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Cisco 642-901 Real Exam Questions And Answers, Most Hottest Cisco 642-901 Testing Online

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QUESTION 110
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are IPv6 BGP peers that have been configured to support a neighbor relationship over an IPv4 internetwork. Which three neighbor IP addresses are valid choices to use in the highlighted section of the exhibit? (Choose three.)

A. ::0A43:0002
B. 0A43:0002::
C. ::10.67.0.2
D. 10.67.0.2::
E. 0:0:0:0:0:0:10.67.0.2
F. 10.67.0.2:0:0:0:0:0:0

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
Refer to the exhibit. BGP has been configured on the routers in the network.
However, the IBGP peers in autonomous system 65200 have not converged. In addition, this console
message was generated on router R2:
*Mar 1 03:09:07.729: %TCP-6-BADAUTH No MD5 digest from 10.10.23.2(179) to 10.10.23.3(11002)
On the basis of the information that is provided, what is the cause of the problem?
A. BGP authentication can be used on eBGP peers only.
B. The password that is used for BGP authentication on both BGP peers in autonomous system 65200 must be the same.
C. BGP authentication can be used on iBGP peers when the connection is configured between the loopback interfaces.
D. OSPF must be configured with the same MD5 authentication.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 112
Refer to the exhibit diagram and configuration. RTB is summarizing its networks from AS 64100 with the aggregate-address command. However, the show ip route command on RTA reveals the RTB individual networks as well as its summary route. Which option would ensure that only the summary route would appear in the routing table of RTA?

A. Delete the four network statements and leave only the aggregate-address statement in the BGP configuration.
B. Add the keyword summary-only to the aggregate-address command.
C. Add a static route with a prefix of 192.168.24.0 255.255.252.0 pointing to the null0 interface.
D. Create a route map permitting only the summary address.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
Router RTA is configured as follows:
RTA (config)#router rip RTA(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 RTA(config-router)#distribute-list 44 in interface BRI0 RTA(config-router)#exit RTA(config)#access-list 44 deny 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 RTA(config)#access-list 44 permit any
What are the effects of this RIP configuration on router RTA? (Choose two.)

A. no routing updates will be sent from router RTA on interface BRI0 to router RTX
B. router RTA will not advertise the 10.0.0.0 network to router RTX
C. the route to network 172.16.1.0 will not be entered into the routing table on router RTA
D. user traffic from the 172.16.1.0 network is denied by access-list 44
E. the routing table on router RTA will be updated with the route to router RTW

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
During the redistribution process configured on RTA, some of the EIGRP routes, such as 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.2.2.0/24, are not being redistributed into the OSPF routing domain.
Which two items could be a solution to this problem? (Choose two.)

A. Change the metric-type to 2 in the redistribute command.
B. Configure the redistribute command under router eigrp 1 instead.
C. Change the EIGRP AS number from 100 to 1 in the redistribute command.
D. Add the subnets option to the redistribute command.
E. Change the metric to an EIGRP compatible metric value (bandwidth, delay, reliability, load, MTUs) in the redistribute command.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
Which IS-IS router is equivalent to an ABR in OSPF?
A. Level 0
B. Level 1
C. Level 2
D. Level 3
E. Level 1-2
F. Level 2-3

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 116
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have established a neighbor relationship and are exchanging routing information. The network design requires that R1 receive routing updates from R2, but not advertise any routes to R2. Which configuration command sequence will successfully accomplish this task?

A. R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
B. R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
C. R1(config)# access-list 20 deny any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
D. R2(config)# access-list 20 deny any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
E. R1(config)# access-list 20 permit any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0
F. R2(config)# access-list 20 permit any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
Hotspot
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
Refer to the exhibit. Given the exhibited router output, which command sequence can be added to R1 to generate a default route into the OSPF domain?

A. default-router
B. ip default-network
C. default-information originate always
D. ip default-gateway

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 119
Refer to the exhibit. During the process of configuring a virtual link to connect area 2 with the backbone area, the network administrator received this console message on R3:
*Mar 1 00:25:01.084: %OSPF-4-ERRRCV: Received invalid packet: mismatch area ID, from backbone area must be virtual link but not found from 20.20.20.1, Serial 0
How should the virtual link be configured on the OSPF routers to establish full connectivity between the areas?

A. R1(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 30.30.30.3 R3(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 20.20.20.1
B. R1(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 20.20.20.2 R3(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 30.30.30.2
C. R1(config-router)# area 0 virtual-link 1.1.1.1 R3(config-router)# area 2 virtual-link 3.3.3.3
D. R1(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 3.3.3.3 R3(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 1.1.1.1
E. R1(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 2.2.2.2 R3(config-router)# area 1 virtual-link 2.2.2.2

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
LAB

A. Portland# conf t Portland(config)# router ospf 1 Portland(config-router)# network 192.168.5.4 0.0.0.3 area 1 Portland(config-router)# area 1 stub Portland(config-router)# end Portland# copy run start Indianapolis# conf t Indianapolis(config)# router ospf 1 Indianapolis(config-router)# network 192.168.5.4 0.0.0.3 area 1 Indianapolis(config-router)# area 1 stub no-summary Indianapolis(config-router)# end Indianapolis# copy run start

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
The command bgp always-compare-med is added to a router configuration.
What will this command accomplish?
A. forces the router to compare metrics of routes from different autonomous systems
B. forces the router to compare the local preference of routes from different autonomous systems
C. forces the router to compare the weight of routes from different autonomous systems
D. forces the router to compare the communities of routes from different autonomous systems

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 122
An administrator is redistributing OSPF into RIP. RIP is routing the 128.103.36.0/24 network. OSPF is routing the 128.103.35.32/28 network. Users in the RIP domain cannot reach devices in the OSPF domain. Which two tasks must be done to enable RIP to advertise the routes learned from OSPF into the RIP domain? (Choose two.)

A. Add a static route that points to the RIP domain address space with a /24 network mask and a next hop of 128.103.36.2.
B. Add a static route that points to the OSPF domain address space with a /24 network mask with a next hop of null0.
C. Tune the OSPF default metrics to allow seamless redistribution into RIP.
D. Redistribute configured static routes into RIP.
E. Use a route map statement inserted into a distribute list to control routing updates.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 123
Which two provide intra-area routing services? (Choose two.)
A. L1 IS
B. L1 ES
C. L2 IS
D. L2 ES
E. L1/L2 IS

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Refer to the exhibit. All routers have Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) enabled interfaces. On the basis of the configuration provided on routers R1 and R2, which router will take on the function of rendezvous point (RP) for the multicast network?

A. router R1
B. router R2
C. both routers R1 and R2
D. none of the routers since they are not configured with static RP

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the partial configuration that is shown? (Choose two.)

