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An administrator wants to simplify remote access without asking users to provide user credentials. Which access control method provides this solution”?
A. SSL VPN
B. B. ZTNA full mode
C. L2TP
D. ZTNA IP/MAC filtering mode
Correct Answer: B
Question 2:
Refer to the exhibits
Which shows the Zero Trust Tag Monitor and the FortiClient GUI status.
Remote-Client is tagged as Remote-Users on the FortiClient EMS Zero Trust Tag Monitor.
What must an administrator do to show the tag on the FortiClient GUI?
A. Update tagging rule logic to enable tag visibility
B. B. Change the FortiClient system settings to enable tag visibility
C. Change the endpoint control setting to enable tag visibility
D. Change the user identity settings to enable tag visibility
Correct Answer: B
Question 3:
Which statement about FortiClient comprehensive endpoint protection is true?
A. It helps to safeguard systems from email spam
B. It helps to safeguard systems from data loss.
C. It helps to safeguard systems from DDoS.
D. lt helps to safeguard systems from advanced security threats, such as malware.
Correct Answer: D
Question 4:
What does FortiClient do as a fabric agent? (Choose two.)
A. Provides IOC verdicts
B. C. Automates Responses
C. Creates dynamic policies
Correct Answer: AC
Question 5:
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the FortiClient log details shown in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. B. The file status is Quarantined
B. The filename is sent to ForuSandbox for further inspection.
C. The file location IS \??\D:\Users\.
Correct Answer: AB
Question 6:
Which two benefits are the benefits of using multi-tenancy mode on FortiClient EMS? (Choose two.)
A. The fabric connector must use an IP address to connect to FortiClient EMS
B. B. It provides granular access and segmentation.
C. Licenses are shared among sites.
D. D. Separate host servers manage each site.
Correct Answer: BD
Question 7:
Which statement about the FortiClient enterprise management server is true?
A. It provides centralized management of FortiGate devices.
B. lt provides centralized management of multiple endpoints running FortiClient software.
C. It provides centralized management of FortiClient Android endpoints only.
D. It provides centralized management of Chromebooks running real-time protection
Correct Answer: B
Question 8:
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the settings shown in the exhibit, which action will FortiClient take when users try to access www.facebook.com?
A. FortiClient will monitor only the user\’s web access to the Facebook website
B. FortiClient will block access to Facebook and its subdomains.
C. FortiClient will prompt a warning message to warn the user before they can access the Facebook website
Correct Answer: A
Question 9:
Refer to the exhibit.
Which shows the output of the ZTNA traffic log on FortiGate. What can you conclude from the log message?
A. The remote user connection does not match the explicit proxy policy.
B. The remote user connection does not match the ZTNA server configuration.
C. C. The remote user connection does not match the ZTNA rule configuration.
D. The remote user connection does not match the ZTNA firewall policy
Correct Answer: C
Question 10:
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the Security Fabric automation settings, what action will be taken on compromised endpoints?
A. Endpoints will be quarantined through EMS
B. Endpoints will be banned on FortiGate
C. An email notification will be sent for compromised endpoints
D. Endpoints will be quarantined through FortiSwitch
Correct Answer: A
Question 11:
Which security fabric component sends a notification to quarantine an endpoint after IOC detection in the automation process?
A. FortiAnalyzer
B. FortiClient
C. ForbClient EMS
D. D. Forti Gate
Correct Answer: D
Question 12:
Which two statements are true about the ZTNA rule? (Choose two. )
A. It redirects the client request to the access proxy
B. It defines the access proxy
C. It applies security profiles to protect traffic
Correct Answer: A
Question 13:
Why does FortiGate need the root CA certificate of FortiClient EMS?
A. To sign FortiClient CSR requests
B. To revoke FortiClient client certificates
C. C. To trust certificates issued by FortiClient EMS
D. To update FortiClient client certificates
Correct Answer: C
Question 14:
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the CLI output from FortiGate. which statement is true?
