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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Updated: Sep 17, 2017
Q&As: 118

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 300-135 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 8
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest resolutions to the problems.
Which of statement is true regarding STP issue identified with switches in the given topology?
A. Loopguard configured on the New_Switch places the ports in loop inconsistent state
B. Rootguard configured on SW1 places the ports in root inconsistent state
C. Bpduguard configured on the New_Switch places the access ports in error-disable
D. Rootguard configured on SW2 places the ports in root inconsistent state
300-135 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
On the new switch, we see that loopguard has been configured with the “spanning-tree guard loop” command.
The loop guard feature makes additional checks. If BPDUs are not received on a non-designated port, and loop guard is enabled, that port is moved into the STP loop-inconsistent blocking state, instead of the listening / learning / forwarding state. Without the loop guard feature, the port assumes the designated port role. The port moves to the STP forwarding state and creates a loop.
QUESTION 9
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest 300-135 dumps resolutions to the problems. You have configured PVST+ load balancing between SW1 and the New_Switch in such a way that both the links E2/2 and E2/3 are utilized for traffic flow, which component of the configuration is preventing PVST+ load balancing between SW1 and SW2 links
A. Port priority configuration on SW1
B. Port priority configuration on the New_Switch
C. Path cost configuration on SW1
D. Path cost configuration on the New_Switch
Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Here is the configuration found on the New_Switch:
This causes the port cost for link eth 1/3 to increase the path cost to 250 for all VLANs, making that link less preferred so that only eth 1/2 will be used.
QUESTION 10
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest resolutions to the problems.
Refer to the topology.
SW1 Switch Management IP address is not pingable from SW4. What could be the issue?
A. Management VLAN not allowed in the trunk links between SW1 and SW4
B. Management VLAN not allowed in the trunk links between SW1 and SW2
C. Management VLAN not allowed in the trunk link between SW2 and SW4
D. Management VLAN ip address on SW4 is configured in wrong subnet
E. Management VLAN interface is shutdown on SW4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In the network, VLAN 300 is called the Management VLAN. Based on the configurations shown below, SW1 has VLAN 300 configured with the IP address of 192.168.10.1/24, while on SW4 VLAN 300 has an IP address of 192.168.100.4/24, which is not in the same subnet.
QUESTION 11
You have been brought in to troubleshoot an EIGRP network. A network engineer has made configuration changes to the network rendering some locations unreachable. You are to locate the problem and suggest solution to resolve the issue.
R5 has become partially isolated from the remainder of the network. R5 can reach devices on directly connected networks but nothing else. What is causing the problem?
A. An outbound distribute list in R3
B. Inbound distribute lists in R5
C. An outbound distribute list in R6
D. Incorrect EIGRP routing process ID in R5
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Here we see that distribute list 3 has been applied to EIGRP on router R%, but access-list 3 contains only deny statements so this will effectively block all routing advertisements from its two EIGRP neighbors, thus isolating R5 from the rest of the EIGRP network:

QUESTION  12.If correct permissions have been setup, users can execute their own programs at a fixed time by submitting their jobs to the cron service using the crontab command.
A. True B.
False
Answer: A
QUESTION  13.The following entry appears in the /etc/crontab as follows:
30 4 * * 1 /bin/sh /home/Tom/rmcore 2>&1 /dev/null
Select the action below which best represents what it will accomplish.
A. “rmcore” will execute on April 30th for one hour
B. “rmcore” will execute on the first day of every month
C. “rmcore” will execute every Monday at 4:30 a.m.
D. None of the above

300-135 vce Answer: C
QUESTION 14.Which of the following statements about cron/crontab is NOT true?
A. each user can have his/her own personal crontab file
B. the crontab file is automatically created when a user account is created
C. the superuser can edit the cron table using the “crontab -e” command
D. cron jobs run with the permission of whomever submitted the job
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 15
You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005
as its application development platform. You have recently created an application that includes the
code shown below.
string str1 = “ABC”;
string str2 = “u”;
str2 += “Certify”;
Console.WriteLine(str1 == str2);
Console.WriteLine((Object) str1 == (Object) str2);
Console.WriteLine(str1.Equals(str2));
What will be the output of the above code?
A. False
False
False
B. False
True
False
C. True
True
True
D. True
False
True
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 16
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET

Framework 3.5. You want to use a HTTP module called on each and every request made by the
application. It is called as part of the ASP.NET request pipeline. It has right to access life-cycle
events throughout the request. You also want to ensure that the HTTP module allows a user to
inspect incoming and outgoing requests and take appropriate action based on the request. What
will be the correct order to create the HTTP module?

300-135 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 17
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET
Framework 3.5. The application contains two HTML pages named Error.htm and
PageNotFound.htm. You want to make sure that the following requirements are met:
l When any user requests a page that does not exist, the PageNotFound.htm page is
displayed.
l When any other error occurs, the Error.htm page is displayed. Which of the following code
segments will you add to the Web.config file to accomplish this task?
A. <customErrors mode=”On” defaultRedirect=”Error.htm”>
<error statusCode=”404″ redirect=”PageNotFound.htm”/>
</customErrors>
B. <customErrors mode=”Off”>
<error statusCode=”400″ redirect=”Error.htm”/>
<error statusCode=”404″ redirect=”PageNotFound.htm”/>
</customErrors>
C. <customErrors mode=”On”>
<error statusCode=”400″ redirect=”Error.htm”/>
error statusCode=”404″ redirect=”PageNotFound.htm”/
</customErrors>
D. <customErrors mode=”Off” defaultRedirect=”Error.htm”>
<error statusCode=”404″ redirect=”PageNotFound.htm”/>
</customErrors>
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 18
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You are creating an ASP.NET Web application using .NET
Framework 3.5. The application will be used to share any type of photos on Internet. All the photos
should be accessible in various sizes and formats. You need to add a download feature that can
be easily maintained. You also need to make sure that only a single version of all photos is stored
on a SQL server database. What will you do?
A. Create an HttpModule class to determine the request for the photo download. Process the
photo according to the given format and size, and after that return the processed photo in the
response.
B. Create a user control that converts the photo to the required format and size.
C. Create an HttpHandler class to determine the request for the photo download. Process the
photo according to the given format and size, and after that return the processed photo in the
response.
D. Create an ActiveX control that converts the photo to the required format and size.
300-135 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 19
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You have recently finished development of an ASP.NET Web
application using the .NET Framework 3.5. You host the application on a Web farm that consists
of three Web servers. You should configure the ASP.NET application for session state to meet the
following requirements:
l Session state data should not be lost if a server fails.
l Session state must be maintained across browser requests by the same user.
You are required to configure the Web.config file to meet these requirements. Which of the
following configurations will you use?

A. <sessionState mode=”StateServer”/>
B. <sessionState mode=”InProc”/>
C. <sessionState mode=”Custom”/>
D. <sessionState mode=”SQLServer”/>
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Sep 06, 2017
Q&As: 503

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Free Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-410 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains three domain DC3 loses network connectivity due to a hardware failure. You plan to remove DC3 from the domain. You log on to DC3. You need to identify which service location (SRV) records are registered by DC3. What should you do?
70-410 dumps

A. Open the %windir%\system32\config\netlogon.dns file.
B. Run dcdiag /test:dns
C. Open the %windir%\system32\dns\backup\adatum.com.dns file.
D. Run ipconfig /displaydns.
70-410 study guide Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains three domains. A group named Group1 is configured as a domain local distribution group in the forest root domain. You plan to grant Group1 read-only access to a shared folder named Share1. Share1 is located in a child domain. You need to ensure that the members of Group1 can access Share1. What should you do first?
A. Convert Group1 to a global distribution group.
B. Convert Group1 to a universal security group.
C. Convert Group1 to a universal distribution group.
D. Convert Group1 to a domain local security group
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2. One of the domain controllers is named DCI. The network contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to promote Server1 to a domain controller by using install from media (IFM).
What should you do first?
A. Create a system state backup of DC1.
B. Create IFM media on DC1.
C. Upgrade DC1 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
D. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
E. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Installation Wizard on DC1.
70-410 practice test Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 servers. The servers are contained in a organizational unit (OU) named ServersOU. You need to create a group named Group1 on all of the servers in the domain. You must ensure that Group1 is added only to the servers. What should you configure?
A. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to the Domain Controllers OU
B. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to the domain
C. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
D. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. All of the computer accounts for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts. Servers are restarted only occasionally. You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days.
What should you do?
A. Run dsquery computerand specify the -staiepwdpara meter.
B. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the SearchScope parameter.
C. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the IastLogonproperty.
D. Run dsquery serverand specify the -oparameter
70-410 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You log on to a domain controller by using an account named Admin1. Admin1 is a member of the Domain Admins group. You view the properties of a group named Group1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) Group1 is located in
an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. You need to ensure that you can modify the Security settings of Group1 by using Active Directory Users and Computers. What should you do from Active Directory Users and Computers?

70-410 dumps
A. From the View menu, select Users, Contacts, Groups, and Computers as containers.
B. Right-click OU1 and select Delegate Control
C. From the View menu, select Advanced Features.

D. Right-click contoso.com and select Delegate Control.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2. You install 70-410 dumps Windows Server 2012 on a new computer named DC3. You need to manually configure DC3 as a domain controller. Which tool should you use?
A. Server Manager
B. winrm.exe
C. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
D. dcpromo.exe
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
You have a server named Core1 that has a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. Core1 has the Hyper-V server role installed Core1 has two
network adapters from different third- party hardware vendors.
You need to configure network traffic failover to prevent connectivity loss if a network adapter fails.
What should you use?
A. New-NetSwitchTeam
B. Add-NetSwitchTeamMember
C. Install-Feature
D. netsh.exe
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You connect three new hard disks to Server1.
You need to create a storage space that contains the three disks. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Provide fault tolerance if a single disk fails.
– Maximize the amount of files that can be stored in the storage space.
What should you create?
A. A simple space
B. A spanned volume
C. A mirrored space
D. A parity space
70-410 study guide Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1. You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. The setup.exe command
B. The dism.exe command
C. The imagex.exe command
D. The Add-WindowsPackage cmdlet
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has five network adapters. Three of the network adapters an connected to a
network named LAN1. The two other network adapters are connected to a network named LAN2.
You need to create a network adapter team from the three network adapters connected to LAN 1.
Which tool should you use?
A. Routing and Remote Access
B. Network and Sharing Center
C. Server Manager
D. Network Load Balancing Manager
70-410 practice test Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to remove Windows Explorer, Windows Internet Explorer, and all related
components and files from Server1. What should you run on Server1?
A. Uninstall-WindowsFeature Server-Gui-Mgmt-Infra Remove
B. Uninstall-WindowsFeature Server-Gui-Shell Remove
C. msiexec.exe /uninstall iexplore.exe /x
D. msiexec.exe /uninstall explorer.exe /x
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
You have a server named Server1 that runs 70-410 dumps Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. On Server1, you create a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 has a legacy network adapter. You need to assign a specific amount of available network bandwidth to VM1.
What should you do first?
A. Remove the legacy network adapter, and then run the Set-VMNetworkAdaptercmdlet.
B. Add a second legacy network adapter, and then run the Set-VMNetworkAdoptercmdlet
C. Add a second legacy network adapter, and then configure network adapter teaming.