A. The first DHCP client to connect to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface will receive the IP address 10.0.0.6.
B. The first DHCP client to connect to the FastEthernet 0/1 interface will receive the IP address 10.10.0.1.
C. The first DHCP client to connect to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface will receive the IP address 10.0.0.1
D. Hosts connected to the FastEthernet0/1 interface will not receive DHCP replies from the router.
E. DHCP requests received on the FastEthernet 0/1 interface will be forwarded to 10.0.0.2.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have established a neighbor relationship and are exchanging routing information. The network design requires that R1 receive routing updates from R2, but not advertise any routes to R2. Which configuration command sequence will successfully accomplish this task?
A. R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
B. R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
C. R1(config)# access-list 20 deny any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
D. R2(config)# access-list 20 deny any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
E. R1(config)# access-list 20 permit any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0
F. R2(config)# access-list 20 permit any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
Hotspot
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is enabled on all routers on the network. What additional configuration is required for the routers connected over the Frame Relay multipoint interfaces to compensate for a low-speed NBMA connection?
A. Configure the EIGRP hello interval on all Frame Relay interfaces to 5 seconds.
B. Configure the EIGRP hello interval on all Frame Relay interfaces to 60 seconds.
C. Configure the EIGRP hold time on all Frame Relay interfaces to 15 seconds.
D. Configure the EIGRP hold time on all Frame Relay interfaces to 180 seconds.
E. Configure the bandwidth on all EIGRP Frame Relay interfaces to the committed information rate (CIR).
F. Configure the bandwidth on all EIGRP Frame Relay interfaces to the lowest CIR multiplied by the number of PVCs for the multipoint connection.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
Which show command will display the two values used in the calculation of the EIGRP metric?
A. show protocol
B. show ip eigrp interface
C. show interface
D. show ip eigrp neighbor
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.)
A. No virtual links are allowed.
B. The area cannot be a backbone area.
C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D. The area has no more than 10 routers.
E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F. Interarea routes are suppressed.

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 131
Refer to the exhibit. IP multicast configuration changes have been made on several routers. However, the IP multicast table displayed in the exhibit still does not reflect the changes.
What should be done to display the new routing table information?
A. Issue the no ip mroute-cache privileged EXEC command.
B. Issue the clear ip igmp group privileged EXEC command.
C. Issue the clear ip mroute privileged EXEC command.
D. Issue the clear ip route * privileged EXEC command.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
Identify three characteristics of EIGRP feasible successors? (Choose three.)
A. A feasible successor is selected by comparing the advertised distance of a non-successor route to the feasible distance of the best route.
B. If the advertised distance of the non-successor route is less than the feasible distance of best route, then that route is identified as a feasible successor.
C. If the successor becomes unavailable, then the feasible successor can be used immediately without recalculating for a lost route.
D. The feasible successor can be found in the routing table.
E. Traffic will be load balanced between feasible successors with the same advertised distance.

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 133
What are three kinds of OSPF areas? (Choose three.)
A. stub
B. active
C. remote
D. backbone
E. ordinary or standard

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
Based on the show ip bgp summary output, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The BGP session to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor is established.
B. The BGP session to the 10.2.2.2 neighbor is established.
C. The BGP session to the 10.3.3.3 neighbor is established.
D. The router is attempting to establish a BGP peering session with the 10.1.1.1 neighbor.
E. The BGP session to the 10.3.3.3 neighbor is established, but the router has not received any BGP routing updates from the 10.3.3.3 neighbor.
F. The router is attempting to establish a BGP peering session with the 10.2.2.2 neighbor.

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 101
Which three statements are correct about the differences in IS-IS and OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. IS-IS LSP contains TLV fields and OSPF LSU contains the LSAs.
B. New additions to the protocol are easily implemented in OSPF but not with IS-IS.
C. For greater fine tuning there are more IS-IS timers.
D. OSPF has more area types than does IS-IS.
E. IS-IS is more CPU-intensive than is OSPF.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 102
What is the purpose of the eigrp stub configuration command?
A. to increase scalability by limiting the EIGRP query range
B. to reduce the size of the routing table by blocking the D EX (External EIGRP) routes into the EIGRP stub router
C. to reduce the convergence time by enabling the EIGRP stub router to propagate the EIGRP queries from the EIGRP hub router
D. to reduce the convergence time by enabling the EIGRP stub router to also perform query requests to the EIGRP hub router
Correct Answer: A Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 103
Which configuration commands will enable RTA to advertise all local interfaces over OSPF?
A. RTA(config)# router ospf 1RTA(config-router)# default-information originate
B. RTA(config)# router ospf 1RTA(config-router)# network 255.255.255.255 255.255.255.255
C. RTA(config)# router ospf 1RTA(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0
D. RTA(config)# router ospf 1RTA(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
E. RTA(config)# router ospf 1RTA(config-router)# redistribute static
F. RTA(config)# router ospf 1RTA(config-router)# redistribute connected
Correct Answer: F Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 104
Which command lists the system IDs of all known IS-IS routers?
A. show clns neighbors
B. show isis database
C. show isis topology
D. show clns neighbors detail
E. show is-is neighbors detail
Correct Answer: C Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 105
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The eigrp stub command prevents queries from being sent from R2 to R1.
B. The eigrp stub command will automatically enable summarization of routes on R2.
C. The eigrp stub command prevents all routes except a default route from being advertised to R1.
D. Router R1 will advertise connected and summary routes only.
E. Router R1 will advertise connected and static routes. The sending of summary routes will not be permitted.
F. Router R1 is configured as a receive-only neighbor and will not send any connected, static, or summary routes.
Correct Answer: AD Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 106
A network administrator would like to configure an EIGRP router as a stub router that advertises directly connected and summary routes only. What command must the administrator issue to accomplish this?
A. eigrp stub
B. eigrp stub connected
C. eigrp stub summary
D. eigrp stub connected static
E. eigrp stub receive-only
Correct Answer: A Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 107
Refer to the exhibit diagram and configuration. RTB is summarizing its networks from AS 64100 with the aggregate-address command. However, the show ip route command on RTA reveals the RTB individual networks as well as its summary route. Which option would ensure that only the summary route would appear in the routing table of RTA?

A. Delete the four network statements and leave only the aggregate-address statement in the BGP configuration.
B. Add the keyword summary-only to the aggregate-address command.
C. Add a static route with a prefix of 192.168.24.0 255.255.252.0 pointing to the null0 interface.
D. Create a route map permitting only the summary address.
Correct Answer: B Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 108
How is the designated querier elected in IGMPv2?
A. The first router to appear on a subnet is designated.
B. The host that responds first to the election query is designated.
C. The router with the lowest IP address on a subnet is designated.
D. The host with the lowest MAC address on a segment is designated.
Correct Answer: C Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 109
Which type of IGMP message is sent when a network client wants to join a multicast group?
A. host membership query
B. host membership report
C. host membership status
D. host membership notification
Correct Answer: B Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
When an IPv6 enabled host boots, it sends a router solicitation (RS) message. An IPv6 router responds with a router advertisement (RA). Which two items are contained in the RA? (Choose two.)
A. IPv6 address for the host
B. lifetime of the prefix
C. prefixes for the link
D. keepalive timers
E. request for the local host IP address
F. any route advertisements it has received
Correct Answer: BC Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
Which statement is true concerning 6to4 tunneling?
A. IPv4 traffic is encapsulated with an IPv6 header.
B. The edge routers can use any locally configured IPv6 address.
C. Hosts and routers inside a 6to4 site will need a special code.
D. An edge router must use IPv6 address of 2002::/16 in its prefix.
Correct Answer: D Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 112
Observe the exhibit. If the command variance 3 were added to RTE, which path or paths would be chosen to route traffic to network X?

A. E-B-A
B. E-B-A and E-C-A
C. E-C-A and E-D-A
D. E-B-A, E-C-A and E-D-A
Correct Answer: B Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
Refer to the exhibit. What happens when the router stops receiving advertisements for the 10.1.2.0/24 network?

A. The summary route will be removed from the table.
B. The summary route will remain in the table.
C. The more specific routes will be advertised from the table.
D. 10.1.2.0/24 will still be advertised but packets destined for it will be dropped when they reach this router.
Correct Answer: B Section: Multiple Choice Questions
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
Which statement is true about EBGP?
A. An internal routing protocol can be used to reach an EBGP neighbor.
B. The next hop does not change when BGP updates are exchanged between EBGP neighbors.
C. A static route can be used to form an adjacency between neighbors.
D. EBGP requires a full mesh.
Correct Answer: C Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the distribute-list command in the R1 configuration?