A. FortiGate is configured to pull user groups from FortiClient EMS
B. FortiGate is configured with a local user group
C. FortiGate is configured to pull user groups from FortiAuthenticator
D. FortiGate is configured to pull user groups from the AD Server.
Correct Answer: A
Question 15:
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the logs shown in the exhibit, why did FortiClient EMS fail to install FortiClient on the endpoint?
A. The remote registry service is not running B. The Windows installer service is not running
C. C. The task scheduler service is not running.
D. The FortiClient antivirus service is not running
Correct Answer: C
…
Summary:
Fortinet NSE5_FCT-7.0 Candidates are expected to apply knowledge and skills in the following areas and tasks:
1. Set up FortiClient EMS
Install and perform the initial configuration of FortiClient EMS
l Configure Chromebooks and FortiClient endpoints
l Configure FortiClient EMS features
2. Provision and deploy FortiClient devices
Deploy FortiClient on Windows, macOS, iOS, and Android endpoints
l Configure endpoint profiles to provision FortiClient devices
3. Security Fabric integration
Configure security fabric integration with FortiClient EMS
l Configure automatic quarantine of compromised endpoints
l Deploy the full ZTNA solution
l Apply IP/MAC ZTNA filtering to check the security posture of endpoints
4. Diagnostics
Analyze diagnostic information to troubleshoot FortiClient EMS and FortiClient issues
l Resolve common FortiClient deployment and implementation issues
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Cloud architects with the AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate qualification are in high demand, with good reason—the AWS exam sets the bar high. What’s the best way to prepare for it? View full>>
Share part of the topic exam questions from Pass4itsure Amazon SAA-C03 dumps
A company needs to store its accounting records in Amazon S3. The records must be immediately accessible for 1 year and then must be archived for an additional 9 years.
No one at the company, including administrative users and root users, can be able to delete the records during the entire 10-year period. The records must be stored with maximum resiliency.
Which solution will meet these requirements?
A. Store the records in S3 Glacier for the entire 10-year period. Use an access control policy to deny deletion of the records for a period of 10 years.
B. Store the records by using S3 Intelligent Tiering. Use an IAM policy to deny deletion of the records. After 10 years, change the IAM policy to allow deletion.
C. Use an S3 Lifecycle policy to transition the records from S3 Standard to S3 Glacier Deep Archive after 1 year. Use S3 Object Lock in compliance mode for a period of 10 years.
D. Use an S3 Lifecycle policy to transition the records from S3 Standard to S3 One Zone-Infrequent Access (S3 One Zone-IA) after 1 year. Use S3 Object Lock in governance mode for a period of 10 years.
Correct Answer: C
TOPIC QUESTION 2:
A company is preparing to deploy a new serverless workload. A solutions architect must use the principle of least privilege to configure permissions that will be used to run an AWS Lambda function. An Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule will invoke the function.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. Add an execution role to the function with lambda: InvokeFunction as the action and * as the principal.
B. Add an execution role to the function with lambda: InvokeFunction as the action and Service:amazonaws.com as the principal.
C. Add a resource-based policy to the function with lambda:\’* as the action and Service:events.amazonaws.com as the principal.
D. Add a resource-based policy to the function with lambda: InvokeFunction as the action and Service:events.amazonaws.com as the principal.
A company wants to run applications in containers in the AWS Cloud. These applications are stateless and can tolerate disruptions within the underlying infrastructure. The company needs a solution that minimizes cost and operational overhead.
What should a solutions architect do to meet these requirements?
A. Use Spot Instances in an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group to run the application containers.
B. Use Spot Instances in an Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS) managed node group.
C. Use On-Demand Instances in an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group to run the application containers.
D. Use On-Demand Instances in an Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS) managed node group.
A company hosts three applications on Amazon EC2 instances in a single Availability Zone. The web application uses a self-managed MySQL database that is hosted on EC2 instances to store data in an Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume.
The MySQL database currently uses a 1 TB Provisioned IOPS SSD (io2) EBS volume. The company expects traffic of 1,000 IOPS for both reads and writes at peak traffic.