D. Remove the legacy network adapter, and then add a network adapter
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-696 
Exam Name: Managing Enterprise Devices and Apps
Updated: Sep 04, 2017
Q&As: 86

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QUESTION 6
Exhibit:
Given this display, how would you find information similar to the SHOW SWITCH command?
A. Click on STATISTICS, then SHOW, then SWITCH.
B. Click on STATISTICS, then SWITCH, then SHOW.
C. Click on STATISTICS, then SHOW.
D. Click on STATISTICS, then SWITCH.
70-696 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which ExtremeWare feature permits ESRP to increase the number of protected VLANs by placing them
under the control of a master VLAN?
A. ESRP groups
B. ESRP domains
C. ESRP host attach
D. None of these.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
STPDs s0, s1, and s2 have been created. How would you activate only s1 while leaving the other STPDs
inactive?
A. enable stpd s1
B. enable s1 stpd
C. None of these
70-696 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
SNMP access to ExtremeWare can be limited by the following methods:
A. Use an access list
B. Use an access profile

C. Use the disable snmp access command
D. None of these
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 10
How would you change the password for John Doe’s management account?
A. Enter config jdoe and then enter the new password twice.
B. Enter config jdoe user account and then enter the new password twice.
C. Enter config user account jdoe and then enter the new password twice.
D. Enter config account jdoe and then enter the new password twice.
70-696 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
What is the minimum ExtremeWare software version that supports the Summit48i?
A. ExtremeWare 4.x
B. ExtremeWare 5.x
C. ExtremeWare 6.x
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
When using Spanning Tree Protocol, ExtremeWare permits VLANs in different STPDs to share the same
port when tagged.
A. True
B. False
70-696 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which of the following routes will be used to forward a frame to 192.168.1.174?
A. 192.168.1.0/29
B. 192.168.1.128/30
C. 192.168.1.128/25
D. None of these.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
In RIP, poison reverse means that:
A. A route is not advertised to the interface from which it was learned.
B. A route is advertised as unreachable to the interface from which it was learned.
C. Traffic whose source interface does not match the routing table is blackholed.
D. None of these.
70-696 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
RIP version 2 uses a composite metric that includes link speed and delay.
A. True

B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Unlike VRRP, the Extreme Standby Router Protocol provides redundancy at both the data link and network
layers.
A. True
B. False
70-696 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
__________ allow(s) multiple VLANs to be controlled by a single ESRP instance.
A. ESRP domains
B. ESRP groups
C. ESRP host-attach
D. None of these.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
QoS policy is applied _____ in an Extreme switch.
A. per port
B. per queue, per port
C. per queue
D. None of these.
70-696 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Without QoS, all packets are allowed equal access to an egress port.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Which of the following is not advertised in an OSPF Link State Advertisement?
A. Costs
B. Link utilization
C. Router interfaces
D. Neighbor information
70-696 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
A VLAN can be a member of up to 64 STPDs.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
What type of area is used to limit external routes?
A. Stub area
B. Normal area
C. Backbone area
D. None of these
70-696 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
All OSPF routers in the same area must have the same LSDB.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Which 70-696 dumps RIP settings are enabled by default?
A. Triggered updates
B. Poison Reverse
C. Split Horizon
D. Route redistribution
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 25
What is the default STP forward delay value?
A. 2 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 20 seconds
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Which command would you use to configure the switch to disregard STP for selected VLANs?
A. enable ignore-stp vlan <stpd>
B. enable ignore-bpdu vlan <vlan>
C. enable ignore-bpdu stpd <stpd>
D. enable ignore-stp vlan <vlan>
70-696 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
When the command disable stpd port 4:1-4:8 is entered what is the result?
A. Ports 4:1-4:8 are placed into the blocking state.
B. Ports 4:1-4:8 are placed into the listening state.
C. Ports 4.1-4.8 are placed into the learning state.
D. Ports 4:1-4:8 are placed into the forwarding state.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
How can you tell which ports are disabled?
A. Flashing amber light
B. Flashing green light
C. Flashing red light
D. None of these
70-696 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
Your Summit5i switch is connected to a 3rd party switch. By issuing the show ports rxerrors command you
can see numerous CRC errors listed. What is the first step you should take to resolve this issue?
A. Examine the log for errors.
B. Ping between the two switches.
C. Match the speed and duplex settings for the two devices.
D. Call the Extreme Networks TAC.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
You have been assigned the task of configuring an 8-port load share group between two switches that
uses the round robin-based algorithm. Which of the following commands will provide you with the desired
result?
A. Summit #1: config sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm round-robin, Summit #2: configsharing 1 grouping
1-8 algorithm round-robin
B. Summit #1: enable sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm round-robin, Summit #2: enablesharing 8 grouping
1-8 algorithm round-robin

C. Summit #1: config sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm round-robin, Summit #2: configsharing 8 grouping
1-8 algorithm round-robin
D. Summit #1: enable sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm round-robin, Summit #2: enablesharing 1 grouping
70-696 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
Routing is disabled in all VLANs by default.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
What 70-696 dumps information can you find using the show edp command?
A. ExtremeWare code version used by remote switch.
B. The ports that are disabled on the remote switch.
C. The master port of any load share groups.
D. The speed and duplex settings of the ports connecting the two switches.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
How could you verify that MAC address learning is disabled for ports 1-8 on a Summit7i switch?
A. Enter the show ports config detail command.
B. Enter the show ports management detail command.
C. Enter the show ports statistics detail command.
D. Enter the show ports info detail command.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
Which of the following are valid ESRP master election algorithms?
A. ports_track_priority_mac
B. ports_priority_track_mac
C. track_ports_priority_mac
D. track_priority_ports_mac
70-696 pdf Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 35
What is the command you would use to configure a VLAN for ESRP?
A. enable esrp vlan <vlan>
B. enable esrp vlan <vlan> detail
C. config esrp vlan <vlan>
D. config esrp vlan <vlan> detail
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
Which command would you use to configure ESRP ping tracking for the gateway address 10.0.0.1 with a
frequency of 2 seconds and a miss threshold of 5?

A. enable vlan <vlan> add track-ping add 10.0.0.1 frequency 2 miss 5
B. enable esrp add track-ping add 10.0.0.1 frequency 2 miss 5
C. config esrp track-ping add 10.0.0.1 frequency 2 miss 5
D. config vlan <vlan> add track-ping 10.0.0.1 frequency 2 miss 5
70-696 vce Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 210-250
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Updated: Aug 19, 2017
Q&As: 80

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 210-250 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 09
Consider a FileMaker Pro 11 database with the following tables and fields:
Assuming only the above relationships between table occurrences, using sorting if necessary, which two
actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. create a value list that shows all Invoices for a chosen Customer
B. create a value list on a Product layout which displays all Customers
C. find all of the Customers who have ever ordered a specific Product
D. create a portal to display each Product that has been ordered by a Customer
E. display all records from the Customer table in a portal on a layout for an Invoice Item record
210-250 exam Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 10
Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event ID has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID.
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records… nor the Delete
related records… settings to be enabled for the Event table.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
On the RSTP network as shown in the figure, what RSTP operations will occur after the E1 port of SWB
fails? (Select 3 Answers)
A. SWB deletes the MAC address entries with the E1 port as the destination interface.
B. The spanning tree is recalculated and the E2 port is elected as the new root port.
C. All the interfaces in forwarding state send topology change notifications (TCNs) to notify other switches
of the topology change.
D. All the non-edge ports in forwarding state send TCNs to notify other switches of the topology change.
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 12
Which is the port state defined in RSTP?
A. Discarding
B. Learning
C. Forwarding
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
RSTP has all functions that STP has and it is backward compatible with STP.
A. True

B. False
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
RSTP adopts fast convergence mechanism. So, there is no Forward Delay interval in RSTP.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Two switches are directly connected to each other and they are working in full duplex mode. By default,
RSTP will consider the link between the switches as point-to-point link.
A. True
B. False
210-250 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
In RSTP network environment, a port can be set as edge port when it is directly connected with terminal.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements about RSTP and STP is true?
A. STP has more port states than RSTP.
B. The port roles used in RSTP is less than the port roles used in STP.
C. Since RSTP adopts fast convergence mechanism, it does not have Learning state which is available in
STP.
D. Same as STP, the ports will enter into Listening state once the RSTP has been enabled. Then, the
ports can receive BPDU and calculate the spanning tree.
210-250 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
In a switching network that runs RSTP, the topology change notification message will not be sent when the
switch detects that the Alternate Port is failed.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
When the topology of a network running RSTP changes, what happens after the change?
A. Flooding on the entire network.
B. The aging time of MAC address entries is changed.
C. Some MAC address entries are deleted.
D. All of the above
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which ports defined by RSTP cannot work in Forwarding state? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Root Port
B. Designated Port
C. Backup Port
D. Alternate Port
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 21
On an RSTP network, when an edge port is in protected state, what operation is performed after the edge
port receives BPDUs?
A. The edge port forwards BPDUs.
B. The edge port discards BPDUs.
C. The edge port is shut down.
D. The edge port obtains required information from BPDUs.
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
In RSTP, the port status can be discarding and learning. Which statements about the port status are true?
(Select 2 Answers)
A. The port in discarding or learning state does not forward data frames.
B. The port in discarding state does not learn MAC addresses.
C. The port in learning state does not learn MAC addresses.
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 23
On the RSTP network as shown in the figure, what is the port role of SWC E0/1 according to the
configuration? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Designated port
B. Root port
C. Alternate port

D. Edge port
210-250 vce Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 24
As shown in the figure, when the link between SWC and LAND is faulty, through which path are TCA
BPDUs sent?
A. From SWA to SWB
B. From SWB to SWC
C. From SWB to SWA
D. From SWC to SWB
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
As shown in the figure, when the STP network runs properly, which device does the designated port of
LANC reside?
A. SWA
B. SWB
C. SWC
D. None of the above
210-250 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
In STP configuration, which statement about BPDUs is true?
A. BPDUs cannot be sent from the designated port.
B. BPDUs can be sent only from the designated port.
C. BPDUs can be sent from any port.
D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
On an STP network, after the network topology changes, which BPDUs are sent during flooding of
topology change information on the entire network?
A. BPDUs with the TCN flag
B. BPDUs with the TCA flag
C. BPDUs with the TC flag
D. All of the above
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
After an STP switch starts, it considers itself as the root switch. Which statements about BDPU parameter
setting are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The switch is the designated root.
B. The designated cost is 0.

