0x22 0x87c2 60 Router 192.168.0.3 192.168.0.3
0x80000004 399 0x22 0x94b5 60 Summary *10.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 0x80000003 19 0x22 0xe2e4 28
Summary *192.168.0.1 192.168.0.2 0x80000002 1100 0x22 0xbda7 28
OSPF database, Area 0.0.0.6
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Router 192.168.0.1 192.168.0.1 0x80000004 404 0x20 0x76db 60 Router *192.168.0.2 192.168.0.2
0x80000003 1802 0x20 0x319b 48 Summary *11.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 0x80000002 2504 0x20 0xf5d3 28
Summary *192.168.0.2 192.168.0.2 0x80000003 2153 0x20 0xc5a0 28 Summary *192.168.0.3
192.168.0.2 0x80000002 398 0x20 0xc79d 28 NSSA *0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 0x80000001 11 0x20 0xcbf1 36
NSSA 184.23.12.0 192.168.0.1 0x80000002 447 0x28 0xb93f 36 OSPF AS SCOPE link state database
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Extern *184.23.12.0 192.168.0.2 0x80000003 11 0x22 0x28d6 36 — Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. R2 injects a Type 3 LSA for 184.23.12.0/24 into the backbone.
B. R2 is an ABR.
C. R2 injects a Type 5 LSA for 184.23.12.0/24 into the backbone.
D. R2 is an ASBR.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
— Exhibit
jn0-643 dumps

Exhibit
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which type of LSA will be seen on router A for routes originating in Customer A’s
network?
A. Type 7 LSA
B. Type 2 LSA
C. Type 5 LSA
D. Type 1 LSA
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

 

QUESTION 13
Which statement is true regarding OSPF multi-area adjacencies?
A. A type 3 (stub) link is advertised for a multi-area adjacency.
B. Configuring a multi-area adjacency allows the corresponding link to be considered an interarea link, s
it will be less preferred over an intra-area link.
C. One logical interface will be a primary link, and the other configured as a secondary link; the seconda
link will be established as an unnumbered point-to-point interface.
D. A DR and a BDR will be elected over the secondary interface, because it is not point-to-point.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 14
— Exhibit

jn0-643 dumps

— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Traffic destined for R2 will be blackholed.
B. Transit traffic will follow the R1-R2-R4 path.
C. Traffic destined for R2 will reach R2.
D. Transit traffic will follow the R1-R3-R4 path.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference: JN0-643 dumps

 


QUESTION 15
Which statement is true about using an OSPF import policy?
A. Import policies are not allowed in OSPF, applying the policy will do nothing.

B. Applying an import policy to OSPF may block normal LSA flooding.
C. Import policies are allowed only for external route types.
D. Applying this policy will cause a commit failure.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 16
Which statement is true regarding the SPF algorithm?
A. The SPF algorithm is run on a per-domain basis.
B. If you apply an import policy to OSPF, it keeps LSAs from being flooded, and the SPF calculation
be affected.
C. There are two databases used in the calculation, the link-state database and the tree database.
D. The SPF calculation is run on a per-area basis on each router.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 17
You are asked to configure graceful restart in your network.
Which OSPF LSA type would you expect to see in the LSDB?
A. Type 8
B. Type 9
C. Type 10
D. Type 11
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 18
— Exhibit
jn0-643 dumps

— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which answer is correct?
A. R2 is the DR and R1 is the BDR.
B. R4 is the DR and R2 is the BDR.

C. R2 is the DR and R3 is the BDR.
D. R3 is the DR and R2 is the BDR.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 19
— Exhibit —
[email protected]> show ospf database network extensive
OSPF link state database, area 0.0.0.1
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Network 10.222.1.1 192.168.20.1 0x80000002 813 0x2 0x 32 mask 255.255.255.0
attached router 192.168.20.1
attached router 192.168.40.1
Aging timer 00:46:27
Installed 00:13:32 ago, expires in 00:46:27, sent 1w5d 01:07:09 ago
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true regarding the OSPF network LSA?
A. The ID field value shows the router ID of the advertising router.
B. The ID field is the local interface IP address from which the LSA will be advertised.
C. The options field indicates this is a Type 2 LSA.
D. The output shows that 192.168.20.1 is the designated router.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam Code: 1Z0-060
Exam Name: Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c
Total Questions: 150 Q&As
Updated on: Apr 01, 2017