The company wants to minimize any disruptions, stabilize performance, and reduce costs while retaining the capacity for double the IOPS. The company wants to move the database tier to a fully managed solution that is highly available and fault tolerant.
Which solution will meet these requirements MOST cost-effectively?
A. Use a Multi-AZ deployment of an Amazon RDS for MySQL DB instance with an io2 Block Express EBS volume.
B. Use a Multi-AZ deployment of an Amazon RDS for MySQL DB instance with a General Purpose SSD (gp2) EBS volume.
C. Use Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering access tiers.
D. Use two large EC2 instances to host the database in active-passive mode.
Correct Answer: A
TOPIC QUESTION 5:
A company hosts a web application on multiple Amazon EC2 instances The EC2 instances are in an Auto Scaling group that scales in response to user demand The company wants to optimize cost savings without making a long-term commitment Which EC2 instance purchasing option should a solutions architect recommend to meet these requirements\’?
A. Dedicated Instances only
B. On-Demand Instances only
C. A mix of On-Demand instances and Spot Instances
D. A mix of On-Demand instances and Reserved instances
Correct Answer: A
TOPIC QUESTION 6:
An application running on an Amazon EC2 instance in VPC-A needs to access files in another EC2 instance in VPC-B.
Both VPCs are in separate AWS accounts. The network administrator needs to design a solution to configure secure access to EC2 instances in VPC-B from VPC-A. The connectivity should not have a single point of failure or bandwidth concerns.
Which solution will meet these requirements?
A. Set up a VPC peering connection between VPC-A and VPC-B.
B. Set up VPC gateway endpoints for the EC2 instance running in VPC-B.
C. Attach a virtual private gateway to VPC-B and set up routing from VPC-A.
D. Create a private virtual interface (VIF) for the EC2 instance running in VPC-B and add appropriate routes from VPC-A.
Correct Answer: A
AWS uses the existing infrastructure of a VPC to create a VPC peering connection; it is neither a gateway nor a VPN connection and does not rely on a separate piece of physical hardware. There is no single point of failure for communication or a bandwidth bottleneck.
A company has a serverless website with millions of objects in an Amazon S3 bucket. The company uses the S3 bucket as the origin for an Amazon CloudFront distribution.
The company did not set encryption on the S3 bucket before the objects were loaded. A solutions architect needs to enable encryption for all existing objects and for all objects that are added to the S3 bucket in the future.
Which solution will meet these requirements with the LEAST amount of effort?
A. Create a new S3 bucket. Turn on the default encryption settings for the new S3 bucket. Download all existing objects to temporary local storage. Upload the objects to the new S3 bucket.
B. Turn on the default encryption settings for the S3 bucket. Use the S3 Inventory feature to create a .csv file that lists the unencrypted objects. Run an S3 Batch Operations job that uses the copy command to encrypt those objects.
C. Create a new encryption key by using AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS). Change the settings on the S3 bucket to use server-side encryption with AWS KMS-managed encryption keys (SSE-KMS). Turn on versioning for the S3 bucket.
D. Navigate to Amazon S3 in the AWS Management Console. Browse the S3 bucket\’s objects. Sort by the encryption field. Select each unencrypted object. Use the Modify button to apply default encryption settings to every unencrypted object in the S3 bucket.
A company needs to keep user transaction data in an Amazon DynamoDB table.
The company must retain the data for 7 years.
What is the MOST operationally efficient solution that meets these requirements?
A. Use DynamoDB point-in-time recovery to back up the table continuously.
B. Use AWS Backup to create backup schedules and retention policies for the table.
C. Create an on-demand backup of the table by using the DynamoDB console. Store the backup in an Amazon S3 bucket. Set an S3 Lifecycle configuration for the S3 bucket.
D. Create an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule to invoke an AWS Lambda function. Configure the Lambda function to back up the table and store the backup in an Amazon S3 bucket. Set an S3 Lifecycle configuration for the S3 bucket.