C. The switch is the designated bridge.
D. The designated port is 0.
Correct Answer: ABC

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Exam Code: 70-357
Exam Name: Developing Mobile Apps
Updated: Aug 08, 2017
Q&As: 66

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QUESTION 1. Which of the following device communication methods is used by MIB Tools?
A. SNMPv1
B. SNMPv3 Credential
C. SNMPv3 Profile
D. Max Access/Super User
E. All of the above
F.A and C only
70-357 exam Answer: E
QUESTION 2. Which of the following definition(s) best describes the difference between managers and agents in
SNMPv1 and SNMPv3?
A. In SNMPv1, the manager and agent were distinctly different but performed overlapping functions.
Managers resided on workstations; agents on remote devices.
B. In SNMPv3, a distributed interacting collection of SNMP entities can reside on both management
workstations and remote devices. Because each entity implements a portion of SNMP capability, an entity
can act as an agent, a manager, or a combination of the two.
C. In SNMPv1, the manager and agent were distinctly different and performed discrete functions: the
manager ran applications; the agent provided functionality. Managers resided on workstations; agents on
remote devices.
D.Aand B
E.B and C
F.All of the above
Answer: E
QUESTION 3. A MIB not supported on all devices should be assigned to which SNMP Request Group, when defining
a FlexView?
A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4

E. All of the above F. B or C only
70-357 dumps Answer: F
QUESTION 4. What are the three predefined groups in Inventory Manager Network Elements?
A. Chassis, Device Type and IP
B. Chassis, Matrix and X-Pedition
C. Matrix, SmartSwitch and X-Pedition
D. Matrix, X-Pedition and IP
Answer:A
QUESTION 5. How can network masks be displayed in CIDR notation in Router Services Manager?
A. By selecting CIDR in the Network Mask option of Tools > Options
B. By selecting CIDR in the device properties window
C. By selecting Dot Delimited in the Display option of Tools > Options
D. It is not possible to have network masks displayed in CIDR notation
70-357 pdf Answer:A
QUESTION 6. The MIB Tools Utility allows you to do all of the following, EXCEPT
A. View object definitions
B. Set object values
C. Change IP addresses on devices
D. Search for objects
E. Browse the MIB database
Answer: C
QUESTION 7. Which of the following statements are true about FlexViews?
A. You can use the FlexView editor to define as many FlexViews as you want.
B. You can create custom tabs to display desired MIB information.
C. The FlexView Wizard is not available with Atlas Lite.
D. All of the ab
ove

E. A and C only
70-357 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 8. What is the name of the file that defines the absolute path to your NetSight Plug-In applications?
A. PlugIn.details
B. common
C. NetSight.properties
D. Atlas.config
Answer: C
QUESTION 9. The relationship among remote devices in each map is automatically generated by Console when you
click the Retrieve button.
A. True
B. False
70-357 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 10. What are the three tabs in the left panel of Inventory Manager?
A. Devices, Traps, Archives
B. Network Elements, Firmware Management, Configuration Management
C. Details View, Archives, Chassis
D. Properties, VLAN, Compass
Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following password cracking techniques is used when the attacker has some information
about the password?
A. Hybrid Attack
B. Dictionary Attack
C. Syllable Attack
D. Rule-based Attack
70-357 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is an application alert returned by a web application that helps an attacker guess a
valid username?
A. Invalid username or password
B. Account username was not found
C. Incorrect password
D. Username or password incorrect
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
A pen tester has extracted a database name by using a blind SQL injection. Now he begins to test the
table inside the database using the below query and finds the table:
http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (LEN(SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=’U’)=3)
WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′–
http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects
where xtype=char(85)),1,1)))=101) WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′– http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF
(ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=char(85)),2,1)))=109)
WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′– http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT
TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=char(85)),3,1)))=112) WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′–
What is the table name?
A. CTS
B. QRT
C. EMP
D. ABC
70-357  pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
When you are running a vulnerability scan on a network and the IDS cuts off your connection, what type of
IDS is being used?
A. Passive IDS
B. Active IDS
C. Progressive IDS
D. NIPS
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
HTTP protocol specifies that arbitrary binary characters can be passed within the URL by using %xx
notation, where ‘xx’ is the

A. ASCII value of the character
B. Binary value of the character
C. Decimal value of the character
D. Hex value of the character
70-357  vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which of the following appendices gives detailed lists of all the technical terms used in the report?
A. Required Work Efforts
B. References
C. Research
D. Glossary
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
An external intrusion test and analysis identify security weaknesses and strengths of the client’s systems
and networks as they appear from outside the client’s security perimeter, usually from the Internet. The
goal of an external intrusion test and analysis is to demonstrate the existence of known vulnerabilities that
could be exploited by an external attacker.
During external penetration testing, which of the following scanning techniques allow you to determine a
port’s state without making a full connection to the host?
A. XMAS Scan
B. SYN scan
C. FIN Scan
D. NULL Scan
70-357  exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Passwords protect computer resources and files from unauthorized access by malicious users. Using
passwords is the most capable and effective way to protect information and to increase the security level
of a company.

Password cracking is the process of recovering passwords from data that have been stored in or
transmitted by a computer system to gain unauthorized access to a system.

Which of the following password cracking attacks tries every combination of characters until the password
is broken?
A. Brute-force attack
B. Rule-based attack
C. Hybrid attack
D. Dictionary attack
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Rules of Engagement (ROE) document provides certain rights and restriction to the test team for
performing the test and helps testers to overcome legal, federal, and policy-related restrictions to use
different penetration testing tools and techniques.

What is the last step in preparing a Rules of Engagement (ROE) document?
A. Conduct a brainstorming session with top management and technical teams

B. Decide the desired depth for penetration testing
C. Conduct a brainstorming session with top management and technical teams
D. Have pre-contract discussions with different pen-testers
70-357  dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Which of the following is a framework of open standards developed by the Internet Engineering Task
Force (IETF) that provides secure transmission of the sensitive data over an unprotected medium, such as
the Internet?
A. DNSSEC
B. Netsec
C. IKE
D. IPsec
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
Mason is footprinting an organization to gather competitive intelligence. He visits the company’s website
for contact information and telephone numbers but does not find any. He knows the entire staff directory
was listed on their website 12 months. How can he find the directory?
A. Visit Google’s search engine and view the cached copy
B. Crawl and download the entire website using the Surfoffline tool and save them to his computer
C. Visit the company’s partners’ and customers’ website for this information
D. Use WayBackMachine in Archive.org web site to retrieve the Internet archive
70-357  pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Application security assessment is one of the activity that a pen tester performs in the attack phase. It is
designed to identify and assess threats to the organization through bespoke, proprietary applications or
systems. It checks the application so that a malicious user cannot access, modify, or destroy data or
services within the system.

Identify the type of application security assessment which analyzes the application-based code to confirm
that it does not contain any sensitive information that an attacker might use to exploit an application.
A. Web Penetration Testing
B. Functionality Testing

C. Authorization Testing
D. Source Code Review
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a firewall?
A. Manages public access to private networked resources
B. Routes packets between the networks
C. Examines all traffic routed between the two networks to see if it meets certain criteria
D. Filters only inbound traffic but not outbound traffic
70-357 vce Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Updated: Aug 02, 2017
Q&As: 275

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 210-260 Dumps  Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION NO: 16
A text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 12 is set to auto-enter the following formula:
FirstName & ” ” & LastNarne
FirstName and LastNarne are text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all
referenced fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any
is checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field
(Choose two.)
A. a record is first created
B. each time the value of the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified
C. a user selects the menu item Records > Relookup Field Contents
D. any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
210-260 exam Answer: A,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
Consider a FileMaker Pro 12 database with the following tables:
210-260 dumps

And the relationship is configured as follows:
210-260 dumps

Which two statements are true about this situation? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible to create new Salesperson records by importing data into the Order table.
B. Users may create new Order records by entering data into a portal on a Salesperson Detail
layout.
C. A merge field can be used on layouts based on the Salesperson table occurrence to show a list
of all of a salesperson’s orders.
D. Removing the sort from the Order side of the relationship will not change the way that Order
records are displayed in a portal on a Salesperson Detail layout.
E. List (Salesperson:: Salesperson ID) calculated from the context of the Order table returns a list
containing the Salesperson ID for the current order.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event id has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records … nor the
Delete related records … settings to be enabled for the Event table.
210-260 dumps Answer:: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an
External ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation
B. These fields may be indexed unless they are of type Summary.
C. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL when the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
D. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button
in the FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
A FileMaker Pro 12 database has two tables called Company and Customer. Both tables have a
number field called CompanyID. The two tables have a relationship between them formed by the
condition Company:: CompanyID = Customer:: CompanyID. Each table also has a text field called
CompanyName. The CompanyName field in the Customer table is defined to Auto-enter
calculated value, with the formula: Company:: CompanyName and the option Do not replace
existing value of field unchecked.
Under which circumstances will the value of the CompanyName field on a Customer record be
refreshed with data from the related Company record?
A. any time the Customer record is modified
B. any time the index of the Company:: CompanyID field is rebuilt
C. any time the related Company:: CompanyName field is modified
D. any time the CompanyID field on the Customer record is modified
E. any time a user chooses Refresh Window from the Records menu while viewing the Customer
record
210-260 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
Which statement is true about container fields in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. If one container field in a given database file is set to Store container data externally, all
container fields in that file must store their data externally
B. If a file larger than a database’s Maximum container file size value is inserted into a container
field. FileMaker Pro 12 will automatically compress the inserted file.
C. If a container field is set to Store container data externally, then the Store only a reference to
the file option is automatically selected for any file inserted into that field.
D. If the setting Generate and store thumbnails for images is chosen in the Manage Containers
dialog for a given database file, all container fields in that file will have thumbnails generated.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
Which two are directly selectable options in the Validation tab of the field options dialog in
FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two.)
A. Existing value
B. Strict data type: Integer
C. Strict data type: Time of Day
D. Strict datatype: Alphanumeric
E. Minimum number of characters
210-260 vce Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
Which two statements are true about fields using global storage in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose
two.)
A. Globally stored fields are always empty at the start of a user’s session.
B. Fields using global storage can be used as match fields in a relationship.
C. A container field using global storage may not be configured to store its data externally.
D. Globally stored fields can only be accessed from within the file in which they are defined.
E. Changes to data in globally stored fields in a shared file are stored when the server cache is
flushed.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
What is possible when working with shadow fields from an External ODBC Data Source?
A. creating a two-column value list
B. saving formatted text (bold, italic, etc.)
C. checking the Auto-complete using previously entered values checkbox in the Field/Control
Setup dialog
D. inserting binary data such as a PDF file, provided the field options are set to Store container
data externally
210-260 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
Which three field options may be set for a shadow field from an External ODBC Data Source?
(Choose three.)
A. Validation: not empty
B. Validation: unique value
C. Validation: existing value
D. Auto-enter creation timestamp
E. Auto-enter serial number, on creation
F. Storage: automatically create indexes as needed
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 26
A table in a FileMaker Pro 12 database has a text field CompanyName. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
– Validate data in this field only during data entry
– Allow user to override during data entry
– Require not empty
– Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName
field. What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides
the error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see the specified
custom message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog
from the FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors,
along with a count of those records.
210-260 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
Given a text field Full Name, Auto-Enter by Calculated value has been selected in the field
options, using the following formula:
Name First &.” “& Name Last
The developer then disables (unchecks) the option Do not replace existing value of field (if any).
For which two cases will the results of the specified formula be inserted into the field Full Name?
(Choose two.)
A. When the record is first created
B. When the field Full Name itself is modified
C. Only when the field Full Name was previously empty
D. When either of the fields Name First or Name Last is modified
E. When the field Full Name itself is modified and the record is committed
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28
A new database is created with two tables, Client and Contracts. The only modification made on
the Relationships Graph is to establish a relationship between them which is set to delete related
records in Contracts when a record in Client is deleted.

What happens when the Client table occurrence is deleted from the Relationships Graph?
A. Since it is the only occurrence of the Client table on the graph, it can not be deleted.
B. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records are deleted.
C. The formula in the calculation field Name Full (defined as Name First & ” ” & Name Last) will be
broken.
D. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records will have values
in the client id field deleted.
210-260 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
Consider two FileMaker files, Collection and Item, where tables from Item are included in the
Relationships Graph of Collection.
Which method will preserve all functionality in the Relationships Graph of Collection after
renaming the Item file to Artifact?