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QUESTION 44
If you insert an EJB control into a page flow, which annotation tag marks the addition?
A. @common:jc
B. @common:ejbgen
C. @common:netuix
D. @common:control
E. @common:context
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
When Workshop generates a Session Bean, it creates a template for which method?
A. ejbFind()
B. None of these
C. ejbCreate()
D. onMessage()
E. setMessageContext()
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 46
Which of the following is NOT a valid project type in Workshop?
A. JMS project
B. Java project
C. Web project
D. Schema project
E. Datasync project

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
In JPD, nodes that are scripted:
A. None of these
B. Contain JSP code
C. Contain custom code
D. Contain EXMAscript code
E. Are generated automatically

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
What is the name of the connection pool that is used to track conversational states?
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D. cgState
E. cqConverse

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
Placeholders can be used in portals and in:
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B. Controls
C. Campaigns
D. None of these
E. Integration projects

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
While developing an application, you notice several sever and application anomalies, including the fact that the Administration Console does not display. Which command would help you determine what the problem is?
A. java weblogic.Admin -url localhost:7001 -username WebLogic -password WebLogic DEBUG
B. java weblogic.Admin -url localhost:7001 -username WebLogic -pasword WebLogic GET-all
C. java weblogic.Admin -url localhost:7001 -username WebLogic -password WebLogic LIST-all
D. java weblogic.Admin -url localhost:7001 -username WebLogic -password WebLogic THREAD_DUMP
E. java weblogic.Admin -url localhost:7001 -username WebLogoc -password WebLogoc COLLECT_DATA

Correct Answer: D
1Z0-060 exam QUESTION 51
The BEA Repository holds what type of portal project data?
A. None of these
B. Portal configuration information
C. Domain configuration information
D. Contectmanagement information
E. WebLogic WorkShop configuration information

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
What is the name of the global page flow source file?
A. app.jpf
B. app.jcx
C. Global.app
D. Application.jpf
E. MasterpageFlow.jpf

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
The deployment descriptor within a WAR file resides in which directory?
A. WEB – INF
B. APP – INF
C. META – INF
D. MANIFEST
E. Resources

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
A Page Flow action begins a JTA transaction and then involves several EJBs in the transaction. One EJB detects a severe during a data-validity check. Can this EJB roll back the transaction?
A. Yes. The EJB can call a rollback
B. Yes. The EJB can call setrollbackonly.
C. Yes. The EJB can throw an application excption, which automatically causes the transaction to roll back.
D. Yes. The EJB can throw a javax.ejb RollbackException, which automatically causes the transaction to roll back.
E. No The EJB must propagate an exception or error message back to the Page Flow action as a signal for it to call a rollback.

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QUESTION 8
Many users, located in different geographic regions, all need access to certain secure web applications and EJB components. The users although dispersed, have common Job descriptions. What is the best way to generically provide access for all of these users?
A. Use declarative security by providing authorization based user roles
B. Programmatically authorize each user who requests a protected resource
C. Use Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) to implement discretionary security
D. Create all user accounts in an LDAP server, and make it the default realm for the domain
E. Define a custom security proxy that stores and propagates each authenticated user’s credential information
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Within a Service-Oriented Architecture, which of the following is NOT specified by a Service Policy?
A. Encryption rules
B. Execution Rules
C. Versioning Rules
D. Authorization rules
E. Authentication rules
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
Which statement best describes the way in which WebLogic Workshop can be used to develop applications following the MVC pattern?
A. Create EJBs and JSPs. Call EJBs from Servlets.
B. WebLogic Workhop doesn’t use the MVC model.
C. Create a Struts Action from and associate it with the appropriate action mapping definition
D. Create a serializable javaBean THAT DEFINES THE STATEFUL FIELDS AND THEIR METHODS AND PASSES THE DATA BETWEEN THE MODEL INVOCATION AND VIEW ELEMENTS
E. Create an action from that defines the stateful fields and their accessor/mutator methods. Scope the form to a PageFlow and pass the state to controls, and call from the view as necessary.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 11
Your application requirements include accessing a legacy mainframe application with native communication protocols. The legacy system must be accessible from J2EE and Net servers. To do this most effectively, you would use a product based on which specification?
A. J2CA
B. JDBC
C. RMI/IIOP
D. Web Services
E. Java to CORBA bridge

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Within a Service -Oriented Architecture, service version are bound to consumer through the;
A. UDDI Server
B. Service Policy
C. Connectivity Layer
D. Services Directory
E. Orchestration Layer

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
When considering distributed transactions and the two phase commit protocol which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. WebLogic SERVER DOES NOT SUPPORT NESTED TRANSACTIONS
B. WebLogic SERVER ALLOWS TRANSACTIONS TO BE terminated only by the client that created the transaction
C. Recovering transactions for a failed WebLogic server instance requires a weblogic cluster configuration
D. A heuristic decision occurs when any XA resource makes a unilateral decision during the completion phase
E. By default, the Transaction Manager will continue to complete the transaction during the second phase for up to 24 hours