A. R1 will filter only the 172.24.1.0/24 route from the R2 RIP updates.
B. R1 will permit only the 10.0.0.0/24 route in the R2 RIP updates.
C. R1 will filter the 10.1.0.0/24 and the 172.24.1.0/24 routes from the R2 RIP updates.
D. R1 will not filter any routes because there is no exact prefix match.
Correct Answer: C Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 116
Based on the information in the exhibit, which statement is true?

A. RTC will be able to access the 10.0.0.0 network.
B. RTC will not have the 10.0.0.0 network in its routing table.
C. RTC will not have the 192.168.10.0 network in its routing table.
D. RTB will not have the 10.0.0.0 network in its routing table.
E. RTB and RTC will not have the 10.0.0.0 network in their routing tables.
Correct Answer: B Section: Multiple Choice Questions Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 137
Study the exhibit carefully. Configure BGP on all routers, turn off synchronization , and none of the default attributes have been changed except the local preference attribute on P4S4. Which path will be preferred by P4S2 to reach the network 100.100.100.0/24?

A. P4S2, P4S1 because it has the shortest AS-path
B. P4S2, P4S3, P4S4, P4S5 because it has a higher local preference
C. P4S2, P4S1 because it has a lower local preference
D. P4S2, P4S3, P4S4, P4S5 because it has a lower admin distance

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 138
Based on the configuration provided in the exhibit, how would the BGP updates that come from router P4S1 be replicated inside autonomous system 65200?

A. All BGP updates that are received on router P4S2 will not be sent to routers P4S3 and P4S4.
B. All BGP updates that are received on router P4S2 will be sent directly to router P4S5.
C. All BGP updates that are received on router P4S2 will be sent to routers P4S3 and P4S4. Routers P4S3 and P4S4 will then forward those BGP updates to router P4S5.
D. None of the BGP updates that are received on router P4S2 will ever be received by router P4S5.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 139
There are two routes in BGP to a destination. Assume that both paths were originated locally and have the same weight, what will be the next determining factor in choosing the best path?
A. lowest origin code
B. highest local preference
C. lowest MED
D. lowest neighbor IP address

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 140
For the following commands, which one displays the IBGP and EBGP neighbors that are configured?
A. show ip bgp peers
B. show ip bgp
C. show ip bgp paths
D. show ip bgp summary

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 141
Which two reasons are of the appearance of 0.0.0.0 as the next hop for a network in the show ip bgp command output? (Choose two.)
A. The network was originated via a network or aggregate command.
B. The network was learned via IBGP.
C. The network was originated via redistribution of an interior gateway protocol into BGP.
D. The network was defined by a static route.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 142
Which one of the following statements accurately describes EBGP?
A. EBGP requires a full mesh.
B. An internal routing protocol can be used to reach an EBGP neighbor.
C. A static route can be used to form an adjacency between neighbors.
D. The next hop does not change when BGP updates are exchanged between EBGP neighbors.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 143
Judging from the show ip bgp summary output, which two descriptions are correct? (Choose two.)

A. The BGP session to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor is established.
B. The BGP session to the 10.3.3.3 neighbor is established.
C. The BGP session to the 10.2.2.2 neighbor is established.
D. The router is attempting to establish a BGP peering session with the 10.2.2.2 neighbor.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 144
The command bgp always-compare-med is added to a router configuration. What will be the objective of this command?
A. forces the router to compare metrics of routes from different autonomous systems
B. forces the router to compare the communities of routes from different autonomous systems
C. forces the router to compare the local preference of routes from different autonomous systems
D. forces the router to compare the weight of routes from different autonomous systems

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

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QUESTION 85
Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true about the IS-IS configuration? (Choose two.)

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A. The router is in area 49.0001.0002.
B. The router has a system ID of 0003.0004.
C. The router acts as a Level 1-2 router.
D. The network service access point selector (NSEL) byte has a value of 0. E. CLNS routing is enabled for the router.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 86
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the IS-IS configurations of router R1 and router R2 are correct? (Choose two.)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. The IS-IS Level 2 metric that is assigned on the serial interface of router R2 is over three times the default value.
B. Router R1 sends only Level 1 hellos out the interface that is connected to R2.
C. Router R2 sends only Level 2 hellos out the interface that is connected to R1.
D. Router R1 is configured as a Level 1-2 router.
E. Router R2 has the same metric value assigned for Level 1 and Level 2 on the serial interface.
F. The network entity titles (NETs) that are configured on L1 and L2 are incompatible.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, what two conclusions can be reached? (Choose two.)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. Three physical interfaces are taking part in integrated IS-IS.
B. Address summarization is configured.
C. There are two neighboring routers sending IS-IS routing information.
D. The default administrative distance has been changed.
E. IS-IS is not redistributing any other routing protocols.
F. IS-IS is not enabled.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
Which three options are supported as address allocation mechanisms for DHCP on Cisco routers? (Choose three.)
A. The IP address can be automatically assigned to a host.
B. The IP address can be assigned as a random hash value of the burned-in-address of the lowest-numbered LAN interface on the router.
C. The network administrator can assign a specific IP address to a specific host MAC address.
D. The IP address can be assigned from configured pools in a reverse lexicographical order.
E. The IP address can be assigned to a host for a limited time or until the host explicitly releases the address. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
F. The IP address can be assigned to a host until the host usurps the assigned value using its own dynamic override mechanism.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 89
Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be made based on the DHCP configuration? (Choose two.)

A. The second DNS server configured will never be queried.
B. The first IP address assigned by DHCP is 172.16.0.1.
C. The IP address of the default router is used for DHCP relay.
D. The DHCP clients learn the excluded address ranges that area configured.
E. The configured domain name is propagated to the DHCP clients.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the configuration?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. Hosts will receive IP settings from pool 1 until the addresses run out, and then hosts will receive the settings from pool 2.
B. Hosts belonging to DHCP pool 1 and pool 2 will retain their IP settings for 30 hours before they must renew.
C. Hosts in the 10.10.20.0/24 subnet will use 10.10.20.50 as its DNS server.
D. DHCP pool 0 needs to have the ip dhcp excluded-address command to exclude the default router and DNS servers.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration is reflected in the output that is displayed in the exhibit?

A. neighbor 192.168.28.1 route-map cisco in ! access-list 66 permit 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 ! route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66 set local-preference 90 PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
B. neighbor 192.168.28.1 route-map cisco out ! access-list 66 permit 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 ! route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66 set metric 90
C. neighbor 192.168.28.1 route-map cisco out ! access-list 66 permit 10.30.0.0 0.0.255.255 ! route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66 set metric 90
D. neighbor 192.168.28.1 route-map cisco in ! PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892 access-list 66 permit 10.30.0.0 0.0.255.255 ! route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66 set local-preference 90

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Refer to the exhibit. Router RT-1 chooses one path to network 198.133.219.0/24. Indicate the reason Router RT-1 chooses this “best” path.

A. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 gives precedence to the origin code.
B. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 gives precedence to the BGP MED values.
C. IP address 128.107.2.2 is lower than 128.107.255.2.
D. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 prefers the IGP metrics.
E. RT-1 prefers internal BGP routes.
F. IP address 128.107.254.2 is lower than 128.107.255.2.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
What technique should be used on BGP edge routers to prevent a multi-homed autonomous system from becoming a transit system?
A. Advertise with a high MED value all networks that are discovered via external BGP.
B. Remove the AS-Path information on all routes in the BGP table prior to advertising externally.
C. Only advertise networks externally if they have been discovered via internal BGP.
D. Use an outgoing distribution list to filter all networks not originating from inside the autonomous system.
E. Set the no-export community attribute on all networks that are advertised externally.
F. Set the origin code to incomplete for all networks that are discovered via external BGP.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 94
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the router configuration that is shown? PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. Additional DHCP options will be imported from another DHCP server.
B. The DHCP server pools need to be bound to an interface to operate.
C. This configuration will provide IP configuration information to two different subnets.
D. Additional DCHP option information needs to be imported from another DHCP server.
E. If the router hands out all the addresses in pool 1, then it will supply addresses from pool 2.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the router with ID 10.64.0.1?

A. It is the BDR for the local segment.
B. It is the DR for the local segment.
C. It is not running OSPF.
D. It has an OSPF priority of 1 on the attached interface.
E. It has a loopback that is configured.
F. It is not the DR or BDR for the local segment.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Which statement is true about Protocol Independent Multicast Dense Mode (PIM DM) multicast routing?
A. PIM DM supports shared distribution trees.
B. If a port is pruned, the administrator must re-enable the port to support multicast traffic.
C. The (S,G) state exists in every router, regardless of the presence of an RPF interface.
D. Flooding of traffic only occurs in the beginning stages of routing. Afterwards, all necessary ports are pruned and multicast traffic is not sent across those interfaces.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
The show ip route command generated routes flagged as O N2 and O N1. Which option best describes how these routes were created?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. Summarization was performed on an ASBR connected to a totally stubby area.
B. Static routes were redistributed into an ASBR.
C. Redistribution was performed into a totally stubby area.
D. Redistribution was performed into an NSSA area.
E. Summarization was performed on an ASBR connected to a NSSA area.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
How is the configuration of a totally stubby area different from that of a stub area?
A. The totally stubby area requires the no-summary command on the ABR.
B. The totally stubby area requires the totally stubby command on the ABR.
C. The no-summary command should be included on all routers within the totally stubby area.
D. The totally stubby command should be included on all routers within the totally stubby area.
E. The totally stubby area requires the no-summary command on the ASBR.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 99
Refer to the exhibit. Which one statement is true?

A. Traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16 network will be blocked by the ACL.
B. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be advertised by Router B because the network statement for the 10.0.0.0/8 network is missing from Router B.
C. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be in the routing table on Router B.
D. Users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network can successfully ping users on the 192.168.5.0/24 network, but users on the 192.168.5.0/24 cannot successfully ping users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network.
E. Router B will not advertise the 10.0.0.0/8 network because it is blocked by the ACL.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
Refer to the exhibit. RTR-38 has two possible paths to reach the indicated networks but only chooses next hop 172.20.72.1. Which two options would cause RTR-38 to choose next hop 172.20.73.1 for network
192.168.101.0 but still use next hop 172.20.72.1 for the remaining networks? (Choose two)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. On RTR-38 apply a route map to neighbor 172.20.73.1 incoming that changes the local-preference to 200 for network 192.168.101.0.
B. On RTR-38 apply a route map to neighbor 172.20.73.1 incoming that changes the local-preference to 200 for all networks accept 192.168.101.0.
C. On RTR-38 apply the command neighbor 172.20.73.1 weight 200.
D. On RTR-38 apply the command neighbor 172.20.72.1 weight 200.
E. On BGP neighbor router 172.20.73.1 apply a route map that advertises a MED of 200 for network
192.168.101.0 to RTR-38.
F. On BGP neighbor router 172.20.72.1 apply a route map that advertises a MED of 200 for network
192.168.101.0 to RTR-38.

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 101
During BGP configuration on a router that has peered with other BGP speakers, the BGP command aggregate-address 172.32.0.0 255.255.252.0 is issued. However, the peers do not receive this aggregate network in BGP advertisements. Also, the router does not have this aggregate network in its BGP table. Which option indicates a possible reason this command did not cause the router to advertise the aggregate network to its peers?
A. Interface NULL 0 is likely shutdown.
B. The BGP command no synchronization is missing.
C. The BGP command no auto-summary is missing.
D. Subnets of 172.32.0.0/22 do not exist in the BGP table.
E. The IGP running on this router does not have network 172.32.0.0/22 installed.
F. The next hop IP address must be a loopback address.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 102
What are the two effects of the IP multicast global configuration command ip pim send-rp-announce loopback0 scope 31 group-list 5 issued on multicast router RTA? (Choose two.)
A. RTA will drop all RP announcements it receives if the TTL field is greater than 31.
B. RTA will forward RP announcements provided they are within the scope of 31.
C. RTA will originate RP announcements with TTL set to 31.
D. RTA will forward RP announcements from any neighbor router with a source IP address that matches access-list 5.
E. RTA will originate RP announcements for multicast groups that match access-list 5.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 103
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output from the show command on RT1 which statement is true?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. OSPFv3 uses global IPv6 addresses to establish neighbor adjacencies.
B. RT1 has a subnet mask of 64 bits.
C. RT1 has FastEthernet0/0 set as a DR for network type broadcast.
D. OSPFv3 uses Link-local addresses to establish neighbor adjacencies.
E. RT1 does not have a global IPv6 address set on FastEthernet0/0.
F. OSPFv3 uses IPv4 addresses to establish neighbor adjacencies.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 104
Refer to the exhibit. In the show ipv6 route output, what would the metric be for a summary route that summarizes all three OSPFv3 routes displayed?

A. 20
B. 40
C. 100
D. 120
E. 140
F. 160

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
QUESTION 105
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is correct regarding the partial configuration shown?

A. The router’s fa0/0 interface will be assigned the reserved address of 20.0.0.2.
B. The router will import its DHCP options from a configuration file on a TFTP server.
C. The router’s fa0/0 interface will be assigned any address from the 20.0.0.0/8 network except 20.0.0.2.
D. The router will add the DHCP option parameters it learns from another server into its DHCP server database.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 106
Refer to the exhibit. It is desired to set up a BGP neighbor relationship between routers R1 and R4. BGP packets between them could travel through R2 or R3. What is the simplest configuration that will allow for failover?

A. Configure BGP neighbor relationships between all interfaces on R1 and R4.
B. Install a direct connection between R1 and R4.
C. Configure loopback interfaces on R1 and R4 to provide the update source address for BGP packets.
D. Configure only one neighbor relationship between R1’s 192.168.1.2 interface and R4’s 172.16.10.2 interface.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
QUESTION 107
Refer to the exhibit. Routing updates for the 192.168.1.0 network are being received from all three neighbors. Which statement is correct regarding the result of the configuration shown?

A. The router will prefer the next hop of 172.16.1.1 for packets destined for the 192.168.1.0 network.
B. The router will prefer the next hop of 172.26.1.1 for packets destined for the 192.168.1.0 network.
C. The router will advertise the 192.168.1.0 network only to 172.30.1.1.
D. The router will advertise the 192.168.1.0 network only to 172.26.1.1.
E. The router will prefer the next hop of 172.26.1.1 for packets except those destined for the 192.168.1.0 network.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 108
Refer to the exhibit. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 weight 200 BGP configuration command has been configured on router A. What will be the result of this configuration?