A. Choose File > Manage > External Data Sources… for Collection and reset the file path
B. Click the Repair Reference button in the Relationships Graph for Collection and reset the file
path
C. Delete referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and
recreate them for Artifact
D. Select referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and right
click to choose Rename File Source…
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30
Which two FileMaker Pro 12 objects will display data contents even when unrelated to the current
layout’s table occurrence? (Choose two.)
A. Merge variable
B. Indexed tirnestarnp field
C. A text field from a shadow table
D. Globally stored number field placed in a portal
E. A container field defined with the Store as reference only option enabled
Answer: A,D
210-260 vce Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what is known about this database?
A. The Event table occurrence references a table from an external ODBC Data Source
B. There can be zero or one, but no more than one, Event record related to any Task record.
C. The corner arrows indicate all three table occurrences reference tables from external data
sources.
D. From a layout based on the Event table occurrence, a portal could be drawn showing both
related Task and Volunteer data.
210-260 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Updated: Jul 17, 2017
Q&As: 402

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 300-101 Dumps  Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION NO: 32
Which GSC describes the degree to which the application communicates directly with the
processor?
A. Data communications
B. Distributed data processing
C. Transaction rate
D. Online update
300-101 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 33
Which of the following statements is a characteristic of the GSC – complex processing?
A. Development of the application is influenced by how the development was carried out
B. Development of the application is influenced by the complexity of data communication
C. Development of the application is influenced by the complexity of the processing logic
D. None of the above
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 34
Which transactional function(s) has (have) the primary intent of presenting information to the user
and must reference a data function to retrieve data or control information?
A. EI
B. EO
C. EQ
D. Both B and C
300-101 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 35
The primary intent of an EQ is to:
A. alter the behavior of the application
B. maintain one or more ILFs
C. present information to a user
D. Both A and C
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 36
An External Inquiry is defined as an elementary process that:
A. Sends data outside the boundary
B. Sends Control Information outside the boundary
C. Has a primary intent to present information to a user through retrieval of data or control
information
D. All of the above
300-101 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 37
Which statement(s) is (are) true regarding mandatory processing logic for an EQ?
A. Data or control information is maintained
B. Conditions are analyzed to determine which are applicable
C. At least one ILF or EIF is referenced
D. Data or control information entering the boundary of the application is accepted
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 38
Which processing logic can be performed by an EQ?
A. Equivalent values are converted
B. Behavior of the application is altered
C. Derived data is created
D. Both A and B
300-101 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 39
The functional complexity of an EQ is based upon the number of:
A. RETs
B. FTRs
C. DETs
D. Both B and C
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 40
Which of the following forms of processing logic is mandatory that an EO perform at least one
(m*)?
A. Behavior of the application is altered
B. Equivalent values are converted
C. At least one ILF or EIF is referenced
D. Information is prepared and then presented outside the boundary
300-101 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 41
Which of the following statements is true regarding EOs?
A. An EO is an elementary process that sends data or control information outside the boundary.
B. An EO includes additional processing logic beyond that of an EQ.
C. An EO always maintains a data function.
D. Both A and B
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Processing logic is defined as any of the requirements specifically requested by the user to
complete an elementary process. Those requirements include which of the following actions?
A. Validations
B. Algorithms or calculations
C. Reading or maintaining a data function
D. All of the above
300-101 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 43
An External Output is defined as an elementary process that:
A. Includes addition processing beyond an external inquiry
B. Sends data outside the boundary
C. Has a primary intent to present information to a user though processing logic or in addition to
retrieval of data or control information.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 44
Which of the following statements about an External Output are true?
A. Processing logic must contain multiple mathematical formulas
B. Processing logic must perform at least one mathematical formula
C. Processing logic creates derived data
D. Processing logic contains derived data
300-101 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 45
An FTR is be defined as a:
A. data function maintained by a base functional component
B. data function read and/or maintained by a transactional function
C. base functional component maintained by a transactional function
D. base functional component read and/or maintained by a transactional function
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 46

What is the primary intent of an ILF?
A. Hold data maintained through system tools for use by the application being measured
B. Hold code data for use by the application being measured
C. Hold data maintained through one or more elementary processes of the application being
measured
D. Both A and C
300-101 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 47
Data Element Type is defined as?
A. Functionality provided to the user to meet internal or external data storage requirements
B. An attribute that further describes one or more attributes of another entity
C. Two types of the base functional components identified in the IFPUG International Standard
D. Unique, user recognizable, non-repeated attribute
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 200-105
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Updated: Jul 16, 2017
Q&As: 204

Study Material  for Cisco 200-105 Dumps ICND2 Outline

  1. Cisco Device Management
  2. Troubleshooting Networks
  3. Network Addressing
  4. VLANs and Trunking
  5. Spanning Tree Protocol
  6. Advanced Switch Redundancy
  7. Access Layer Security
  8. Routing Fundamentals
  9. EIGRP Configuration
  10. OSPF Configuration
  11. PPP WANs
  12. eBGP Configuration
  13. Secure VPNs and Tunneling
  14. Intelligent Networks
  15. Quality of Service

200-105

Free Pass4itsure Cisco 200-105 Dumps  Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 7
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a
server with the address of 192.168.13.26. Which commands can the administrator issue to verify that the
access list is working properly? (Choose three.)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
200-105 exam Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

200-105

Correct Answer:

200-105

QUESTION 9
Lab – Access List Simulation
A network associate is adding security to the configuration of the Corp1 router. The user on host C should
be able to use a web browser to access financial information from the Finance Web Server. No other hosts
from the LAN nor the Core should be able to use a web browser to access this server. Since there are

multiple resources for the corporation at this location including other resources on the Finance Web
Server, all other traffic should be allowed.
The task is to create and apply a numbered access-list with no more than three statements that will allow
ONLY host C web access to the Finance Web Server. No other hosts will have web access to the Finance
Web Server. All other traffic is permitted.
Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host.
All passwords have been temporarily set to “cisco”.
The Core connection uses an IP address of 198.18.196.65
The computers in the Hosts LAN have been assigned addresses of 192.168.33.1 – 92.168.33.254
Host A 192.168.33.1
Host B 192.168.33.2
Host C 192.168.33.3
Host D 192.168.33.4
The servers in the Server LAN have been assigned addresses of 172.22.242.17 – 172.22.242.30
The Finance Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172.22.242.23.
The Public Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172.22.242.17

200-105

200-105 dumps Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation
QUESTION 10
A sporting goods manufacturer has decided to network three (3) locations to improve efficiency in inventory
control. The routers have been named to reflect the location: Boston, Frankfurt, and Lancaster.
The necessary networking has been completed at each location, and the routers have been configured
with single area OSPF as the routing protocol. The Boston router was recently installed but connectivity is
not complete because of incomplete routing tables.
Identify and correct any problem you see in the configuration.
Note: The OSPF process must be configured to allow interfaces in specific subnets to participate in the
routing process.

200-105

Correct Answer: The question mentioned Boston router was not configured correctly or incomplete so we
should check this router first. Click on Host B to access the command line interface (CLI) of Boston router.
QUESTION 11
200-105

200-105

200-105

200-105

200-105

200-105

200-105

Why did Branch1 router lose WAN connectivity with R1 router?
A. The IP address is misconfigured on PPP multilink interface on the Branch1 router.
B. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the anch1 serial interfaces.
C. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the R1 serial interfaces.
D. The Branch1 serial interfaces are placed in a shutdown condition.
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a
device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
200-105 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
C. Only RADIUS uses TCP.
D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which IEEE standard does PVST+ use to tunnel information?
A. 802.1x
B. 802 1q
C. 802.1w
D. 802.1s
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client?
A. Ethernet
B. dialer
C. serial
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
200-105 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105

Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105

At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105

A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the
AcmeB router. What action does the router take?

A. forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface
B. forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface
C. forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface
D. forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
A. a backup route, stored in the routing table
B. a primary route, stored in the routing table
C. a backup route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the topology table
200-105 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE

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Exam Code: 70-767
Exam Name: Implementing a SQL Data Warehouse (beta)
Updated: Jul 16, 2017
Q&As: 112

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Free Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-676 PDF Exam Questions and Answers:

Question: 69
This Security Standard addresses the proper functions to be performed on a specific workstation as
well as the physical attributes of its surroundings,
A. information Access Management
B. Workstation Security
C. Access Control
D. Facility Access Controls
E. Workstation Use
70-767 pdf Answer: E

Question: 70
In addition to code sets, HIPAA transactions also contain:
A. Security information such as a fingerprint.
B. Privacy information.
C. Information on all business associates,
D. Information on all health care clearinghouses.
E. Identifiers.
Answer: E

Question: 71
Select the correct statement regarding the administrative requirements of The HIPAA privacy rule.
A. A covered entity must designate, and document, a privacy official, security officer and a HIPAA
compliance officer
B. A covered entity must designate, and document, the same person to be both privacy official and
as the contact person responsible for receiving complaints and providing further information about
the notice required by the regulations.
C. A covered entity must implement and maintain written or electronic policies and procedures with
respect to PHI that are designed to comply with HIPAA standards, implementation specifications and
other requirements.
D. A covered entity must train, and document the training of. at least one member of its workforce
on the policies and procedures with regard to PHI as necessary and appropriate for them to carry
out their function within the covered entity no later than the privacy rule compliance date.
E. A covered entity must retain the document required by the regulations for a period often years
from the time of it’s creation or the time it was last in effect, which ever is later
70-767 vce Answer: C

Question: 72
To comply with the Privacy Rule, a valid Notice of Privacy Practices:
A. Is required for all Chain of Trust Agreements.
B. Must allow for the patient’s written acknowledgement of receipt.
C. Must always be signed by the patient.
D. Must be signed in order for the patient’s name to be sold to a mailing list organization.
E. Is not required if an authorization is being developed.
Answer: B

Question: 73
Security to protect information assets is generally defined as having:
A. Controls
B. PRI
C. Biometrics
D. VPN technology
E. Host-based intrusion detection
70-767 dumps Answer: A

Question: 74
One characteristic of the Notice of Privacy Practices is:
A. It must be written in plain, simple language.
B. It must explicitly describe all uses of PHI.
C. A description about the usage of hidden security cameras for tracking patient movements for
implementing privacy.
D. A description of the duties of the individual.
E. A statement that the individual must abide by the terms of the Notice.
Answer: A

Question: 75
Select the FALSE statement regarding the transaction rule.
A. The Secretary is required by statue to impose penalties of at least $100 per violation on any
person or entity that fails to comply with a standard except that the total amount imposed on any
one person in each calendar year may not exceed $1 .000.000 for violations of one requirement.
B. Health plans are required to accept all standard transactions.
C. Health plans may not require providers to make changes or additions to standard transactions.
D. Health plans may not refuse or delay payment of standard transactions.
E. If additional information is added to a standard transaction it must not modify the definition,
condition, intent, or use of a data element.
70-767 exam Answer: A

Question: 76
Which of the following is primarily concerned with implementing security measures that are
sufficient to reduce risks and vulnerabilities to a reasonable and appropriate level.
A. Access Establishment and Modification
B. Isolating Health care clearinghouse Functions
C. Information System Activity Review
D. Risk Management
E. Risk Analysis
Answer: D

Question: 77
The applicable methods for HIPAA-related EDI transactions are:
A. Remote and enterprise.
B. Claim status and remittance advice.
C. Subscriber and payer.
D. Batch and real-time.
E. HCFA-1500 and 837.