Correct Answer: C
TOPIC QUESTION 9:
A payment processing company records all voice communication with its customers and stores the audio files in an Amazon S3 bucket. The company needs to capture the text from the audio files. The company must remove from the text any personally identifiable information (Pll) that belongs to customers.
What should a solutions architect do to meet these requirements?
A. Process the audio files by using Amazon Kinesis Video Streams. Use an AWS Lambda function to scan for known Pll patterns.
B. When an audio file is uploaded to the S3 bucket, invoke an AWS Lambda function to start an Amazon Textract task to analyze the call recordings.
C. Configure an Amazon Transcribe transcription job with Pll redaction turned on. When an audio file is uploaded to the S3 bucket, invoke an AWS Lambda function to start the transcription job. Store the output in a separate S3 bucket.
D. Create an Amazon Connect contact flow that ingests the audio files with transcription turned on. Embed an AWS Lambda function to scan for known Pll patterns. Use Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) to start the contact flow when an audio file is uploaded to the S3 bucket.
Correct Answer: C
TOPIC QUESTION 10:
A company uses NFS to store large video files in on-premises network attached storage. Each video file ranges in size from 1MB to 500 GB. The total storage is 70 TB and is no longer growing. The company decides to migrate the video files to Amazon S3. The company must migrate the video files as soon as possible while using the least possible network bandwidth.
Which solution will meet these requirements?
A. Create an S3 bucket Create an IAM role that has permission to write to the S3 bucket. Use the AWS CLI to copy all files locally to the S3 bucket.
B. Create an AWS Snowball Edge job. Receive a Snowball Edge device on the premises. Use the Snowball Edge client to transfer data to the device. Return the device so that AWS can import the data into Amazon S3.
C. Deploy an S3 File Gateway on-premises. Create a public service endpoint to connect to the S3 File Gateway Create an S3 bucket Create a new NFS file share on the S3 File Gateway Point the new file share to the S3 bucket. Transfer the data from the existing NFS file share to the S3 File Gateway.
D. Set up an AWS Direct Connect connection between the on-premises network and AWS. Deploy an S3 File Gateway on-premises. Create a public virtual interlace (VIF) to connect to the S3 File Gateway. Create an S3 bucket. Create a new NFS file share on the S3 File Gateway. Point the new file share to the S3 bucket. Transfer the data from the existing NFS file share to the S3 File Gateway.
Correct Answer: B
TOPIC QUESTION 11:
A company has an on-premises MySQL database used by the global sales team with infrequent access patterns. The sales team requires the database to have minimal downtime. A database administrate wants to migrate this database to AWS without selecting a particular instance type in anticipation of more users In the future.
Which service should a solutions architect recommend?
A. Amazon Aurora MySQL
B. Amazon Aurora Serverless tor MySQL
C. Amazon Redshift Spectrum
D. Amazon RDS for MySQL
Correct Answer: B
TOPIC QUESTION 12:
A company wants to run its critical applications in containers to meet requirements for scalability and availability The company prefers to focus on maintenance of the critical applications The company does not want to be responsible for provisioning and managing the underlying infrastructure that runs the containerized workload
What should a solutions architect do to meet those requirements?
A. Use Amazon EC2 Instances, and Install Docker on the Instances
B. Use Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) on Amazon EC2 worker nodes
C. Use Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) on AWS Fargate
D. Use Amazon EC2 instances from an Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS)-op6mized Amazon Machine Image (AMI).
Correct Answer: C
using AWS ECS on AWS Fargate since the requirements are for scalability and availability without having to provision and manage the underlying infrastructure to run the containerized workload.
A social media company allows users to upload images to its website. The website runs on Amazon EC2 instances.
During upload requests, the website resizes the images to a standard size and stores the resized images in Amazon S3.
Users are experiencing slow upload requests to the website.
The company needs to reduce coupling within the application and improve website performance. A solutions architect must design the most operationally efficient process for image uploads.
Which combination of actions should the solutions architect take to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the application to upload images to S3 Glacier.