A. Router A will prefer the path through router B for network 172.20.0.0. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
B. Router A will prefer the path through router C for network 172.20.0.0.
C. Packets from router D will prefer the path through router B for networks advertised by router A.
D. Packets from router D will prefer the path through router C for networks advertised by router A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 109
Which spanning-tree command would cause a PortFast-enabled interface to lose its PortFast-operational status and disable BPDU filtering if it receives BPDUs?
A. spanning-tree guard root
B. spanning-tree bpduguard enable
C. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default
D. spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
E. spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
Which spanning-tree command would essentially disable spanning tree on an interface and make that interface susceptible to spanning-tree loops?
A. spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default
B. spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
C. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default
D. spanning-tree bpduguard enable
E. spanning-tree guard root

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
Which statement correctly describes the results of the Ethernet switch global configuration command spanning-tree loopguard default?
A. When any port receives a BPDU, it is put it in the error-disabled state.
B. An interface is moved directly to the spanning-tree forwarding state without waiting for the standard forward-time delay.
C. Prevents interfaces that are in a PortFast-operational state from sending or receiving BPDUs.
D. Detects indirect link failures and starts the spanning-tree reconfiguration sooner.
E. Prevents alternate or root ports from becoming designated ports because of a failure that leads to a unidirectional link.
F. Provides fast convergence after a direct link failure where a root port transitions to the forwarding state immediately without going through the listening and learning states.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 112
Which optional feature of an Ethernet switch disables a port on a point-to-point link if the port does not receive traffic while Layer 1 status is up?
A. BackboneFast
B. UplinkFast
C. Loop Guard
D. UDLD aggressive mode
E. Fast Link Pulse bursts
F. Link Control Word

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
Which three statements are true about routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose three)
A. A routed port can support VLAN subinterfaces.
B. A routed port will take an IP address assignment.
C. A routed port can be configured with routing protocols.
D. A routed port is a virtual interface on the multilayer switch. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
E. A routed port is only associated with one VLAN.
F. A routed port is a physical interface on the multilayer switch.

Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
Which three statements are true about CEF? (Choose three.)
A. The FIB table is derived from the IP routing table.
B. The adjacency table is derived from the ARP table.
C. CEF IP destination prefixes are stored in the TCAM table, from the least specific to the most specific entry.
D. When the CEF TCAM table is full, packets are dropped.
E. When the adjacency table is full, a CEF TCAM table entry points to the Layer 3 engine to redirect the adjacency.
F. The FIB lookup is based on the Layer 3 destination address prefix (shortest match).

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
Refer to the exhibit. Why are users from VLAN 100 unable to ping users on VLAN 200?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. Encapsulation on the switch is wrong.
B. Trunking needs to be enabled on Fa0/1.
C. The native VLAN is wrong.
D. VLAN 1 needs the no shutdown command.
E. IP routing needs to be enabled on the switch.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 116
Refer to the exhibit. What problem is preventing users on VLAN 100 from pinging addresses on VLAN 200?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. No default route on DLS1.
B. Encapsulation mismatch between switches.
C. Native VLAN mismatch.
D. Subinterfaces should be created on Fa0/7 and Fa0/8 on DLS1.
E. Trunking needs to be enabled.
F. The ip routing command is missing on DLS1.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
Which three characteristics are true about voice traffic in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. bursty
B. greedy
C. drop sensitive
D. delay sensitive
E. UDP priority
F. TCP retransmits

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
Which three characteristics are true about voice traffic in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. TCP retransmits
B. benign
C. greedy
D. drop sensitive
E. smooth
F. delay insensitive

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 119
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is configured on all routers in the network. On the basis of the show ip ospf PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
neighbor output, what prevents R1 from establishing a full adjacency with R2?

A. Router R1 will only establish full adjacency with the DR and BDR on broadcast multiaccess networks.
B. Router R2 has been elected as a DR for the broadcast multiaccess network in OSPF area 1.
C. Routers R1 and R2 are configured as stub routers for OSPF area 1 and OSPF area 2.
D. Router R1 and R2 are configured for a virtual link between OSPF area 1 and OSPF area 2.
E. The Hello parameters on routers R1 and R2 do not match.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
Which two statements are true about voice VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. Voice VLANs allow IP phones to be moved around without worrying about subnets.
B. Voice VLANs allow voice and data packets to be logically combined.
C. Implementing voice VLANs causes network administrators to change their existing IP topology.
D. Using voice VLANs makes it easier for network administrators to identify and troubleshoot network problems.
E. Voice VLANs are available on all Cisco switches.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
Which two statements are true about trust boundaries? (Choose two.)
A. Classifying and marking traffic should be done as close to the traffic source as possible.
B. Classifying and marking traffic should be done at the distribution layer.
C. Traffic is classified and marked as it travels through the network.
D. If untrusted traffic enters a switch, it can be marked with a new QoS value appropriate for the policy in place.
E. The trust boundary moves depending on the type of traffic entering the network.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 80 Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82

A.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83

Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 84 Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85

B.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 87

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

F.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89 Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91 Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92

A.
B.

D.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93 Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98

B.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 99

C.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 101

A. active
B. speak
C. learn
D. listen
E. init
F. standby
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 60

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 61

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 62

A. acceess
B. non negotiate
C. trunk
D. dynamic desirable
E. dynamic auto
F. none of the other alternatives apply
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 63

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 64

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 65

Correct Answer: Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 66

A. auto
B. negotiate
C. designate
D. non negotiate
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 67

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 68

A. DTP
B. VTP
C. 802.1Q
D. ISL
E. none of the other alternatives apply
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 69

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 70

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 71

A. MST00
B. MST01
C. the last MST instance configured
D. none
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 72

A. 802.11b
B. spanning-tree
C. 802.1q
D. ISL
E. VTP
F. Q.921
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 73

A. region name
B. configuration revision number
C. VLAN INSTANCE MAP
D. ist stp bpdu HELLO TIMER
E. CST instance map
F. PVST+ instance map
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 74

A.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 75

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 76

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 77

Correct Answer: CF Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 78

A. VTP mode
B. STP ROOT STATUS
C. Negotiation status
D. management domain
E. configuration revision number
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 79

D.

E.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 80

A. the host will be allowed to connect
B. the port will shut down
C. the host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected
D. the host will be refused access
E. none of th other alternatvies apply
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 81

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 82

A. snooping attack
B. rougue device attack
C. STP attack
D. VLAN attack
E. spoofing attack
F. MAC flooding attack
Correct Answer: E Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 83

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 84

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 85

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 86

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 87

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 88

A. ports 0/1 and 0/2
B. the trunk port 0/22 and ethernchannel ports
C. ports 0/1 0/2 and 0/3
D. ports 0/1 0/2 and 0/3, the trunk port 0/22 and ethernchannel ports
E. port 0/1
F. ports 0/1 0/2 and 0/3, the trunk port 0/22
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 89

A. EAP over LAN
B. EAP MD5
C. STP
D. portocols not filtered by an ACL
E. CDP
F. TACACS+
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 90

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 91

Correct Answer: F Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 92

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 93

A. STP
B. CDP
C. EAP MD5
D. TACACS+
E. EAP-over-LAN
F. portocols not filtered by an ACL
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 94

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 95

E.
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 96

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 97

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 98

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

F.

Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 99

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 100

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 101

A. trunk
B. isolated
C. primary
D. community
E. promiscous
F. non of the alternatives apply
Correct Answer: E Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 102

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 103

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 104

A.
B.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 105

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 106

C.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 107

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 108

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 109

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 110

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 111

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 112

A. hubs
B. switch
C. router
D. bridge
E. none of the other alternatvies apply
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 113

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 114 Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 115

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 116

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 117

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 118

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 119

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 120

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121 Correct Answer: BC Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 122

A. ip routing
B. switchport mode trunk
C. no switchport
D. switchport turnk native vlan 1
E. none of the other alternatives apply
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 123

A. configure VACLs

C.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none)
Explanation

QUESTION 124

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 125

B.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 127

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 128

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

F.

