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[Free New Cisco Version From Google Drive] The Most Recommended ICND2 v3.0 200-105 Dumps CCNA Practice Test with Low Price 200-105 Exam Video Training

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Exam Code: 200-105
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Updated: Jul 16, 2017
Q&As: 204

Study Material  for Cisco 200-105 Dumps ICND2 Outline

  1. Cisco Device Management
  2. Troubleshooting Networks
  3. Network Addressing
  4. VLANs and Trunking
  5. Spanning Tree Protocol
  6. Advanced Switch Redundancy
  7. Access Layer Security
  8. Routing Fundamentals
  9. EIGRP Configuration
  10. OSPF Configuration
  11. PPP WANs
  12. eBGP Configuration
  13. Secure VPNs and Tunneling
  14. Intelligent Networks
  15. Quality of Service

200-105

Free Pass4itsure Cisco 200-105 Dumps  Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 7
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a
server with the address of 192.168.13.26. Which commands can the administrator issue to verify that the
access list is working properly? (Choose three.)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
200-105 exam Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

200-105

Correct Answer:

200-105

QUESTION 9
Lab – Access List Simulation
A network associate is adding security to the configuration of the Corp1 router. The user on host C should
be able to use a web browser to access financial information from the Finance Web Server. No other hosts
from the LAN nor the Core should be able to use a web browser to access this server. Since there are

multiple resources for the corporation at this location including other resources on the Finance Web
Server, all other traffic should be allowed.
The task is to create and apply a numbered access-list with no more than three statements that will allow
ONLY host C web access to the Finance Web Server. No other hosts will have web access to the Finance
Web Server. All other traffic is permitted.
Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host.
All passwords have been temporarily set to “cisco”.
The Core connection uses an IP address of 198.18.196.65
The computers in the Hosts LAN have been assigned addresses of 192.168.33.1 – 92.168.33.254
Host A 192.168.33.1
Host B 192.168.33.2
Host C 192.168.33.3
Host D 192.168.33.4
The servers in the Server LAN have been assigned addresses of 172.22.242.17 – 172.22.242.30
The Finance Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172.22.242.23.
The Public Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172.22.242.17

200-105

200-105 dumps Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation
QUESTION 10
A sporting goods manufacturer has decided to network three (3) locations to improve efficiency in inventory
control. The routers have been named to reflect the location: Boston, Frankfurt, and Lancaster.
The necessary networking has been completed at each location, and the routers have been configured
with single area OSPF as the routing protocol. The Boston router was recently installed but connectivity is
not complete because of incomplete routing tables.
Identify and correct any problem you see in the configuration.
Note: The OSPF process must be configured to allow interfaces in specific subnets to participate in the
routing process.

200-105

Correct Answer: The question mentioned Boston router was not configured correctly or incomplete so we
should check this router first. Click on Host B to access the command line interface (CLI) of Boston router.
QUESTION 11
200-105

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200-105

Why did Branch1 router lose WAN connectivity with R1 router?
A. The IP address is misconfigured on PPP multilink interface on the Branch1 router.
B. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the anch1 serial interfaces.
C. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the R1 serial interfaces.
D. The Branch1 serial interfaces are placed in a shutdown condition.
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a
device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
200-105 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
C. Only RADIUS uses TCP.
D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which IEEE standard does PVST+ use to tunnel information?
A. 802.1x
B. 802 1q
C. 802.1w
D. 802.1s
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client?
A. Ethernet
B. dialer
C. serial
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
200-105 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105

Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105

At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105

A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the
AcmeB router. What action does the router take?

A. forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface
B. forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface
C. forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface
D. forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
A. a backup route, stored in the routing table
B. a primary route, stored in the routing table
C. a backup route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the topology table
200-105 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE

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Recommended Training
Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions (DESGN) E-Learning is the recommended training for this exam. offered by Cisco Learning Partners-the only authorized source for Cisco IT training delivered exclusively by Certified Cisco Instructors. Check the List of Learning Partners for a Cisco Learning Partner nearest you
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QUESTION 8
Many users, located in different geographic regions, all need access to certain secure web applications and EJB components. The users although dispersed, have common Job descriptions. What is the best way to generically provide access for all of these users?
A. Use declarative security by providing authorization based user roles
B. Programmatically authorize each user who requests a protected resource
C. Use Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) to implement discretionary security
D. Create all user accounts in an LDAP server, and make it the default realm for the domain
E. Define a custom security proxy that stores and propagates each authenticated user’s credential information
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Within a Service-Oriented Architecture, which of the following is NOT specified by a Service Policy?
A. Encryption rules
B. Execution Rules
C. Versioning Rules
D. Authorization rules
E. Authentication rules
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
Which statement best describes the way in which WebLogic Workshop can be used to develop applications following the MVC pattern?
A. Create EJBs and JSPs. Call EJBs from Servlets.
B. WebLogic Workhop doesn’t use the MVC model.
C. Create a Struts Action from and associate it with the appropriate action mapping definition
D. Create a serializable javaBean THAT DEFINES THE STATEFUL FIELDS AND THEIR METHODS AND PASSES THE DATA BETWEEN THE MODEL INVOCATION AND VIEW ELEMENTS
E. Create an action from that defines the stateful fields and their accessor/mutator methods. Scope the form to a PageFlow and pass the state to controls, and call from the view as necessary.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 11
Your application requirements include accessing a legacy mainframe application with native communication protocols. The legacy system must be accessible from J2EE and Net servers. To do this most effectively, you would use a product based on which specification?
A. J2CA
B. JDBC
C. RMI/IIOP
D. Web Services
E. Java to CORBA bridge

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Within a Service -Oriented Architecture, service version are bound to consumer through the;
A. UDDI Server
B. Service Policy
C. Connectivity Layer
D. Services Directory
E. Orchestration Layer

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
When considering distributed transactions and the two phase commit protocol which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. WebLogic SERVER DOES NOT SUPPORT NESTED TRANSACTIONS
B. WebLogic SERVER ALLOWS TRANSACTIONS TO BE terminated only by the client that created the transaction
C. Recovering transactions for a failed WebLogic server instance requires a weblogic cluster configuration
D. A heuristic decision occurs when any XA resource makes a unilateral decision during the completion phase
E. By default, the Transaction Manager will continue to complete the transaction during the second phase for up to 24 hours

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Within the WebLogic Platform environment, which of these events are NOT part the of the Application Lifecycle when re-deploying an application and when the debug flags are set?
A. preStart
B. postStop
C. postStart
D. completed
E. inialization

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
When designing a Service-Oriented Architecture you plan to provide Services Management capabilities. Primarily Services Management includes:
A. The Message Broker
B. Java Control tracking
C. Business Process instances
D. Security implementation Details
E. Service registration and discovery

Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 31
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference: http://www.pass4cert.net/70-480-dumps-download.html
The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols are needed so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and
frames.
The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populated based on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding
Information Base (FIB) is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.

QUESTION 32
Which option is the most effective action to avoid packet loss due to microbursts?
A. Implement larger buffers.
B. Install a faster CPU.
C. Install a faster network interface.
D. Configure a larger tx-ring size.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can’t avoid or prevent them as such without modifying the sending host’s application/network stack so it smoothes out the bursts. However, you can manage microbursts by tuning the size of receive buffers / rings to absorb occasional microbursts.
QUESTION 33
Which two statements about packet fragmentation on an IPv6 network are true? (Choose two.)
A. The fragment header is 64 bits long.
B. The identification field is 32 bits long.
C. The fragment header is 32 bits long.
D. The identification field is 64 bits long.
E. The MTU must be a minimum of 1280 bytes.
F. The fragment header is 48 bits long.
Correct Answer: AB Explanation   cisco-200-125 ccna pdf

Explanation/Reference:
The fragment header is shown below, being 64 bits total with a 32 bit identification field: Reference: http://www.openwall.com/presentations/IPv6/img24.html

QUESTION 34
You are backing up a server with a 1 Gbps link and a latency of 2 ms. Which two statements about the backup are true? (Choose two.)
A. The bandwidth delay product is 2 Mb.
B. The default TCP send window size is the limiting factor.
C. The default TCP receive window size is the limiting factor.
D. The bandwidth delay product is 500 Mb.
E. The bandwidth delay product is 50 Mb.

Correct Answer: AC Explanation Explanation/Reference:
1 Gbps is the same as 1000 Mbps, and 1000Mb x .0002 = 2 Mbps. With TCP based data transfers, the receive window is always the limiting factor, as the sender is generally able to send traffic at line rate, but then must wait for the acknowledgements to send more data.
QUESTION 35
Which two pieces of information does RTCP use to inform endpoint devices about the RTP flow? (Choose two.)
A. the transmitted octet
B. the lost packet count
C. session control function provisioning information
D. the CNAME for session participants
E. the authentication method
F. MTU size changes in the path of the flow Correct Answer: AB

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
RTCP transports statistics for a media connection and information such as transmitted octet and packet counts, packet loss, packet delay variation, and round-trip delay time. An application may use this information to control quality of service parameters, perhaps by limiting flow, or using a different codec.

QUESTION 36
How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32

Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference:
In order to understand how the load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table), which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.

QUESTION 37
Which three features require Cisco Express Forwarding? (Choose three.)
A. NBAR
B. AutoQoS
C. fragmentation
D. MPLS
E. UplinkFast
F. BackboneFast

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.certadept.com/cisco-200-125-exam-with-our-dumps-pdf-vce-free-try.html

Recognition.
QoS Features That Require CEF These class-based QoS features are supported only on routers that run CEF. Network Based Application Recognition (NBAR) provides intelligent network classification. For more information, refer to Network Based Application

The AutoQoS -VoIP feature simplifies and speeds up the implementation and provisioning of QoS for VoIP traffic. This feature is enabled with the help of the
auto qos voip command. CEF must be enabled at the interface or ATM PVC before the auto qos command can be used. For more information about this feature and its prerequisites, refer to AutoQoS – VoIP.
From MPLS Fundamentals – Luc De Ghein Why Is CEF Needed in MPLS Networks? Concerning MPLS, CEF is special for a certain reason; otherwise, this book would not explicitly cover it. Labeled packets that enter the router are switched according to the label forwarding information base (LFIB) on the router. IP packets that enter the router are switched according to the CEF table on the router. Regardless of whether the packet is switched according to the LFIB or the CEF table, the outgoing packet can be a labeled packet or an IP packet

QUESTION 38
Which two options are interface requirements for turbo flooding? (Choose two.)
A. The interface is Ethernet.
B. The interface is configured for ARPA encapsulation.
C. The interface is PPP.
D. The interface is configured for GRE encapsulation.
E. The interface is configured for 802.1Q encapsulation.

Correct Answer: AB Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ccie-routing-switching.html
In the switch, the majority of packets are forwarded in hardware; most packets do not go through the switch CPU. For those packets that do go to the CPU, you can speed up spanning tree-based UDP flooding by a factor of about four to five times by using turbo-flooding. This feature is supported over Ethernet interfaces configured for ARPA encapsulation.
swiprout.html
QUESTION 39
Which three options are sub-subfields of the IPv4 Option Type subfield? (Choose three.)
A. Option Class
B. GET
C. Copied
D. PUSH
E. Option Number
F. TTL

Correct Answer: ACE Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Each IP option has its own subfield format, generally structured as shown below. For most options, all three subfields are used. Option Type, Option Length and Option Data.

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QUESTION 7
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager at one time. Which option should be used?
A. Bulk Administration Tool
B. Product Upgrade Tool
C. Command Lookup Tool
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E. Cisco Upload Tool

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text Label
B. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user’s phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page?
A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box
B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box
C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box
D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber. Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems?
A. Show Connection Status
B. Report A Problem
C. Advanced Settings
D. About Jabber
E. Reset Jabber
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Use the exhibits below to answer the question.

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Cisco 642-384 Exam Questions Answers, 100% Pass Guarantee Cisco 642-384 Certification Download Guaranteed Success

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QUESTION 132
Which command assigns a cost value of “17” to a switch port?
A. spanning-tree interfacefastethernet 5/8 17
B. spanning-treeportcost 17
C. spanning-treeportcost 17
D. spanning-treevlan 1 cost 17

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
You have configured and applied a Cisco IOS Firewall access rule to the inbound, untrusted interface. You suspect that the rule may be blocking necessary traffic onto the network. What must you do to delete that rule when using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager?
A. Select ACL Editor > Access Rules to delete the rule.
B. You must remove the association between the rule and the interface before deleting the rule
C. You must delete the associated access list on the interface, then reconfigure the access list as required, and then reapply the access group to the proper interface.
D. Go to the Edit Firewall Policy tab to delete the rule.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
A customer in Europe needs to establish an 11-Mbps wireless bridge link between two office buildings that are approximately 1.3 km apart. The wireless link will pass through a public park, which contains a lake that is surrounded by trees. You run the range calculation and determine that the Cisco Aironet 1300 Series Outdoor Access Point/Bridge should work. You install the link using 10.5-dB yagis with 75 feet of standard Cisco cabling and both radios set at 20 mW. The wireless bridges are not able to establish or maintain a link.
What is needed to successfully complete this link?
A. An amplifier needs to be installed at one of the sites.
B. The antenna must be raised high enough to clear the trees
C. Lower loss cabling needs to be used to bring the EIRP into legal limits.
D. Due to the trees, a 21-dBi dish needs to be used for its narrower beam width.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
You connect via Telnet to a Cisco access point and enter the command show dot11 link test. Which output might you obtain?
A. signal-to-noise ratio
B. incoming and outgoing signal strength
C. TX packets dropped
D. RX packets per second

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Refer to the exhibit. The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configurations of Router A and Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the sitE.to-site VPN between Router A and Router B.
What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?

A. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a Turbo ACL (150-199).
B. The IKE encryption methods on the two routers are different
C. the IPSec policy map names on the two routers are different.
D. the IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the Answer: interesting traffic.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

How many active VPN clients are currently connected to the 1841 ISR router?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

Which IP address or address range will be used when allocating an internal IP address to the VPN clients
for the “test” VPN group?________________________________________________________________________
A. 10.1.1.100 to 10.1.1.200 I
B. 10.1-1.2 to 10.1.1.254
C. 192.168.1.1 to 192.168.1.100
D. 192.168.1.2 to 192.168.1.254
E. 192.168.1.1
F. 192.168.1.2

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

Which authentication method is used by the test” VPN group?
A. RSA Encrypted Nounce
B. RSA Digital Signature
C. PrE.Shared Key
D. Digital Certificate
E. DH2

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 140
You are the network consultant. You have a customer with a small network of 15 remote sites is trying to optimize its VPN by migrating some remote sites using Frame Relay connections to the Internet to using cable connections to the Internet. The keypoint for your customer is to save money. Only a moderate amount of IP traffic is passing through the network, most of which is from the remote sites to the central site. IPSec should be used to provide VPN functionality and basic confidentiality is desired..Considering the above requirements. Which solution would be the easiest for this customer to set up and manage?
A. point-to-point
B. partial mesh
C. point-to-multipoint
D. hub-and-spoke

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
In an infrastructure based on a wireless advanced feature set using lightweight access points, by which method is a rogue contained?
A. The WCS sends excessive traffic to the rogue thus overloading the access point.
B. The rogue MAC address is used to spoof broadcastdeassociation packets.
C. The rogue MAC address is used to spoof broadcastdeauthentication packets.
D. The WCS sends out excessive signals on the same channel when the rogue is detected.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
With industry-leading services and performance, the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switch is Cisco’s flagship switching solution. It delivers the most comprehensive feature sets for core, distribution, wiring closet, data center, enterprise WAN routing, and Metro-Ethernet deployments. Which layer you think is recommended that the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WLSM be placed?
A. core
B. distribution
C. access
D. presentation

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
The Cisco Lifecycle Services approach defines the activities needed to help you successfully deploy and operate Cisco technologies and optimize their performance throughout the lifecycle of your network. Which statement is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases?
A. initiation, prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
B. site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing, and operations
C. prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
D. deployment, testing, implementation, and production

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Which IP address or address range will be used when allocating an internal ip address to the VPN client for the test

A. 120.1.1.100 to 10.1.1.200
B. 10.1.1.2 to 10.1.1.254
C. 192.1681.1 to 192.1681.1.100
D. 192.1681.2 to 192.1681.1.254

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
Which authentication method is used by the test VPN group?

A. RSA EncryptedNounce
B. RSA Digital Signature
C. Pre-shared key
D. DH2

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RA and RB. Given the debug output on RA, which two statements are true?(Choose two)
A. RA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
B. RA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
C. RA will form an adjacency with RB.
D. RAwill not form an adjacency with RB.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
You are the network administrator. There is one Gigabit Ethernet port on the Cisco CE520 used in the Smart Business Communications System. Which port role assignment would you make for?
A. Cisco Express 520
B. Cisco UC520
C. Cisco CE520
D. Cisco 871W

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Refer to the exhibit. CK-SA and CK-SC are running PVST+ STP, and CK-SB is running 802.1 Q STP. If the BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VU\N 2, then there is no blocking port in the VLAN 2 topology. The BPDU of VU\N 2 never makes a “full circle” around the topology; it is replaced by the VLAN 1 BPDU on the CK-SB-CK-SC link, because CK-SB runs only one STP merged with VU\N 1 STP of PVST+. Thus, there is a forwarding loop.

What does PVST+ do to correct this?
A. CK-SA sends PVST+ BPDUs ofVLAU 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SC. CK-SC will put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
B. CK-SB sends PVST+ BPDUs of VU\N 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SA) towards CK-SC. CK-SC will put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
C. CK-SC sends PVST+BPDUsofVU\N 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SC. CK-SAwill put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
D. CK-SA sends PVST+ BPDUs of VU\N 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SB. CK-SA will put port CK-C-CK-B into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
A wireless autonomous 1200 access point running core feature set in root mode has its SSID set to Factory_floor and provides connection to a repeater access point with its SSID set to factory_floor, if the root-mode access point is using channel 11 which channel will the repeater access point use?
A. channel 11
B. channel 1 or 6
C. anynonoverlapping channel
D. The root access point and the repeater will negotiate this setting

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
The VPN server uses a preshared key for remote device authentication
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
A customer with a large enterprise network wants to allow employees to work from home over the Internet. The customer anticipates a large amount of traffic, predominantly toward the central site. The customer also requires a VPN using strong user authentication and encryption to protect highly sensitive data. Which solution best meets this customer’s requirements?
A. remote-access VPN with software encryption
B. remote-access VPN with hardware encryption
C. site-to-site VPN with hub-and-spoke tunnels using 3DES and pre-shared secrets
D. site-to-site Cisco Easy VPN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configurations of RA and RB. Traffic between PC1 and PC2 is not successfully establishing the site-to-site VPN between -RA and -RB. What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?
A. RAis using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while RB is using a Turbo ACL(150-199).
B. The IPSec encryption methods used by each router do not match.
C. The D-H Group settings on the two routers are the same.
D. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
You are the network consultant. When will you assess a customer’s current network infrastructure?
A. plan
B. design
C. operate
D. optimize

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
A client is experiencing lower throughput and more packet retransmits is one area of the wireless network. At these times, the client utility shows high signal strength but low signal quality. What may be causing this issue?
A. The client does not support Cisco Compatible Extensions version 2.
B. Diversity is not enabled in the access point.
C. The WDS is failing to register the client card in the WLSM.
D. The channel is set incorrectly in the access point or in the client configuration.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Which statement is correct about the current address translation configurations on the security appliance?
A. Dynamic NAT is used to translate the 10.0.1.100 host on the inside interface to a global address of
192.168.1.1
B. Port AddressTranslation(PAT) is used to translate any host on the inside interface to the 192.168.1.100 global address.
C. Static NAT is used to translate the 172.16.1.2 host on thedmzl interface to a global address of
192.168.1.102
D. Dynamic NAT is used to translate any host ondmzl and dmz2 interfaces to a mapped address from the address from the address pool of 192.168.1.110 to 192.168.1.250

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
VLAN Hopping is one of the primary VLAN based attacks used by hackers to infiltrate network security. VLAN hopping is used to attack a network by sending packets to a port which is generally not accessible. VLAN hopping attacks are mainly conducted in the Dynamic Trunking Protocol and, in some cases; the attacks are targeted to the trunking encapsulation protocol (802.1 q or ISL).You worry about the switched infrastructure in an integrated network is vulnerable to VLAN hopping attacks. Which two configuration can be used to mitigate VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. switchporttrunk encapsulation
B. switchport mode trunk
C. switchport access vlan
D. switchport mode access

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
CiscoWorks SNMS is a part of the CiscoWorks family of products for managing small to large networks. CiscoWorks SIMMS is a new Web-based network management solution for small to medium-sized businesses, with 40 or fewer Cisco internetworking devices such as switches, routers, hubs, and access servers. CiscoWorks SNMS can also monitor third-party IT assets such as servers, applications, services, and printers A Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) trunk is typically the voice interconnect between any business and the outside world. Which network management tool is designed to allow businesses to manage up to 40 devices?
A. CiscoWorks Unrestricted
B. CiscoWorks WAN Management
C. CiscoWorks LAN Management
D. CiscoWorks SNMS

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
Which statement is correct about the information in the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager General and License Information screen?
A. The security appliance supports active/active failover only.
B. The security appliance supports 3DES-AES only.
C. The managed device is a Cisco ASA 5540 Security Appliance with VPN premium license enabled.
D. The managed device is Cisco PIX515E Security Appliance.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
Which three are different types of STP inconsistencies in a Layer 2 network?(Choose three)
A. MAC inconsistency
B. Root inconsistency
C. EtherChannel inconsistency
D. type inconsistency

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
According to the error log, VLAN 1 is where the BPDU was received, and VLAN 2 is where the BPDU originated. When inconsistency is detected, what happens?
A. VLAN 1 is blocked, while VLAN 2 is forwarding
B. VLAN1 is blocked, while VLAN 2 is listening
C. Both VLANs are listening on the port from which this BPDU is send
D. Both VLANs are blocked on the port from which this BPDU is received

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
Which is the current configured default gateway IP address on the security appliance?
A. 172.16.10.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 192.168.1.2
D. 10.0.1.1

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which statement is true about a Cisco Aironet 350 Series wireless client when its green LED appears to be off and its amber LED is blinking?
A. The client adapter is scanning for a network.
B. The client adapter is in ad hoc mode.
C. The client adapter is performing a self-test.
D. The client adapter is in power-save mode.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant. Your IT Manager tells you 802.11b telephone can receive an audio signal from an access point, but cannot send audio. What is the most likely reason?
A. The value of RSSI telephone is greater than 30.
B. The access point only receives 802.11g data rates.
C. The security settings in the telephone mismatch the access point.
D. The telephone transmit power is significantly lower than the t the access point

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 139
You connect via Telnet to a Cisco access point and enter the command show dot11 link test. Which output might you obtain?
A. signal-to-noise ratio
B. incoming and outgoing signal strength
C. TX packets dropped
D. RX packets per second

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 140
Refer to the exhibit. The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configurations of Router A and Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the sitE.to-site VPN between Router A and Router B.
What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?

A. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a Turbo ACL (150-199). ”
B. The IKE encryption methods on the two routers are different
C. the IPSec policy map names on the two routers are different.
D. the IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the Answer: interesting traffic.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

How many active VPN clients are currently connected to the 1841 ISR router?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the
tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

Which IP address or address range will be used when allocating an internal IP address to the VPN clients for the “test” VPN group?________________________________________________________________________
A. 10.1.1.100 to 10.1.1.200 I
B. 10.1-1.2 to 10.1.1.254
C. 192.168.1.1 to 192.168.1.100
D. 192.168.1.2 to 192.168.1.254
E. 192.168.1.1
F. 192.168.1.2

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

Which authentication method is used by the test” VPN group?
A. RSA Encrypted Nounce
B. RSA Digital Signature
C. PrE.Shared Key
D. Digital Certificate
E. DH2

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
You are the network consultant. You have a customer with a small network of 15 remote sites is trying to optimize its VPN by migrating some remote sites using Frame Relay connections to the Internet to using cable connections to the Internet. The keypoint for your customer is to save money. Only a moderate amount of IP traffic is passing through the network, most of which is from the remote sites to the central site. IPSec should be used to provide VPN functionality and basic confidentiality is desired..Considering the above requirements. Which solution would be the easiest for this customer to set up and manage?
A. point-to-point
B. partial mesh
C. point-to-multipoint
D. hub-and-spoke

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
In an infrastructure based on a wireless advanced feature set using lightweight access points, by which method is a rogue contained?

A. The WCS sends excessive traffic to the rogue thus overloading the access point.
B. The rogue MAC address is used to spoof broadcastdeassociation packets.
C. The rogue MAC address is used to spoof broadcastdeauthentication packets.
D. The WCS sends out excessive signals on the same channel when the rogue is detected.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
With industry-leading services and performance, the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switch is Cisco’s flagship switching solution. It delivers the most comprehensive feature sets for core, distribution, wiring closet, data center, enterprise WAN routing, and Metro-Ethernet deployments. Which layer you think is recommended that the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WLSM be placed?
A. core
B. distribution
C. access
D. presentation

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 147
The Cisco Lifecycle Services approach defines the activities needed to help you successfully deploy and operate Cisco technologies and optimize their performance throughout the lifecycle of your network. Which statement is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases?
A. initiation, prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
B. site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing, and operations
C. prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
D. deployment, testing, implementation, and production

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Which IP address or address range will be used when allocating an internal ip address to the VPN client for the test
A. 120.1.1.100 to 10.1.1.200
B. 10.1.1.2 to 10.1.1.254
C. 192.1681.1 to 192.1681.1.100
D. 192.1681.2 to 192.1681.1.254

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Which authentication method is used by the test VPN group?

A. RSA EncryptedNounce
B. RSA Digital Signature
C. Pre-shared key
D. DH2

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150

A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RA and RB. Given the debug output on RA, which two statements are true?(Choose two)
A. RA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
B. RA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
C. RA will form an adjacency with RB.
D. RAwill not form an adjacency with RB.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
You are the network administrator. There is one Gigabit Ethernet port on the Cisco CE520 used in the Smart Business Communications System. Which port role assignment would you make for?
A. Cisco Express 520
B. Cisco UC520
C. Cisco CE520
D. Cisco 871W
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Refer to the exhibit. CK-SA and CK-SC are running PVST+ STP, and CK-SB is running 802.1 Q STP. If the BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VU\N 2, then there is no blocking port in the VLAN 2 topology. The BPDU of VU\N 2 never makes a “full circle” around the topology; it is replaced by the VLAN 1 BPDU on the CK-SB-CK-SC link, because CK-SB runs only one STP merged with VU\N 1 STP of PVST+. Thus, there is a forwarding loop.

What does PVST+ do to correct this?
A. CK-SA sends PVST+ BPDUs ofVLAU 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SC. CK-SC will put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
B. CK-SB sends PVST+ BPDUs of VU\N 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SA) towards CK-SC. CK-SC will put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
C. CK-SC sends PVST+BPDUsofVU\N 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SC. CK-SAwill put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
D. CK-SA sends PVST+ BPDUs of VU\N 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SB. CK-SA will put port CK-C-CK-B into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
A wireless autonomous 1200 access point running core feature set in root mode has its SSID set to Factory_floor and provides connection to a repeater access point with its SSID set to factory_floor, if the root-mode access point is using channel 11 which channel will the repeater
access point use?
A. channel 11
B. channel 1 or 6
C. anynonoverlapping channel
D. The root access point and the repeater will negotiate this setting

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
The VPN server uses a preshared key for remote device authentication
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
A customer with a large enterprise network wants to allow employees to work from home over the Internet. The customer anticipates a large amount of traffic, predominantly toward the central site. The customer also requires a VPN using strong user authentication and encryption to protect highly sensitive data. Which solution best meets this customer’s requirements?
A. remote-access VPN with software encryption
B. remote-access VPN with hardware encryption
C. site-to-site VPN with hub-and-spoke tunnels using 3DES and pre-shared secrets
D. site-to-site Cisco Easy VPN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configurations of RA and RB. Traffic between PC1 and PC2 is not successfully establishing the site-to-site VPN between -RA and -RB. What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?
A. RAis using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while RB is using a Turbo ACL(150-199).
B. The IPSec encryption methods used by each router do not match.
C. The D-H Group settings on the two routers are the same. ”
D. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
You are the network consultant. When will you assess a customer’s current network infrastructure?
A. plan
B. design
C. operate
D. optimize

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
A client is experiencing lower throughput and more packet retransmits is one area of the wireless network. At these times, the client utility shows high signal strength but low signal quality. What may be causing this issue?
A. The client does not support Cisco Compatible Extensions version 2.
B. Diversity is not enabled in the access point.
C. The WDS is failing to register the client card in the WLSM.
D. The channel is set incorrectly in the access point or in the client configuration.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
Which statement is correct about the current address translation configurations on the security appliance?
A. Dynamic NAT is used to translate the 10.0.1.100 host on the inside interface to a global address of
192.168.1.1
B. Port AddressTranslation(PAT) is used to translate any host on the inside interface to the 192.168.1.100 global address.
C. Static NAT is used to translate the 172.16.1.2 host on thedmzl interface to a global address of
192.168.1.102
D. Dynamic NAT is used to translate any host ondmzl and dmz2 interfaces to a mapped address from the address from the address pool of 192.168.1.110 to 192.168.1.250 ”

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
VLAN Hopping is one of the primary VLAN based attacks used by hackers to infiltrate network security. VLAN hopping is used to attack a network by sending packets to a port which is generally not accessible.
VLAN hopping attacks are mainly conducted in the Dynamic Trunking Protocol and, in some cases; the attacks are targeted to the trunking encapsulation protocol (802.1 q or ISL).You worry about the switched infrastructure in an integrated network is vulnerable to VLAN hopping attacks. Which two configuration can be used to mitigate VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. switchporttrunk encapsulation
B. switchport mode trunk
C. switchport access vlan
D. switchport mode access

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
CiscoWorks SNMS is a part of the CiscoWorks family of products for managing small to large networks. CiscoWorks SIMMS is a new Web-based network management solution for small to medium-sized businesses, with 40 or fewer Cisco internetworking devices such as switches, routers, hubs, and access servers. CiscoWorks SNMS can also monitor third-party IT assets such as servers, applications, services, and printers A Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) trunk is typically the voice interconnect between any business and the outside world. Which network management tool is designed to allow businesses to manage up to 40 devices?
A. CiscoWorks Unrestricted
B. CiscoWorks WAN Management
C. CiscoWorks LAN Management
D. CiscoWorks SNMS

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which statement is correct about the information in the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager General and License Information screen?

A. The security appliance supports active/active failover only.
B. The security appliance supports 3DES-AES only.
C. The managed device is a Cisco ASA 5540 Security Appliance with VPN premium license enabled.
D. The managed device is Cisco PIX515E Security Appliance.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
Which three are different types of STP inconsistencies in a Layer 2 network?(Choose three) A. MAC inconsistency
B. Root inconsistency
C. EtherChannel inconsistency
D. type inconsistency

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
According to the error log, VLAN 1 is where the BPDU was received, and VLAN 2 is where the BPDU originated. When inconsistency is detected, what happens?
A. VLAN 1 is blocked, while VLAN 2 is forwarding
B. VLAN1 is blocked, while VLAN 2 is listening
C. Both VLANs are listening on the port from which this BPDU is send
D. Both VLANs are blocked on the port from which this BPDU is received

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Which is the current configured default gateway IP address on the security appliance?
A. 172.16.10.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 192.168.1.2
D. 10.0.1.1

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 166
Which statement is true about a Cisco Aironet 350 Series wireless client when its green LED appears to be off and its amber LED is blinking?
A. The client adapter is scanning for a network.
B. The client adapter is in ad hoc mode.
C. The client adapter is performing a self-test.
D. The client adapter is in power-save mode.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 167
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant. Your IT Manager tells you 802.11b telephone can receive an audio signal from an access point, but cannot send audio. What is the most likely reason?
A. The value of RSSI telephone is greater than 30.
B. The access point only receives 802.11g data rates.
C. The security settings in the telephone mismatch the access point.
D. The telephone transmit power is significantly lower than the t the access point

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 109
You are configuring a VLAN and the switch you are using requires that you do so within the VLAN database. Which command allows you to enter the VLAN database?
A. Switch#vlan database
B. Switch (config)# vlan database
C. Switch (config-if)# vlan database
D. Switch (vlan)# vlan database

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing repeater topology? (Choose two.)
A. RF overlap between access points should be 10 to 15 percent with unique channels configured.
B. RF overlap between primary and repeater access points should be 10 to 15 percent with the same channel configured.
C. RF overlap between primary and repeater access points should be 50 percent with the same channel configured
D. RF overlap between primary and repeater access points should be 50 percent with unique channels configured.
E. Clients that are associated with the repeater access point will have 10 to 15 percent less data throughput than clients that are associated with the primary root access point.
F. Clients that are associated with the repeater access point will have 50 percent less data throughput than clients that are associated with the primary root access point
Correct Answer: CF Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
:Refer to the exhibit. The Cisco Aironet 802.1 la/b/g Wireless LAN Client Adapter has two LEDs. Which two LED states indicate that the card is associated to an access point and is working properly? (Choose two.)

A. green LED off; amber LED solid
B. green LED off; amber LED blinking sporadically
C. green LED blinking quickly: amber LED blinking quickly
D. green LED blinking slowly, amber LED blinking slowly
E. green LED blinking slowly; amber LED blinking quickly

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 112
Refer to the exhibit. The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configuration of Router A and Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the sitE.to-site VPN between Router A and Router B. What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?

A. The IPSec and IKE encryption methods do not match. They all have to be either 3DES or AES.
B. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a turbo ACL (150-199).
C. The D.H Group settings on the two routers are set to group 2. They must be set to group 1 for SHA. 1.
D. The IPSec policy map names on the two routers do not match. They must be the same on both routers.
E. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
OSPF routes are being redistributed into EIGRP but they are not showing up in the routing table. What are two possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. CEF has not been enabled.
B. Synchronization has been turned off.
C. incorrect distribute lists have been configured
D. No default metric has been configured for EIGRP
E. Theip classless command is missing.
F. There are mismatched autonomous system numbers.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
Which two statements best describe the wireless implementation of Cisco Aironet root and non- root bridging? (Choose two.)
A. Point-to-point access points can be used if one is root and the other is non-root.
B. WGB can be used with an access point if the distance is less than one mile
C. Root mode must be enabled only on one side in a point-to-point link to intemperate with other vendors and comply with 802.11
D. Up to 17 non-root bridges can associate to a root bridge
E. Point-to-point WGB can be used if total number of PCs is fewer than eight. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 is the BDR

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
The customer wants to implement wireless security through implementation of WPAv2. Which component of WPAv2 would limit the rollout because of the continued use of old access points?
A. 48-bit IV
B. AES
C. TKIP
D. MIC

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 116
A company needs to provide sitE.to-site VPN, remote access VPN, and firewall protection. Which device best supports all three functions?
A. Cisco PIX
B. Cisco ASA
C. Cisco Concentrator
D. Cisco Router and Security Device Manager

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
Refer to the exhibit. R2 is always in the init state. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. R2 is seeing hello packets from R1.
B. R2 is not seeing hello packets from R1.
C. The exchanging of data between R1 and R2 is occurring because each is sending hello packets.
D. Two-way communication has not been established between R1 and R2 because R2 is not seeing its router ID in the hello packets that it is receiving from R1
E. R2 has an access list defined for SO that is blocking an OSPF multicast IP address of 224.0.0.5.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
Which two features are only supported when using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) Advanced Firewall wizard and not supported when using the Cisco SDM Basic Firewall wizard? (Choose two.)
A. deep-packet inspections
B. IP unicast Reverse Path Forwarding on the outside (untrusted) interface
C. DMZ services
D. Custom inspection rules
E. proxy authentication

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 119
:When troubleshooting poor network performance, which two symptoms would typically be associated with a network layer problem? (Choose two.)
A. Packet loss is more than 30 percent
B. There is excessive broadcast traffic.
C. There are excessive CRC errors.
D. Pings succeed only part of the time
E. Slips are detected on WAN interfaces.
F. ARP requests are timing out.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
Which command can be used to verify that RIPv2 is running on a router?
A. show startup-config
B. show ip route
C. showip route rip
D. Show ip protocols

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router.
B. Layer 2 services can be configured in a Cisco Aironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router
C. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or controllers.
D. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSM.
E. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSE.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 122
You have just configured and enabled the Cisco IOS Firewall feature set from a remote location using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) Firewall wizard. You later want to doublE. check your configuration using Cisco SDM. However, you find that you can no longer connect to the Cisco IOS Firewall using Cisco SDM.
What is the probable cause of this failure?
A. You must additionally specify the Cisco SDM management port number to gain access when the configuration has been applied.
B. You have not generated an RSA key pair between the host and device to allow secure access via Cisco SDM.
C. You have been locked out via access lists mat nave been applied to the router as a result of your Cisco SDM configuration.
D. You must specify the host IP address of Cisco SDM in the Configuration panel for allowed management connections.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 123
An 802.11 b telephone is receiving an audio signal from an access point, but cannot send audio. What is a possible cause?
A. the RSSI value on the telephone is greater than 35.
B. The access point is set to receive only at 802.11g data rates.
C. The security settings in the telephone do not match the settings in the access point.
D. The transmit power in the telephone is significantly lower than the transmit power in the access point.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Refer to the exhibit. A host on the Sales subnet (10.0.2.0/24) is not able to initiate a web connection to an outside website. According to the network diagram and partial Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager configuration shown in the exhibit, what is the cause of the problem?

A. The dynamic NAT global pool is not configured correctly.
B. The source networks for static NAT are not configured correctly.
C. The administrator has not added an access list to allow the connection.
D. The source network for dynamic NAT is not configured correctly

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
Users logging into Cisco Router and Security Device Manager should be authenticated using the Cisco ISR local user database. Currently, none of the users can access Cisco Router and Security Device Manager via HTTP. You should check the configuration of which command or commands when attempting to resolve this problem?
A. There is no ip http secure-server
B. There is ip http authentication local
C. There is linevty 0 5 login local
D. There isaaa new-model

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
When using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager to configure AAA login authentication policies, which four methods are available? (Choose four.)
A. group RADIUS: use a list of RADIUS hosts
B. group TACACS+ use a list of TACACS+ hosts
C. enable: use enable password
D. otp: use onE.time password
E. local use local database
F. default: use line password

Correct Answer: ABCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
You have just configured HSRP and need to determine which router is active. Which command should you enter?
A. show ip hsrp active
B. show standby active
C. show star
D. show active

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 128
A North American customer is using 2.4-GHz radios in a point-to-point configuration. The radio power level is 17 dBm and is transmitting at 11 Mbps. The customer is using 21.5-dBi dish antennas and 50 feet of cabling, with a loss of 8.4 dB per 100 feet. The customer increased the distance between the transmitter stations and began experiencing link problems.
Without using a professional installer, which step should the customer take to fix the situation?
A. Use a cable with a lower loss.
B. Upgrade to an 802.11a radio.
C. Install a higher gain antenna.
D. Increase the transmitter power.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
A user is unable to connect to the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager via HTTPS. Which two of these might have caused this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Theip https server command is missing from the running configuration.
B. The ip http securE.server command is missing from the running configuration
C. The user is trying to launch Cisco Router and Security Device Manager from the inside (secured) interface with a firewall enabled.
D. The user has a privilege level lower than 15.
E. The browser security level is set too high.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two.)
A. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is configured via the infrastructure access point GUI.
B. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is automatically discovered by the infrastructure access points through multicast
C. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest MAC address, followed by priority number.
D. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest priority number followed by MAC address.
E. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest IP address, followed by MAC address.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 131
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between Router A and Router B. Given the debug output on Router A, which two statements are true? (Choose two.) Router A= debug eigrp packets . m .
01:39:13:
EIGRP: Received HELLO on SerialQ 0 nbr 10.1.2.2

01:39:13:
AS 100, Flags 0x0, Seq 0/0 idbQ 00 iidbQ un/rely 0/0 peerQ un/rely 0/0

01:39:13:
K-value mismatch

A.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.

B.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.

C.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.

D.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatchedmetriC.calculation mechanisms

E.
Router A will form an adjacency with Router B.

F.
Router A will not form an adjacency with Router B

Correct Answer: DF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 113
OSPF routes are being redistributed into EIGRP but they are not showing up in the routing table. What are two possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. CEF has not been enabled.
B. Synchronization has been turned off.
C. incorrect distribute lists have been configured
D. No default metric has been configured for EIGRP
E. Theip classless command is missing.
F. There are mismatched autonomous system numbers.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
Which two statements best describe the wireless implementation of Cisco Aironet root and non- root bridging? (Choose two.)
A. Point-to-point access points can be used if one is root and the other is non-root.
B. WGB can be used with an access point if the distance is less than one mile
C. Root mode must be enabled only on one side in a point-to-point link to intemperate with other vendors and comply with 802.11
D. Up to 17 non-root bridges can associate to a root bridge
E. Point-to-point WGB can be used if total number of PCs is fewer than eight. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 is the BDR

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
CORRECT TEXT
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: : about what is displayed? (Choose two.) Answer: C, D
QUESTION 116
The customer wants to implement wireless security through implementation of WPAv2. Which component of WPAv2 would limit the rollout because of the continued use of old access points?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 43 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
A. 48-bit IV
B. AES
C. TKIP
D. MIC

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
A company needs to provide sitE.to-site VPN, remote access VPN, and firewall protection. Which device best supports all three functions?
A. Cisco PIX
B. Cisco ASA
C. Cisco Concentrator
D. Cisco Router and Security Device Manager

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
CORRECT TEXT
Which two statements are
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: : about using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) to configure the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose two.) Answer: B, E
QUESTION 119
Refer to the exhibit. R2 is always in the init state. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. R2 is seeing hello packets from R1.
B. R2 is not seeing hello packets from R1. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 44 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
C. The exchanging of data between R1 and R2 is occurring because each is sending hello packets.
D. Two-way communication has not been established between R1 and R2 because R2 is not seeing its router ID in the hello packets that it is receiving from R1
E. R2 has an access list defined for SO that is blocking an OSPF multicast IP address of 224.0.0.5.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 120
Which two features are only supported when using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) Advanced Firewall wizard and not supported when using the Cisco SDM Basic Firewall wizard? (Choose two.)
A. deep-packet inspections
B. IP unicast Reverse Path Forwarding on the outside (untrusted) interface
C. DMZ services
D. Custom inspection rules
E. proxy authentication

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
:When troubleshooting poor network performance, which two symptoms would typically be associated with a network layer problem? (Choose two.)
A. Packet loss is more than 30 percent
B. There is excessive broadcast traffic.
C. There are excessive CRC errors.
D. Pings succeed only part of the time
E. Slips are detected on WAN interfaces.
F. ARP requests are timing out.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 122
Which command can be used to verify that RIPv2 is running on a router?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 45 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
A. show startup-config
B. show ip route
C. showip route rip
D. Show ip protocols

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 123
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router.
B. Layer 2 services can be configured in a Cisco Aironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router
C. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or controllers.
D. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSM.
E. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSE.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
You have just configured and enabled the Cisco IOS Firewall feature set from a remote location using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) Firewall wizard. You later want to doublE. check your configuration using Cisco SDM. However, you find that you can no longer connect to the Cisco IOS Firewall using Cisco SDM.
What is the probable cause of this failure?
A. You must additionally specify the Cisco SDM management port number to gain access when the configuration has been applied.
B. You have not generated an RSA key pair between the host and device to allow secure access via Cisco SDM.
C. You have been locked out via access lists mat nave been applied to the router as a result of your Cisco SDM configuration.
D. You must specify the host IP address of Cisco SDM in the Configuration panel for allowed management connections. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 46 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
An 802.11 b telephone is receiving an audio signal from an access point, but cannot send audio. What is a possible cause?
A. the RSSI value on the telephone is greater than 35.
B. The access point is set to receive only at 802.11g data rates.
C. The security settings in the telephone do not match the settings in the access point.
D. The transmit power in the telephone is significantly lower than the transmit power in the access point.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
Refer to the exhibit. A host on the Sales subnet (10.0.2.0/24) is not able to initiate a web connection to an outside website. According to the network diagram and partial Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager configuration shown in the exhibit, what is the cause of the problem?
A. The dynamic NAT global pool is not configured correctly.
B. The source networks for static NAT are not configured correctly.
C. The administrator has not added an access list to allow the connection.
D. The source network for dynamic NAT is not configured correctly

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
Users logging into Cisco Router and Security Device Manager should be authenticated using the Cisco ISR local user database. Currently, none of the users can access Cisco Router and Security Device Manager via HTTP. You should check the configuration of which command or commands when attempting to resolve this problem?
A. There is no ip http secure-server
B. There is ip http authentication local
C. There is linevty 0 5 login local
D. There isaaa new-model

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
When using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager to configure AAA login authentication policies, which four methods are available? (Choose four.)
A. group RADIUS: use a list of RADIUS hosts
B. group TACACS+ use a list of TACACS+ hosts
C. enable: use enable password
D. otp: use onE.time password
E. local use local database
F. default: use line password

Correct Answer: ABCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
CORRECT TEXT
Which two statements are
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: : about OSPF in a multiarea environment? (Choose two.) Answer: C, D
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 48 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
QUESTION 130
You have just configured HSRP and need to determine which router is active. Which command should you enter?
A. show ip hsrp active
B. show standby active
C. show star
D. show active

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 131
A North American customer is using 2.4-GHz radios in a point-to-point configuration. The radio power level is 17 dBm and is transmitting at 11 Mbps. The customer is using 21.5-dBi dish antennas and 50 feet of cabling, with a loss of 8.4 dB per 100 feet. The customer increased the distance between the transmitter stations and began experiencing link problems.
Without using a professional installer, which step should the customer take to fix the situation?
A. Use a cable with a lower loss.
B. Upgrade to an 802.11a radio.
C. Install a higher gain antenna.
D. Increase the transmitter power.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
CORRECT TEXT Which three statements are
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: : about the IEEE 802.3af Power over Ethernet standard? (Choose three.) Answer: A, C, E
QUESTION 133
A user is unable to connect to the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager via HTTPS. Which two of these might have caused this problem? (Choose two.)
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 49 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
A. Theip https server command is missing from the running configuration.
B. The ip http securE.server command is missing from the running configuration
C. The user is trying to launch Cisco Router and Security Device Manager from the inside (secured) interface with a firewall enabled.
D. The user has a privilege level lower than 15.
E. The browser security level is set too high.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two.)
A. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is configured via the infrastructure access point GUI.
B. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is automatically discovered by the infrastructure access points through multicast
C. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest MAC address, followed by priority number.
D. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest priority number followed by MAC address.
E. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest IP address, followed by MAC address.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between Router A
and Router B. Given the debug output on Router A, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
Router A= debug eigrp packets
. m .