B. Configure the webserver to upload the original images to Amazon S3.
C. Configure the application to upload images directly from each user\’s browser to Amazon S3 through the use of a pre-signed URL.
D. Configure S3 Event Notifications to invoke an AWS Lambda function when an image is uploaded. Use the function to resize the image
E. Create an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule that invokes an AWS Lambda function on a schedule to resize uploaded images.
Correct Answer: BD
…
AWS Certified Associate exam solution
The AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate (SAA-C03) exam is intended for individuals who perform in a solutions architect role. The exam validates a candidate’s ability to use AWS technologies to design solutions based on the AWS Well-Architected Framework. The exam also validates a candidate’s ability to complete the following tasks:
Design solutions that incorporate AWS services to meet current business requirements and future projected needs
Design architectures that are secure, resilient, high-performing, and cost-optimized
Review existing solutions and determine improvements
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Question 1:
Which access control feature does MAB provide?
A. user access based on IP address
B. allows devices to bypass authenticate*
C. network access based on the physical address of a device
D. simultaneous user and device authentication
Correct Answer: C
Question 2:
What does the Cisco DNA Center use to enable the delivery of applications through a network and to yield analytics for innovation?
A. process adapters
B. Command Runner
C. intent-based APIs
D. domain adapters
Correct Answer: C
The Cisco DNA Center open platform for intent-based networking provides 360- degree extensibility across multiple components, including:
+ Intent-based APIs leverage the controller to enable business and IT applications to deliver intent to the network and to reap network analytics and insights for IT and business innovation. These enable APIs that allow Cisco DNA Center to
receive input from a variety of sources, both internal to IT and from line-of-business applications, related to application policy, provisioning, software image management, and assurance.
A network engineer is configuring OSPF between router R1 and router R2. The engineer must ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur on the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in area 0.
Which configuration set accomplishes this goal?
A. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point
B. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast
C. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out
D. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf priority 1
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf priority 1
Correct Answer: A
Broadcast and Non-Broadcast networks elect DR/BDR while Point-to-point/multipoint do not elect DR/BDR. Therefore we have to set the two Gi0/0 interfaces to a point-to-point or point-to-multipoint network to ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur.
Question 5:
Which of the following are the three components of the three-tier hierarchical networking model used in the classical Cisco networks design? (Choose three.)
A. Distribution
B. Core
C. Access
D. Leaf
E. Spine
Correct Answer: ABC
Question 6:
In Cisco DNA Center, what is the integration API?
A. southbound consumer-facing RESTful API. which enables network discovery and configuration management
B. westbound interface, which allows the exchange of data to be used by ITSM. IPAM and reporting
C. an interface between the controller and the network devices, which enables network discovery and configuration management
D. northbound consumer-facing RESTful API, which enables network discovery and configuration management
In a Cisco SD-Access fabric architecture, which of the following are valid device roles (Choose three.)
A. Control Plane Node
B. Access routing device
C. Edge Node
D. Border Node
E. Distributed Node
Correct Answer: ACD
Question 8:
When is an external antenna used inside a building?
A. only when using Mobility Express
B. when it provides the required coverage
C. only when using 2 4 GHz
D. only when using 5 GHz
Correct Answer: B
Question 9:
You have configured router R1 with multiple VRFs \’s in order to support multiple customer VPN networks. If you wanted to see the best path for the 10.2.1.0.24 route in VRF Green, what command would you use?
A. show ip route vrf Green 10.2.1.0
B. show ip route 10.2.1.0 vrf Green
C. show route all 10.2.1.0
D. show ip route 10.2.1.0 Green
Correct Answer: A
#show ip route vrf mgmt 10.100.10.1 % IP routing table vrf mgmt does not exist
Question 10:
A firewall address of 192 166.1.101 can be pinged from a router but, when running a traceroute to It, this output is received.
What is the cause of this issue?