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 129 Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 130

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 131

A.

C.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 132

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

F.

Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 133

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 134

Select and Place: Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 135

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 136

A. accounting
B. analog and digital voice
C. mobility
D. security
E. routing and switching
F. VLAN and QoS
Correct Answer: CDF Section: (none) Explanation

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QUESTION 73
With Cisco Express Forwarding, prefixes that require exception processing can be cached with one of
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
which four special adjacencies. (Choose four.)
A. forward
B. null
C. glean
D. kick
E. discard
F. drop

Correct Answer: BCEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 74
Refer to the exhibit. Why are users from VLAN 100 unable to ping users on VLAN 200?

A. Encapsulation on the switch is wrong.
B. Trunking needs to be enabled on Fa0/1.
C. The native VLAN is wrong.
D. VLAN 1 needs the no shutdown command.
E. IP routing needs to be enabled on the switch.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 75
Refer to the exhibit. What problem is preventing users on VLAN 100 from pinging addresses on VLAN
200?

A. No default route on DLS1.
B. Encapsulation mismatch between switches.
C. Native VLAN mismatch.
D. Subinterfaces should be created on Fa0/7 and Fa0/8 on DLS1.
E. Trunking needs to be enabled.
F. The ip routing command is missing on DLS1.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
An attacking device has gained unauthorized access to data on a different VLAN through the use of
double tagging. What is the name of this network attack?
A. switch spoofing TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
B. IP spoofing
C. VLAN hopping
D. VLAN jumping
E. DHCP spoofing
F. MAC flooding

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
Which three characteristics are true about voice traffic in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. bursty
B. greedy
C. drop sensitive
D. delay sensitive
E. UDP priority
F. TCP retransmits

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
Which three characteristics are true about voice traffic in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. TCP retransmits
B. benign
C. greedy
D. drop sensitive
E. smooth
F. delay insensitive

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
Which two statements are true about voice VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. Voice VLANs allow IP phones to be moved around without worrying about subnets.
B. Voice VLANs allow voice and data packets to be logically combined.
C. Implementing voice VLANs causes network administrators to change their existing IP topology.
D. Using voice VLANs makes it easier for network administrators to identify and troubleshoot network TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside problems.
E. Voice VLANs are available on all Cisco switches.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
Which two statements are true about trust boundaries? (Choose two.)
A. Classifying and marking traffic should be done as close to the traffic source as possible.
B. Classifying and marking traffic should be done at the distribution layer.
C. Traffic is classified and marked as it travels through the network.
D. If untrusted traffic enters a switch, it can be marked with a new QoS value appropriate for the policy in place.
E. The trust boundary moves depending on the type of traffic entering the network.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
In the event that two devices need access to a common server, but they cannot communicate with each
other, which security feature should be configured to mitigate attacks between these devices?
A. port security
B. dynamic ARP inspection
C. DHCP snooping
D. private VLANs
E. BPDU guard

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
A hacker is interested in seeing traffic from all switch ports on the switch that he is connected to,
including the ports belonging to other VLANs. What type of attack is he likely to implement?
A. MAC address flooding
B. ARP attack
C. spoofing attack
D. DHCP attack
E. VLAN hopping

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 83
Which statement best summarizes how DHCP snooping works?
A. DHCP snooping validates the header information of all DHCP replies and only allows the reply through if it has a matching request in the DSRT.
B. DHCP snooping validates all DHCP responses from all switch ports and only allows packets through if the destination port sent a DHCP request in the last 5 seconds.
C. DHCP snooping validates all DHCP responses from all switch ports and only allows packets through if the destination port specifically sent a DHCP request.
D. DHCP snooping determines which switch ports are trusted and can source all DHCP messages.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 84
Which three statements are true about DAI? (Choose three.)
A. DAI determines the validity of an ARP packet based on the valid MAC address-to-IP address bindings stored in the DHCP Snooping database.
B. DAI forwards all ARP packets received on a trusted interface without any checks.
C. DAI determines the validity of an ARP packet based on the valid MAC address-to-IP address bindings stored in the CAM table.
D. DAI forwards all ARP packets received on a trusted interface after verifying and inspecting the packet against the DAI table.
E. DAI intercepts all ARP packets on untrusted ports.
F. DAI is used to prevent against a DHCP Snooping attack.

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
What does the auto qos voip cisco-phone command do?
A. If a Cisco IP phone is attached, the switch trusts the CoS.
B. The switch assigns a CoS value of 5 to incoming packets.
C. It turns on STP to see if a Cisco IP phone is attached.
D. If a Cisco IP phone is attached and removed, the switch continues to trust the CoS values as long as the switch is not rebooted.
E. It disables the trust boundary feature because the switch knows a Cisco IP phone is attached. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 86
A network administrator would like to configure 802.1x port-based authentication, however, the client workstation is not 802.1x compliant. What is the only supported authentication server that can be used?
A. TACACS with LEAP extensions
B. TACACS+
C. RADIUS with EAP extensions
D. LDAP

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
A switch has been configured with PVLANs. With what type of PVLAN port should the default gateway be configured?
A. Isolated
B. Promiscuous
C. Community
D. Primary
E. Trunk

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
Workstations on a segment with HSRP running should have their IP default gateway configured for which device?
A. standby router
B. virtual router
C. router physically connected to the network segment
D. router closest to the network segment
E. backup router

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
Refer to the exhibit. The lightweight wireless architecture splits the processing of the 802.11 data and management protocols and the access point functionality between the access point and the WLAN
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
controller using split MAC approach. Which three functionalities are handled by the WLAN controller?
(Choose three.)

A. the transmission of beacon frames
B. the portions of the protocol that have real-time requirements
C. the response to Probe Request frames from clients
D. 802.11 authentication
E. 802.11 association and re-association (mobility)
F. 802.11 frame translation and bridging

Correct Answer: DEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
What is the function of the Service Set Identifier (SSID) in the wireless LAN?
A. The SSID should be configured on the client site only and provides data-privacy functions and authentication to the access point.
B. The SSID must match on both the client and the access point. The SSID is advertised in plain-text in the access point beacon messages.
C. The SSID must match on both the client and the access point and provides encryption keys for authentication to the access point.
D. The SSID must match on both the client and the access point and provides MAC Address Authentication to authenticate the client to the access point.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Refer to the exhibit. Three different wireless groups of users are allowed to gain access to the wireless
LAN. What type of security policy should be enforced for the users in the Guest group?
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Testinside

A. static WEP and MAC authentication
B. LEAP authentication
C. primary SSID with open or no WEP authentication
D. open authentication with WEP plus MAC authentication

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the repeater access point that is deployed in this wireless network?