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Within the WebLogic Platform environment, which of these events are NOT part the of the Application Lifecycle when re-deploying an application and when the debug flags are set?
A. preStart
B. postStop
C. postStart
D. completed
E. inialization

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
When designing a Service-Oriented Architecture you plan to provide Services Management capabilities. Primarily Services Management includes:
A. The Message Broker
B. Java Control tracking
C. Business Process instances
D. Security implementation Details
E. Service registration and discovery

Correct Answer: E

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  • Languages: English, French, German, Japanese, Russian, Spanish, Portuguese (Brazil), Chinese (Simplified)
  • Audiences: IT professionals
  • Technology: Microsoft SQL Server 2012
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The package reads data from a source system that uses the SQL Server change data capture (CDC)
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You have added a CDC Source component to the data flow to read changed data from the source
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You need to add a data flow transformation to redirect rows for separate processing of insert,
update, and delete
operations.
Which data flow transformation should you use?
A. CDC Splitter
B. Audit
C. Merge Join
D. Merge
Answer: A

Explanation: The CDC splitter splits a single flow of change rows from a CDC source data flow into
different data flows
for Insert, Update and Delete operations

 

NO.2 You are designing an enterprise star schema that will consolidate data from three independent
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Most of the dimensions have the same structure and content. However, the geography dimension is
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B. Yes
Answer: B

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QUESTION 5
The System Image Utility ________.
A. creates and scans an ASR-ready disk image
B. prepares a disk image for NetBoot or Network Install
C. configures an image to act as the default boot volume
D. configures a computer to startup from a network image

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
You are using ASR multicast to restore multiple computers with the same copy of an ASR-ready disk image. What will the result be?
A. The restorations will be performed simultaneously.
B. The restorations will be queued in the order requested.
C. Users will be prompted to specify a data rate to use for their computer.
D. The computers will start up from a network image and run asr automatically.

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Apple Remote Desktop is ________.
A. an update service provided by Mac OS X Server
B. a management tool used to control computers remotely
C. an administrative tool used to install Mac OS X on remote systems
D. the system preference for allowing remote Apple events in Mac OS X

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
In a multiple-user environment, what action must you take to assure that a user’s Classic preferences will be stored separately?
A. No action is necessary. Classic automatically stores preferences in each user’s home folder.
B. Create an alias to the Classic Preferences folder in the Library folder in each user’s home folder.
C. Under the advanced tab in the Classic System Preferences pane, check use Mac OS 9 preferences from your home folder.
D. In the Classic System Folder, create an alias to the Library/Preferences folder of each user’s home folder and name the alias Preferences.name, where name is the username of that user.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 09
You have added packages to a custom Network Install image. To ensure that the packages are delivered to clients that start up from the image, you must ________.
A. rename the primary package or metapackage on the install image to OSInstall.pkg
B. create a metapackage named primary.mpkg that includes all of the added packages
C. edit the file /private/etc/rc.cdrom.packagePath to contain the path to the main package or metapackage
D. modify /private/etc/installconfig.xml on the disk image to point to the main install package or metapackage

Correct Answer: C

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Your company has a main office that contains several servers and several users. The main office contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. The users access a large report file that is created on Server1 each day. The company plans to open a new branch office. The branch office will contain only client computers. You need to implement a solution to reduce the amount of bandwidth used by the client computers in the branch office to download the report each day.What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Install the BranchCache for network files role service on Server1. Configure the client computers to use BranchCache in hosted cache mode.
B. Configure the offline settings of the shared folder that contains the report.
C. Install the BranchCache for network files role service on Server1. Configure the client computers to use Branchcache in distributed mode.
D. Enable the Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS) feature on Server1 and on each client computer in the branch office. Move the report to a web folder.
Answer: C

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QUESTION 31
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference: http://www.pass4cert.net/70-480-dumps-download.html
The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols are needed so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and
frames.
The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populated based on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding
Information Base (FIB) is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.