A. The firewall blocks ICMP traceroute traffic.
B. The firewall rule that allows ICMP traffic does not function correctly
C. The firewall blocks ICMP traffic.
D. The firewall blocks UDP traffic
Correct Answer: D
Question 11:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to create an EEM script that adds an entry to a locally stored text file with a timestamp when a configuration change is made. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Question 12:
A customer deploys a new wireless network to perform location-based services using Cisco DNA Spaces The customer has a single WLC located on-premises in a secure data center. The security team does not want to expose the WLC to the public Internet.
Which solution allows the customer to securely send RSSI updates to Cisco DNA Spaces?
A. Implement Cisco Mobility Services Engine
B. Replace the WLC with a cloud-based controller.
C. Perform tethering with Cisco DNA Center.
D. Deploy a Cisco DNA Spaces connector as a VM.
Correct Answer: D
Question 13:
A customer wants to use a single SSID to authenticate loT devices using different passwords. Which Layer 2 security type must be configured in conjunction with Cisco ISE to achieve this requirement?
A. Fast Transition
B. Central Web Authentication
C. Cisco Centralized Key Management
D. Identity PSK
Correct Answer: D
With the advent of the Internet of things, the number of devices that connect to the Internet is increased multifold. Not all of these devices support 802.1x supplicant and need an alternate mechanism to connect to the internet.
One of the security mechanisms, WPA-PSK could be considered as an alternative. With the current configuration, the pre-shared key is the same for all clients that connect to the same WLAN.
In certain deployments such as Educational Institutions, this results in the key being shared with unauthorized users resulting in security breaches. Therefore, above mentioned and other requirements lead to the need for provisioning unique pre-shared keys for different clients on a large scale.
Identity PSKs are unique pre-shared keys created for individuals or groups of users on the same SSID.
No complex configuration is required for clients. The same simplicity of PSK makes it ideal for IoT, BYOD, and guest deployments.
Supported on most devices, where 802.1X may not, enabling stronger security for IoT.
Easily revoke access, for a single device or individual, without affecting everyone else.
Thousands of keys can easily be managed and distributed via the AAA server.
Question 14:
How does QoS traffic shaping alleviate network congestion?
A. It drops packets when traffic exceeds a certain bitrate.
B. It buffers and queues packets above the committed rate.
C. It fragments large packets and queues them for delivery.
D. It drops packets randomly from lower-priority queues.
Correct Answer: B
Traffic shaping retains excess packets in a queue and then schedules the excess for later transmission over increments of time. The result of traffic shaping is a smoothed packet output rate.
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Which configuration command can you apply to an HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail?
A. no additional config is required
B. standby 1 track ethernet
C. standby 1 preempt
D. standby 1 priority 250
Correct Answer: A
Simply because that will be the default behavior routers would follow in the event all other routers in the HSRP group fail, then it would not keep attributes such as priority or preemption. What preemption does in summary is to make sure that the configured Priority on all routers within the same HSRP group is always respected.
That is, if R1 is configured on the HSRP group with a priority of 150 but he stands as active since all other routers currently subscribed to that group have a priority of 150, then will router will preempt the current active router and will take over hence becoming the new active router.
With preemption disabled, the new router does not preempt the current active router, unless routers in the group have to renegotiate their roles based on each router\’s priority at the time of negotiation.
Q2:
Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?
A. active
B. on
C. auto
D. desirable
Correct Answer: B
The Static Persistence (or “on” mode) bundles the links unconditionally and no negotiation protocol is used. In this mode, neither PAgP nor LACP packets are sent or received.
Q3:
A network engineer is implementing a corporate SSID for WPA3-Personal security with a PSK. Which encryption cipher must be configured?
A. CCMP128
B. GCMP256
C. CCMP256
D. GCMP128
Correct Answer: A
Q4:
Which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?
A. facilitates communication between the controller and the applications
B. reports device errors to a controller
C. generates statistics for network hardware and traffic
D. communicates between the controller and the physical network hardware
Correct Answer: A
Q5:
Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?
A. NAT
B. 6 to 4 tunneling
C. L2TPv3
D. dual-stack
Correct Answer: B
Q6:
What is the benefit of using private IPv4 addressing?