A. The repeater access point should use a different SSID than the SSID configured on the parent access point.
B. The repeater access point should use a different WEP encryption method than the WEP encryption that is enabled on the parent access point.
C. The repeater access point reduces the throughput in half because it receives and then re-transmits each packet on the same channel.
D. The repeater access point requires a 10 percent channel overlap with channel of the root access point.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 93
What are two differences between the Autonomous WLAN solution and the Lightweight WLAN solution?
(Choose two.)
A. TACACS+ can only be used for authentication with the Cisco Lightweight WLAN solution.
B. CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine can be used for management with the Autonomous WLAN Solution.
C. CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine can be used for management with the Lightweight WLAN Solution.
D. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is used to configure the access points in the Lightweight WLAN solution.
E. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is used to configure the access points in the Autonomous WLAN solution.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
Which statement is true about the data traffic between the access point and controller?
A. The data traffic is switched at the access point before being sent to the WLAN controller where VLAN tagging and QoS are applied.
B. The data traffic is encrypted with AES.
C. The data traffic between the access point and controller is encrypted.
D. The data traffic is encapsulated with LWAPP.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95
How are VRRP messages exchanged between routers sharing a common LAN segment?
A. VRRP relies on TCP to open a connection and to maintain that connection using TCP keepalives.
B. Unicast IP addresses with UDP port ID 112.
C. Destination IP address 224.0.0.18 with IP Protocol ID 112.
D. VRRP messages are directly encapsulated into the Ethernet data field using type code 0x112.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the minimal VRRP configuration, which VRRP command issued on RTA
will ensure that RTA is the master virtual router?
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A. vrrp 100 priority 0
B. vrrp 100 priority 1
C. vrrp 100 priority 100
D. vrrp 100 priority 254
E. vrrp 100 preempt
F. no vrrp 100 preempt

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
Refer to the exhibit. What does the output of the debug command indicate on VRRP router RTA?
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A. VRRP is not active on RTA.
B. RTB does not have VRRP active.
C. RTA does not have VRRP preempt active.
D. RTB has a different IP address coded for VRRP group 1 than RTA.
E. RTB has the same IP address coded on its Ethernet interface as RTA.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
Which method enables GLBP to forward traffic from a LAN segment via multiple routers
simultaneously?
A. Clients need to have different default gateway IP addresses coded.
B. Separate GLBP groups are coded on the routers.
C. The AVG assigns different virtual MAC addresses.
D. Multiple AVG designated routers respond to ARP requests.
E. Proxy ARP allows multiple routers to respond to ARP requests from clients.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 99
How are GLBP messages exchanged between routers that share a common LAN segment?
A. GLBP messages are multicast to UDP port ID 3222.
B. GLBP messages are directly encapsulated into the Ethernet data field using type code 3222.
C. GLBP relies on TCP to open a connection and to maintain that connection using TCP keepalives.
D. Routers inform clients with GLBP messages and use ARP messages to exchange information about first-hop redundancy.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
Which method used by GLBP allows the AVG to prefer one GLBP router as the AVF over other GLBP routers until its tracked interface goes down, when another router might be more preferred?
A. no glbp group load-balancing
B. glbp group load-balancing host-dependent
C. glbp group load-balancing round-robin
D. glbp group load-balancing weighted

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 101
Refer to the exhibit. If VLAN 21 does not exist before typing the commands, what is the result of the configuration applied on switch SW1?

A. A new VLAN 21 is created and port 0/8 is assigned to that VLAN.
B. A new VLAN 21 is created, but no ports are assigned to that VLAN.
C. No VLAN 21 is created and no ports are assigned to that VLAN.
D. Configuration command vlan database should be used first to create the VLAN 21.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 102
Refer to the exhibit. The link between switch SW1 and switch SW2 is configured as a trunk, but the trunk failed to establish connectivity between the switches. Based on the configurations and the error TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam
http://www.TestInside.com Testinside messages received on the console of SW1, what is the cause of the problem?

A. The two ends of the trunk have different duplex settings.
B. The two ends of the trunk have different EtherChannel configuration.
C. The two ends of the trunk have different native VLAN configuration.
D. The two ends of the trunk allow different VLANs on the trunk.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 103
What action should a network administrator take to enable VTP pruning on an entire management
domain?
A. enable VTP pruning on any client switch in the domain
B. enable VTP pruning on every switch in the domain
C. enable VTP pruning on any switch in the management domain
D. enable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 104
Which process plays a major role in the creation of the CEF adjacency table?
A. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
B. PDU header rewrite
C. NetFlow switching
D. hello packet exchange

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 105
How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?
A. by restricting unicast traffic to across VTP domains
B. by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs
C. by limiting the spreading of VLAN information
D. by disabling periodic VTP updates

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 106
The network operations center has received a call stating that users in VLAN 107 are unable to access
resources through Router 1. From the information contained in the graphic, what is the cause of this
problem?
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A. VLAN 107 does not exist on switch A.
B. VTP is pruning VLAN 107
C. VLAN 107 is not configured on the trunk
D. spanning tree is not enabled on VLAN 107

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 107
Which two table types are CEF components?(Choose two.)
A. forwarding information base
B. adjacency tables
C. neighbor tables TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com
Testinside
D. caching tables
E. route tables

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 108
Which Cisco IOS command assigns a Catalyst switch port to VLAN 10?
A. switchport mode vlan 10
B. switchport trunk native 10
C. switchport access vlan 10
D. switchport mode access vlan 10

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 109
Which statement is true regarding the configuration of ISL trunks?
A. All Catalyst switches support ISL trunking.
B. A Catalyst switch will report giants if one side is configured for ISL while the other side is not.
C. ISL trunking requires that native VLANs match.
D. A Catalyst switch cannot have ISL and IEEE 802.1q trunks enabled.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
Which three statements are true regarding the above diagram? (Choose three.)
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A. A trunk link will be formed.
B. Only VLANs 1-1001 will travel across the trunk link.
C. The native VLAN for Switch B is vlan 1.
D. DTP is not running on Switch A.
E. DTP packets are sent from Switch B.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 40
Using the default modular policy framework global configuration on the Cisco ASA, how does the Cisco ASA process outbound HTTP traffic?
A. HTTP flows are not permitted through the Cisco ASA, because HTTP is not inspected bydefault.
B. HTTP flows match theinspection_default traffic class and are inspected using HTTP inspection.
C. HTTP outbound traffic is permitted, but all return HTTP traffic is denied.
D. HTTP flows arestatefully inspected using TCP stateful inspection.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
Which feature is not supported on the Cisco ASA 5505 with the Security Plus license? O A. security contexts
A. stateless active/standby failover
B. transparent firewall
C. threat detection
D. traffic shaping

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
What is the first configuration step when using Cisco ASDM to configure a new Layer 3/4 inspection policy on the Cisco ASA?
A. Create a new class map.
B. Create a new policy map and apply actions to the traffic classes.
C. Create a new service policy rule.
D. Create the ACLs to be referenced by any of the new class maps.
E. Disable the default global inspection policy.
F. Create a new firewall access rule.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617
QUESTION 43
Which statement about the Cisco ASA 5505 configuration is true?
A. The IP address is configured under the physical interface (ethemet 0/0 to ethemet 0/7).
B. With the default factory configuration, the management interface (management 0/0) is configured with the 192.168.1.1/24 IP address
C. With the default factory configuration, Cisco ASDM access is not enabled.
D. Theswitchport access vlan command can be used to assign the VLAN to each physical interface (ethemet 0/0 to ethemet 0/7).
E. With the default factory configuration, both the inside and outside interface will use DHCP to acquire its IP address.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
Refer to the exhibit. What does the * next to the CTX security context indicate?

A. The CTX context is the active context on the Cisco ASA.
B. The CTX context is the standby context on the Cisco ASA.
C. The CTX context contains the system configurations.
D. The CTX context has the admin role.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
Which three Cisco ASA configuration commands are used to enable the Cisco ASA to log only the debug output to syslog? (Choose three.)
A. loggingHsttest message 711001
B. logging debug-trace
C. logging trap debugging
D. logging message 711001 level 7 E. logging trap test

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617
QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations are required on the Cisco ASAs so that the return traffic from the 10.10.10.100 outside server back to the 10.20.10.100 inside client can be rerouted from the Active CtxB context in ASA Two to the Active Ctx A context in ASA One? (Choose two.)