01:39:13:
EIGRP: Received HELLO on SerialQ 0 nbr 10.1.2.2

01:39:13:
AS 100, Flags 0x0, Seq 0/0 idbQ 00 iidbQ un/rely 0/0 peerQ un/rely 0/0

01:39:13:
K-value mismatch

A.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.

B.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.

C.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.

D.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatchedmetriC.calculation mechanisms

E.
Router A will form an adjacency with Router B.

F.
Router A will not form an adjacency with Router B “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 50 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam

Correct Answer: DF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Which command assigns a cost value of “17” to a switch port?
A. spanning-tree interfacefastethernet 5/8 17
B. spanning-treeportcost 17
C. spanning-treeportcost 17
D. spanning-treevlan 1 cost 17

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
You have configured and applied a Cisco IOS Firewall access rule to the inbound, untrusted interface. You suspect that the rule may be blocking necessary traffic onto the network. What must you do to delete that rule when using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager?
A. Select ACL Editor > Access Rules to delete the rule.
B. You must remove the association between the rule and the interface before deleting the rule
C. You must delete the associated access list on the interface, then reconfigure the access list as required, and then reapply the access group to the proper interface.
D. Go to the Edit Firewall Policy tab to delete the rule.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
A customer in Europe needs to establish an 11-Mbps wireless bridge link between two office buildings that are approximately 1.3 km apart. The wireless link will pass through a public park, which contains a lake that is surrounded by trees. You run the range calculation and determine that the Cisco Aironet 1300 Series Outdoor Access Point/Bridge should work. You install the link using 10.5-dB yagis with 75 feet of standard Cisco cabling and both radios set at 20 mW. The wireless bridges are not able to establish or maintain a link.
What is needed to successfully complete this link?
A. An amplifier needs to be installed at one of the sites.
B. The antenna must be raised high enough to clear the trees
C. Lower loss cabling needs to be used to bring the EIRP into legal limits. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 51 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
D. Due to the trees, a 21-dBi dish needs to be used for its narrower beam width.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference

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QUESTION 156
Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port? switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
A. The port will shut down.
B. The host will be allowed to connect. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
C. The host will be refused access.
D. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Choose three.)
A. STP
B. CDP
C. EAP MD5
D. TACACS+
E. EAP-over-LAN
F. protocols not filtered by an ACL

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
When you issue a command show port 3/1 on an Ethernet port, you observe the Giants column has a non-zero entry. What could cause this?
A. IEEE 802.1Q
B. IEEE 802.10
C. misconfigured NIC
D. user configuration

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
Which VTP information does a Catalyst switch advertise on its trunk ports when using VTP? (Choose two.)
A. VTP mode
B. STP root status
C. negotiation status
D. management domain
E. configuration revision number

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 160
What are two benefits provided in VTP Version 2 but NOT in VTP Version 1? (Choose two.)
A. supports Token Ring VLANs
B. allows VLAN consistency checks
C. saves VLAN configuration memory
D. reduces the amount of configuration necessary
E. allows active redundant links when used with spanning tree

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
Refer to the exhibit. All network links are FastEthernet. Although there is complete connectivity throughout the network, Front Line users have been complaining that they experience slower network performance when accessing the server farm than the Reception office experiences. Based on the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Changing the bridge priority of S1 to 4096 would improve network performance.
B. Changing the bridge priority of S1 to 36864 would improve network performance.
C. Changing the bridge priority of S2 to 36864 would improve network performance.
D. Changing the bridge priority of S3 to 4096 would improve network performance. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
E. Disabling the Spanning Tree Protocol would improve network performance.
F. Upgrading the link between S2 and S3 to Gigabit Ethernet would improve performance.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Refer to the exhibit. PCs in VLAN 2 are not able to communicate with PCs in VLAN 3. What could be
the cause?

A. IP routing is not enabled.
B. VTP is not configured correctly on the interfaces.
C. The command mls rp management-interface is missing.
D. The command mls rp ip must be disabled to enable the routing.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
Which three statements are true of the Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP)? (Choose three.)
A. LACP is used to connect to non-Cisco devices.
B. LACP packets are sent with the command channel-group 1 mode desirable.
C. LACP packets are sent with the command channel-group 1 mode active.
D. Standby interfaces should be configured with a higher priority.
E. Standby interfaces should be configured with a lower priority.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 164
Refer to the exhibit. A workstation PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone access port. Based on the
configuration in the exhibit, how will the traffic be managed?

A. The IP phone access port will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
B. The IP phone access port will trust the priority of the frames received from the PC.
C. The switch port Fa0/4 will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
D. The switch port Fa0/4 will trust the priority for the frames received from the PC.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Refer to the exhibit. A trunk link is connected between switch A_SW and switch D_SW. Based on the
configuration shown in the exhibit, how would the traffic coming from the switch A_SW be managed?
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A. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from the IP phone.
B. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone.
C. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from port Fa0/1 on A_SW.
D. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the A_SW switch port Fa0/4.
E. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone port.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Which option correctly identifies the Cisco IOS switching methods in descending order from the fastest
method to the slowest method?
A. CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching, process switching
B. distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching, process switching
C. fast switching, process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
D. process switching, fast switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
E. process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching
F. process switching, CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
What will occur when a nonedge switch port that is configured for Rapid Spanning Tree does not
receive a BPDU from its neighbor for three consecutive hello time intervals?
A. RSTP information is automatically aged out.
B. The port sends a TCN to the root bridge.
C. The port moves to listening state.
D. The port becomes a normal spanning tree port.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
Refer to the exhibit. Why does the trust state of interface FastEthernet 0/3 show “not trusted”?
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A. DSCP map needs to be configured for VOIP.
B. ToS has not been configured.
C. ToS has been misconfigured.
D. The command mls qos needs to be turned on in global configuration mode.
E. There is not a Cisco Phone attached to the interface.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 169
What two things will occur when an edge port receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)
A. The port immediately transitions to the Forwarding state.
B. The switch generates a Topology Change Notification (TCN) BPDU.
C. The port immediately transitions to the err-disable state.
D. The port becomes a normal STP switch port.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
What two pieces of information will the show vlan id 5 command display? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN information on port 0/5
B. ports in VLAN 5
C. MTU and type
D. utilization
E. filters

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
Based on the network diagram and routing table output in the exhibit, which of these statements is
true?
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A. InterVLAN routing has been configured properly, and the workstations have connectivity to each other.
B. InterVLAN routing will not occur since no routing protocol has been configured.
C. Although interVLAN routing is not enabled, both workstations will have connectivity to each other.
D. Although interVLAN routing is enabled, the workstations will not have connectivity to each other.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 172
What is the default VTP advertisement for subset advertisements in Catalyst switches that are in server or client mode?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 1 minute
E. 5 minutes

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 173
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the debug output that is shown, which three statements about HSRP
are true? (Choose three.)
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A. The final active router is the router with IP address 172.16.11.111.
B. The router with IP address 172.16.11.111 has preempt configured.
C. The priority of the router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is preferred over the router with IP address

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
16.11.111.
A. The IP address 172.16.11.115 is the virtual HSRP IP address.
B. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 has nonpreempt configured.
C. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is using default HSRP priority.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
What must be configured on a Cisco switch in order to advertise VLAN information?
A. VTP password
B. VTP domain name
C. VTP revision number
D. VTP mode
E. VTP pruning

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
Which describes the default load balancing scheme used by the Gateway Load Balancing Protocol
(GLBP)?
A. per host basis using a round-robin scheme
B. per host basis using a strict priority scheme
C. per session using a round-robin scheme
D. per session using a strict priority scheme
E. per GLBP group using a round-robin scheme TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
F. per GLBP group using a strict priority scheme

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
When authentication is required, where must 802.1x be configured in order to connect a PC to a
switch?
A. client PC only
B. switch port only
C. switch port and client PC
D. switch port and local router port

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
How are STP timers and state transitions affected when a topology change occurs in an STP
environment?
A. All ports will temporarily transition to the learning state for a period equal to the max age timer plus the forward delay interval.
B. All ports will transition temporarily to the learning state for a period equal to the forward delay interval.
C. The default aging time for MAC address entries will be reduced for a period of the max age timer plus the forward delay interval.
D. The default hello time for configuration BDPUs will be reduced for the period of the max age timer.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 179
Refer to the exhibit. VTP has been enabled on the trunk links between all switches within the TEST
domain. An administrator has recently enabled VTP pruning. Port 1 on Switch 1 and port 2 on Switch 4 are
assigned to VLAN 2. A broadcast is sent from the host connected to Switch 1. Where will the broadcast
propagate?
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A. Every switch in the network receives the broadcast and will forward it out all ports.
B. Every switch in the network receives the broadcast, but only Switch 4 will forward it out port 2.
C. Switches 1, 2, and 4 will receive the broadcast, but only Switch 4 will forward it out port 2.
D. Only Switch 4 will receive the broadcast and will forward it out port 2.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 180
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 1 and VLAN 2 are configured on the trunked links between Switch A and Switch B. Port Fa 0/2 on Switch B is currently in a blocking state for both VLANs. What should be done to load balance VLAN traffic between Switch A and Switch B?

A. Lower the port priority for VLAN 1 on port 0/1 for Switch A.
B. Lower the port priority for VLAN 1 on port 0/2 for Switch A.
C. Make the bridge ID of Switch B lower than the ID of Switch A.
D. Enable HSRP on the access ports.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181
Refer to the exhibit. Which two problems are the most likely cause of the exhibited output? (Choose
two.)
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A. spanning tree issues
B. HSRP misconfiguration
C. VRRP misconfiguration
D. physical layer issues
E. transport layer issues

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
Refer to the exhibit. Initially, LinkA is connected and forwarding traffic. A new LinkB is then attached between SwitchA and HubA. Which two statements are true about the possible result of attaching the second link? (Choose two.)

A. The switch port attached to LinkB will not transistion to up.
B. One of the two switch ports attached to the hub will go into blocking mode when a BPDU is received.
C. Both switch ports attached to the hub will transition to the blocking state.
D. A heavy traffic load could cause BPDU transmissions to be blocked and leave a switching loop.
E. The switch port attached to LinkA will immediately transition to the blocking state.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 183
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration on routers R1 and R2. Hot Standby Routing Protocol (HSRP) is configured on the network to provide network redundancy for the IP traffic. The network administrator noticed that R2 does not became active when the R1 serial0 interface goes down. What should be changed in the configuration to fix the problem?

A. R2 should be configured with a HSRP virtual address.
B. R2 should be configured with a standby priority of 100.
C. The Serial0 interface on router R1 should be configured with a decrement value of 20.
D. The Serial1 interface on router R2 should be configured with a decrement value of 20.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the output?
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A. The port on switch CAT1 is forwarding and sending BPDUs correctly.
B. The port on switch CAT1 is blocking and sending BPDUs correctly.
C. The port on switch CAT2 is forwarding and receiving BPDUs correctly.
D. The port on switch CAT2 is blocking and sending BPDUs correctly.
E. The port on switch CAT3 is forwarding and receiving BPDUs correctly.
F. The port on switch CAT3 is forwarding, sending, and receiving BPDUs correctly.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 185
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true based upon the configuration of router R1 and router R2?
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A. Router R1 will become the active virtual gateway.
B. Router R2 will become the active virtual gateway.
C. The hello and hold timers are incompatible with multi-homed BGP.
D. The hello and hold timers are incompatible with OSPF type 5 LSAs.
E. Router R1 will become the master for Virtual Router 1, and router R2 will become the backup for Virtual Router 2.
F. Router R2 will become the master for Virtual Router 1, and router R1 will become the backup for Virtual Router 2.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 186
Refer to the exhibit. The switchport output in Figure 1 displays the default settings of interface
FastEthernet 0/13 on switch SW1. Figure 2 displays the desired interface settings. Which command
sequence would configure interface FastEthernet 0/13 as displayed in Figure 2?
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A. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SW1 (config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
B. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic auto SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA SW1(config-if)# witchport trunk allowed vlan add 1,10,20
C. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
D. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10 SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
E. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 187
Refer to the exhibit. For what purpose is the command show ip cef used?
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A. to display rewritten IP unicast packets
B. to display ARP resolution packets
C. to display ARP throttling
D. to display TCAM matches
E. to display CEF-based MLS lookups
F. to display entries in the Forwarding Information Base (FIB)

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 188
Which two statements are true about HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP? (Choose two.)
A. GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment without the different host IP configurations required to achieve the same results with HSRP.
B. GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment by utilizing the creation of multiple standby groups.
C. GLBP and VRRP allow for MD5 authentication, whereas HSRP does not.
D. Unlike HSRP and VRRP, GLBP allows automatic selection and simultaneous use of multiple available gateways.
E. HSRP allows for multiple upstream active links being simultaneously used, whereas GLBP does not.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 189
Refer to the exhibit. Host A and Host B are connected to the Catalyst 3550 switch and have been
assigned to their respective VLANs. The rest of the 3550 configuration is the default configuration. Host A is able to ping its default gateway, 10.10.10.1, but is unable to ping Host B. Given the output displayed in the exhibit, which statement is true?

A. HSRP must be configured on SW1.
B. A separate router is required to support interVLAN routing.
C. Interface VLAN 10 must be configured on the SW1 switch.
D. The global config command ip routing must be configured on the SW1 switch.
E. VLANs 10 and 15 must be created in the VLAN database mode.
F. VTP must be configured to support interVLAN routing.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 190
Refer to the exhibit and the show interfaces fastethernet0/1 switchport outputs. Users in VLAN 5 on
switch SW_A complain that they do not have connectivity to the users in VLAN 5 on switch SW_B. What
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A. Configure the same number of VLANs on both switches.
B. Create switch virtual interfaces (SVI) on both switches to route the traffic.
C. Define VLAN 5 in the allowed list for the trunk port on SW_A.
D. Disable pruning for all VLANs in both switches.
E. Define VLAN 5 in the allowed list for the trunk port on SW_B

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 191
What does the Catalyst switch interface configuration command switchport trunk native vlan 7
accomplish?
A. configures the interface to be a trunking port and causes traffic on VLAN 7 to be 802.1q tagged
B. causes the interface to apply ISL framing for traffic on VLAN 7
C. configures the trunking interface to send traffic from VLAN 7 untagged
D. configures the trunking interface to forward traffic from VLAN 7

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 192
Refer to the exhibit. The show port-security interface fa0/1 command was issued on switch SW1.
Given the output that was generated, which two security statement are true? (Choose two.)

A. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security aging command.
B. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security protect command.
C. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security violation restrict command.
D. When the number of secure IP addresses reaches 10, the interface will immediately shut down.
E. When the number of secure MAC addresses reaches 10, the interface will immediately shut down and an SNMP trap notification will be sent.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 193
Which two statements about the various implementations of STP are true? (Choose two.)
A. Common Spanning Tree maintains a separate spanning-tree instance for each VLAN configured in the network.
B. The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is an evolution of the IEEE 802.1w standard.
C. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) supports 802.1Q trunking. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
D. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus(PVST+) is an enhancement to 802.1Q specification and is supported only on Cisco devices.
E. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) includes features equivalent to Cisco PortFast, UplinkFast, and BackboneFast for faster network reconvergence.
F. Multiple Spanning Tree (MST) assumes one spanning-tree instance for the entire Layer 2 network, regardless of the multiple number of VLANs.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 194
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration of switch SW_A and SW_B. STP is configured on all
switches in the network. SW_B receives this error message on the console port:

00:06:34:
%CDP-4-DUPLEX_MISMATCH: duplex mismatch discovered on FastEthernet0/5 (not half
duplex),
with SW_A FastEthernet0/4 (half duplex) ,
with TBA05071417(Cat6K-B) 0/4 (half duplex).
What would be the possible outcome of the problem?
A.
The root port on switch SW_A will automatically transition to full-duplex mode.

B.
The root port on switch SW_B will fallback to full-duplex mode.

C.
The interfaces between switches SW_A and SW_B will transition to a blocking state.

D.
Interface Fa 0/6 on switch SW_B will transition to a forwarding state and create a bridging loop. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 195
Which two statements are true about BPDU port-guard and BPDU filtering? (Choose two.)
A. BPDU port-guard can be enabled globally, whereas BPDU filtering must be enabled on a per-interface basis.
B. When globally enabled, BPDU port-guard and BPDU filtering apply only to PortFast enabled ports.
C. When globally enabled, BPDU port-guard and BPDU filtering apply only to trunking-enabled ports.
D. When a BPDU is received on a BPDU port-guard enabled port, the interface goes into the err-disabled state.
E. When a BPDU is received on a BPDU filtering enabled port, the interface goes into the err-disabled state.
F. When a BPDU is received on a BPDU filtering enabled port, the interface goes into the STP blocking state.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 196
Refer to the exhibit. Switch 15 is configured as the root switch for VLAN 10 but not for VLAN 20. If the
STP configuration is correct, what will be true about Switch 15?

TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
A. All ports will be in forwarding mode.
B. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode.
C. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in blocking mode.
D. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in standby mode.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 197
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

A. IP traffic matching access list ABC is forwarded through VLANs 5-10.
B. IP traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all other traffic will be dropped.
C. All VLAN traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all traffic matching access list ABC is dropped.
D. All VLAN traffic in VLANs 5-10 that match access list ABC will be forwarded, and all else will be dropped.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 198
Refer to the exhibit. Switch P1S1 is not applying VLAN updates from switch P2S1. What are three
reasons why this is not occurring? (Choose three.)
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside

A. Switch P2S1 is in server mode.
B. Switch P1S1 is in transparent mode.
C. The MD5 digests do not match.
D. The passwords do not match.
E. The VTP domains are different.
F. VTP trap generation is disabled on both switches.

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 199
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about
interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside

A. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplex mismatch with another switch

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 200
What must be the same to make multiple switches part of the same Multiple Spanning Tree (MST)?
A. VLAN instance mapping and revision number
B. VLAN instance mapping and member list
C. VLAN instance mapping, revision number, and member list
D. VLAN instance mapping, revision number, member list, and timers

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 147
What would be a good initial SAN-migration project for a small or medium-sized business that possesses ample WAN bandwidth, but that has an immediate need to reduce spending and to maximize resources?
A. Reduce the WAN bandwidth.
B. Implement FCIP to consolidate all remote SANs.
C. Implement backup consolidation.
D. Centralize the data center and implement an iSCSI solution.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Exhibit:

Refer to the exhibit. Which three outcomes would a customer realize by performing the migration from a multitier fabric design to a consolidated design? (Choose three.)
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. lower effective port cost
B. high availability because of the multifaceted redundancy that is built into the Cisco MDS switch
C. lower effective port count
D. higher effective port cost
E. higher effective port count
F. lower availability because there are fewer fabric switches for failover

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
What are two MDS features that increase the efficiency of a multiple switch Fibre Channel fabric? (Choose two.)
A. Port Channel
B. CDP
C. FCP
D. FCC
E. CUP

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
What provides storage virtualization from IBM?
A. Advanced Services Module (ASM)
B. Caching Services Module (CSM)
C. Storage Services Module (SSM)
D. Cisco MDS 9000 32-port 1/2-Gbps FC Module
E. IP Multiprotocol Services Module

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
A customer is concerned about the security of the SAN. The customer wants to prevent unauthorized hosts and switches from connecting to the SAN fabric. Which technology should be enabled on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series SAN to accommodate this requirement?
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. DHCAP
B. role-based authorization
C. zones
D. SSH

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Which four secure management protocols are used to enable intelligent SAN security? (Choose four.)
A. SSH
B. Secure TFTP
C. SNMP
D. FTP
E. DNS
F. RADIUS-based AAA

Correct Answer: ABCD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
When designing a SAN, what is considered to be the most significant security threat?
A. Denial of Service attacks
B. Management Access
C. WWN Spoofing
D. FC_ID Spoofing
E. Host to Storage data paths

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
Which tool requires the Cisco Fabric Manager Server License to operate?
A. Cisco Performance Manager
B. Cisco Fabric Manager
C. Cisco Device Manager
D. Cisco Fabric Analyzer Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
What are two characteristics of iSCSI? (Choose two.)
A. iSCSI initiators cannot be members of more than one VSAN.
B. The port VSAN of an iSCSI interface cannot be modified.
C. iSCSI cannot benefit from existing IP QoS.
D. By default, dynamically mapped iSCSI initiators are members of VSAN 1.
E. The IPS module creates one or more FC virtual N_Ports for each iSCSI host.
F. By default, all statically mapped iSCSI initiators are members of VSAN 4094.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
In a core-edge SAN implementation, which statement is true about oversubscription?
A. When using full-rate mode ports, there is no oversubscription in a core-edge implementation.
B. A core-edge design has manageable oversubscription, but at the cost of used ISL ports.
C. Oversubscription in a core-edge design is implemented by using N_Ports.
D. When using a core-edge design, there is only oversubscription when it is implemented in a heterogeneous environment.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
Which technology should be used to provide transparent low latency FC transport across a metropolitan area?
A. DWDM
B. FCIP
C. iSCSI
D. iFCP

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
QUESTION 158
Which Fibre Channel SAN topology maximizes performance and expandability?
A. multi-point
B. point-to-point
C. arbitrated loop
D. switched fabric
E. star

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
What are three causes of host oversubscription? (Choose three.)
A. the operating system
B. the PCI bus limitations
C. the RTO and RPO values
D. whether the HBA has a flat FCIDs assigned
E. the limits on the maximum I/O and bandwidth rate

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 160
What are three array characteristics that are crucial when planning a SAN design? (Choose three.)
A. fan-in ratio
B. connection speed
C. embedded cache controller
D. RAID level support
E. active/passive controller

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
What are two benefits of the Cisco MDS Series Switches that increase the overall resiliency of SAN extension? (Choose two.)
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. VSANs and IVR can eliminate the potential disruption of a WAN failure.
B. VSANs and IVR can increase resiliency by combining control traffic and data traffic over the WAN.
C. Parallel tunnels and PortChannels eliminate failure of every VSAN or IVR in the local fabric.
D. PortChannels and VSANs can be used with FCIP to provide end-to-end redundancy and load balancing.
E. Recovery at the PortChannel level, instead of at the FSPF routing level, provides nondisruptive recovery.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
A customer is planning to deploy a new storage-area-network infrastructure. The customer has five buildings within corporate headquarters, each with a separate data center. Four of the five data centers serve separate business units, while the fifth serves as the primary data center for the entire company. The customer would like to deploy the SAN in such a way that each of the five data centers will have its own storage-network infrastructure and connectivity amongst each other. The customer is planning to enable long-distance connectivity from the primary data center for the purposes of replicating data from all of the data centers across the country. Which SAN topology would you recommend that the customer deploy?
A. core-edge
B. collapsed core
C. partial mesh
D. full mesh