A. to enable secure connectivity over the Internet
B. to shield internal network devices from external access
C. to provide reliable connectivity between like devices
D. to be routable over an external network
Correct Answer: B
Q7:
When the active router in a VRRP group fails, which router assumes the role and forwards packets?
A. forwarding
B. standby
C. backup
D. listening
Correct Answer: C
Q8:
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D. What is the next hop to network 192.168 1 0/24 and why?
A. The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it uses distance vector routing
B. The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it is a link-state routing protocol
C. The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a better administrative distance
D. The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a higher metric.
Correct Answer: B
Q9:
Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?
Refer to the exhibit. Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?
A. heavy traffic congestion
B. a duplex incompatibility
C. a speed conflict
D. queuing drops
Correct Answer: C
Q11:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q12:
A network architect is considering whether to implement Cisco DNA Center to deploy devices on a new network. The organization is focused on reducing the time it currently takes to deploy devices in a traditional campus design. For which reason would Cisco DNA Center be more appropriate than traditional management options?
A. Cisco DNA Center supports deployment with a single pane of glass.
B. Cisco DNA Center provides zero-touch provisioning to third-party devices.
C. Cisco DNA Center reduces the need for analytics on third-party access points and devices.
D. Cisco DNA Center minimizes the level of syslog output when reporting on Cisco devices.
Correct Answer: A
Q13:
Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?
A. IP SLA
B. Syslog
C. NetFlow
D. SNMPv3
Correct Answer: D
Q14:
Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?
A. SYIM flood
B. reflection
C. teardrop
D. amplification
Correct Answer: A
Q15:
Refer to the exhibit.
After the election process, what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?
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Q1:
DRAG DROP
During the risk assessment phase of the project, the CISO discovered that a college within the University is collecting Protected Health Information (PHI) data via an application that was developed in-house. The college collecting this data is
fully aware of the regulations of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and is fully compliant. What is the best approach for the CISO?
Below are the common phases to creating a Business Continuity/Disaster Recovery (BC/DR) plan. Drag the remaining BC\DR phases to the appropriate corresponding location.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q2:
HOTSPOT
In the network design below, where is the MOST secure Local Area Network (LAN) segment to deploy a Wireless Access Point (WAP) that provides contractors access to the Internet and authorized enterprise services?
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Q3:
DRAG DROP
A software security engineer is developing a black box-based test plan that will measure the system\’s reaction to incorrect or illegal inputs or unexpected operational errors and situations. Match the functional testing techniques on the left with the correct input parameters on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q4:
DRAG DROP
In which order, from MOST to LEAST impacted, does user awareness training reduce the occurrence of the events below?
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q5:
DRAG DROP
What is the correct order of steps in an information security assessment?
Place the information security assessment steps on the left next to the numbered boxes on the right in the correct order.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q6:
DRAG DROP
Match the types of e-authentication tokens to their description.
Drag each e-authentication token on the left to its corresponding description on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q7:
DRAG DROP
Match the functional roles in an external audit to their responsibilities. Drag each role on the left to its corresponding responsibility on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q8:
DRAG DROP Drag the following Security Engineering terms on the left to the BEST definition on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q9:
DRAG DROP
Match the access control type to the example of the control type. Drag each access control type net to its corresponding example.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q10:
HOTSPOT
Which Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification maintains a single authenticated identity across multiple dissimilar environments? Click on the correct specification in the image below.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Q11:
Given a file containing an ordered number, i.e. “123456789,” match each of the following redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) levels to the corresponding visual representation. Note: P() = parity.
Drag each level to the appropriate place on the diagram.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q12:
DRAG DROP
Drag the following Security Engineering terms on the left to the BEST definition on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q13:
DRAG DROP
Match the objectives to the assessment questions in the governance domain of the Software Assurance Maturity Model (SAMM).
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q14:
DRAG DROP
Order the below steps to create an effective vulnerability management process.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Q15:
HOTSPOT
Which Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification handles the management of security tokens and the underlying policies for granting access? Click on the correct specification in the image below.
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