Answer: D

Question: 78
A valid Notice of Privacy Practices must
A. Detail specifically all activities that are considered a use or disclosure
B. Describe in plain language what is meant by treatment, payment, and health care operations
(TPO).
C. Inform the individual that protected health information (PHI) may only be used for valid medical
research.
D. Inform the individual that this version of the Notice will always cover them, regardless of
subsequent changes.
E. State the expiration date of the Notice.
70-767 pdf Answer: B

Question: 79
The office manager of a small doctors office wants to donate several of their older workstations to
the local elementary school. Which Security Rule Standard addresses this situation?
A. Security Management Process
B. Device and Media Controls
C. information Access Management
D. Facility Access Controls
E. Workstation Security
Answer: B

Question: 80
Information in this transaction is generated by the payer’s adjudication system:
A. Eligibility (2701271)
B. Premium Payment 2O)
C. Unsolicited Claim Status (277)
D. Remittance Advice 35)
E. Functional Acknowledgment (997)
Answer: D

Question: 81
The key objective of a contingency plan is that the entity must establish and implement policies and
procedures to ensure The:
A. Creation and modification of health information during and after an emergency.
B. Integrity of health information during and after an emergency.
C. Accountability of health information during and after an emergency.
D. Vulnerability of health information during and after an emergency.
E. Non-repudiation of the entity.
70-767 vce Answer: B

Question: 82
A covered entity’ that fails to implement the HIPAA Privacy Rule would risk:
A. $50O0 in fines.
B. $5000 in fines and six months in prison.
C. An annual cap of $5000 in fines.
D. A fine of up to $50000 if they wrongfully disclose PHI.
E. Six months in prison.
Answer: D

Question: 83
This transaction supports multiple functions. These functions include: telling a bank to move money
OR telling a bank to move money while sending remittance information
A. 277.
B. 276
C. 271
D. 820.
E. 270.
70-767 dumps Answer: D

Question: 84
When PHI is sent or received over an electronic network there must be measures to guard against
unauthorized access. This is covered under which security rule standard?
A. Device and Media Controls
B. Access Controls
C. Transmission Security
D. Integrity
E. Audit Controls
Answer: C

Question: 85
Title 1 of the HIPAA legislation in the United States is about:
A. P1<1 requirements for hospitals and health care providers.
B. Encryption algorithms that must be supported by hospitals and health care providers.
C. Fraud and abuse in the health care system and ways to eliminate the same.
D. Guaranteed health insurance coverage to workers and their families when they change
employers.
E. The use of strong authentication technology that must be supported by hospitals and health care
providers.
Answer: D

Question: 86
Implementing policies and procedures to prevent, detect, contain, and correct security violations is
required by which security standard?
A. Security incident Procedures
B. Assigned Security Responsibility
C. Access control
D. Facility Access Controls
E. Security Management Process
Answer: E

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MCDBAVendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCDBA
Exam Name: UPGRADE:MCDBA Skills to MCITP DB Admin by Using MS SQL 2005
Exam Code: 070-447
Total Questions: 137 Q&As
Last Updated: May 05, 2017

Exam Information:
QUESTION 1
When using a proxy server to manage how BlackBerry Smartphone connect to web pages, what are the types available for creating a proxy profile?
A. SQUID, Microsoft ISA
B. Manual configuration, PAC configuration
C. Filtering, Caching, DNS
D. Transparent Proxy, Onion Router

Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Where can ‘new email notifications be configured?
A. Settings -> Notifications -> Messages
B. Options -> Notifications -> Messages
C. BlackBerry Hub -> Notifications -> Messages
D. BlackBerry Hub -> Advanced -> Notifications -> Messages

Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
A user trying to activate their device over USB logs onto Web Desktop with a version of Internet Explorer notices this error Complete the setup process. The necessary controls have not been installed. The ActiveX control is installed on the user s computer. The user should retry the connection with
A. Internet Explorer 8.0 or later browser.
B. Internet Explorer 7.0 or later browser.
C. Firefox 3.5 or later browser.
D. Internet Explorer 9.0 or earlier browser.

Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
The BDS administrator can create an SCEP profile for a simplified means of:
A. deploying certificates for large-scale implementation to everyday users.
B. generating certificates for large-scale deployment.
C. auditing which accounts have certificates in large-scale implementation for everyday users.
D. creating device shortcut icons that the device owner can use to request certificates.

Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
What are the different methods for assigning an activation password for a BlackBerry device?
A. Login to BlackBerry Administration Console, search the user, and select option Specify an Activation password from the user properties
B. Login to BlackBerry Administration Console, search the user, and select option Generate an Activation Email from the user properties
C. Login to BlackBerry Administration Console, search the user, and select option Assign EA password from the user properties
D. Instruct the user to login to BlackBerry Web Desktop and assign their Activation password

Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: JN0-643
Exam Name: Enterprise Routing and Switching, Professional (JNCIP-ENT)
Updated: Apr 20, 2017
Q&As: 221
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QUESTION 10
— Exhibit
jn0-643 dumps

— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which LSA type will Router R2 inject into Area 1?
A. Type 3 LSA
B. Type 4 LSA
C. Type 5 LSA
D. Type 7 LSA
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 11
— Exhibit —
[edit protocols ospf]
[email protected]# show
area 0.0.0.6 {
nssa {
default-lsa default-metric 10;
area-range 184.23.12.0/24;
}
interface ge-1/1/4;
}
[edit protocols ospf]
[email protected]# show ospf database
OSPF database, Area 0.0.0.0
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Router *192.168.0.2 192.168.0.2 0x80000004 749 0x22 0x87c2 60 Router 192.168.0.3 192.168.0.3
0x80000004 399 0x22 0x94b5 60 Summary *10.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 0x80000003 19 0x22 0xe2e4 28
Summary *192.168.0.1 192.168.0.2 0x80000002 1100 0x22 0xbda7 28
OSPF database, Area 0.0.0.6
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Router 192.168.0.1 192.168.0.1 0x80000004 404 0x20 0x76db 60 Router *192.168.0.2 192.168.0.2
0x80000003 1802 0x20 0x319b 48 Summary *11.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 0x80000002 2504 0x20 0xf5d3 28
Summary *192.168.0.2 192.168.0.2 0x80000003 2153 0x20 0xc5a0 28 Summary *192.168.0.3
192.168.0.2 0x80000002 398 0x20 0xc79d 28 NSSA *0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 0x80000001 11 0x20 0xcbf1 36
NSSA 184.23.12.0 192.168.0.1 0x80000002 447 0x28 0xb93f 36 OSPF AS SCOPE link state database
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Extern *184.23.12.0 192.168.0.2 0x80000003 11 0x22 0x28d6 36 — Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. R2 injects a Type 3 LSA for 184.23.12.0/24 into the backbone.
B. R2 is an ABR.
C. R2 injects a Type 5 LSA for 184.23.12.0/24 into the backbone.
D. R2 is an ASBR.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
— Exhibit
jn0-643 dumps

Exhibit
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which type of LSA will be seen on router A for routes originating in Customer A’s
network?
A. Type 7 LSA
B. Type 2 LSA
C. Type 5 LSA
D. Type 1 LSA
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

 

QUESTION 13
Which statement is true regarding OSPF multi-area adjacencies?
A. A type 3 (stub) link is advertised for a multi-area adjacency.
B. Configuring a multi-area adjacency allows the corresponding link to be considered an interarea link, s
it will be less preferred over an intra-area link.
C. One logical interface will be a primary link, and the other configured as a secondary link; the seconda
link will be established as an unnumbered point-to-point interface.
D. A DR and a BDR will be elected over the secondary interface, because it is not point-to-point.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 14
— Exhibit

jn0-643 dumps

— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Traffic destined for R2 will be blackholed.
B. Transit traffic will follow the R1-R2-R4 path.
C. Traffic destined for R2 will reach R2.
D. Transit traffic will follow the R1-R3-R4 path.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference: JN0-643 dumps

 


QUESTION 15
Which statement is true about using an OSPF import policy?
A. Import policies are not allowed in OSPF, applying the policy will do nothing.

B. Applying an import policy to OSPF may block normal LSA flooding.
C. Import policies are allowed only for external route types.
D. Applying this policy will cause a commit failure.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 16
Which statement is true regarding the SPF algorithm?
A. The SPF algorithm is run on a per-domain basis.
B. If you apply an import policy to OSPF, it keeps LSAs from being flooded, and the SPF calculation
be affected.
C. There are two databases used in the calculation, the link-state database and the tree database.
D. The SPF calculation is run on a per-area basis on each router.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 17
You are asked to configure graceful restart in your network.
Which OSPF LSA type would you expect to see in the LSDB?
A. Type 8
B. Type 9
C. Type 10
D. Type 11
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 18
— Exhibit
jn0-643 dumps

— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which answer is correct?
A. R2 is the DR and R1 is the BDR.
B. R4 is the DR and R2 is the BDR.

C. R2 is the DR and R3 is the BDR.
D. R3 is the DR and R2 is the BDR.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 19
— Exhibit —
[email protected]> show ospf database network extensive
OSPF link state database, area 0.0.0.1
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Network 10.222.1.1 192.168.20.1 0x80000002 813 0x2 0x 32 mask 255.255.255.0
attached router 192.168.20.1
attached router 192.168.40.1
Aging timer 00:46:27
Installed 00:13:32 ago, expires in 00:46:27, sent 1w5d 01:07:09 ago
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true regarding the OSPF network LSA?
A. The ID field value shows the router ID of the advertising router.
B. The ID field is the local interface IP address from which the LSA will be advertised.
C. The options field indicates this is a Type 2 LSA.
D. The output shows that 192.168.20.1 is the designated router.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Vendor: Oracle
Certifications: Oracle Database
Exam Code: 1Z0-060
Exam Name: Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c
Total Questions: 150 Q&As
Updated on: Apr 01, 2017

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QUESTION 44
If you insert an EJB control into a page flow, which annotation tag marks the addition?
A. @common:jc
B. @common:ejbgen
C. @common:netuix
D. @common:control
E. @common:context
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
When Workshop generates a Session Bean, it creates a template for which method?
A. ejbFind()
B. None of these
C. ejbCreate()
D. onMessage()
E. setMessageContext()
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 46
Which of the following is NOT a valid project type in Workshop?
A. JMS project
B. Java project
C. Web project
D. Schema project
E. Datasync project

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
In JPD, nodes that are scripted:
A. None of these
B. Contain JSP code
C. Contain custom code
D. Contain EXMAscript code
E. Are generated automatically

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
What is the name of the connection pool that is used to track conversational states?
A. cgTX
B. cgWS
C. cqPool
D. cgState
E. cqConverse

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
Placeholders can be used in portals and in:
A. EJBs
B. Controls
C. Campaigns
D. None of these
E. Integration projects

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
While developing an application, you notice several sever and application anomalies, including the fact that the Administration Console does not display. Which command would help you determine what the problem is?
A. java weblogic.Admin -url localhost:7001 -username WebLogic -password WebLogic DEBUG
B. java weblogic.Admin -url localhost:7001 -username WebLogic -pasword WebLogic GET-all
C. java weblogic.Admin -url localhost:7001 -username WebLogic -password WebLogic LIST-all
D. java weblogic.Admin -url localhost:7001 -username WebLogic -password WebLogic THREAD_DUMP
E. java weblogic.Admin -url localhost:7001 -username WebLogoc -password WebLogoc COLLECT_DATA

Correct Answer: D
1Z0-060 exam QUESTION 51
The BEA Repository holds what type of portal project data?
A. None of these
B. Portal configuration information
C. Domain configuration information
D. Contectmanagement information
E. WebLogic WorkShop configuration information

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
What is the name of the global page flow source file?
A. app.jpf
B. app.jcx
C. Global.app
D. Application.jpf
E. MasterpageFlow.jpf

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
The deployment descriptor within a WAR file resides in which directory?
A. WEB – INF
B. APP – INF
C. META – INF
D. MANIFEST
E. Resources

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
A Page Flow action begins a JTA transaction and then involves several EJBs in the transaction. One EJB detects a severe during a data-validity check. Can this EJB roll back the transaction?
A. Yes. The EJB can call a rollback
B. Yes. The EJB can call setrollbackonly.
C. Yes. The EJB can throw an application excption, which automatically causes the transaction to roll back.
D. Yes. The EJB can throw a javax.ejb RollbackException, which automatically causes the transaction to roll back.
E. No The EJB must propagate an exception or error message back to the Page Flow action as a signal for it to call a rollback.