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 163
Which statement is true about when the Cisco MDS switch is operating in native mode?
A. Native mode is the only mode available on the MDS switch, and thus the switch is able to operate with all other storage switches because all storage switches are certified by SNIA.
B. If the products of other storage-switch vendors strictly adhere to published standards, they will be able to interoperate with MDS in native mode.
C. Most commonly deployed switches in the marketplace today can interoperate with the switches of other vendors while functioning in their default or native mode.
D. Non-MDS switches are able to interpret the Cisco EISL header and thus can Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355 interpret VSAN information.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
What are three key benefits of implementing a SAN using iSCSI? (Choose three.)
A. uses existing IP networking, monitoring, and management infrastructure
B. is more efficient than FC since it requires fewer encapsulations
C. maintains consistent performance over IP networks of varying distances
D. significant capital cost reduction by substituting iSCSI as a transport technology
E. extends existing FC SAN to IP connected hosts

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
At which point can security on a Fibre Channel SAN be implemented? (Choose three.)
A. storage array
B. server
C. Fibre Channel switch
D. GigE NIC
E. SFP connector

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
A customer recently deployed a core-edge storage network infrastructure that consists of several Cisco MDS directors and fabric switches. The directors are deployed in the core of the network, and the fabric switches are deployed as edge devices. The edge devices are connected to the core by PortChannels, which consist of four links. The customer is interested in in-band management of the fabric using TCP/IP. Which two configurations are required for enabling in-band management of the fabric using TCP/IP? (Choose two.)
A. VRRP
B. FCIP
C. IPFC
D. synchronization of management users and passwords Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
E. VSAN IP addresses

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
A customer has deployed two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors. One MDS 9509 is deployed in each of two separate data centers. The primary data center is always active, and the secondary data center is considered a standby site. The data centers are connected together by a single Gigabit Ethernet connection that is shared by many departmental networks within the company. The network connection is unreliable and is frequently out of service. The storage administrator needs to synchronously replicate data from an array in the production data center to an array in the standby data center, but is concerned about the network instability impacting the production data center. Which feature would you recommend to the administrator to minimize disruption?
A. PortChannel
B. Fibre Channel over IP
C. Inter-VSAN Routing
D. Fibre Channel Congestion Control
E. Fibre Channel timeout values

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
Select three characteristics of the Cisco coarse wave division multiplexing (CWDM) solution. (Choose three.)
A. multiplexes up to eight wavelengths across a single fiber pair
B. supports a maximum connection length of 220 kilometers
C. supports both linear and ring topologies
D. requires OADMs (optical add/drop multiplexers) to aggregate multiple wavelengths across the same fiber pair
E. can be optically amplified to extend the distance characteristics

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 169
What are three reasons to implement VSANs in a Fibre Channel SAN? (Choose three.)
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. to reduce network infrastructure requirements
B. to increase data security
C. to enable port-channeling
D. to enable TCP/IP routing
E. to share SAN extension capability using EISLs

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
What is considered the optimal topology for deployment of Fibre Channel SANs using Cisco MDS family products? (Choose two.)
A. mesh
B. ring
C. core-edge
D. collapsed core
E. core-edge with VSAN

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
A large credit card processing firm is adding a second data center to support business continuance. What is the recommended solution for extending the SAN to the second data center if both data centers are active?
A. asynchronous replication using FCIP
B. dual homed servers, and IP connectivity using multiple paths
C. iSCSI installation and a bridge the Ethernet network to the Fibre Channel fabric
D. synchronous replication using DWDM

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 172
A customer has storage arrays from multiple vendors, and is considering a virtualization solution to simplify storage management. Choose three advantages of using a Cisco MDS-based virtualization solution with an MDS 9500 Series Director instead of host-based or storage-based virtualization solutions. (Choose three.)
A. host and storage heterogeneity Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
B. LUN masking that is simpler to implement
C. virtualization that is closer to the target
D. virtualization that is embedded in the switch module
E. availability

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 173
A customer is considering designing a new storage-network infrastructure to simplify storage network management. The existing solution uses ten 16-port 1-Gbps Fibre Channel switches. Two of the switches are deployed as core switches, and the remaining eight switches are deployed as edge switches. Each edge switch has an ISL to each of the two core switches. The disk array has four 1-Gbps Fibre Channel interfaces. Two interfaces connect to each of the core switches. Each of the 96 servers has a single 1-Gbps Fibre Channel host bus adapter. Which configuration would provide equivalent or better performance while simplifying infrastructure management?
A. two Cisco MDS 9140 Fabric Switches
B. two Cisco MDS 9216 Fabric Switches, each with one 32-port Fibre Channel line card
C. one Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Director with two 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and two 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
D. one Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Director with four 32-port Fibre Channel line cards

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
Which three applications would be best suited for a SAN rather than a NAS environment? (Choose three.)
A. web content services
B. order entry and inventory tracking
C. enterprise resource planning (ERP)
D. office productivity suites (for example, Microsoft Office)
E. credit card transactions
F. engineering collaboration (for example, CAD and CAM)

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
QUESTION 175
A fully loaded Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Director requires 2190 watts of power. If 110-volt power is provided to the switch, at which power mode would the switch operate?
A. The director would operate in redundant mode only.
B. The director would operate in combined mode only.
C. The director would operate in redundant mode or combined mode.
D. The director cannot operate with 110-volt power.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
What feature of the MDS 9000 family would be most valuable in establishing a baseline of the traffic load on an existing network prior to making changes?
A. SPAN
B. RSPAN
C. FC-SP
D. Performance Manager
E. AAA

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
What are three advantages of a collapsed-core architecture? (Choose three.)
A. This design provides the most efficient use of ports because no ports are consumed for ISLs.
B. The absence of ISLs significantly decreases reliability and manageability.
C. The absence of any oversubscription increases switch throughput.
D. Since there are fewer available paths over which traffic may travel, FSPF values are higher.
E. Ports can be scaled easily by adding hot-swappable blades without disrupting traffic.
F. The highest performance is achieved by director-class switches, because the high-speed backplane provides low fixed latency between any two ports.

Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
QUESTION 178
A customer wants to consolidate the storage in an existing SAN where Cisco MDS Series Switches are deployed. How can the customer accomplish this goal and still be able to retain full access to the data?
A. dual supervisor modules
B. virtual output queuing (VOQ)
C. stateful failover
D. universal interoperability mode 4
E. per-VSAN FSPF routing

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 179
A customer is designing a SAN for each of two data centers. The two data centers are connected by dark fiber, which is owned by the customer. Cisco ONS platforms terminate the fiber and provide service aggregation. The customer requirements include that the SAN in each data center meet or exceed five nines of availability and be interconnected using 16 separate lambdas. The customer has four storage devices in each data center, and each storage device has four Fibre Channel interfaces. Each data center has 32 servers, and each server has two host bus adapters. The majority of the servers require only 20 to 30MBps of throughput on average, but four of the servers require 150 MBps of throughput on average. What will provide the most cost-effective design to satisfy these requirements?
A. two Cisco MDS 9216 Fabric Switches in each data center, each MDS 9216 with an additional 16-port Fibre Channel line card
B. two Cisco MDS 9216 Fabric Switches in each data center, each MDS 9216 with an additional 32-port Fibre Channel line card
C. two Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Directors with one in each data center, each MDS 9506 with two 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and two 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
D. two Cisco MDS 9509 Multilayer Directors with one in each data center, each MDS 9509 with two 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and three 32-port Fibre Channel line cards

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 180
What technology minimizes the potential for service interruption on SAN extension
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
links?
A. FCIP
B. VRRP
C. VSANs and IVR
D. Port Channeling

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181
A customer has 12 hosts, each capable of a maximum burst I/O rate of 75 MBps. The customer wants to connect these hosts to the fabric with a 32-port line card. For optimal performance what is the maximum number of hosts that should be connected to any four-port, host-optimized quad?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
A customer has the following application and peak-bandwidth requirements:Four database servers: 50 MBps eachFour exchange servers: 30 MBps each20 midrange development servers: 20 MBps eachWhich dual-fabric designs would best meet the needs of this price-sensitive customer while allowing for future SAN extension capability?
A. two Cisco MDS 9216i Multilayer Fabric Switches, each with an IPS-8 module
B. two Cisco MDS 9216A Multilayer Fabric Switches, each with an SSM module
C. two Cisco MDS 9216i Multilayer Fabric Switches, each with a 16-port FC module
D. two Cisco MDS 9216A Multilayer Fabric Switches, each with a 32-port FC module

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 183
Which two design criteria require VLANs in a proposed solution? (Choose two)
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. security between departments
B. segmenting collision domains
C. segmenting broadcast domains
D. video steaming on the LAN
E. limited budget of the corporation
F. use of multivendor equipment

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
Which statement describes IPv6 address route summarization?
A. IPv6 address have to converted to IPv4 address to be summarized
B. Classless Inter Domain Routing (CIDR) for IPv6 automatically performs route summarization
C. IPv6 addresses cannot use route summarization
D. IPv6 address have built in route summarization based on Top Level Aggregators, Next Level Aggregators and Site Level Aggregators.
E. The routers in the IPv6 network use proprietary protocols to optimize summarization based on the size of their routing tables.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 185
A converged voice and data network is designed to carry voice calls on-net as close a possible to the destination to reduce long distance charges. What are two reasons that a VoIP call could go off earlier than designed? (Choose two)
A. The local voice gateway detects lack of bandwidth.
B. The destination routing is not configured on both local and remote gateways.
C. The local call manager server is too busy to process the call.
D. The telephone user dials access code.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 186
A manufacturing company has decided to add a website to enhance sales. The web servers in the E-Commerce module must be accessible without compromising network security. Which two design recommendations can be made to meet their requirements? (Choose two)
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. Use intrusion detection on the E-Commerce server farm
B. Limit the number of incoming connections to the module
C. Place E-Commerce servers and application servers on isolated LANs (DMZs)
D. Move the E-Commerce servers to the WAN module to provide tight security.
E. Use private and public key encryption

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 187
A global corporation has 2,000,000+ host and 10,000+ routers in their internal network. They also have connectivity to the Internet and do high volumes of traffic with their business partners and the public at large. They have decided to start using IPv6. Which statement best describes a flexible IPv6 strategy for this corporation?
A. IPv6 hosts and IPv6 routers
B. dual stack hosts and dual stack routers
C. dual stack hosts and IPv4 routers
D. IPv4 hosts and IPv6 routers

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 188
A network that is running Voice over Frame Relay (VoFR) is experiencing delay and delay variation due to sterilization of packets of varying size. This condition is causing voice quality problems. Which solution can be added to the network at the sending end to reduce these problems?
A. dejetter buffers
B. hardware digital signal processors
C. link fragmentation and interleaving
D. coding algorithm

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 189
An established network is experience DoS attacks against a specific server in E-Commerce module. The operating system on the server has been upgraded and patched and all unnccded services have been tuned off, but the attacks are
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
continuing. What action should be recommended to reduce these attacks?
A. Block all UDP traffic to the affected server by using ACLs at the firewall.
B. Add more servers running the same application as the affected server.
C. Block all TCP traffic to the affected server by using ACLs at the firewall.
D. Limit the correction rate to the affected server at the firewall.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 190
Very large organizations hasreceived its IPv6 address range from their Internet Service Provider and intend to only use IPv6 address internally. They will access the Internet through port address translation (PAT). What is required for their Domain Name Servers, DNS?
A. They no longer need DNS servers
B. Their DNS servers need to support both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses
C. Their DNS servers need to support only IPv6 addresses
D. Their DNS servers need to support only IPv4 addresses
E. They need additional DNS servers in their network just for IPv6 addresses
F. There are no changes required to their DNS servers

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 191
RST Corporation is planning to upgrade its current network. The chief technology officer (CTO) has supplied a topology diagram and an IP addressing scheme of the current network during an interview. The
company has been growing at about twenty percent per year and it has been difficult to maintain customer
support at a satisfactory level. The RST board has met and directed the CTO to look into network
improvements.
Which two items are most relevant in documenting RST’s business requirements?

A. improved customer support
B. existing network topologies
C. IP addresses assigned by the ISP
D. projected growth
E. frequency of board meetings

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
QUESTION 192
In Cisco VoIP implementation what is used on a router to associate physical voice ports with phone numbers?
A. automatically route selections
B. translation patterns
C. IP telephony
D. dial neers

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 193
What is the default encapsulation for synchronous serial interfaces on Cisco routers?
A. ATM
B. HDLC
C. PPTP
D. Frame Relay
E. GRE

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 194
How does Roles Based Access Control (RBAC) enhance manageability in an environment with VSANs?
A. limit operator errors by isolating user management domains within a large physical infrastructure
B. specifies port membership to a specific VSAN
C. configures security options for host ports that are assigned to a VSAN
D. configures VSAN membership for specific trunk ports

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 195
What is the impact of IPv6 on the BGP protocol?
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-355
A. There is a new version of BGP for IPv6
B. Host converts BGP to IS-IS for IPv6
C. Host converts BGP to IS-IS for IPv6
D. There is no change for BGP between Ipv4 and IPv6
E. BGP cannot be used with IPv6

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 116
Match the corresponding terms and OSI layer.(Not all options are used.) 1.bits 2.packets 3.UDP 4.IP addresses 5.segments 6.MAC addresses 7.windowing 8.routing 9.switching
A. Network Layer II.Transprot Layer
B. I(2,4,9),II(5,7,3)
C. I(1,4,9),II(5,3,7)
D. I(1,4,8),II(2,7,3)
E. I(2,4,8),II(5,7,3)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 117
Three of the following are types of flow control. Which are them? (Choose three.)
A. windowing
B. buffering
C. cut-through
D. congestion avoidance
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 118
The following exhibit displays every device attached to the network. How many collision domains are shown in this network?

A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 15
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 119
What do you think is the data structure that is described in the graphic?

A. TCP segment
B. FDDI frame
C. Ethernet frame
D. Token Ring frame
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 120
For the following Layer 4 protocols, which one is used for a Telnet connection?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. ICMP
D. DNS
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 121
Which option is correct about the relationship between the definition and the term? Not all definitions will be used.
1.a protocol that converts human-readable names into machine-readable addresses 2.used to assign IP addresses automatically and set parameters such as subnet mask and default gateway 3.a protocol for using HTTP or HTTPS to exchange XML-based messages over computer networks 4.a connectionless service that uses UDP to transfer files between systems 5.a protocol used to monitor and manage network devices
6.a reliable. Connection-oriented service that uses TCP to transfer files between systems
A. SNMP II.FTP III.TFTP IV.DNS
B. DHCP
C. I-5;II-6;III-4;IV-1;V-2
D. I-5;II-6;III-1;IV-2;V-4
E. I-6;II-5;III-4;IV-1;V-2
F. I-6;II-5;III-4;IV-2;V-1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 122
Look at the following exhibit. To interconnect the devices, which types of cables are needed? (Choose three.)

A. rollover cable
B. V.35 cable
C. crossover cable
D. straight-through cable
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 123
Look at the following exhibit. You are a network administrator for certways. You have added Host A to the network. A certain kind of cable should be used between P4S-S2 and host A. Which is it?

A. console cable
B. crossover cable
C. rollover cable
D. straight-through cable
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 124
Look at the following exhibit. To make the following connections ,what types of cables are recommended?

A. A-crossover B-straight-through C-crossover D-straight-through E-crossover
B. A-rollover B-straight-through C-straight-through D-rollover E-crossover
C. A-straight-through B-straight-through C-rollover D-straight-through E-straight-through
D. A-crossover B-straight-through C-rollover D-straight-through E-straight-through
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 125
From which of the following does a small network get its IP network address?
A. Internet Service Provider (ISP)
B. Internet Architecture Board (IAB)
C. Internet Domain Name Registry (IDNR)
D. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 126
You are a network administrator for certways. By using the Ethernet interfaces as shown in the graphic,
you connect PC hosts certwaysA and certwaysB directly. You ping certwaysB from
certwaysA, and fails. You are required to enable the connectivity between the two hosts. What can be
done? (Choose two.)
A. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
B. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.
C. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
D. The hosts must be reconfigured to use private IP addresses for direct connections of this type.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 127
Part of the certways network is shown below:
Please study the exhibit shown above carefully, how many collision domains are shown
A. three
B. two

C. four
D. one
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 128
What is a necessary to allow host A to ping host B according to the exhibit?

A. a straight-through cable connecting the switches
B. a crossover cable connecting the switches
C. a router connected to the switches with straight-through cables
D. a CSU/DSU connected to the switches with straight-through cables
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 129
You work as a network technician for the P4S company. The displayed wire scheme is terminated at each end with an RJ-45 connector. Which type of cables does the wire diagram represent?

A. a rollover cable
B. an Ethernet straight-through cable
C. a serial crossover cable
D. an Ethernet crossover cable
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 130
On the basis of the exhibit below. When packets travel from Sara to Bill, which three devices will determine a forwarding path by using the destination MAC address of the packet? (Choose three.)

A. P4S-S1
B. P4S-S2
C. P4S-R2
D. P4S-S3
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 131
Study the exhibit carefully. P4S-Host A is forwarding a packet to P4S-Host B for the first time. Which destination MAC address will be used by P4S-Host A in the ARP request?

A. 255.255.255.255
B. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
C. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
D. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
Refer to the following exhibit, Host A should communicate with the email server. Which address will be put in the destination address field of the frame when it leaves Host A?

A. the MAC address of Host A
B. the MAC address of P4S-S1
C. the MAC address of E0 of P4S-R
D. the MAC address of E1 of P4S-R
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 133
The following exhibit shows a planned network. Which three descriptions are true about the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)

A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device
C. Network Device B is a hub.
D. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 134
Refer to the graphic. Workstation A in the Sales location is communicating with the server in the Production location. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by workstation A from the server?

A. the MAC address of router interface e0
B. the MAC address of the server network interface
C. the MAC address of host A D. the MAC address of router interface e1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 135
All devices will be connected through Ethernet according to the exhibit from labeled A to E . Which three
device-to-device configurations most likely require the use of a crossover connection?
(Choose three.)
A. exhibit A
B. exhibit B
C. exhibit C
D. exhibit D
E. exhibit E
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 136
Your company has just installed the mail server and P4S-SW2. UDP packets are not permitted outbound on the Fa0/1 router interface due to security reasons. Bob is now examining the new installation at his workstation and can’t establish SMTP communication to the mail server. Which item is the reason for lack of communication between Bob’s workstation and the mail server?

A. The crossover cable should be a straight-through cable.
B. The IP addresses are all on the same network. No router is required.
C. UDP is blocked coming out of the Fa0/1 interface on the router.
D. The server should be directly connected to the router.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 137
Which two statements best describe the interface configuration according to the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. The encapsulation in use on this interface is PPP.
B. This interface is connected to a LAN.
C. The address mask of this interface is 255.255.255.0.
D. The default serial line encapsulation is in use on this interface.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 138
Refer to the exhibit. What could be possible causes for the “Serial0/0 is down” interface status? (Choose two.)

A. A Layer 1 problem exists.
B. A protocol mismatch exists.
C. The bandwidth is set too low.
D. An incorrect cable is being used.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 139
Which two statements best describe ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. They can provide hosts with information about network problems.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 140
The certways network topology exhibit is shown below:
Please study the exhibit carefully. A technician is troubleshooting a host connectivity problem. The host is
unable to ping a server connected to Switch certwaysA. Based on the result of the testing, what could be
the problem?
A. A remote physical layer problem exists.
B. The host NIC is not functioning.
C. TCP/IP has not been correctly installed on the host.
D. A local physical layer problem exists.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 141
Examine the following options carefully, which line from the output of the show ip interface command indicates that there is a Layer 1 problem?
A. Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is up
B. Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down
C. Serial0/1 is down, line protocol is down
D. Serial0/1 is administratively down, line protocol is down
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 142
What does flow control accomplish?
A. to ensure data is retransmitted if an acknowledgment is not received
B. to reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device
C. to provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender
D. to regulate the size of each segment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 143
For the following transport layer protocols, which one is most suitable for the transport of VoIP data?
A. HTTP
B. UDP
C. RIP
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 144
Which three statements correctly describe the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 145
According to the following exhibit. Which two output fields will be helpful when you determine if a broadcast storm has occurred? (Choose two.)

A. collisions
B. no buffer
C. dribble condition
D. ignored
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 146
You are a network technician at P4S, study the exhibit carefully. The ports displayed are the only active ports on the P4S-S. The MAC address table is displayed in its entirety. The Ethernet frame presented reaches the P4S-S. When receiving this frame, which two operations will the P4S-S perform? (Choose two.)

A. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table.
B. The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.
C. The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/3 only.
D. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 147
Which two characteristics belong to Telnet? (Choose two.)
A. It sends data in clear text format.
B. It is no longer supported on Cisco network devices.
C. It is more secure than SSH.
D. It requires that the destination device be configured to support Telnet connections.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 148
Which error condition could be removed at once when troubleshooting a LAN interface operating in full duplex mode?
A. dribble condition
B. giants
C. collisions
D. no buffers
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 149
Refer to the exhibit.
P4S-PCA is sending packets to the FTP server. Consider the packets as they leave P4S-RA interface
Fa0/0 forwards P4S-RB.Drag the correct frame and packet address to their place in the table.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 150
Choose from the following two statements that describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method. (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 151
Topic – Implement a small switched network.
Select the appropriate media, cables, ports, and connectors to connect switches to other network devices and hosts Explain the technology and media access control method for Ethernet technologies Explain network segmentation and basic traffic management concepts Explain the operation of Cisco switches and basic switching concepts Perform, save and verify initial switch configuration tasks including remote access management Verify network status and switch operation using basic utilities (including: ping, traceroute,telnet,SSH,arp, ipconfig), SHOW DEBUG commands Implement and verify basic security for a switch (port security, deactivate ports) Identify, prescribe, and resolve common switched network media issues, configuration issues, autonegotiation, and switch hardware failures
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 152
You are a network administrator for the P4S company, study the exhibit carefully. Your company has just configured a Catalyst 2950 switch for remote management by pasting into the console the configuration commands displayed in the exhibit. However, a Telnet session is not able to be successfully established from a remote host. How to fix this problem?

A. Change the fifth line to ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.17.1.
B. Change the first line to interface fastethernet 0/1.
C. Change the fifth line to ip default-gateway 192.168.17.241.
D. Change the sixth line to line con 0.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 153
You are a network administrator at P4S, study the exhibit below carefully. You substitute the NIC in a desktop PC with a new NIC. The NIC in the PC configuration is set to “100 Mb Half.” Now the PC has intermittent connectivity and loss of communication so you start troubleshooting on the switch. According to the switch output displayed, which is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. Fast Ethernet is incompatible with a megabit NIC.
B. The counters were not cleared after the hardware was replaced.
C. The switch is set to full-duplex.
D. Input flow control is off.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 154
The following graphic displays the topology and switching table. Host P4S-B forwards a frame to Host P4S-C. What would the switch do with the frame?