QUESTION 32
Which option is the most effective action to avoid packet loss due to microbursts?
A. Implement larger buffers.
B. Install a faster CPU.
C. Install a faster network interface.
D. Configure a larger tx-ring size.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can’t avoid or prevent them as such without modifying the sending host’s application/network stack so it smoothes out the bursts. However, you can manage microbursts by tuning the size of receive buffers / rings to absorb occasional microbursts.
QUESTION 33
Which two statements about packet fragmentation on an IPv6 network are true? (Choose two.)
A. The fragment header is 64 bits long.
B. The identification field is 32 bits long.
C. The fragment header is 32 bits long.
D. The identification field is 64 bits long.
E. The MTU must be a minimum of 1280 bytes.
F. The fragment header is 48 bits long.
Correct Answer: AB Explanation   cisco-200-125 ccna pdf

Explanation/Reference:
The fragment header is shown below, being 64 bits total with a 32 bit identification field: Reference: http://www.openwall.com/presentations/IPv6/img24.html

QUESTION 34
You are backing up a server with a 1 Gbps link and a latency of 2 ms. Which two statements about the backup are true? (Choose two.)
A. The bandwidth delay product is 2 Mb.
B. The default TCP send window size is the limiting factor.
C. The default TCP receive window size is the limiting factor.
D. The bandwidth delay product is 500 Mb.
E. The bandwidth delay product is 50 Mb.

Correct Answer: AC Explanation Explanation/Reference:
1 Gbps is the same as 1000 Mbps, and 1000Mb x .0002 = 2 Mbps. With TCP based data transfers, the receive window is always the limiting factor, as the sender is generally able to send traffic at line rate, but then must wait for the acknowledgements to send more data.
QUESTION 35
Which two pieces of information does RTCP use to inform endpoint devices about the RTP flow? (Choose two.)
A. the transmitted octet
B. the lost packet count
C. session control function provisioning information
D. the CNAME for session participants
E. the authentication method
F. MTU size changes in the path of the flow Correct Answer: AB

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
RTCP transports statistics for a media connection and information such as transmitted octet and packet counts, packet loss, packet delay variation, and round-trip delay time. An application may use this information to control quality of service parameters, perhaps by limiting flow, or using a different codec.

QUESTION 36
How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32

Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference:
In order to understand how the load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table), which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.

QUESTION 37
Which three features require Cisco Express Forwarding? (Choose three.)
A. NBAR
B. AutoQoS
C. fragmentation
D. MPLS
E. UplinkFast
F. BackboneFast

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.certadept.com/cisco-200-125-exam-with-our-dumps-pdf-vce-free-try.html

Recognition.
QoS Features That Require CEF These class-based QoS features are supported only on routers that run CEF. Network Based Application Recognition (NBAR) provides intelligent network classification. For more information, refer to Network Based Application

The AutoQoS -VoIP feature simplifies and speeds up the implementation and provisioning of QoS for VoIP traffic. This feature is enabled with the help of the
auto qos voip command. CEF must be enabled at the interface or ATM PVC before the auto qos command can be used. For more information about this feature and its prerequisites, refer to AutoQoS – VoIP.
From MPLS Fundamentals – Luc De Ghein Why Is CEF Needed in MPLS Networks? Concerning MPLS, CEF is special for a certain reason; otherwise, this book would not explicitly cover it. Labeled packets that enter the router are switched according to the label forwarding information base (LFIB) on the router. IP packets that enter the router are switched according to the CEF table on the router. Regardless of whether the packet is switched according to the LFIB or the CEF table, the outgoing packet can be a labeled packet or an IP packet

QUESTION 38
Which two options are interface requirements for turbo flooding? (Choose two.)
A. The interface is Ethernet.
B. The interface is configured for ARPA encapsulation.
C. The interface is PPP.
D. The interface is configured for GRE encapsulation.
E. The interface is configured for 802.1Q encapsulation.

Correct Answer: AB Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ccie-routing-switching.html
In the switch, the majority of packets are forwarded in hardware; most packets do not go through the switch CPU. For those packets that do go to the CPU, you can speed up spanning tree-based UDP flooding by a factor of about four to five times by using turbo-flooding. This feature is supported over Ethernet interfaces configured for ARPA encapsulation.
swiprout.html
QUESTION 39
Which three options are sub-subfields of the IPv4 Option Type subfield? (Choose three.)
A. Option Class
B. GET
C. Copied
D. PUSH
E. Option Number
F. TTL

Correct Answer: ACE Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Each IP option has its own subfield format, generally structured as shown below. For most options, all three subfields are used. Option Type, Option Length and Option Data.

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QUESTION 7
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager at one time. Which option should be used?
A. Bulk Administration Tool
B. Product Upgrade Tool
C. Command Lookup Tool
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E. Cisco Upload Tool

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text Label
B. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user’s phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page?
A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box
B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box
C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box
D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber. Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems?
A. Show Connection Status
B. Report A Problem
C. Advanced Settings
D. About Jabber
E. Reset Jabber
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Use the exhibits below to answer the question.

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