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 8
Many users, located in different geographic regions, all need access to certain secure web applications and EJB components. The users although dispersed, have common Job descriptions. What is the best way to generically provide access for all of these users?
A. Use declarative security by providing authorization based user roles
B. Programmatically authorize each user who requests a protected resource
C. Use Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) to implement discretionary security
D. Create all user accounts in an LDAP server, and make it the default realm for the domain
E. Define a custom security proxy that stores and propagates each authenticated user’s credential information
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Within a Service-Oriented Architecture, which of the following is NOT specified by a Service Policy?
A. Encryption rules
B. Execution Rules
C. Versioning Rules
D. Authorization rules
E. Authentication rules
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
Which statement best describes the way in which WebLogic Workshop can be used to develop applications following the MVC pattern?
A. Create EJBs and JSPs. Call EJBs from Servlets.
B. WebLogic Workhop doesn’t use the MVC model.
C. Create a Struts Action from and associate it with the appropriate action mapping definition
D. Create a serializable javaBean THAT DEFINES THE STATEFUL FIELDS AND THEIR METHODS AND PASSES THE DATA BETWEEN THE MODEL INVOCATION AND VIEW ELEMENTS
E. Create an action from that defines the stateful fields and their accessor/mutator methods. Scope the form to a PageFlow and pass the state to controls, and call from the view as necessary.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 11
Your application requirements include accessing a legacy mainframe application with native communication protocols. The legacy system must be accessible from J2EE and Net servers. To do this most effectively, you would use a product based on which specification?
A. J2CA
B. JDBC
C. RMI/IIOP
D. Web Services
E. Java to CORBA bridge

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Within a Service -Oriented Architecture, service version are bound to consumer through the;
A. UDDI Server
B. Service Policy
C. Connectivity Layer
D. Services Directory
E. Orchestration Layer

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
When considering distributed transactions and the two phase commit protocol which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. WebLogic SERVER DOES NOT SUPPORT NESTED TRANSACTIONS
B. WebLogic SERVER ALLOWS TRANSACTIONS TO BE terminated only by the client that created the transaction
C. Recovering transactions for a failed WebLogic server instance requires a weblogic cluster configuration
D. A heuristic decision occurs when any XA resource makes a unilateral decision during the completion phase
E. By default, the Transaction Manager will continue to complete the transaction during the second phase for up to 24 hours

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Within the WebLogic Platform environment, which of these events are NOT part the of the Application Lifecycle when re-deploying an application and when the debug flags are set?
A. preStart
B. postStop
C. postStart
D. completed
E. inialization

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
When designing a Service-Oriented Architecture you plan to provide Services Management capabilities. Primarily Services Management includes:
A. The Message Broker
B. Java Control tracking
C. Business Process instances
D. Security implementation Details
E. Service registration and discovery

Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 31
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference: http://www.pass4cert.net/70-480-dumps-download.html
The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols are needed so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and
frames.
The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populated based on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding
Information Base (FIB) is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.

QUESTION 32
Which option is the most effective action to avoid packet loss due to microbursts?
A. Implement larger buffers.
B. Install a faster CPU.
C. Install a faster network interface.
D. Configure a larger tx-ring size.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can’t avoid or prevent them as such without modifying the sending host’s application/network stack so it smoothes out the bursts. However, you can manage microbursts by tuning the size of receive buffers / rings to absorb occasional microbursts.
QUESTION 33
Which two statements about packet fragmentation on an IPv6 network are true? (Choose two.)
A. The fragment header is 64 bits long.
B. The identification field is 32 bits long.
C. The fragment header is 32 bits long.
D. The identification field is 64 bits long.
E. The MTU must be a minimum of 1280 bytes.
F. The fragment header is 48 bits long.
Correct Answer: AB Explanation   cisco-200-125 ccna pdf

Explanation/Reference:
The fragment header is shown below, being 64 bits total with a 32 bit identification field: Reference: http://www.openwall.com/presentations/IPv6/img24.html

QUESTION 34
You are backing up a server with a 1 Gbps link and a latency of 2 ms. Which two statements about the backup are true? (Choose two.)
A. The bandwidth delay product is 2 Mb.
B. The default TCP send window size is the limiting factor.
C. The default TCP receive window size is the limiting factor.
D. The bandwidth delay product is 500 Mb.
E. The bandwidth delay product is 50 Mb.

Correct Answer: AC Explanation Explanation/Reference:
1 Gbps is the same as 1000 Mbps, and 1000Mb x .0002 = 2 Mbps. With TCP based data transfers, the receive window is always the limiting factor, as the sender is generally able to send traffic at line rate, but then must wait for the acknowledgements to send more data.
QUESTION 35
Which two pieces of information does RTCP use to inform endpoint devices about the RTP flow? (Choose two.)
A. the transmitted octet
B. the lost packet count
C. session control function provisioning information
D. the CNAME for session participants
E. the authentication method
F. MTU size changes in the path of the flow Correct Answer: AB

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
RTCP transports statistics for a media connection and information such as transmitted octet and packet counts, packet loss, packet delay variation, and round-trip delay time. An application may use this information to control quality of service parameters, perhaps by limiting flow, or using a different codec.

QUESTION 36
How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32

Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference:
In order to understand how the load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table), which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.

QUESTION 37
Which three features require Cisco Express Forwarding? (Choose three.)
A. NBAR
B. AutoQoS
C. fragmentation
D. MPLS
E. UplinkFast
F. BackboneFast

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.certadept.com/cisco-200-125-exam-with-our-dumps-pdf-vce-free-try.html

Recognition.
QoS Features That Require CEF These class-based QoS features are supported only on routers that run CEF. Network Based Application Recognition (NBAR) provides intelligent network classification. For more information, refer to Network Based Application

The AutoQoS -VoIP feature simplifies and speeds up the implementation and provisioning of QoS for VoIP traffic. This feature is enabled with the help of the
auto qos voip command. CEF must be enabled at the interface or ATM PVC before the auto qos command can be used. For more information about this feature and its prerequisites, refer to AutoQoS – VoIP.
From MPLS Fundamentals – Luc De Ghein Why Is CEF Needed in MPLS Networks? Concerning MPLS, CEF is special for a certain reason; otherwise, this book would not explicitly cover it. Labeled packets that enter the router are switched according to the label forwarding information base (LFIB) on the router. IP packets that enter the router are switched according to the CEF table on the router. Regardless of whether the packet is switched according to the LFIB or the CEF table, the outgoing packet can be a labeled packet or an IP packet

QUESTION 38
Which two options are interface requirements for turbo flooding? (Choose two.)
A. The interface is Ethernet.
B. The interface is configured for ARPA encapsulation.
C. The interface is PPP.
D. The interface is configured for GRE encapsulation.
E. The interface is configured for 802.1Q encapsulation.

Correct Answer: AB Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ccie-routing-switching.html
In the switch, the majority of packets are forwarded in hardware; most packets do not go through the switch CPU. For those packets that do go to the CPU, you can speed up spanning tree-based UDP flooding by a factor of about four to five times by using turbo-flooding. This feature is supported over Ethernet interfaces configured for ARPA encapsulation.
swiprout.html
QUESTION 39
Which three options are sub-subfields of the IPv4 Option Type subfield? (Choose three.)
A. Option Class
B. GET
C. Copied
D. PUSH
E. Option Number
F. TTL

Correct Answer: ACE Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Each IP option has its own subfield format, generally structured as shown below. For most options, all three subfields are used. Option Type, Option Length and Option Data.

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QUESTION 7
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager at one time. Which option should be used?
A. Bulk Administration Tool
B. Product Upgrade Tool
C. Command Lookup Tool
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E. Cisco Upload Tool

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text Label
B. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user’s phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page?
A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box
B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box
C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box
D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber. Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems?
A. Show Connection Status
B. Report A Problem
C. Advanced Settings
D. About Jabber
E. Reset Jabber
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Use the exhibits below to answer the question.

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QUESTION 132
Which command assigns a cost value of “17” to a switch port?
A. spanning-tree interfacefastethernet 5/8 17
B. spanning-treeportcost 17
C. spanning-treeportcost 17
D. spanning-treevlan 1 cost 17

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
You have configured and applied a Cisco IOS Firewall access rule to the inbound, untrusted interface. You suspect that the rule may be blocking necessary traffic onto the network. What must you do to delete that rule when using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager?
A. Select ACL Editor > Access Rules to delete the rule.
B. You must remove the association between the rule and the interface before deleting the rule
C. You must delete the associated access list on the interface, then reconfigure the access list as required, and then reapply the access group to the proper interface.
D. Go to the Edit Firewall Policy tab to delete the rule.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
A customer in Europe needs to establish an 11-Mbps wireless bridge link between two office buildings that are approximately 1.3 km apart. The wireless link will pass through a public park, which contains a lake that is surrounded by trees. You run the range calculation and determine that the Cisco Aironet 1300 Series Outdoor Access Point/Bridge should work. You install the link using 10.5-dB yagis with 75 feet of standard Cisco cabling and both radios set at 20 mW. The wireless bridges are not able to establish or maintain a link.
What is needed to successfully complete this link?
A. An amplifier needs to be installed at one of the sites.
B. The antenna must be raised high enough to clear the trees
C. Lower loss cabling needs to be used to bring the EIRP into legal limits.
D. Due to the trees, a 21-dBi dish needs to be used for its narrower beam width.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
You connect via Telnet to a Cisco access point and enter the command show dot11 link test. Which output might you obtain?
A. signal-to-noise ratio
B. incoming and outgoing signal strength
C. TX packets dropped
D. RX packets per second

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Refer to the exhibit. The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configurations of Router A and Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the sitE.to-site VPN between Router A and Router B.
What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?

A. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a Turbo ACL (150-199).
B. The IKE encryption methods on the two routers are different
C. the IPSec policy map names on the two routers are different.
D. the IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the Answer: interesting traffic.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

How many active VPN clients are currently connected to the 1841 ISR router?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

Which IP address or address range will be used when allocating an internal IP address to the VPN clients
for the “test” VPN group?________________________________________________________________________
A. 10.1.1.100 to 10.1.1.200 I
B. 10.1-1.2 to 10.1.1.254
C. 192.168.1.1 to 192.168.1.100
D. 192.168.1.2 to 192.168.1.254
E. 192.168.1.1
F. 192.168.1.2

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

Which authentication method is used by the test” VPN group?
A. RSA Encrypted Nounce
B. RSA Digital Signature
C. PrE.Shared Key
D. Digital Certificate
E. DH2

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 140
You are the network consultant. You have a customer with a small network of 15 remote sites is trying to optimize its VPN by migrating some remote sites using Frame Relay connections to the Internet to using cable connections to the Internet. The keypoint for your customer is to save money. Only a moderate amount of IP traffic is passing through the network, most of which is from the remote sites to the central site. IPSec should be used to provide VPN functionality and basic confidentiality is desired..Considering the above requirements. Which solution would be the easiest for this customer to set up and manage?
A. point-to-point
B. partial mesh
C. point-to-multipoint
D. hub-and-spoke

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
In an infrastructure based on a wireless advanced feature set using lightweight access points, by which method is a rogue contained?
A. The WCS sends excessive traffic to the rogue thus overloading the access point.
B. The rogue MAC address is used to spoof broadcastdeassociation packets.
C. The rogue MAC address is used to spoof broadcastdeauthentication packets.
D. The WCS sends out excessive signals on the same channel when the rogue is detected.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
With industry-leading services and performance, the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switch is Cisco’s flagship switching solution. It delivers the most comprehensive feature sets for core, distribution, wiring closet, data center, enterprise WAN routing, and Metro-Ethernet deployments. Which layer you think is recommended that the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WLSM be placed?
A. core
B. distribution
C. access
D. presentation

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
The Cisco Lifecycle Services approach defines the activities needed to help you successfully deploy and operate Cisco technologies and optimize their performance throughout the lifecycle of your network. Which statement is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases?
A. initiation, prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
B. site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing, and operations
C. prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
D. deployment, testing, implementation, and production

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Which IP address or address range will be used when allocating an internal ip address to the VPN client for the test

A. 120.1.1.100 to 10.1.1.200
B. 10.1.1.2 to 10.1.1.254
C. 192.1681.1 to 192.1681.1.100
D. 192.1681.2 to 192.1681.1.254

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
Which authentication method is used by the test VPN group?

A. RSA EncryptedNounce
B. RSA Digital Signature
C. Pre-shared key
D. DH2

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RA and RB. Given the debug output on RA, which two statements are true?(Choose two)
A. RA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
B. RA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
C. RA will form an adjacency with RB.
D. RAwill not form an adjacency with RB.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
You are the network administrator. There is one Gigabit Ethernet port on the Cisco CE520 used in the Smart Business Communications System. Which port role assignment would you make for?
A. Cisco Express 520
B. Cisco UC520
C. Cisco CE520
D. Cisco 871W

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Refer to the exhibit. CK-SA and CK-SC are running PVST+ STP, and CK-SB is running 802.1 Q STP. If the BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VU\N 2, then there is no blocking port in the VLAN 2 topology. The BPDU of VU\N 2 never makes a “full circle” around the topology; it is replaced by the VLAN 1 BPDU on the CK-SB-CK-SC link, because CK-SB runs only one STP merged with VU\N 1 STP of PVST+. Thus, there is a forwarding loop.

What does PVST+ do to correct this?
A. CK-SA sends PVST+ BPDUs ofVLAU 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SC. CK-SC will put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
B. CK-SB sends PVST+ BPDUs of VU\N 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SA) towards CK-SC. CK-SC will put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
C. CK-SC sends PVST+BPDUsofVU\N 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SC. CK-SAwill put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
D. CK-SA sends PVST+ BPDUs of VU\N 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SB. CK-SA will put port CK-C-CK-B into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
A wireless autonomous 1200 access point running core feature set in root mode has its SSID set to Factory_floor and provides connection to a repeater access point with its SSID set to factory_floor, if the root-mode access point is using channel 11 which channel will the repeater access point use?
A. channel 11
B. channel 1 or 6
C. anynonoverlapping channel
D. The root access point and the repeater will negotiate this setting

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
The VPN server uses a preshared key for remote device authentication
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
A customer with a large enterprise network wants to allow employees to work from home over the Internet. The customer anticipates a large amount of traffic, predominantly toward the central site. The customer also requires a VPN using strong user authentication and encryption to protect highly sensitive data. Which solution best meets this customer’s requirements?
A. remote-access VPN with software encryption
B. remote-access VPN with hardware encryption
C. site-to-site VPN with hub-and-spoke tunnels using 3DES and pre-shared secrets
D. site-to-site Cisco Easy VPN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configurations of RA and RB. Traffic between PC1 and PC2 is not successfully establishing the site-to-site VPN between -RA and -RB. What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?
A. RAis using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while RB is using a Turbo ACL(150-199).
B. The IPSec encryption methods used by each router do not match.
C. The D-H Group settings on the two routers are the same.
D. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
You are the network consultant. When will you assess a customer’s current network infrastructure?
A. plan
B. design
C. operate
D. optimize

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
A client is experiencing lower throughput and more packet retransmits is one area of the wireless network. At these times, the client utility shows high signal strength but low signal quality. What may be causing this issue?
A. The client does not support Cisco Compatible Extensions version 2.
B. Diversity is not enabled in the access point.
C. The WDS is failing to register the client card in the WLSM.
D. The channel is set incorrectly in the access point or in the client configuration.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Which statement is correct about the current address translation configurations on the security appliance?
A. Dynamic NAT is used to translate the 10.0.1.100 host on the inside interface to a global address of
192.168.1.1
B. Port AddressTranslation(PAT) is used to translate any host on the inside interface to the 192.168.1.100 global address.
C. Static NAT is used to translate the 172.16.1.2 host on thedmzl interface to a global address of
192.168.1.102
D. Dynamic NAT is used to translate any host ondmzl and dmz2 interfaces to a mapped address from the address from the address pool of 192.168.1.110 to 192.168.1.250

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
VLAN Hopping is one of the primary VLAN based attacks used by hackers to infiltrate network security. VLAN hopping is used to attack a network by sending packets to a port which is generally not accessible. VLAN hopping attacks are mainly conducted in the Dynamic Trunking Protocol and, in some cases; the attacks are targeted to the trunking encapsulation protocol (802.1 q or ISL).You worry about the switched infrastructure in an integrated network is vulnerable to VLAN hopping attacks. Which two configuration can be used to mitigate VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. switchporttrunk encapsulation
B. switchport mode trunk
C. switchport access vlan
D. switchport mode access

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
CiscoWorks SNMS is a part of the CiscoWorks family of products for managing small to large networks. CiscoWorks SIMMS is a new Web-based network management solution for small to medium-sized businesses, with 40 or fewer Cisco internetworking devices such as switches, routers, hubs, and access servers. CiscoWorks SNMS can also monitor third-party IT assets such as servers, applications, services, and printers A Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) trunk is typically the voice interconnect between any business and the outside world. Which network management tool is designed to allow businesses to manage up to 40 devices?
A. CiscoWorks Unrestricted
B. CiscoWorks WAN Management
C. CiscoWorks LAN Management
D. CiscoWorks SNMS

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
Which statement is correct about the information in the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager General and License Information screen?
A. The security appliance supports active/active failover only.
B. The security appliance supports 3DES-AES only.
C. The managed device is a Cisco ASA 5540 Security Appliance with VPN premium license enabled.
D. The managed device is Cisco PIX515E Security Appliance.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
Which three are different types of STP inconsistencies in a Layer 2 network?(Choose three)
A. MAC inconsistency
B. Root inconsistency
C. EtherChannel inconsistency
D. type inconsistency

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
According to the error log, VLAN 1 is where the BPDU was received, and VLAN 2 is where the BPDU originated. When inconsistency is detected, what happens?
A. VLAN 1 is blocked, while VLAN 2 is forwarding
B. VLAN1 is blocked, while VLAN 2 is listening
C. Both VLANs are listening on the port from which this BPDU is send
D. Both VLANs are blocked on the port from which this BPDU is received

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
Which is the current configured default gateway IP address on the security appliance?
A. 172.16.10.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 192.168.1.2
D. 10.0.1.1

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which statement is true about a Cisco Aironet 350 Series wireless client when its green LED appears to be off and its amber LED is blinking?
A. The client adapter is scanning for a network.
B. The client adapter is in ad hoc mode.
C. The client adapter is performing a self-test.
D. The client adapter is in power-save mode.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant. Your IT Manager tells you 802.11b telephone can receive an audio signal from an access point, but cannot send audio. What is the most likely reason?
A. The value of RSSI telephone is greater than 30.
B. The access point only receives 802.11g data rates.
C. The security settings in the telephone mismatch the access point.
D. The telephone transmit power is significantly lower than the t the access point

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 139
You connect via Telnet to a Cisco access point and enter the command show dot11 link test. Which output might you obtain?
A. signal-to-noise ratio
B. incoming and outgoing signal strength
C. TX packets dropped
D. RX packets per second

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 140
Refer to the exhibit. The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configurations of Router A and Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the sitE.to-site VPN between Router A and Router B.
What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?

A. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a Turbo ACL (150-199). ”
B. The IKE encryption methods on the two routers are different
C. the IPSec policy map names on the two routers are different.
D. the IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the Answer: interesting traffic.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

How many active VPN clients are currently connected to the 1841 ISR router?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the
tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

Which IP address or address range will be used when allocating an internal IP address to the VPN clients for the “test” VPN group?________________________________________________________________________
A. 10.1.1.100 to 10.1.1.200 I
B. 10.1-1.2 to 10.1.1.254
C. 192.168.1.1 to 192.168.1.100
D. 192.168.1.2 to 192.168.1.254
E. 192.168.1.1
F. 192.168.1.2

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

Which authentication method is used by the test” VPN group?
A. RSA Encrypted Nounce
B. RSA Digital Signature
C. PrE.Shared Key
D. Digital Certificate
E. DH2

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
You are the network consultant. You have a customer with a small network of 15 remote sites is trying to optimize its VPN by migrating some remote sites using Frame Relay connections to the Internet to using cable connections to the Internet. The keypoint for your customer is to save money. Only a moderate amount of IP traffic is passing through the network, most of which is from the remote sites to the central site. IPSec should be used to provide VPN functionality and basic confidentiality is desired..Considering the above requirements. Which solution would be the easiest for this customer to set up and manage?
A. point-to-point
B. partial mesh
C. point-to-multipoint
D. hub-and-spoke

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
In an infrastructure based on a wireless advanced feature set using lightweight access points, by which method is a rogue contained?

A. The WCS sends excessive traffic to the rogue thus overloading the access point.
B. The rogue MAC address is used to spoof broadcastdeassociation packets.
C. The rogue MAC address is used to spoof broadcastdeauthentication packets.
D. The WCS sends out excessive signals on the same channel when the rogue is detected.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
With industry-leading services and performance, the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switch is Cisco’s flagship switching solution. It delivers the most comprehensive feature sets for core, distribution, wiring closet, data center, enterprise WAN routing, and Metro-Ethernet deployments. Which layer you think is recommended that the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WLSM be placed?
A. core
B. distribution
C. access
D. presentation

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 147
The Cisco Lifecycle Services approach defines the activities needed to help you successfully deploy and operate Cisco technologies and optimize their performance throughout the lifecycle of your network. Which statement is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases?
A. initiation, prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
B. site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing, and operations
C. prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
D. deployment, testing, implementation, and production

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Which IP address or address range will be used when allocating an internal ip address to the VPN client for the test
A. 120.1.1.100 to 10.1.1.200
B. 10.1.1.2 to 10.1.1.254
C. 192.1681.1 to 192.1681.1.100
D. 192.1681.2 to 192.1681.1.254

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Which authentication method is used by the test VPN group?