A. send an ARP request for Host P4S-C
B. send the frame out all ports except port 0/2
C. send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host P4S-B
D. record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host P4S-C
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 155
You work as a network technician for P4S Ltd. Study the exhibit carefully. After the power-on self test
(POST), the system LED of a Cisco 2950 switch becomes amber.
What is the status of the
switch?
A. The switch has experienced an internal problem but data can still be forwarded at a slower rate.
B. The POST was successful.
C. POST failed and there is a problem that prevents the operating system of the switch from being loaded.
D. The switch passed POST, but all the switch ports are busy.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 156
As it is shown in the following exhibit, P4S-SWA receives the frame with the addressing. Based on the command output shown, how will P4S-SWA handle this frame?

A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will flood the frame out all ports.
C. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 157
Which of the following command will set the default gateway to 192.168.12.1 on a Cisco switch?
A. P4S-SW(config)# ip route-default 192.168.12.1
B. P4S-SW(config)# ip route 192.168.12.1 0.0.0.0
C. P4S-SW(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.12.1
D. P4S-SW(config)# ip default-network 192.168.12.1
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 158
Study the exhibit carefully. Two 2950 switches use a straight-through cable to connect through ports fa0/24. What can be concluded about this network according to the output provided in the exhibit and the information that is given?

A. An IP address and default gateway must be configured on each switch.
B. The switches do not share the same VTP domain.
C. Port fa0/24 must be configured as a trunk in order for the switches to share neighbor information.
D. The switches are cabled incorrectly.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 159
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the P4S-S are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected P4S-R and P4S-S ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Reseat all cables.
D. Ensure the P4S-S has power.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 160
What does it indicate when the system LED is amber on a Cisco Catalyst 2950 series switch?
A. The system is not powered up.
B. The system is malfunctioning.
C. The system is forwarding traffic.
D. The system is powered up and operational.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 161
P4S-SWA receives the frame with the addressing displayed in the exhibit. How will P4S-SWA deal with this frame according to the command output shown in the exhibit?

A. It will flood the frame out all ports.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
D. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 162
The following output was displayed on a certways device:
Study the exhibit above. Switch-certways1 needs to send data to host with a MAC address of
00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-certways1 do with this data?
A. certways1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.
B. certways1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.
C. certways1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 163
The following graphic displays the topology and MAC address table. Host P4S-A sends a data frame to host P4S-D. When receiving the frame from host P4S-A, what will the P4S-SWA do?

A. The P4S-SWA will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host P4S-D.
B. The P4S-SWA will flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3.
C. The P4S-SWA will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host P4S-D.
D. The P4S-SWA will discard the frame and send an error message back to host P4S-A.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 164
Examine the following options, which two are effects on network performance of configuring a switch to store an entire frame before forwarding it to the destination? (Choose two.)
A. increase in switch operating speed
B. increased latency
C. filtering of all frame errors
D. filtering of collision fragments only
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 165
The part of certways network is shown below:
According to the diagram, which of the following is true about the internetwork?
A. certways2 is the root bridge.
B. Spanning Tree is not running.
C. No collisions can occur in traffic between certwaysB and certwaysC.
D. certwaysD and certways Server 1 are in the same network.
E. If Fa0/0 is down on certways-R, Pass4usreA cannot access certways Server 1
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 166
Topic- Implement an IP addressing scheme and IP services to meet network requirements for a small branch office.
Describe the need and role of addressing in a network ” Create and apply an addressing scheme to a network Assign and verify valid IP addresses to hosts, servers, and networking devices in a LAN environment Explain the basic uses and operation of NAT in a small network connecting to one ISP Describe and verify DNS operation Describe the operation and benefits of using private and public IP addressing Enable NAT for a small network with a single ISP and connection using SDM and verify operation using CLI and ping Configure, verify and troubleshoot DHCP and DNS operation on a router.(including: CLI/SDM) Implement static and dynamic addressing services for hosts in a LAN environment Identify and correct IP addressing issues
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 167
Match the corresponding command sequence and configure an IP address on a serial interface.(Not all options are used) 1.P4S# interface s0/0 2.P4S(config)# interface s0/0 3.P4S(config-if)# no shutdown 4.P4S(config-if)# enable interface 5.P4S(config)# ip address 172.16.20.21 255.255.255.0 6.P4S(config-if)# ip address 10.8.5.255 255.255.252.0 7.P4S(config-if)# ip address 198.18.2.63 255.255.255.224 8.P4S(config-if)# description T1 to WAN 9.P4S(config)# banner motd! T1 to WAN! 10.P4S# configure terminal
A. enable the interface II.label the interface III.enter global configuration mode IV.enter interface configuration mode
B. configure the interface IP address
C. I-3,II-8,III-10,IV-2,V-6
D. I-3,II-8,III-10,IV-1,V-6
E. I-3,II-9,III-10,IV-2,V-5
F. I-3,II-9,III-10,IV-1,V-5
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 168
Look at the following exhibit. The diagram is provided by the certways network support staff as a recommended configuration for the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project. The entire network expansion will have over 1000 users on 14 network segments. The following IP address space has been allocated for this network:
192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255

192.168.100.1 through 198.168.100.255
There are three problems with this design. What are them? (Choose three.)
A. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.
B. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space.
C. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
D. The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 169
You are a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit above carefully, as the first step in verifying a local host configuration, you perform the ipconfig/all command on a computer. Answer the following questions by using the results of the command. Which destination addresses does not need the use of the default gateway for a packet from this local host?

A. 10.69.2.88
B. 10.4.8.2
C. 10.5.2.27
D. 172.16.236.4
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 170
Refer to the exhibit. Host P4S-A needs to send data to Host P4S-B. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will be used to send the data from Host P4S-A to Host P4S-B?

A. 192.168.24.1 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
B. 192.168.60.5 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
C. 192.168.24.2 and 0007.0e84.acef
D. 192.168.60.5 and 0011.43da.2c98
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 171
You are a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit above carefully, as the first step in verifying a local host configuration, you perform the ipconfig/all command on a computer. Answer the following questions by using the results of the command. Which IP address represents the first server that this computer is trying to contact to resolve an Internet web site URL to an IP address?

A. 10.4.8.1
B. 10.69.2.87
C. 172.16.3.2
D. 172.16.236.1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 172
You are a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit above carefully, as the first step in verifying a local host configuration, you perform the ipconfig/all command on a computer. Answer the following questions by using the results of the command. You can successfully ping to the IP address of the primary DNS server configured on the computer. What can you determine concerning the network?

A. The names of all of the routers in the path can be resolved by the configured DNS servers
B. The DNS server is able to resolve domain names to IP addresses.
C. The router with the address 172.16.3.2 has the correct route to the 10.0.0.0 network
D. The router with the address 172.16.236.1 has a route it can use to reach network of the DNS server
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 173
What can be drawn about traffic on the router interface from the statement “The only UDP port allowed on this router interface is 53.” issued by the network manager?
A. DNS traffic is allowed.
B. Telnet traffic is allowed.
C. RIP traffic is allowed.
D. SMTP traffic is allowed.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 174
Please study the exhibit, and answer the following question. Choose from the following the subnet broadcast address of the LAN connected to P4S-R.
A. 192.168.200.15
B. 192.168.200.31
C. 192.168.200.63
D. 192.168.200.127
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 175
On the LAN to which P4S-R is connected, how many hosts can have IP addresses (Including the address on the P4S-R FastEthernet interface)?
A. 6
B. 14
C. 62
D. 126
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 176
Choose from the following two statements that describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
C. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
D. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 177
According to the following exhibit. A customer is not able to reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the department have no problem. What most likely causes this problem?

A. A DHCP server address is not reachable by the PC.
B. IP routing is not enabled.
C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC.
D. NAT has not been configured on the router that connects to the Internet.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 178
Look at the following exhibit. P4SA should be able to telnet to switch P4S-SW by using router P4S-R for management purposes. To configure this connection successfully, what should be configured?

A. VLAN 1 on P4S-R
B. IP routing on P4S-SW
C. default gateway on P4S-SW
D. cross-over cable connecting P4S-SW and P4S-R
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 179
Look at the following exhibit. The network is designed to provide the most efficient use of IP address space in a network expansion. Each circle defines a network segment and the number of users required on that segment. An IP subnetwork number and default gateway address are displayed for each segment. There are three problems with the network design. What are the problems? (Choose three.)

A. Network 10.1.2.0/25 requires more user address space.
B. Network 10.1.3.128/25 requires more user address space.
C. Interface fa0/3 has an incorrect IP address.
D. Interface fa0/1 has an invalid IP address for the subnet on which it resides.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 180
Two of the following describe private IP addresses. Which are them? (Choose two.)
A. a scheme to conserve public addresses
B. addresses that can be routed through the public Internet
C. addresses that cannot be routed through the public Internet
D. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the Internet
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 181
You are a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit above carefully, as the first step in verifying a local host configuration, you perform the ipconfig/all command on a computer. Answer the following questions by using the results of the command. Which two things can you determine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address 172.16.236.1? (Choose two)

A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly.
B. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer.
C. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured.
D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 182
Which of the following is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?
A. 172.16.0.0
B. 172.16.156.0
C. 172.16.128.0
D. 172.16.159.0
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 183
Tom works as a network technician for the P4S company. He is tasked to design a small network with redundancy according to the exhibit below which presents this design with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions could be drawn from this design?

A. The connection between switches should be a trunk.
B. This design will function as intended.
C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.
D. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 184
The P4S company has required a 300-workstation expansion of its network. These workstations will be
installed in a single broadcast domain. However, each workstation needs to have its own
collision domain. The expansion will be as cost-effective as possible while still satisfying the requirements.
Which three options can correctly fulfill the request? (Choose three).

A. one IP subnet with a mask of 255.255.254.0
B. seven 48-port hubs
C. seven 48-port switches
D. one router interface
Correct Answer: ACD

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QUESTION 159
Which two Cisco router functional planes are protected by Control Plane Policing (CoPP)? (Choose two.)
A. Data plane
B. Control plane
C. Service plane
D. Management plane
E. Hyper plane

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
QoS preclassification is a term used to describe what Cisco IOS feature?
A. AutoQoS
B. Modular QoS Command-Line Interface
C. QoS for VPNs
D. AutoSecure

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 161
Question: 161
What are two steps to define a QoS policy? (Choose two.)

A. Set a minimum bandwidth guarantee.
B. Increase bandwidth.
C. Determine a specific transfer rate.
D. Establish timers.
E. Configure CBWFQ for best-effort traffic.
F. Set a maximum bandwidth limit.

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162

Using the SDM output from the Edit QoS Policy Tab in the Quality of Service Tasks under the Configure
button, answer the following questions:
Case Study# 1 (Questions)

Question:1
Which DSCP value will the Branch router apply to voice traffic destined for the Central from the IP Phone
on the local network?

A. 46 (ef)
B. 48 (vs6)
C. 50
D. 56 (cs7)
E. 70
Answer: A
Question: 2 Which DSCP value will the Branch router apply to voice traffic destined for the IP Phone on the local network from the Central site?
A. 46 (ef)
B. 48 (cs6)
C. 50
D. 56 (cs7)
E. 70 Answer: A
Question: 3 Which QoS model has been implemented on the Branch router by the SDM wizard for the various expected traffic types?

A. Best Effort
B. IntServ
C. DiffServ
D. Priority Queuing
Answer: C
Question: 4 During periods of congestion which queuing method will be applied to outbound traffic on the Serial0/3/0 interface?
A. Low Latency Queuing
B. Class-based Weighted Fair Queuing
C. Weighted Round Robin
D. Round Robin
E. No queuing is applied to outbound traffic on this interface. Answer: A
A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
Scenario:
Law Solutions, Inc. is a large, worldwide law firm. Using the AutoQoS feature of IOS, the company recently
implemented QoS policies at one of their Branch locations. As a recent addition to the network engineering
team, you have been tasked with documenting the active QoS configuration at the branch router.
Additionally, the firm is experiencing poor video quality with newly installed video-conferencing equipment.
The video problems at the branch location seem to occur only during peak hours when some network
congestion is expected.
Output:

Topology

Using the show run output of the branch router, answer the following questions:
Case Study# 2 (Questions)
Question: 1
Which DSCP value will the Branch router apply to video traffic destined for the Central site from the video
equipment on the local network?

A. 8 (cs1)
B. 10 (af11)
C. 18 (af21)
D. 24 (cs3)
E. 46 (ef)
F. no value
Answer: E
Question: 2 Which two statements most accurately identify what has caused the occasional poor video quality experienced by the Law Solutions, Inc.? (Choose two.)
A. Insufficient bandwidth is creating a bottleneck transiting from the FastEthernet0/0 to the Serial0/3/0 interface.
B. Auto-Discovery did not have an opportunity to detect the video traffic.
C. AutoQoS was implemented on the incorrect interface
D. A policy matching DSCP value 46 (ef) was not applied on the outbound interface.
Answer: B, D
Question: 3 Which QoS model has been implemented on the Branch router by Auto QoS for the various expected traffic types?
A. Best Effort
B. IntServ
C. DiffServ
D. Priority Queuing
Answer: C
Question: 4 During periods of congestion, how has AutoQoS configured the router to facilitate outbound video traffic on the Serial0/3/0 interface?
A. Video traffic will be associated with the priority queue by using a DSCP value of 46 (ef).
B. Video traffic will be associated with the AutoQoS-Signaling-Se0/3/0 class and its related policy through use of the H.323 protocol.
C. Video traffic will only be queued on the local FastEthernet0/0 interface using a DSCP value of 46 (ef).
D. Video traffic will be associated with the “class-default” and use WFQ.
Answer: D
Question: 5
Network topology exhibit:
You are a network technician at PassGuide.com, examine the exhibit carefully. You need to finalize the
configuration of router PassGuide-R in this scenario. In particular you should decide which interface types
can be used for connecting router PassGuide-R to the phone and fax respective ely.
(Choose two.)

A. Connect the analog phone to an FXS port.
B. Connect the fax to an FXS port.
C. Connect the fax to an FXO port.
D. Connect the analog phone to an FXO port.
Answer: A, B
Question:164 Scenario: Ferrous Plastics,Inc.is a medium sized company,with two locations connected through a serial WAN link.The WAN routers should be configured to only see NBAR to classify traffic interface Fa0/1 prior to using low latency queuing on the outgoing interface s0/1/0.Recently configuration changes were made to the inter-connecting routers WAN-R1 and WAN-R2.The company is now experiencing QoS related problems which they believe are associated with these changes. Router WAN-R2 is not marking traffic correctly on Fa0/1 based on NBAR classification.Which of the following is correct?
Topology:
Case Study# 3 (Questions)
Questions: 1 Router WAN-R2 is not marking traffic correctly on Fa0/1 based on NBAR classification.Which of the following is correct?
A. Protocol discovery is applied to the incorrect interface.
B. CEF is not configured.
C. The service-policy is applied in the wrong direction.
D. The service-policy configured on interface Fa0/1 should be policy.
Answer: D
Question: 2 The network administrator has asked how FTP traffic is being classified on router WAN R1.Which of the following is correct?
A. FTP traffic is marked correctly,but no other active protocols are marked correctly.
B. FTP traffic is marked correctly based on NBAR classification.
C. FTP traffic is marked correctly,but is not using NBAR for classification.
D. FTP traffic is not marked correctly based on NBAR classification as protocol discovery is applied to the incorrect interface.
Answer: C

Question: 3
On router WAN-R1,which protocol is being marked as af21?

A. CITRIX
B. Exchange
C. FTP D. HTTP
E. SQLNET
Answer: E

Question: 4
On rouoter WAN-R1,which protocol is being classified as mission critical?

A. CITRIX
B. Exchange
C. FTP
D. HTTP
E. SQLNET
Answer: A
A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
Question: 165 Which 802.1x Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) type supports authentication using digital certificates?
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-FAST
C. LEAP
D. WPA

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Which three configuration tasks are required to successfully deploy NBAR to recognize TCP and UDP stateful protocols? (Choose three.)
A. Over leased lines, use the multilink ppp command to reduce latency and jitter, and to create Distributed Link Fragmentation and interleaving.
B. Use the service-policy command to attach a traffic flow to an interface on the router.
C. Use the ip rsvp bandwidth command to set a strict upper limit on the bandwidth NBAR uses, and to guarantee admission of any flows.
D. Use the policy-map command to define one or more QoS policies (such as shaping, policing, and so on) to apply to traffic defined by a class map.
E. Use the random-detect dscp command to modify the default minimum and maximum thresholds for the DSCP value.
F.     Use the class-map command to define one or more traffic classes by specifying the criteria by which traffic is classified.

Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Which two voice-gateway, analog-interface statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A router can use a Foreign Exchange Office (FXO) interface to connect to a PSTN.
B. A router can use a Foreign Exchange Station (FXS) interface to connect to a PBX.
C. An analog tax machine can connect to a Foreign Exchange Office (FXO) interface.
D. An analog telephone can connect to a Foreign Exchange Station (FXS) interface.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
Voice activity detection (VAD) suppresses the transmission of silence patterns. On average, and assuming that a link carries at least 24 calls, what percentage of total bandwidth could VAD save?
A. 5
B. 15
C. 25
D. 35
E. 45
F.     55
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
Which two steps are executed in the deployment of Cisco AutoQos for Eeterprise?(Choose two.)
A. The customer uses SNMP statistics to create the policy.
B. QoS policy templates are generated and installed on the interface.
C. RTP is used to generate the policy.
D. LLQ, cRTP, and LFI are used to automatically discover the policy.
E. The auto-generated policy is manually optimized before implementation.
F. Auto-discovery is used to determine what traffic is on the interface.

Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 169
A GRE tunnel is configured between a local and a remote site. Where should the service policy be applied to classify packets based on the pretunnel header?
A. In global configuration mode, apply the service policy and use the qos pre-classify command.
B. In global configuration mode, apply the service policy but do not use the qos pre- classify command.
C. Apply the service policy on the physical interface but do not use the qos pre-classify command.
D. Apply the service policy on the tunnel interface but do not use the qos pre-classify command.
E. Apply the service policy on the tunnel interface and use the qos pre-classify command.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 170
Which three statements about classification marking of traffic at Layer 2 are true? (Choose three.)
A. A Frame Relay header includes a 1-bit discard eligible (DE) bit to provide the class of service (CoS).
B. An ATM header includes a 1-bit DE field to provide the CoS.
C. An MPLS EXP field is inserted in the Layer 3 IP precedence field to identify the CoS.
D. The CoS field only exists inside Ethernet frames when 802.1Q or Inter-Switch Link (ISL) trunking is used.
E. In the IEEE 802.Ip standard, three bits are used to identify the user priority bits for the CoS.
F. In the IEEE 802.lq standard, six bits are used to identify the user priority bits for the CoS.

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 171
Which functionality in the Cisco IDS software will enable a router to permanently act as a call agent for IP phones?
A. Cisco CallManage
B. Cisco CallManager Express (CME)
C. Cisco CallManager Gateway (CMG)
D. Cisco CallManager Voice Gateway (CMVG)
E. Media Gateway Control Protocol (MGCP)

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 172
What is true about Quality of Service (QoS) for VPNs?
A. QoS preclassification is only supported on generic routing encapsulation (GRE) and IPsec VPNs.
B. QoS preclassification is not required in Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP), Layer 2 Forwarding (L2F), and Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) VPNs.
C. QoS preclassification is supported on IPsec AH VPNs, but not on IPsec ESP VPNs.
D. The QoS-for-VPNs feature (QoS preclassification) is designed for VPN transport interfaces.
E. With IPsec tunnel mode, the type of service (ToS) byte value is copied automatically from the original IP header to the tunnel header.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 173
Which three traffic descriptors are typically used as QoS markings for packets or frames entering the network? (Choose three.)
A. protocol type
B. cos
C. DSCP
D. IP precedence
E. destination address
F. input interface

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 174
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the configuration an example of?
A. enabling modular QoS over Frame Relay
B. enabling Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) header compression
C. enabling distributed compressed Transmission Control Protocol
D. enabling latency and jitter reduction for Transmission Control traffic
E. enabling TCP header compression

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
Which traffic descriptor is used for marking?
A. weighted RED (WRED) orange or green labels
B. modular QoS CU (MQC) application layer tags
C. Deficit Round Robin (DRR) precedence bits
D. header compression tags
E. MPLS experimental bits
F. FIFO Layer 2 descriptor labels (L2DL)

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
Refer to the exhibit.

The auto discovery QoS command was configured on this interface 24 hours prior to the above configuration. Which statement is true about the configuration?
A. An IP address is needed on interface serial 1/2
B. The auto discovery qos command should be configured on the subinterface.
C. A generated AutoQoS policy has been applied to serial 1/2.
D. The collection of data has stopped.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
Refer to the exhibit.