A. RSA EncryptedNounce
B. RSA Digital Signature
C. Pre-shared key
D. DH2

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150

A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RA and RB. Given the debug output on RA, which two statements are true?(Choose two)
A. RA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
B. RA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
C. RA will form an adjacency with RB.
D. RAwill not form an adjacency with RB.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
You are the network administrator. There is one Gigabit Ethernet port on the Cisco CE520 used in the Smart Business Communications System. Which port role assignment would you make for?
A. Cisco Express 520
B. Cisco UC520
C. Cisco CE520
D. Cisco 871W
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Refer to the exhibit. CK-SA and CK-SC are running PVST+ STP, and CK-SB is running 802.1 Q STP. If the BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VU\N 2, then there is no blocking port in the VLAN 2 topology. The BPDU of VU\N 2 never makes a “full circle” around the topology; it is replaced by the VLAN 1 BPDU on the CK-SB-CK-SC link, because CK-SB runs only one STP merged with VU\N 1 STP of PVST+. Thus, there is a forwarding loop.

What does PVST+ do to correct this?
A. CK-SA sends PVST+ BPDUs ofVLAU 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SC. CK-SC will put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
B. CK-SB sends PVST+ BPDUs of VU\N 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SA) towards CK-SC. CK-SC will put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
C. CK-SC sends PVST+BPDUsofVU\N 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SC. CK-SAwill put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
D. CK-SA sends PVST+ BPDUs of VU\N 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SB. CK-SA will put port CK-C-CK-B into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
A wireless autonomous 1200 access point running core feature set in root mode has its SSID set to Factory_floor and provides connection to a repeater access point with its SSID set to factory_floor, if the root-mode access point is using channel 11 which channel will the repeater
access point use?
A. channel 11
B. channel 1 or 6
C. anynonoverlapping channel
D. The root access point and the repeater will negotiate this setting

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
The VPN server uses a preshared key for remote device authentication
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
A customer with a large enterprise network wants to allow employees to work from home over the Internet. The customer anticipates a large amount of traffic, predominantly toward the central site. The customer also requires a VPN using strong user authentication and encryption to protect highly sensitive data. Which solution best meets this customer’s requirements?
A. remote-access VPN with software encryption
B. remote-access VPN with hardware encryption
C. site-to-site VPN with hub-and-spoke tunnels using 3DES and pre-shared secrets
D. site-to-site Cisco Easy VPN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configurations of RA and RB. Traffic between PC1 and PC2 is not successfully establishing the site-to-site VPN between -RA and -RB. What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?
A. RAis using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while RB is using a Turbo ACL(150-199).
B. The IPSec encryption methods used by each router do not match.
C. The D-H Group settings on the two routers are the same. ”
D. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
You are the network consultant. When will you assess a customer’s current network infrastructure?
A. plan
B. design
C. operate
D. optimize

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
A client is experiencing lower throughput and more packet retransmits is one area of the wireless network. At these times, the client utility shows high signal strength but low signal quality. What may be causing this issue?
A. The client does not support Cisco Compatible Extensions version 2.
B. Diversity is not enabled in the access point.
C. The WDS is failing to register the client card in the WLSM.
D. The channel is set incorrectly in the access point or in the client configuration.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
Which statement is correct about the current address translation configurations on the security appliance?
A. Dynamic NAT is used to translate the 10.0.1.100 host on the inside interface to a global address of
192.168.1.1
B. Port AddressTranslation(PAT) is used to translate any host on the inside interface to the 192.168.1.100 global address.
C. Static NAT is used to translate the 172.16.1.2 host on thedmzl interface to a global address of
192.168.1.102
D. Dynamic NAT is used to translate any host ondmzl and dmz2 interfaces to a mapped address from the address from the address pool of 192.168.1.110 to 192.168.1.250 ”

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
VLAN Hopping is one of the primary VLAN based attacks used by hackers to infiltrate network security. VLAN hopping is used to attack a network by sending packets to a port which is generally not accessible.
VLAN hopping attacks are mainly conducted in the Dynamic Trunking Protocol and, in some cases; the attacks are targeted to the trunking encapsulation protocol (802.1 q or ISL).You worry about the switched infrastructure in an integrated network is vulnerable to VLAN hopping attacks. Which two configuration can be used to mitigate VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. switchporttrunk encapsulation
B. switchport mode trunk
C. switchport access vlan
D. switchport mode access

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
CiscoWorks SNMS is a part of the CiscoWorks family of products for managing small to large networks. CiscoWorks SIMMS is a new Web-based network management solution for small to medium-sized businesses, with 40 or fewer Cisco internetworking devices such as switches, routers, hubs, and access servers. CiscoWorks SNMS can also monitor third-party IT assets such as servers, applications, services, and printers A Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) trunk is typically the voice interconnect between any business and the outside world. Which network management tool is designed to allow businesses to manage up to 40 devices?
A. CiscoWorks Unrestricted
B. CiscoWorks WAN Management
C. CiscoWorks LAN Management
D. CiscoWorks SNMS

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which statement is correct about the information in the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager General and License Information screen?

A. The security appliance supports active/active failover only.
B. The security appliance supports 3DES-AES only.
C. The managed device is a Cisco ASA 5540 Security Appliance with VPN premium license enabled.
D. The managed device is Cisco PIX515E Security Appliance.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
Which three are different types of STP inconsistencies in a Layer 2 network?(Choose three) A. MAC inconsistency
B. Root inconsistency
C. EtherChannel inconsistency
D. type inconsistency

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
According to the error log, VLAN 1 is where the BPDU was received, and VLAN 2 is where the BPDU originated. When inconsistency is detected, what happens?
A. VLAN 1 is blocked, while VLAN 2 is forwarding
B. VLAN1 is blocked, while VLAN 2 is listening
C. Both VLANs are listening on the port from which this BPDU is send
D. Both VLANs are blocked on the port from which this BPDU is received

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Which is the current configured default gateway IP address on the security appliance?
A. 172.16.10.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 192.168.1.2
D. 10.0.1.1

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 166
Which statement is true about a Cisco Aironet 350 Series wireless client when its green LED appears to be off and its amber LED is blinking?
A. The client adapter is scanning for a network.
B. The client adapter is in ad hoc mode.
C. The client adapter is performing a self-test.
D. The client adapter is in power-save mode.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 167
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant. Your IT Manager tells you 802.11b telephone can receive an audio signal from an access point, but cannot send audio. What is the most likely reason?
A. The value of RSSI telephone is greater than 30.
B. The access point only receives 802.11g data rates.
C. The security settings in the telephone mismatch the access point.
D. The telephone transmit power is significantly lower than the t the access point

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 177
When you disable a rule the rule is NOT disabled until you verify your Security Policy.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 178
Static Source NAT translates public internal source IP addresses to private external source IP addresses.
A. True
B. False.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 179
What is the command that lists the interfaces to which VPN-1/FireWall-1 bound?
A. Fw ct1 iflist
B. Ifconfig -a
C. Ifconfig \all
D. Netstat -m
E. Cp bind -all

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 180
Your customer has created a rule so that every time a user wants to go to Internet, that user must be authenticated. Which if the following is the best authentication method for roaming users, such as doctors updating patient records at various floor stations in a hospital?
A. Session
B. User
C. Client
D. Connection
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 181
Which command utility allows verification of the Security Policy installed on a firewall module?
A. Fw ct1 pstat.
B. Fw printlic.
C. Fw stat.
D. Fw ver.
E. Fw pol.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 182
You are a firewall administrator with one Management Server managing 3 different Enforcement Modules. One of the Enforcement Modules does NOT show up in the dialog box when attempting to install a Security Policy. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. No master file was created.
B. License for multiple firewalls has expired.
C. The firewall has NOT been rebooted.
D. The firewall was NOT listed in the Install On column of the rule.
E. The firewall is listed as “Managed by another Management Module (external)” in the Workstation Properties dialog box.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 183
In the Install On column of a rule, when you select a specific firewall object as the only configuration object, that rule is enforced on all firewalls with in the network, with related configurations.
A. True
B. False.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 184
As an administrator, you want to force your users to authenticate. You have selected Client Authentication as your authentication scheme. Users will be using a Web browser to authenticate. On which TCP port will authentication be performed?
A. 23
B. 80
C. 259
D. 261
E. 900

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 185
Once installed the VPN-1/FireWall-1 NG resides directly below what layer of the TCP/IP stack?

A. Data
B. Transport
C. Physical
D. Application
E. Network

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 186
Client Authentication rules should be placed above the Stealth rule, so users can authenticate to the firewall.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 187
The following rule base tells you any automatically created NAT rules have simply hidden but have not been deleted from the Rule Base.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 188
You are using static Destination NAT. You have VPN-1/FireWall-1 NG running on Windows NT/Solaris platform. By default, routing occurs after the address translation when the packet is passing form the client towards the server.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 189
Which if the following statements are FALSE?
A. Dynamic NAT cannot be used for protocols where the port number cannot be changed.
B. Dynamic NAT cannot be used when an external server must distinguish between clients bases on their IP addresses.
C. With Dynamic NAT, packet’s source port numbers are modified.
D. In Dynamic NAT, public internal addresses are hidden behind a single private external address using dynamically assigned port numbers to distinguish between them.
E. Dynamically assigned post numbers are used to distinguish between hidden private addresses.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 190
When you modify a User Template, any users already operating under that template will be updates to the new template properties.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 191
Installation time for creating network objects will decrease if you list machine names and IP addresses in the hosts files.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 192
Consider the following network: No Original Packet Translated Packet Source Destination Service Source Destination Service The administrator wants to take all the local and DMZ hosts behind the gateway except the HTTP server
192.9.200.9. The http server will be providing public services and must be accessible from Internet. Select the best NAT solution below that meets these requirements.
A. Use automatic NAT that creates a static NAT to the HTTP server.
B. To hide the private addresses set the address translation for Private Net.
C. To hide the private address set the address translation for 192.9.200.0.
D. Use automatic NAT rule creation to hide NAT Local net and private Net.
E. Both A and D.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 193
What NAT made is necessary if you want to start and HTTP session on a Reserved or Illegal IP address?
A. Static Source.
B. Static destination.
C. Dynamic
D. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 194
With SecureUpdate you are able to: (Select all that apply)
A. Change Central Licenses to Local Licenses
B. Track current installed versions of Check Point and OPSEC products
C. Update Check Point and OPSEC software remotely from a central location
D. Centrally manage Licenses
E. Perform a new installation of VPN-1/FW-1 remotely

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 195
Which is false about SIC communications?
A. A.VPN Certificates, such as those for IKE are used for secure communications
B. B.The Policy Editior initiates an SSL based connection with the Management Server
C. The Policy Editor must be defined as being authorised to use the Management Server
D. The Management Server verifies that the Clients IP address belongs to an authorised Policy Editor Client

Correct Answer: A

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