On the basis of the configuration that is provided,which statement is true?
A. The Auto QoS policies will be attached to the interface.
B. Data about the network traffic will be collected via the use of NBAR-based protocol discovery,and the traffic on the network will be analyzed.
C. The class maps and policy maps will be created and installed on the basis of the information that is collected during the autodiscovery phase.
D. Templates will be created that will be used to create policy maps and class maps to configuer the QoS features on the network.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
Cisco provides two enhancements to 802.11 security which protect a WEP key from exploits. Which two technologies provide these security enhancements? (Choose two.)
A. 802.lx
B. Cisco Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (CKIP)
C. Extensible Authentication Protocol-Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling (EAP- FAST)
D. Cisco Message Integrity Check (CMIC)
E. One-Time Passwords (OTP)
F. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 179
What is the maximum number of access points that can be supported from a single Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE) console?
A. 1000
B. 1500
C. 2000
D. 2500
E. 3000
F. 3500
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 180

1) Which DSCP value will the Branch router apply to voice traffic destined for the Central from the IP Phone on the local network?
A. 46 (ef)
B. 4B(vs6)
C. 50
D. 56(cs7)
E. 70
Answer: A
2) Which DSCP value will the Branch router apply to voice traffic destined for the IP Phone on the local network from the Central site?
A. 46 (ef]
B. 48(cs6)
C. 5
D. 56(cs7)
E. 70
Answer: B
3) Which QoS model has been implemented on the Branch router by the SDM wizard for the various expected traffic types?
A. Best Effort
B. IntServ
C. DiffServ
D. Priority Queuing
Answer: C
4) During periods of congestion which queuing method will be applied to outbound traffic on the Serial O/3/0 interface?
A. Low Latency Queuing
B. Class-based Weighted Fair Queuing
C. Weighted Round Robin
D. Round Robin
E. No queuing is applied to outbound traffic on this interface.
Answer: A
A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181

1)

2) Which two statements most accurately identify what has caused the occasional poor video quality experienced by the Law Solutions, Inc.? (Choose two.)
A. Insufficient bandwidth is creating a bottleneck transiting from the FastEthernetG/O to the Serial O/3/0 interface.
B. Auto-Discovery did not have an opportunity to detect the video traffic.
C. AutoQoS was implemented an the incorrect interface
D. A policy matching DSCP value 46 (ef) was not applied on the outbound interface.
Answer: BD
3) Which QoS model has been implimented on the Branch router by Auto QoS for the various expected traffic types?
A. Best Effort
B. IntServ
C. DiffServ
D. Priority Queuing
Answer: C
4) During periods of congestion, haw has AutoQoS configured the router to facilitate outbound video traffic on the SerialO/3/0 interface?
A. Video traffic will be associated with the priority queue by using a DSCP value of 46 (ef}.
B. Video traffic will be associated with the AutoQaS-Signaling-SeO/3/0 class and its related policy through use of the H.323 protocol.
C. Video traffic will only be queued on the local FastEthernetO/0 interface using a DSCP value of 46 (ef).
D. Video traffic will be associated with the “class-default” and use WFQ.
Answer: D
A.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 176
Which policy map configuration command can be used to mitigate the problem of TCP global synchronization?
A. random-detect
B. queue-limit 10
C. compression header ip tcp
D. priority 24

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
Given the above output, what is the current CIR for this VC?
A. 1000
B. 2000
C. 8000
D. 100000

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
Which command associates a map class with an interface or subinterface when configuring Frame Relay traffic shaping?
A. frame-relay map
B. frame-relay class
C. map-class frame-relay
D. frame-relay map-class
E. map frame-relay class

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 179
Given the partial configuration, what function does the command dialer watch-group 8 have?
A. Any IP traffic, except OSPF traffic, will cause interface BRI0 to dial RouterB
B. When the watched route, 172.22.53.0/24, is removed from the routing table and there is no other valid route, dialer watch then initiates a call to RouterB.
C. When the watched route, 172.22.53.0/24, is removed from the routing table, regardless of whether there is another valid route pointing to an interface other than interface BRI0, dialer watch initiates the call to RouterB
D. When the load threshold is met and any IP traffic, except OSPF traffic, is destined for 172.22.53.0/24 network, the dialer watch will initiate the call to RouterB.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 180
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the partial configuration shown, how is this router configured?
A. as a PPPoA client
B. as a PPPoE client
C. as an ISDN PRI group interface
D. as an ISDN BRI group interface

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181
A network administrator needs to provide telecommuters with access to corporate network services. For security reasons, the asynchronous interface should be configured to provide an in-band PPP connection only and not allow an EXEC connection. What must the administrator configure to accomplish this?
A. Router(config-if)# async mode dedicated
B. Router(config-if)# async mode interactive
C. Router(config-if)# async dynamic address
D. Router(config-line)# autoselect ppp during-login

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
Examine the configuration.
When using CBWFQ, what will happen to UDP packets if their destination queue is full?
A. The router will send a BECN message to the host.
B. The packet will be sent to the class-default queue.
C. The host will resend the packet if it does not receive an ACK message
D. Tail dropping will occur.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 183
Which three conditions would suggest using weighted random early detection as an alternative to tail drops when configuring class-based weighted fair queuing? (Choose three.)
A. Your network is designed for a more passive rather than active strategy in discarding packets.
B. You want to enable TCP global synchronization to avoid congestion.
C. You would like to use IP Precedence or DSCP values to make early dropping decisions.
D. The bulk of your traffic is TCP traffic.
E. You would like a chance to decide which packets will be dropped when it becomes necessary.

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
Refer to the show ip route output of the exhibit. RIP is configured on R1, R2, and R3. All three routers are able to ping each other. However, R2 is not receiving the routes advertised by R3. What can be done to resolve this problem?
A. Configure frame-relay inverse-arp on the R1 serial0.1 subinterface.
B. Configure no frame-relay inverse-arp on the R1 serial0.1 subinterface.
C. Configure ip slit-horizon on the R1 serial0.1 subinterface.
D. Configure no ip slit-horizon on the R1 serial0.1 subinterface.
E. Configure ip slit-horizon on R2 and the R3 serial0 interfaces.
F. Configure no ip slit-horizon on R2 and the R3 serial0 interfaces.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 185
When a PPP connection is being established, which three configuration features are negotiated through the LCP? (Choose three.)
A. callback
B. multilink
C. encryption
D. compression
E. protocol multiplexing

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 186
Identify two characteristics of the RADIUS protocol when associated with AAA? (Choose two.)
A. uses TCP
B. fully encrypts the body of the packet
C. based upon open standards
D. allows router commands to be grouped on a per-user or per-group basis
E. combines the functions of authorization and authentication

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 187
Which statement best describes the following configuration ?
policy-map-Policy1 class Class1 priority 10 class Class2 bandwidth 20 queue-limit 45 class Class3 bandwidth 30 random-detect A. WRED is used in Class1 and Class3. Traffic not matching any classes will be dropped.
B. WRED is used in Class1 and Class3. Traffic not matching any classes will be best effort by a default class
C. WRED is used in Class3. Traffic not matching any classes will be dropped
D. WRED is used in Class3. Traffic not matching any classes will be handled by the class-default class

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 188
Given the above configuration commands, when will additional B channels be added to the multilink PPP bundle?
A. when the total load of outbound traffic reaches 128 k
B. when the total load of inbound traffic reaches 128 k
C. when the maximum calculated load as the larger of the outbound and inbound loads reaches 128 k
D. when the total load of inbound traffic reaches 50 percent of bandwidth utilization
E. when the total load of outbound traffic reaches 50 percent of bandwidth utilization
F. when the load of the inbound or outbound traffic reaches 50% utilization

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 189
Which two encapsulation methods require that an 827 ADSL router be configured with a PPP username and CHAP password? (Choose two.)
A. PPPoE with the 827 configured as a bridge
B. PPPoE with the 827 configured as the PPPoE client
C. PPPoA
D. RFC 1483 Bridged with the 827 configured as the PPPoE client
E. RFC 1483 Bridged with the 827 configured as a bridge

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 190
Which command will allow RTA to test its legacy DDR configuration without having any dialer map statements configured?
A. isdn test call interface bri 0 5551234 speed 56
B. ping 10.10.10.2
C. debug isdn q931
D. debug isdn q921
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 191
In Frame Relay traffic shaping, what does the term committed burst (Bc) refer to?
A. the rate, in bits per second, at which the Frame Relay switch agrees to transfer data
B. the maximum number of bits that the switch agrees to transfer during any Tc
C. the maximum number of uncommitted bits that the Frame Relay switch attempts to transfer beyond the CIR for the first time interval only
D. the number of bits, during any Tc, over the CIR that can be transmitted but will be marked DE

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 192
Given the partial configuration, what function does the command dialer watch-group 8 have?
A. Any IP traffic, except OSPF traffic, will cause interface BRI0 to dial RouterB
B. When the watched route, 172.22.53.0/24, is removed from the routing table and there is no other valid route, dialer watch then initiates a call to RouterB.
C. When the watched route, 172.22.53.0/24, is removed from the routing table, regardless of whether there is another valid route pointing to an interface other than interface BRI0, dialer watch initiates the call to RouterB.
D. When the load threshold is met and any IP traffic, except OSPF traffic, is destined for 172.22.53.0/24 network, the dialer watch will initiate the call to RouterB.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 193
How can an ISDN interface be used as a backup link for a primary interface and still use DDR to communicate with other sites?
A. By using dialer profiles.
B. An ISDN interface cannot be both.
C. With the command backup interface serial 0/0 on the bri0/0 interface along with normal DDR commands.
D. With the command backup interface bri 0/0 on the physical interface and normal DDR commands on the bri0/0 interface

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 194
How is cable broadband technology able to transmit downstream and upstream data while at the same time delivering television content?
A. The cable operator uses the VHF hyperband to transmit and receive data signals.
B. The cable operator assigns any available spectrum to data, depending on how its own television spectrum is being used.
C. The cable operator uses specific bandwidths for data signals specified by DOCSIS.
D. The cable operator places its data signals into clean areas where there is no interference from noise or other signals.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 195
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output generated by the debug dialer command, what solution can be configured on R1 to correct the problem?
A. Configure a dialer-list in global configuration mode.
B. Configure the dialer-group command on the dialer interface.
C. Configure the dialer-group command on the BRI0 physical interface.
D. Configure the dialer pool command on the dialer interface.
E. Configure the dialer pool-member command on the dialer interface.
F. Configure a local username entry for R2.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 196
In the exhibit, R1 is connected over a Frame Relay cloud to R2 and a non-Cisco device, R3. What must be configured on the R1 S0 interface to achieve full connectivity with the spoke routers?
A. encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast
B. encapsulation frame-relay ietf frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast
C. encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast ietf frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast
D. encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast ietf
E. encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.2 102 broadcast cisco frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 103 broadcast

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 197
Given the output shown in the exhibit, which three statements are true about PPP compression? (Choose three.)
A. The interface is configured with TCP header compression.
B. The interface is configured with STAC compression.
C. The interface is configured with Predictor compression.
D. The actual data throughput of the router is less than what it would be if compression were not being applied.
E. The total amount of data to be transmitted before applying compression is 160,000.
F. The total amount of data to be transmitted after applying compression is 40,000.

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 198
Refer to the exhibit. Which policy-map configuration will best ensure that packets classified as voice are not dropped in favor of other network traffic?
A. POLICY-1
B. POLICY-2
C. POLICY-3
D. POLICY-4

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 199
Which type of remote-user VPN has users dial in to an Internet service provider (ISP) where an ISP-owned device establishes a secure tunnel to the users’ enterprise network?
A. client initiated VPN
B. network access server (NAS) initiated VPN
C. intranet VPN
D. extranet VPN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 200
Which set of commands will accomplish the tasks below?
-Make bri0/0 a backup interface to serial0/0.

Activate the backup interface 5 seconds after the primary link fails and deactivate the backup interface 10 seconds after the primary link is re-established.

A.
Router(config)#interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 5 10

B.
Router(config)#interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 5 10

C.
Router(config)#interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 10 5

D.
Router(config)#interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 10 5

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 201
When a cable modem is being provisioned to operate with a host system for Internet services, which two options must occur before Layer 1 and 2 connectivity can occur? (Choose two.)
A. The cable modem must request an IP address and core configuration information from a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server
B. The cable modem powering up must scan and lock on the RF data channel in the downstream path.
C. The modem must request a DOCSIS configuration file from a TFTP server.
D. The cable modem must register with the CMTS.
E. The modem must read specific maintenance messages in the downstream path.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 202
From the CBWFQ configuration referenced in the display, what is the queue-limit for class2?
A. no limit
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
E. 128

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 131
When QoS levels in the Cisco Wireless Control System (WCS) are entered, which profile names are used to identify the access categories?
A. platinum, gold, silver, and bronze
B. voice, gold, silver, and bronze
C. low delay, network critical, business, best effort
D. voice, video, background gold, background silver, and best effort
E. voice, video, best effort, and background F. voice, video, best effort, background, and scavenger

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct about the implementation of QoS across the WANs that are shown? (Choose two.)

A. QoS cannot be maintained across WAN A.
B. The service provider is not involved in providing QoS services in WAN A.
C. The service provider can provide QoS services through the cloud in WAN A.
D. QoS cannot be maintained across WAN B
E. The service provider is not involved in providing QoS services in WAN B.
F. The service provider can provide QoS services through the cloud in WAN B.

Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
Refer to the exhibit. The network in the diagram has contracted with a service provider for the QoS levels that are shown. Which statement is correct about the QoS requirements for the campus and remote branch?

A. Because adequate levels of service are provided across the WAN, campus and remote branch QoS will not be required.
B. The enterprise campus can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.
C. The enterprise remote branch can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.
D. The enterprise campus plus the remote branch can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
Which of the items stated is typically the most expensive method of improving QoS across WAN links?
A. advanced queuing
B. data compression
C. header compression
D. increasing link capacity

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
Which three functions can an Integrated Services Router perform in a VoIP network? (Choose three.)
A. voice stream mixing for conference calling
B. voice gateway
C. call admission control
D. analog or digital phone interfaces
E. XML application services
F. large scale dial plan application

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Using the fewest commands possible, drag the commands on the left to the blanks on the right to configure and apply a QoS policy that guarantees that voice packets receive 20 percent of the bandwidth on the S0/1/0 interface.

Answer

A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
To configure Control Plan Policing(CoPP) to deny Telnet access only from 10.1.1.1, drag the commands on the left to the boxes on the right and place the commands in the proper order.

Answer

A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
Drag each descriptor on the left to the QoS model on the right to which the descriptor applies. Not all descriptors apply.

Answer

A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
Drag the wireless 802.1e priority level groupings on the left to the appropriate Wi-Fi Multimedia(WMM) access categories on the right.(Not all groupings will be used) Answer
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 140
Drag each term on the left to its time definition on the right. There will be one term unused.
A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
Add a new wireless LAN controller (WLC) to the WCS wireless management server. From the left, drag each procedure to its step sequence on the right.

Answer A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
Drag each wireless EAP authentication protocol above to its definition below.

Answer A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
Drag each WLSE feature above to its benefit below.

Answer: A.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Drag Drop Drag the steps required to convert compressed digital signals to analog signals to their correct order on the right.

Answer

A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 145
Exhibit:

Answer:

A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Hotspot Answer:

A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Questions:162 Topology
QUESTION 147
Which three characteristics of the traffic flow are taken into consideration when the QoS-for-VPNs feature (QoS pre-classify) provides packet classification and applies appropriate QoS service on tunnel interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. IP precedence bits
B. DSCP bits
C. Original port numbers
D. DE bits
E. Source IP address
F. Destination IP address

Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Which two statements about Cisco AutoQoS are true? (Choose two.)
A. A QoS service policy must already be enabled on the interface before Cisco AutoQoS can be enabled.
B. Any interface at or below 1.54 Mbps is classified as a low-speed interface.
C. AutoQoS uses Cisco network-based application recognition (NBAR) to identify various applications and traffic types
D. Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) must be enabled at the interface or ATM PVC.
E. Cisco NBAR is a prerequisite for CEF.
F. On a serial interface, before AutoQoS is enabled, the clock rate command must be used to specify a bandwidth other than the default 1.54Mbps.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 149
When a router converts analog signals to digital signals as part of the VoIP process, it performs
four steps.
Which set of steps contains the steps in their correct sequence?

A. encoding optional compression quantization sampling
B. encoding quantization optional compression sampling
C. optional compression encoding sampling quantization
D. optional compression sampling encoding quantization
E. sampling quantization encoding optional compression
F. sampling quantization optional compression encoding

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
Question: 150
What are three staid Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) types? (Choose three.)

A. LEAP
B. EAP-FAST
C. EAP-TLS
D. EAP-AES
E. WEAP
F. WEP

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
What are three benefits of the Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE)? (Choose three.)
A. The decentralized nature of WLSE helps reduce the time and resources that are required to manage a large number of WLAN devices.
B. WLSE helps simplify large-scale deployments by providing automatic configuration of new APs.
C. WLSE minimizes security vulnerabilities by providing security policy misconfiguration alerts and rogue AP detection.
D. WLSE provides AP utilization and client association reports, features which help with capacity planning.
E. WLSE can respond to required changes that are requested by APs.
F. WLSE increases productivity through customization with three possible levels of managemen lightweight, extended, and advanced.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
What is link fragmentation and interleaving (LFI)?
A. LFI is a QoS mechanism that allots bandwidth and enables the differentiation of traffic according to a policy.
B. LFI is a Layer 2 technique in which header information is sent only at the beginning of the session, stored in a dictionary, and then referenced in later packets by a short dictionary index.
C. LFI is a Layer 3 technique in which header information is sent only at the beginning of the session, stored in a dictionary, and then referenced in later packets by a short dictionary index.
D. LFI is a Layer 2 technique in which large frames are broken into small, equal-sized fragments and transmitted over the link in an interleaved fashion.
E. LEI is a Layer 2 technique in which smaller fragments are combined into large, equal-sized frames, and transmitted over the link in an interleaved fashion.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
Which two statements about packet marking at the data link layer are true? (Choose two.)
A. Through the use of DE markings, Frame Relay QoS supports up to 10 classes of service.
B. Frames maintain their class of service (CoS) markings when transiting a non-802.1p link.
C. IEEE 802.1p supports up to 10 class of service (CoS) markings.
D. In an 802.1q frame, the 3-bit 802.1p priority field is used to identify the class of service (CoS) priority.
E. The 802.1p CoS markings are preserved through the LAN, but are not maintained end to end.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
Which two wireless security statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A TACACS+ server is required to implement 802.1x.
B. MIC protects against man-in-the-middle and replay attacks.
C. The 802.1x standard provides encryption services for wireless clients.
D. The AES (symmetric block cipher) is specified in the IEEE 802.11i specification.
E. The IEEE 802.11i specification uses RC4 as its encryption mechanism.
F. WPA requires TKIP and AES as encryption methods.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Which two statements are true about traffic shaping and traffic policing? (Choose two.)
A. Both traffic shaping and traffic policing cause retransmissions of connection-oriented protocols such as TCP.
B. Both traffic shaping and traffic policing support the marking and re-marking of traffic.
C. The effects of traffic shaping and traffic policing when configured on a router are applied to outgoing traffic.
D. Traffic shaping queues excess traffic whereas traffic policing discards excess traffic.
E. Traffic shaping allows the traffic to exceed the bit rate whereas traffic policing prevents the traffic from exceeding the bit rate.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
Which two queuing methods will allow a percentage of the available bandwidth to be allocated to each queue? (Choose two.)
A. First-in, first-out queuing (FIFO)
B. Priority queuing (PQ)
C. Custom queuing (CQ)
D. Weighted fair queuing (WFQ)
E. Class-based WFQ (CBWFQ)
F. Low latency queuing (LLQ)

Correct Answer: EF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
Which classification tool can be used to classify traffic based on the HTTP URL?
A. Class-based policing
B. Policy-based routing (PBR)
C. Committed access rate (CAR)
D. Network-based application recognition (NBAR)
E. Dial peers

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
What three types of interfaces do voice gateways use to connect to analog interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. E and M
B. E1 CCS
C. FXS
D. FXO
E. serial
F. T1 CAS

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 141
When a PPP connection is being established, which three configuration features are negotiated through the LCP? (Choose three.)
A. callback
B. multilink
C. encryption
D. compression
E. protocol multiplexing

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
A corporation is currently running a Frame Relay network in a hub and spoke topology. To ease the WAN bandwidth bottleneck, the company would like to configure compression in an effort to optimize WAN links. The corporation does use multiple protocols and other applications that require that the IP header remains intact. Which type of compression should this corporation use?
A. link compression
B. payload compression
C. TCP/IP header compression
D. MPPC

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
Instead of purchasing dedicated router ports, a company wants to reduce costs by allowing any one of the available physical BRI interfaces on a central site router to dial out to remote branch offices.
Which two commands provide this capability? (Choose two.)
A. dialer-group
B. multilink ppp
C. interface dialer
D. dialer hunt-group
E. dialer rotary-group

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Which command displays the remote network addresses associated with each PVC?
A. show ip route
B. show frame-relay lmi
C. show frame-relay map
D. show frame-relay pvc
E. show frame-relay status

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
Refer to exhibit. Notice the partial show running-config output on R1. R1 is connected with a multipoint subinterface over the Frame Relay to the spoke routers R2 and R3. The ISDN interface is configured to provide a back-up link should the primary connection to R2 fail.
However, when the PVC to R2 drops, the BRI interface remains in “standby” mode and does not bring up the back-up link. What could the problem be?

A. The EIGRP updates are configured as noninteresting traffic
B. The backup command is configured under the S0.1 multipoint interface of R1
C. The R1 S0 interface remains up because of the active PVC between R1 and R3.
D. The R1 S0.1 interface remains up because of the active PVC between R1 and R3.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Which set of commands will accomplish the tasks below?
-Make bri0/0 a backup interface to serial0/0.

Activate the backup interface 5 seconds after the primary link fails and deactivate the backup interface 10 seconds after the primary link is re-established.

A.
Router(config)#interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 5 10

B.
Router(config)#interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 5 10

C.
Router(config)#interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 10 5

D.
Router(config)#interface serial 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup interface bri 0/0 Router(config-if)#backup delay 10 5

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
Which field is defined in the PPP format that allows PPP to dynamically negotiate link options?
A. address
B. control
C. protocol
D. flag

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
An administrator is attempting to configure TACACS+ AAA authentication for privileged EXEC mode access. The current configuration is as follows:
RTB(config)# tacacs-server host 192.168.1.23 RTB(config)# tacacs-server key CISCO RTB(config)# aaa new-model RTB(config)# aaa authentication enable AAA group tacacs+ enable none
With the above configuration, what will be the result?
A. Authentication will be successful from the TACACS+ server.
B. Authentication will be successful from the local enable password.
C. Because the authentication list is not applied to any lines, authentication will not be successful.
D. Because the authentication enable command cannot used with a named list, authentication will not be successful

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Drag Drop question
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 150
Drag Drop question
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
lab question Please refer to Question 45, but take notice you wil use the same command in this questions, but some paramters like IP address will be different.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Which two debugs should you use to find the cause of an unsuccessful PAP negotiation? (Choose two.)
A. debug ppp pap
B. debug ppp negotiation
C. debug authentication pap
D. debug ppp authentication

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
When the ISAKMP negotiation begins in IKE Phase 1 main mode, ISAKMP looks for an ISAKMP policy that is the same on both peers. Which peer is responsible for matching policies?
A. The peer that initiates the negotiation sends all its policies to the remote peer, and the remote peer tries to find a match with its policies.
B. The remote peer sends all its policies to the initiating peer, and the initiating peer tries to find a match with its policies.
C. Both peers send all their policies to the other peer, and each peer tries to find a match with its policies.
D. Both peers send all their policies to the other peer, but just the initiating peer tries to find a match with its policies.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
Which statement is true about payload compression?
A. Payload compression can be used in conjunction with link compression.
B. The payload compression algorithm uses Predictor or STAC to compress traffic into another data link layer such as PPP.
C. Payload compression is appropriate for virtual network services such as Frame Relay and ATM.
D. With payload compression the complete packet is compressed and the switching information in the header is not available.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Drag Drop question
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
Given the above output, which statement is true?
A. An LMI is not being received from the Frame Relay switch.
B. The DLCI has been removed from the Frame Relay switch.
C. The remote router connection to the Frame Relay switch is not functioning
D. The router is configured to be a Frame Relay switch.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
What are three drawbacks to using RFC 1483/2684 bridging with ADSL? (Choose three.)
A. Bridging is inherently insecure and requires a trusted environment.
B. Bridging depends heavily on broadcasts in order to establish connectivity
C. Bridging requires expensive routing equipment because of the extensive Layer 3 overhead.
D. Bridging architecture may allow IP address hijacking.
E. Bridging, because of its ATM WAN configuration, can require considerable effort during initial troubleshooting.
F. Bridging architecture can be complex to install and maintain.

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
Based on the above output, how many IKE policies were administratively defined?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
What two things will occur when r1 initiates a call to r2 and attempts to make a connection? (Choose two.)
A. Both routers will send a challenge.
B. Only r2 will send a challenge.
C. The r2 router will generate a hash value and send it to r1.
D. The PPP connection establishment will succeed.
E. The PPP connection establishment will fail.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
How can an ISDN interface be used as a backup link for a primary interface and still use DDR to communicate with other sites?
A. By using dialer profiles
B. An ISDN interface cannot be both.
C. With the command backup interface serial 0/0 on the bri0/0 interface along with normal DDR commands.
D. With the command backup interface bri 0/0 on the physical interface and normal DDR commands on the bri0/0 interface.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
Observe the exhibited output from a show isdn status command. Which statement is true?
A. There were five attempts to make calls.
B. Layer 1 is not operational
C. Layer 2 is operational.
D. The router is not exchanging frames with the ISDN switch.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which two of the following events will occur when the router command backup load 60 5 is used? (Choose two.)
A. The backup link activates when the primary link exceeds 60 percent of bandwidth
B. The backup link activates when the primary link exceeds 60 kbps.
C. The backup link deactivates when the primary link falls to 5 percent bandwidth.
D. The backup link deactivates when the combined load falls to 5 percent bandwidth.
E. The backup link deactivates when the combined load falls to 5 kbps.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
How is cable broadband technology able to transmit downstream and upstream data while at the same time delivering television content?
A. The cable operator uses the VHF hyperband to transmit and receive data signals.
B. The cable operator assigns any available spectrum to data, depending on how its own television spectrum is being used.
C. The cable operator uses specific bandwidths for data signals specified by DOCSIS.
D. The cable operator places its data signals into clean areas where there is no interference from noise or other signals.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
Which two commands are used to verify and troubleshoot a PPP session? (Choose two.)
A. show interfaces
B. show PPP
C. debug PPP negotiation
D. debug PPP session
E. debug ppp dialer

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Which type of remote-user VPN has users dial in to an Internet service provider (ISP) where an ISP-owned device establishes a secure tunnel to the users’ enterprise network?
A. client initiated VPN
B. network access server (NAS) initiated VPN
C. intranet VPN
D. extranet VPN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Which of the following statements is correct based on the Cisco router output of the show isdn status command?
Router#show isdn status Global ISDN Switchtype=basic-ni ISDN BRI0 interface dsl 0, interface ISDN Switchtype=basic-ni Layer 1 Status: ACTIVE Layer 2 Status: TEI=73, Ces=2, SAPI=0, State=TEI_ASSIGNED TEI=74, Ces=1, SAPI=0, State=TEI_ASSIGNED Layer 3 Status : 0 Active Layer 3 Call(s)
A. Layer 1, 2, and 3 status is active.
B. TEI values assigned are not a valid numbers.
C. Layers 1 and 2 status is active but Layer 3 status indicates lost connectivity.
D. Layer 1 status is active but Layer 2 status indicates lost connectivity.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
Based on the above configuration, which statement is true?
A. The backup interface will be used when traffic reaches 80 kbps on the primary interface
B. The backup interface will be disabled when the combined load on the primary and backup interfaces is less than 10%.
C. The backup interface will be disabled when the combined load on the primary and backup interfaces is less than 80 kbps.
D. The backup interface will be disabled when the load on the primary interface is less than 10%.
E. The backup interface will be disabled when the load on the primary interface is less than 80 kbps.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
When radius authentication is being configured on a router, which commands will allow a user to telnet successfully into the router?
Router(config)# radius-server host 192.168.1.23 Router(config)# radius-server key CISCO Router(config)# aaa new-model
A. Router(config)# aaa authentication login AAA group radius local none Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login authentication AAA
B. Router(config)# aaa authentication login AAA group radius local none Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login authentication CISCO
C. Router(config)# aaa authentication login default group radius local none Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login authentication AAA
D. Router(config)# aaa authentication login AAA group radius local none Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login authentication default

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 169
Which two statements are true about the use of the backup load 65 10 command on a router? (Choose two.)
A. The secondary line will terminate when the load of the primary line drops to 10% of the bandwidth of the primary line.
B. The secondary line will terminate when the aggregate load of the primary and backup lines drops to 10% of the primary line bandwidth.
C. The secondary line will come up 10 seconds after traffic on the primary line reaches 65% of the bandwidth of the primary line
D. The secondary line will come up when the traffic on the primary line reaches 65% of the bandwidth of the primary line.
E. The backup interface will come up 65 seconds after the primary link goes down.
F. The secondary interface will terminate the connection 10 seconds after the primary link comes up.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the show frame-relay pvc output?
A. Traffic shaping is enabled.
B. The remote connection is not working correctly.
C. The local connection is not working correctly
D. LMIs are not being received

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
Which timer is reset to the maximum configured value every time an interesting packet is forwarded across the link?
A. wait for carrier timer
B. dialer idle timer
C. dialer enable timer
D. busy timer

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 172
lab question Please refer to Question 22, but take notice you wil use the same command in this questions, but some paramters like IP address will be different.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 173
Given the partial IPSEC datagram, which provides both authentication and confidentiality, identify the header marked as 2.
A. AH header
B. ESP header
C. MPLS VPN header
D. SA header

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
Which traffic queuing method gives a low-volume traffic stream preferential service?
A. FIFO
B. Priority
C. Custom
D. Weighted Fair
E. Low Latency

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
What are two advantages to the use of RFC 1483 to encapsulate IP data over ATM? (Choose two.)
A. multiprotocol support
B. inherently more secure because of the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
C. the CPE in bridge mode performs routing functions
D. ideal for single-user Internet access

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 181
Which differences are those between IGMP Snooping and CGMP? (Choose two)
A. IGMP snooping is Cisco proprietary
B. CGMP learns subscribing MAC addresses from the router
C. CGMP learns subscribing MAC addresses by passive listening
D. IGMP snooping requires layer 3 processing

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 182
Based on the partial configuration provided in the exhibit, what additional configuration is required to allow the router to properly participate in a PIM sparse-dense mode scenario?

A. IGMP needs to be enabled on the router.
B. The RP configuration needs to be added for the router to participate in sparse mode network areas.
C. The RP configuration needs to be added for the router to participate in dense mode network areas.
D. The PIM dense-mode state, refresh interval needs to be configured.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 183
Which command sequence is a requirement for configuring the IP address of the rendezvous point (RP) located at IP address 10.10.10.1?
A. Switch(config)# ip pim rp-address 10.10.10.1
B. Switch(config)# ip igmp join-group 10.10.10.1
C. Switch(config)# ip pim accept-rp 10.10.10.1 1
D. Switch(config)# ip pim rp-candidate gigabitethernet0/2

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 184
Examine the exhibit carefully. All multilayer switches are running PIM dense mode. Recipient A and Recipient B are forwarding IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which option is correct?
A. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 4 and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
B. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
C. Switch 1 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switch 3 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 185
Study the exhibit below. IP multicast for group address 224.1.1.1 has been enabled on all routers in the network. Hosts on Network A receive the multicast traffic. However, hosts on Network B do not. Refer to outputs presented, what will cause this problem?

A. The multicast packets are sourced from a server with an unspecified IP address.
B. Router P4S2 does not have an RP configured on the multicast network.
C. Because of RPF failure, Router P4S2 does not forward multicast packets to Network B.
D. Router P4S2 does not regard the upstream router P4S1 as a PIM neighbor.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 186
According to the network of Layer 3 switches in the exhibit, the RPI Multicast Server only multicasts to hosts connected to multilayer switches 5 and 6. The CMU Multicast Server multicasts to hosts on multi-layer switches 1-6. Refer to the number of configuration steps involved, which way most efficiently configures the network when meeting the requirements for multicast data flow?

A. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode.
B. Configure each switch with PIM dense mode.
C. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode and a separate instance of PIM dense mode. Leave each multicast server as the root of its own multicast tree.
D. Configure each switch with PIM sparse-dense mode. Configure switch 3 as a rendezvous point for the RPI multicast stream.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 187
You are a network technician at P4S .Study the exhibit carefully. All multilayer switches are running PIM sparse mode. Host P4SB and Host P4SF are sending IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which description is correct?

A. Switches 2 and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
B. The multicast server is the rendezvous point of the multicast tree.
C. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 188
You work as a network engineer at P4S, and you are tasked to configure a large Frame Relay network. The desired topology is full mesh. Assume that n represents the
number of router
endpoints in the topology. What formula should be used to determine how many PVCs to configure?

A. n*n
B. 2*n
C. 3*n
D. n*(n-1)/2

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 189
Study the exhibit carefully. Which two conclusions can be derived from the debug ip igmp output? (Choose two.)

A. The IP multicast groups are 224.0.0.1, 224.0.1.40, and 239.255.0.1.
B. IP PIM RP mapping is static.
C. Router P4S-RA received an IGMP report version 1 from host 192.168.9.1.
D. The router sent an IGMP version 2 query out interface Ethernet1 at multicast address 224.0.0.1.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 190
From the show ip eigrp topology command output, which code is the indication of a convergence problem for the associated network?
A. Active
B. Update
C. Query
D. SIA

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 191
Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) has two modes: Sparse Mode and Dense Mode. Here, we focus on the Dense Mode. Which statement correctly describes Protocol Independent Multicast Dense Mode (PIM DM) multicast routing?
A. If a port is pruned, the administrator must re-enable the port to support multicast traffic.
B. PIM DM supports shared distribution trees.
C. The (S,G) state exists in every router, regardless of the presence of an RPF interface.
D. Flooding of traffic only occurs in the beginning stages of routing. Afterwards, all necessary ports are pruned and multicast traffic is not sent across those interfaces.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 192
Which three descriptions are correct regarding the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)? (Choose three.)
A. IGMP is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of other routing protocols such as EIGRP.
B. IGMP is used to register individual hosts with a multicast group.
C. IGMP version 3 enables a multicast receiving host to specify to the router which sources it should forward traffic from.
D. IGMP messages are IP datagrams with a protocol value of 2, destination address of 224.0.0.2, and a TTL value of 1.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 193
Which two multicast IP addresses can be represented by the multicast MAC address 0100.5e0A.0A07? (Choose two.)
A. 229.138.10.7
B. 228.10.138.7
C. 228.10.10.8
D. 228.10.10.7

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 194
A P4S network administrator assigns a multicast address of 239.255.8.5 to an application running on a
device with an Ethernet MAC address of 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80.
Which Layer 2 multicast
address will be used by this device?

A. 01.00.5e.7F.08.05
B. 01.00.5e.05.f1.80
C. 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80
D. 01.b2.7d.0a.08.05

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 195
The IP multicast global configuration command ip pim send-rp-announce loopback0 scope 31 group-list 5 issued on multicast router RTA. What are the two results? (Choose two)
A. RTA will originate RP announcements with TTL set to 31.
B. RTA will drop all RP announcements it receives if the TTL field is greater than 31.
C. RTA will forward RP announcements provided they are within the scope of 31.
D. RTA will originate RP announcements for multicast groups that match access-list 5.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 196
Which three statements correctly describe IP multicast configuration? (Choose three.)
A. PIM sparse mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
B. PIM sparse mode and PIM sparse-dense mode require an RP on the network.
C. PIM dense mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
D. PIM sparse-dense mode acts as PIM dense mode if an RP is not known.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 197
Internet Protocol (IP) multicast is a bandwidth-conserving technology that reduces traffic by simultaneously delivering a single stream of information to thousands of corporate recipients and homes .Which three IP multicast related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are called limited scope addresses. They are constrained to a local group or organization.
B. The multicast address 224.0.0.1 is a globally scoped address that has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
C. Multicast addresses 224.0.1.0 through 238.255.255.255 are called globally scoped addresses. They are used to multicast data between organizations and across the Internet.
D. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are used for network protocols on local LAN segments. Because they are always transmitted with a Time to Live (TTL) of 1, they are never forwarded by a router.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 198
When a network client wants to join a multicast group, which type of IGMP message is transmitted?
A. host membership status
B. host membership report
C. host membership notification
D. host membership query

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 199
What is the MAC address that comes from the multicast address 239.255.0.1?
A. 01-01-ef-ff-00-01
B. 10-00-ef-ff-00-01
C. 01-00-5e-7f-00-01
D. 00-00-00-7f-00-01

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 200
Examine the following statements, then answer this question. When the passive-interface command is used on a router, which two routing protocols will continue to receive routing updates on an interface that is configured as passive? (Choose two.)
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. RIPv2
D. OSPF

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 201
The P4Spany has implemented EIGRP in its network.
Identify three characteristics of EIGRP feasible successors? (Choose three.)

A. If the successor becomes unavailable, then the feasible successor can be used immediately without recalculating for a lost route.
B. A feasible successor is selected by comparing the advertised distance of a non-successor route to the feasible distance of the best route.
C. If the advertised distance of the non-successor route is less than the feasible distance of best route, then that route is identified as a feasible successor.
D. The feasible successor can be found in the routing table.

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 202
IP Multicast is a method of forwarding IP datagrams to a group of interested receivers. Examine the exhibit
carefully. IP multicast configuration changes have been made on several routers.
However, the IP multicast table shown in the exhibit still does not reflect the changes. What should be
done in order to display the new routing table information?
A. Issue the clear ip route * privileged EXEC command.
B. Issue the no ip mroute-cache privileged EXEC command.
C. Issue the clear ip mroute privileged EXEC command.
D. Issue the clear ip igmp group privileged EXEC command.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 203
Examine the exhibit carefully. Each router has Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) enabled interfaces.
Based on the configuration presented on routers P4S1 and P4S2, which router
will take on the function of rendezvous point (RP) for the multicast network?
A. both routers P4S 1 and P4S 2
B. router P4S2
C. router P4S1
D. none of the routers since they are not configured with static RP

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 204
Look at the exhibit below. Which two facts are important in interpreting the output of the show ip pim interface command? (Choose two.)

A. Multiaccess, multicast segments do not elect a DR.
B. Point-to-Point links do not display DR information.
C. Multiaccess segments elect a DR based on lowest IP address.
D. Multiaccess segments elect a DR based on highest IP address.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 205
Which two statements best describe multicast protocol? (Choose two.)
A. Sparse mode uses reverse path forwarding (RPF) to prune off redundant flows.
B. Sparse mode multicast uses a pull model to send multicast traffic to where it is requested.
C. Dense mode multicast uses a push model to flood traffic throughout the network and then prunes the unwanted traffic.
D. The primary use of sparse mode multicast is for test labs and router performance testing.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 206
If you want to allow a switch to decide which ports to forward IP multicast messages , what methods may be effective? (Choose three)
A. IGMP
B. CGMP
C. IGMP snooping
D. static assignment

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 207
Look at the following exhibit. Choose two correct statements regarding the PIM sparse mode network! (Choose two)

A. The multicast source is connected to the serial 1/4 interface.
B. The multicast source is directly connected to this router.
C. The multicast receiver is directly connected to this router.
D. The RP for this network is this router.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 208
Study the exhibit carefully. According to the configuration in the exhibit ,which statement is correct ?

A. The rendezvous point is IP address 172.16.4.16.
B. IGMP version 2 is being used.
C. If a rendezvous point is configured, the interface cannot operate in dense mode.
D. A rendezvous point must be configured in order for the interface to operate in sparse mode.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 209
P4S uses IGMP version 2 in their IP multicast network. How is the designated querier elected in IGMPv2?
A. The first router to appear on a subnet is designated.
B. The host with the lowest MAC address on a segment is designated.
C. The router with the lowest IP address on a subnet is designated.
D. The host that responds first to the election query is designated.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 210
Study the exhibit below carefully. Switch P4S-Switch is receiving IGMP frames only on interface FastEthernet 0/3.Refer to the IGMP snooping, out of which port or ports will switch P4S-Switch forward multicast traffic?

A. all ports
B. FastEthernet 0/1, 0/2, 0/3, 0/4
C. FastEthernet 0/3
D. FastEthernet 0/1, 0/2, 0/4, 0/5, 0/6, 0/7, 0/8

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 211
Which two statements correctly describe the rendezvous point (RP) in a multicast network? (Choose two.)
A. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse-dense mode (PIM-SDM).
B. To form the multicast distribution tree, the multicast sources register with and the receivers join the RP.
C. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast dense mode (PIM DM).
D. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse mode (PIM SM).

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 212
In order to display the two values used in the calculation of the EIGRP metric, which show command will be used?
A. show ip eigrp neighbor
B. show protocol
C. show interface
D. show ip eigrp interface

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 213
You work as a network engineer at P4S.Refer to the exhibit. Given the output of a debug ip mrouting command, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. This router P4S received an IGMP host report from a group member or a PIM join message.
B. Multicast route to 224.69.15.0/24 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router P4S.
C. Multicast route to 10.16.0.0/16 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router P4S.
D. The reverse path forwarding (RPF) for the route 224.2.0.1 failed to find the interface on which the multicast packet was received.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 214
For the following options, which three IP multicast group concepts are correct? (Choose three.)
A. A router must be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
B. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
C. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, the multicast frame contains the source multicast address.
D. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
E. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, all members of the multicast group will receive it.

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 215
Which three IP multicast address related descriptions are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are always forwarded because they are transmitted with Time to Live (TTL) greater than 1.
B. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.13 and 224.0.0.22 are reserved link-local addresses used by PIMv2 and IGMPv3.
C. Multicast address 224.0.1.1 has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
D. The administratively scoped multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are similar in purpose to RFC 1918 private unicast addresses.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation

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QUESTION 54
What are two uses for USB ports on ISRs? (Choose two)
A. increased memory capabilities
B. secure device authentication
C. bulk flash storage
D. control over the types of files that can be stored
E. digital certificate storage

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
When troubleshooting poor network performance, which two symptoms would typically be associated with a network layer problem? (Choose two)
A. Packet loss is more than 30 percent
B. There is excessive broadcast traffic
C. There are excessive CRC errors
D. Pings succeed only part of the time
E. Slips are detected on WAN interfaces
F. ARP requests are timing out

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 56
Which screen on the Cisco ASDM home page would you use to see which access list rules are in effect?
A. NAT
B. Interfaces
C. Routing
D. Security Policy

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Which type of antenna is used when coverage in all directions is required?
A. directional
B. bidirectional
C. omnidirectional
D. patch

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
Which service should be disabled or filtered via a firewall because an attacker could use the service to download a copy of Cisco IOS software from a router (thereby making the router vulnerable to DOC attacks)?
A. PAD service
B. finger service
C. TCP/UDP
D. BOOTP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Which two statement best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two)
A. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router
B. Layer 2 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router
C. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or controllers
D. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSM
E. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSE

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
Refer to the exhibit.

Switches A and C are running PVST+ STP, and switch B is running 802.1Q STP, if the BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VLAN 2, then there is no blocking port in the VLAN 2 topology. The BPDU of VLAN 2 never makes a full circle around the topology, it is replaced by the VLAN 1 BPDU on the B_C link, because B runs only one STP merged with VLAN ! STP of PVST+ Thus, there is a forwarding loop What does PVST+ do to correct this?
A. Switch A sends PVST+BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by switch B) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent, which prevents the loop
B. Switch B sends PVST+BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent, which prevents the loop
C. Switch C sends PVST+BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by switch B) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent, which prevents the loop
D. Switch A sends PVST+BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent, which prevents the loop “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 21 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
What is used to prevent outside resources from accessing private information within the company?
A. IPsec
B. VPN
C. PIN
D. Firewalls

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Which type of security allows visibility into the state of the operating system and is the only way to inspect encrypted traffic?
A. zero updated architecture
B. network-based security
C. endpoint-based security
D. ACLs

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
Which two benefits will a client see from adding a Wireless LAN Controller to their Smart Business Communications System? (Choose two)
A. allow for guest access
B. increase connection speeds
C. add additional access points
D. network management with CLI

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
To avoid carrying every length of cable, lighting arrestors, and splitters when performing site surveys, engineers can outfit their survey kits with which item?
A. Category 5 cable
B. RP-TNC plug
C. antenna attenuator D. RP-TNC connector

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Which two are components of AAA? (Choose two)
A. access control lists
B. Cisco IOS Software
C. Cisco Secure Access Control Server
D. Security Audit wizard
E. network access server

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
Which three business requirements development activities are performed in the prepare phase before creating a technology strategy? (Choose three)
A. identifying and assessing customer business requirements
B. documenting and categorizing customer business requirements in terms of performance, availability, capacity, and security
C. producing a documented technology strategy
D. creating a bill of materials
E. presenting documented business requirements to a customer and having the customer validate them
F. completing a site survey

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
Which port-sales SMART Design documents are available to help you better serve your customers? (Choose three)
A. Design Guide
B. Small Business Product Guide
C. Implementation Guide
D. Solution Profile
E. Cisco Configuration Assistant
F. Application Notes

Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
Which type of VPN is deal for employees who use a home PC or public computer to access the network?
A. IP secemote access VPN
B. mobile VPN
C. dialup 0ffload VPN
D. SSL VPN
E. GET VPN

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
Which benefit can be obtained by using the change management service component in the operate phase?
A. reduced operating costs, due to consistent framework for making necessary changes in an efficient and accountable manner
B. greater accuracy, completeness, and timeliness of network configuration information
C. notification provided to interested parties regarding problems that have been identified, and a system that scales with customer requirements
D. improved system service quality and fewer disruptions

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
Refer to the exhibit.

The tables contain information from the Cisco Configuration Professional configurations of Router A and
Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the site-to-site VPN between
Router A and Router B.
What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?

A. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a Turbo ACL (150199)
B. The IKE encryption methods on the two routers are different
C. The IPSec policy map names on the two routers are different
D. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
Which of the following best describe the customer benefits of change management in the operate phase?
A. reduce unnecessary disruption, delays, rework, and other problems by establishing test cases for use in verifying that the system meets operational, functional, and interface requirements
B. improve its ability to make sound financial decisions by developing a business case based on its business requirements and establishing a basis for developing a technology strategy
C. reduce operating costs and limit changE.related incidents by providing a consistent and efficient set of processes
D. improve the return on investment and hasten migration by identifying and planning for necessary infrastructure changes and resource additions, as well as reduce deployment costs by analyzing gaps early in the planning process to determine what is needed to support the system

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
Which of these is the best definition of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach?
A. It defines the minimum set of services required to successfully deploy and operate a set of Cisco technologies.
B. It determines how best to price Cisco products.
C. It provides partners with a useful way to leverage Cisco resources.
D. It consists of these phases: plan, deploy, support, and troubleshoot.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
What two types of telephony interfaces are used for PSTN connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Digital
B. Optical
C. Analog
D. CDMA

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
Which statement correctly describes the keys witch model of deployment for call processing?
A. All IP Phones are able to answer any incoming PSTN call on any line
B. PSTN calls are routed through a receptionist or automated attendant.
C. All IP Phones in the system have a single unique extension number.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
Which definition best describes the implementation service component within the implement phase?
A. providing a step-by-step plan that details the installation andservicE.commission tasks required in order to create a controlleD.implementation environment that emulates a customer network
B. assessing the ability of site facilities to accommodate proposed infrastructure changes
C. developing and executingprooF-oF-concept tests, validating high-level infrastructure design, and identifying any design enhancements
D. Installing, configuring and integrating systems components based on an implementation plan developed in earlier phases
E. improving a customer’s infrastructure security system

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
A customer with a small enterprise network of 15 remote sites is trying to optimize its VPN by migrating some remote sites using Frame Relay connections to the Internet to using cable connections to the Internet. Minimizing costs is one of the customer’s highest priorities. Only a moderate amount of IP traffic is passing through the network, most of which is from the remote sites to the central site. IPSec should be used to provide VPN functionality and basic confidentiality is desired.
Based on the traffic patterns, which topology would be the easiest for this customer to set up and manage?
A. full mesh
B. partial mesh
C. point-to-multipoint
D. hub and spoke

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
How can the proper configuration of Voice Mail be tested at an end user’s IP phone?
A. Press the “i” button.
B. Press the “Settings” button.
C. Press the “Services” button.
D. Press the “Messages” button

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
In what location is it recommended that the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WLSM be placed?
A. distribution layer
B. core layer
C. access layer
D. network management functional module
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
Which of these is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases?
A. initiation, planning, analysis, design, development, implementation, operations and maintenance
B. project planning, site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing, and operations
C. Prepare, plan design implement operate, and optimize
D. analysis, design, deployment, testing, implementation, and production I E. presales, project planning, development, implementation, operations testing, and operations sign-off

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
What port role assignment would you make for the Gigabit Ethernet port on the Cisco CE520 used in the Smart Business Communications System?
A. IP Phone and desktop
B. Cisco UC520
C. Cisco CE520
D. Cisco 871W

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

Which method list and method is used to authenticate the remote access VPN users? (Choose two.)
A. sdm_vpn_xauth_ml_1
B. sdm_ypn_group_ml_1
C. SDM_CMAP_1
D. local database on the ISR
E. remote TACACS+ server
F. remote Radius Server

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
Refer to the exhibit. Switches A and C are running PVST+ STP, and Switch B is running 802.10 STP. If the
BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VLAN 2, then there is no blocking port in
the VLAN topology. The BPDU of VLAN 2 never makes a “full circle” around the topology; it is replaced by
the VLAN 1 BPDU on the B. C link, because B runs only one STP merged with VLAN 1 STP of PVST+.
Thus, there is a forwardin loop.
What does PVST+ do to correct this?
A. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
B. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
C. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
D. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
E. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
F. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
Which interface on the Cisco UC520 is assigned an IP address either statically or through DHCP?
A. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
B. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
C. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
D. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
E. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
F. WAN interface
G. LAN interface
H. Switch port
I. PSTN Interface

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 84
Which benefit can be obtained by using the change management service component in the operate phase?
A. Reduced operating costs due to a consistent framework for making necessary changes in an efficient and accountable manner
B. Greater accuracy, completeness, and timeliness of network configuration information
C. Notification provided to interested parties regarding problems that have been identified, and a system that scales with customer requirements
D. Improved system service quality and fewer disruptions

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
What are two ways to test the LAN connectivity on the Cisco CE520? (Choose two.)
A. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Data Access VLAN from the Cisco UC520 console.
B. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Data VLAN from a device attached to the Cisco CE520
C. Ping default gateway from the Cisco UC520.
D. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-voice VLAN from a device attached to the Cisco CE520.
E. Ping default gateway from the Cisco CE520.
F. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Distribution VLAN from the Cisco UC520 console.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
Which statement correctly describes configuration of the VPN server?
A. It requires definition of a Group ID for remote clients.
B. It requires configuration of port settings for the VPN server on the Cisco UC520.
C. It uses apreshared Key for remote device authentication
D. The WAN interface is preselected.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
In a new Cisco UC520 installation, when must IP routing be configured?
A. When the service provider assigns static IP information
B. When the service provider assigns dynamic IP information.
C. When analog PSTN trunks are used.
D. When digital PSTN trunks are used.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
Which two benefits will a client see from adding a Wireless LAN Controller to their Smart Business Communications System? (Choose two).
A. allow for guest access
B. increase connection speeds
C. add additional access points
D. network management with CLI

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
Which critical issue should you account for when implementing an integrated network security management design?
A. NAT interoperates with encrypted voice traffic
B. host-based intrusion detection systems reside in the network
C. All network devices aretime.synchronized
D. SNMP community read-write strings are configured to allow for total management access

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
In which of these phases is a customer’s current network infrastructure assessed?
A. Plan
B. Design
C. Implement
D. Prepare

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
To save time during rediscovery, which three types of device information does Cisco Configuration Assistant retain? (Choose three.)
A. IP Address
B. MAC Address
C. Host Name
D. Communication Protocol
E. Port Settings
F. Topology

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Which dial plan scenario may require PSTN trunks for outbound calls?
A. All the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and the voiceE-mail system nave direct inward dial numbers using analog trunks.
B. A subset of the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and the voiceE-mail system have direct inward dial numbers, and the remaining employees do not have direct inward dial numbers.
C. All the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and thevoiceE-mail system have direct inward dial numbers using digital interfaces.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
What are two configurable options for Call Control on the Cisco UC520? (Choose two.)
A. Shared Key
B. PBX
C. Key System
D. Encryption
E. Call Waiting

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 94
Refer to the Exhibit. According to Cisco VPN Client Software output Shown, Which two Statement are correct about the connection entry named isr? (Choose Two)

A. HMAC.SHA1 is used to authenticate the remote users.
B. Preshared key is used to authenticate the remote peer
C. AES is used to provide data confidentiality.
D. The Cisco VPN Client software is assigned an internal IP address of 192.168.1.1.
E. The PC that is running the Cisco vpn Client software win not have access to the local LAN once the PC is connected into the VPN

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 35 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
QUESTION 95
Refer to the exhibit. According to the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager window, which statement about address translation is correct?

A. Using Network Address Translation, any host on the DMZ1 subnet (172.16.1.0) will be translated to a mapped address on the outside interface of 192.168.1.11. I
B. Using port address translation, DMZ2 host 172.16.10.2 will be translated on DMZ1 to IP address
172.16.1.22 with a dynamically assigned port address.
C. Using Network Address Translation host 10.0 1.10 on the inside network will be dynamically translated to a mapped address from the address pool of 192.168.1.20 to 192.168.1.94.
D. Using port address translation, outside host 192.168.1.10 with a dynamically assigned port address will be translated to 10.0.1.11 on the inside interface.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Which two are benefits of installing Cisco Monitor Director at an SMB site for the partner selling the solution? (Choose two.)
A. simplifies Smart Business Communications System installation
B. allows the end customer to get free software updates
C. monthly recurring revenue mode
D. automated monthly reporting on system performance

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
Which Cisco Catalyst Express 520 feature optimizes quality of service?
A. Cisco Configuration Assistant
B. Cisco Smart ports
C. Cisco Network Admission Control
D. Cisco Smart Assist

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
Which three business requirements development activities are performed in the prepare phase before creating a technology strategy? (Choose three.)
A. Identifying and assessing customer business requirements
B. Documenting and categorizing customer business requirements in terms of performance, availability, capacity and security
C. Producing a documented technology strategy
D. Creating a bill of materials
E. Presentdocumented business requirements to a customer and having the customer validate them
F. Completing a site survey

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 99
Refer to the exhibit. This display has been truncated to remove information that is not relevant to the question. What would be a reason that there have been 21 ignored packets?

A. EthernetO has no CDP neighbors.
B. There are no free input buffers to accept new packets
C. There are no free output buffers for packets, which are traversing the router, to go into for transmission.
D. EthernetO and the neighbor that it is connected to are not running the same routing protocol.
E. This is not a valid error display. The display has been modified to show that there have been ignored packets.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 55
When troubleshooting poor network performance, which two symptoms would typically be associated with a network layer problem? (Choose two)
A. Packet loss is more than 30 percent
B. There is excessive broadcast traffic
C. There are excessive CRC errors
D. Pings succeed only part of the time
E. Slips are detected on WAN interfaces
F. ARP requests are timing out

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 56
Which screen on the Cisco ASDM home page would you use to see which access list rules are in effect?
A. NAT
B. Interfaces
C. Routing
D. Security Policy

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Which type of antenna is used when coverage in all directions is required?
A. directional
B. bidirectional
C. omnidirectional
D. patch

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
Which service should be disabled or filtered via a firewall because an attacker could use the service to download a copy of Cisco IOS software from a router (thereby making the router vulnerable to DOC attacks)?
A. PAD service
B. finger service
C. TCP/UDP
D. BOOTP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Which two statement best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two)
A. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router
B. Layer 2 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router
C. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or controllers
D. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSM
E. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSE

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
Refer to the exhibit.

Switches A and C are running PVST+ STP, and switch B is running 802.1Q STP, if the BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VLAN 2, then there is no blocking port in the VLAN 2 topology. The BPDU of VLAN 2 never makes a full circle around the topology, it is replaced by the VLAN 1 BPDU on the B_C link, because B runs only one STP merged with VLAN ! STP of PVST+ Thus, there is a forwarding loop What does PVST+ do to correct this?
A. Switch A sends PVST+BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by switch B) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent, which prevents the loop
B. Switch B sends PVST+BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent, which prevents the loop
C. Switch C sends PVST+BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by switch B) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent, which prevents the loop
D. Switch A sends PVST+BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent, which prevents the loop “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 21 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
What is used to prevent outside resources from accessing private information within the company?
A. IPsec
B. VPN
C. PIN
D. Firewalls

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Which type of security allows visibility into the state of the operating system and is the only way to inspect encrypted traffic?
A. zero updated architecture
B. network-based security
C. endpoint-based security
D. ACLs

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
Which two benefits will a client see from adding a Wireless LAN Controller to their Smart Business Communications System? (Choose two)
A. allow for guest access
B. increase connection speeds
C. add additional access points
D. network management with CLI

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
To avoid carrying every length of cable, lighting arrestors, and splitters when performing site surveys, engineers can outfit their survey kits with which item?
A. Category 5 cable
B. RP-TNC plug
C. antenna attenuator D. RP-TNC connector

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Which two are components of AAA? (Choose two)
A. access control lists
B. Cisco IOS Software
C. Cisco Secure Access Control Server
D. Security Audit wizard
E. network access server

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
Which three business requirements development activities are performed in the prepare phase before creating a technology strategy? (Choose three)
A. identifying and assessing customer business requirements
B. documenting and categorizing customer business requirements in terms of performance, availability, capacity, and security
C. producing a documented technology strategy
D. creating a bill of materials
E. presenting documented business requirements to a customer and having the customer validate them
F. completing a site survey

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
Which port-sales SMART Design documents are available to help you better serve your customers? (Choose three)
A. Design Guide
B. Small Business Product Guide
C. Implementation Guide
D. Solution Profile
E. Cisco Configuration Assistant
F. Application Notes

Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
Which type of VPN is deal for employees who use a home PC or public computer to access the network?
A. IP secemote access VPN
B. mobile VPN
C. dialup 0ffload VPN
D. SSL VPN
E. GET VPN

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
Which benefit can be obtained by using the change management service component in the operate phase?
A. reduced operating costs, due to consistent framework for making necessary changes in an efficient and accountable manner
B. greater accuracy, completeness, and timeliness of network configuration information
C. notification provided to interested parties regarding problems that have been identified, and a system that scales with customer requirements
D. improved system service quality and fewer disruptions

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
Refer to the exhibit.

The tables contain information from the Cisco Configuration Professional configurations of Router A and
Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the site-to-site VPN between
Router A and Router B.
What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?

A. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a Turbo ACL (150199)
B. The IKE encryption methods on the two routers are different
C. The IPSec policy map names on the two routers are different
D. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
Which of the following best describe the customer benefits of change management in the operate phase?
A. reduce unnecessary disruption, delays, rework, and other problems by establishing test cases for use in verifying that the system meets operational, functional, and interface requirements
B. improve its ability to make sound financial decisions by developing a business case based on its business requirements and establishing a basis for developing a technology strategy
C. reduce operating costs and limit changE.related incidents by providing a consistent and efficient set of processes
D. improve the return on investment and hasten migration by identifying and planning for necessary infrastructure changes and resource additions, as well as reduce deployment costs by analyzing gaps early in the planning process to determine what is needed to support the system

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
Which of these is the best definition of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach?
A. It defines the minimum set of services required to successfully deploy and operate a set of Cisco technologies.
B. It determines how best to price Cisco products.
C. It provides partners with a useful way to leverage Cisco resources.
D. It consists of these phases: plan, deploy, support, and troubleshoot.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
What two types of telephony interfaces are used for PSTN connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Digital
B. Optical
C. Analog
D. CDMA

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
Which statement correctly describes the keys witch model of deployment for call processing?
A. All IP Phones are able to answer any incoming PSTN call on any line
B. PSTN calls are routed through a receptionist or automated attendant.
C. All IP Phones in the system have a single unique extension number.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
Which definition best describes the implementation service component within the implement phase?
A. providing a step-by-step plan that details the installation andservicE.commission tasks required in order to create a controlleD.implementation environment that emulates a customer network
B. assessing the ability of site facilities to accommodate proposed infrastructure changes
C. developing and executingprooF-oF-concept tests, validating high-level infrastructure design, and identifying any design enhancements
D. Installing, configuring and integrating systems components based on an implementation plan developed in earlier phases
E. improving a customer’s infrastructure security system

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
A customer with a small enterprise network of 15 remote sites is trying to optimize its VPN by migrating some remote sites using Frame Relay connections to the Internet to using cable connections to the Internet. Minimizing costs is one of the customer’s highest priorities. Only a moderate amount of IP traffic is passing through the network, most of which is from the remote sites to the central site. IPSec should be used to provide VPN functionality and basic confidentiality is desired.
Based on the traffic patterns, which topology would be the easiest for this customer to set up and manage?
A. full mesh
B. partial mesh
C. point-to-multipoint
D. hub and spoke

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
How can the proper configuration of Voice Mail be tested at an end user’s IP phone?
A. Press the “i” button.
B. Press the “Settings” button.
C. Press the “Services” button.
D. Press the “Messages” button

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
In what location is it recommended that the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WLSM be placed?
A. distribution layer
B. core layer
C. access layer
D. network management functional module
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
Which of these is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases?
A. initiation, planning, analysis, design, development, implementation, operations and maintenance
B. project planning, site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing, and operations
C. Prepare, plan design implement operate, and optimize
D. analysis, design, deployment, testing, implementation, and production I E. presales, project planning, development, implementation, operations testing, and operations sign-off

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
What port role assignment would you make for the Gigabit Ethernet port on the Cisco CE520 used in the Smart Business Communications System?
A. IP Phone and desktop
B. Cisco UC520
C. Cisco CE520
D. Cisco 871W

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

Which method list and method is used to authenticate the remote access VPN users? (Choose two.)
A. sdm_vpn_xauth_ml_1
B. sdm_ypn_group_ml_1
C. SDM_CMAP_1
D. local database on the ISR
E. remote TACACS+ server
F. remote Radius Server

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
Refer to the exhibit. Switches A and C are running PVST+ STP, and Switch B is running 802.10 STP. If the
BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VLAN 2, then there is no blocking port in
the VLAN topology. The BPDU of VLAN 2 never makes a “full circle” around the topology; it is replaced by
the VLAN 1 BPDU on the B. C link, because B runs only one STP merged with VLAN 1 STP of PVST+.
Thus, there is a forwardin loop.
What does PVST+ do to correct this?
A. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
B. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
C. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
D. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
E. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
F. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
Which interface on the Cisco UC520 is assigned an IP address either statically or through DHCP?
A. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
B. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
C. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A) towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
D. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
E. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C.B into a typE.inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
F. WAN interface
G. LAN interface
H. Switch port
I. PSTN Interface

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 84
Which benefit can be obtained by using the change management service component in the operate phase?
A. Reduced operating costs due to a consistent framework for making necessary changes in an efficient and accountable manner
B. Greater accuracy, completeness, and timeliness of network configuration information
C. Notification provided to interested parties regarding problems that have been identified, and a system that scales with customer requirements
D. Improved system service quality and fewer disruptions

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
What are two ways to test the LAN connectivity on the Cisco CE520? (Choose two.)
A. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Data Access VLAN from the Cisco UC520 console.
B. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Data VLAN from a device attached to the Cisco CE520
C. Ping default gateway from the Cisco UC520.
D. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-voice VLAN from a device attached to the Cisco CE520.
E. Ping default gateway from the Cisco CE520.
F. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Distribution VLAN from the Cisco UC520 console.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
Which statement correctly describes configuration of the VPN server?
A. It requires definition of a Group ID for remote clients.
B. It requires configuration of port settings for the VPN server on the Cisco UC520.
C. It uses apreshared Key for remote device authentication
D. The WAN interface is preselected.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
In a new Cisco UC520 installation, when must IP routing be configured?
A. When the service provider assigns static IP information
B. When the service provider assigns dynamic IP information.
C. When analog PSTN trunks are used.
D. When digital PSTN trunks are used.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
Which two benefits will a client see from adding a Wireless LAN Controller to their Smart Business Communications System? (Choose two).
A. allow for guest access
B. increase connection speeds
C. add additional access points
D. network management with CLI

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
Which critical issue should you account for when implementing an integrated network security management design?
A. NAT interoperates with encrypted voice traffic
B. host-based intrusion detection systems reside in the network
C. All network devices aretime.synchronized
D. SNMP community read-write strings are configured to allow for total management access

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
In which of these phases is a customer’s current network infrastructure assessed?
A. Plan
B. Design
C. Implement
D. Prepare

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
To save time during rediscovery, which three types of device information does Cisco Configuration Assistant retain? (Choose three.)
A. IP Address
B. MAC Address
C. Host Name
D. Communication Protocol
E. Port Settings
F. Topology

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Which dial plan scenario may require PSTN trunks for outbound calls?
A. All the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and the voiceE-mail system nave direct inward dial numbers using analog trunks.
B. A subset of the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and the voiceE-mail system have direct inward dial numbers, and the remaining employees do not have direct inward dial numbers.
C. All the employees, the auto attendant or receptionist, and thevoiceE-mail system have direct inward dial numbers using digital interfaces.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
What are two configurable options for Call Control on the Cisco UC520? (Choose two.)
A. Shared Key
B. PBX
C. Key System
D. Encryption
E. Call Waiting

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 94
Refer to the Exhibit. According to Cisco VPN Client Software output Shown, Which two Statement are correct about the connection entry named isr? (Choose Two)

A. HMAC.SHA1 is used to authenticate the remote users.
B. Preshared key is used to authenticate the remote peer
C. AES is used to provide data confidentiality.
D. The Cisco VPN Client software is assigned an internal IP address of 192.168.1.1.
E. The PC that is running the Cisco vpn Client software win not have access to the local LAN once the PC is connected into the VPN

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 35 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
QUESTION 95
Refer to the exhibit. According to the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager window, which statement about address translation is correct?

A. Using Network Address Translation, any host on the DMZ1 subnet (172.16.1.0) will be translated to a mapped address on the outside interface of 192.168.1.11. I
B. Using port address translation, DMZ2 host 172.16.10.2 will be translated on DMZ1 to IP address
172.16.1.22 with a dynamically assigned port address.
C. Using Network Address Translation host 10.0 1.10 on the inside network will be dynamically translated to a mapped address from the address pool of 192.168.1.20 to 192.168.1.94.
D. Using port address translation, outside host 192.168.1.10 with a dynamically assigned port address will be translated to 10.0.1.11 on the inside interface.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Which two are benefits of installing Cisco Monitor Director at an SMB site for the partner selling the solution? (Choose two.)
A. simplifies Smart Business Communications System installation
B. allows the end customer to get free software updates
C. monthly recurring revenue mode
D. automated monthly reporting on system performance

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
Which Cisco Catalyst Express 520 feature optimizes quality of service?
A. Cisco Configuration Assistant
B. Cisco Smart ports
C. Cisco Network Admission Control
D. Cisco Smart Assist

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
Which three business requirements development activities are performed in the prepare phase before creating a technology strategy? (Choose three.)
A. Identifying and assessing customer business requirements
B. Documenting and categorizing customer business requirements in terms of performance, availability, capacity and security
C. Producing a documented technology strategy
D. Creating a bill of materials
E. Presentdocumented business requirements to a customer and having the customer validate them
F. Completing a site survey

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 99
Refer to the exhibit. This display has been truncated to remove information that is not relevant to the question. What would be a reason that there have been 21 ignored packets?

A. EthernetO has no CDP neighbors.
B. There are no free input buffers to accept new packets
C. There are no free output buffers for packets, which are traversing the router, to go into for transmission.
D. EthernetO and the neighbor that it is connected to are not running the same routing protocol.
E. This is not a valid error display. The display has been modified to show that there have been ignored packets.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
After configuring VTP. you no longer receive updates as expected. Which command can you use to verify the number of VTP advertisements being transmitted?
A. show vtp database
B. show vtp counters
C. showvtp statistics
D. showvtp status

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 101
You enter the command show ip ospf neighbor and see “two-way/DROTHER” listed as the state for neighbor 10.1.1.1. What does this status indicate?
A. The neighbor 10.1 1 1 is not a DR or BDR
B. The neighbor relationship with 10.1.1.1 has not yet completed.
C. DR and BDR election is in progress.
D. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 is the BDR.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 102
Which design phase service component includes the development and documentation of the test case or cases used to verify that a deployed infrastructure meets operational, functional, and interface requirements?
A. Implementation Plan.
B. Business Plan
C. Staging Plan
D. Detailed Design Development
E. Systems Acceptance Test Plan Development

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 103
Which implement phase service component consists of explaining the benefits and limitations of purchased support options to a customer and ensuring that the customer understands operational processes and responsibilities?
A. Staging and System Migration
B. Post Implementation Support Handoff Meeting
C. Detailed Design Development
D. Staff Training
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 104
In which of these phases is a customer’s network assessed to determine its system readiness?
A. plan
B. design
C. operate
D. implement

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 105
How many voice expansion slots are provided by the Cisco UC520?
A. One
B. two
C. three
D. four

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 106
A concern has been expressed that the switched infrastructure in an integrated network is vulnerable to VLAN hopping attacks. Which two configuration statements can be used to mitigate VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. switch port port-security
B. switch port port-security tagging
C. switch port accessvlan
D. switch port doublE.tag snooping
E. switch port mode access

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 107
Which network management tool is designed to allow businesses to manage up to 40 devices?
A. Cisco Works Unrestricted
B. Cisco Works SNMS
C. Campus Manager D. Resource Management Essentials

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 108
You are troubleshooting OSPF neighbor establishment problems, which are occurring over Frame Relay interfaces that use the default OSPF network type. What should you verify in the router configuration?
A. theip ospf network point-to-point statement under the Frame Relay interface
B. The ip ospf priority 0 statement on the Frame Relay interface on the designated router
C. The neighbor statements on the Frame Relay interface
D. The framE.relay map statement on the Frame Relay interface

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Cisco 642-384 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 642-384 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification.

Welcome to download the newest Examwind 642-647 VCE dumps: http://www.examwind.com/642-647.html

Cisco 642-384 Tests, New Release Cisco 642-384 Dumps PDF Online

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