A. stateful active/active failover
B. dynamic routing (EIGRP or OSPF or RIP)
C. ASR-group
D. no NAT-control
E. policy-based routing
F. TCP/UDP connections replication

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
Where in the ACS are the individual downloadable ACL statements configured to achieve the most scalable deployment?
A. Group Setup
B. User Setup
C. Shared Profile Components
D. Network Access Profiles
E. Network Configuration Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617
F. Interface Configuration

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
Which two methods can be used to access the Cisco AIP-SSM CLI? (Choose two.)
A. initiating an SSH connection to the Cisco AIP-SSM external management Ethernet port
B. connecting to the console port on the Cisco AIP-SSM
C. using the setup command on the Cisco ASA CLI
D. using thesession 1 command on the Cisco ASA CLI
E. using the hw-module command on the Cisco ASA CLI

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
Refer to the exhibit. Which three CLI configuration commands result from this configuration? (Choose three.)

A. global (outside) 1 192.168.11
B. nat (inside) 110.16.1.1
C. static(inside.outside) 192.168.1.1 10.16.1.1 netmask 255.255.255.255 tcp 0 0 udp 0
D. static(inside,outside) tcp 192.168.1.1 80 10.16.1.1 80
E. access-listoutside_access_in line 1 extended permit tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq http
F. access-listoutside_access_in line 1 extended permit tcp any host 10.16.1.1 eq http

Correct Answer: DEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617
Which three configuration options are available when configuring static routes on the Cisco ASA? (Choose three.)
A. Change the default metric (admin distance) from 1 to some other value.
B. Enable route tracking.
C. Specify the static route as the default tunnel gateway for VPN traffic.
D. Specify that the static route will not be removed, even if the interface shuts down.
E. Specify a tag value to the static route that can be used as a “match” value for controlling redistribution via route maps

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
On the Cisco ASA, what is the default access rule if no user-defined access lists are defined on the interfaces?

A. All inbound connections from the lower-security interfaces to the higher-security interfaces are permitted.
B. All outbound connections from the higher-security interfaces to the lower-security interfaces are permitted
C. All IP traffic between interfaces with the same security levelare permitted.
D. All IP traffic in and out of the same interface is permitted.
E. All IP traffic is denied.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617
QUESTION 52
When the Cisco ASA detects scanning attacks, how long is the attacker who is performing the scan shunned?

A. 120 seconds
B. 600 seconds
C. 1200 seconds
D. 3600 seconds
E. 6000 seconds

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
The ASA administrator wants to configure Botnet Traffic Filter using the dynamic database but it is not working properly after the initiate configuration has been entered. What other configuration is missing?
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617

A. Enabling DNS Snooping
B. Enabling Botnet Traffic Filtering on at least one of the ASA interface
C. Enabling the ASA to periodically download the dynamic database from Cisco
D. Enabling DNS inspection globally
E. Configuring the manual white and black lists

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
Which two statements about the Cisco ASA configuration is true? (Choose two.)
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617

A. NAT Control is enabled
B. The Cisco ASAis setup as the DHCP server for hosts on the inside and outside interfaces
C. All IP traffic is permitted from the inside host to the outside
D. All hosts on the inside and on the outside can access Cisco ASDM
E. Access to the CLI in privileged mode will be authenticated using the LOCAL database on the Cisco ASA
F. The ASAis using a persistent self-signed certificated so users can authenticate the Cisco ASA when accessing it via Cisco ASDM

Correct Answer: CF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
On the Cisco ASA, tcp-map can be applied to a traffic class using which MPF CLI configuration command?
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617

A. inspect
B. sysopt connection
C. tcp-options
D. parameters
E. set connection advanced-options

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
On the Cisco ASA, where are the Layer 5-7 policy maps applied?
A. inside the Layer 3-4 policy map
B. inside the Layer 3-4 class map
C. inside the Layer 5-7 class map
D. inside the Layer 3-4 service policy
E. inside the Layer 5-7 service policy

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Refer to the exhibit. Which two options will result from the Cisco ASA configuration? (Choose two.)
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617

A. The outside hosts can use the 192.168.100.1 IP address to reach the web server on the inside network.
B. The global IP address of the web server is 209.165.200.230.
C. The inside web client will use the 209.165.200.230 IP address to reach the web server and the Cisco ASA will translate the 209.165.200.230 IP address to the 192.168.100.1 IP address.
D. The Cisco ASA will translate the DNS A-Record reply from the DNS server to any inside client for the web server (web server IP = 192.168.100.1).
E. The web server will be reachable only from the inside.
F. The web server will be reachable only from the outside.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
The Cisco ASA is configured in multiple mode and the security contexts share the same outside physical interface. Which two packet classification methods can be used by the Cisco ASA to determine which security context to forward the incoming traffic from the outside interface? (Choose two.)
A. unique interface IP address
B. unique interface MAC address
C. routing table lookup
D. MAC address table lookup
E. unique global mapped IP addresses

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
With Cisco ASA active/active or active/standby stateful failover, which state information or
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617
table is not passed between the active and standby Cisco ASA by default?
A. NAT translation table
B. TCP connection states
C. UDP connection states
D. ARP table
E. HTTP connection table

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
Refer to the exhibit. What requirement is mandatory when configuring a Cisco ASA to operate in transparent firewall mode?

A. IP routing must be disabled on the Cisco ASA using the noip routing global configuration command.
B. The Cisco ASA must be configured to use the same MAC address on its outside and inside interfaces.
C. ARP inspection must be enabled on both the inside and outside interfaces using thearpinspection interface-name enable flood command.
D. Both the inside and outside interfaces must be configured with the same security level.
E. An inboundEtherType ACL is required on the inside and outside interfaces to permit ARP traffic.
F. The management IP address of the Cisco ASA configured with theip address global configuration command must belong in the 10.0.1.0/24 subnet.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The connection isawaiting outside ACK to SYN.
B. The connection is initiated from the inside.
C. The connection is active and has received inbound and outbound data.
D. The connection is an incomplete TCP connection.
E. The connection is a DNS connection.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Which five options are valid logging destinations for the Cisco ASA? (Choose five.)
A. AAA server
B. Cisco ASDM
C. buffer
D. SNMP traps
E. LDAP server
F. email
G. TCP-based securesyslog server

Correct Answer: BCDFG Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
When troubleshooting redundant interface operations on the Cisco ASA, which configuration should be verified?
A. Thenameif configuration on the member physical interfaces are identical.
B. The MAC address configuration on the member physical interfaces are identical.
C. The active interface is sending periodic hellos to the standby interface.
D. The IP address configuration on the logical redundant interface is correct.
E. The duplex and speed configuration on the logical redundant interface are correct.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 64
What mechanism is used on the Cisco ASA to map IP addresses to domain names that are contained in the botnet traffic filter dynamic database or local blacklist?
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617
A. HTTP inspection
B. DNS inspection and snooping
C. WebACL
D. dynamicbotnet database fetches (updates)
E. staticblacklist
F. static white list

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Which three statements about traffic shaping capability on the Cisco ASA are true? (Choose three.)
A. Traffic shaping can be applied to all outgoing traffic on a physical interface or in the case of the Cisco ASA 5505, on a VLAN
B. Traffic shaping can be applied in the input or output direction.
C. Traffic shaping can cause jitter and delay.
D. You can configure both traffic shaping and priorityqueueing on the same interface.
E. Traffic shaping is not supported on the Cisco ASA 5580.

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the policy map named test is true?

A. Only HTTP inspection will be applied to the TCP port 21 traffic.
B. Only FTP inspection will be applied to the TCP port 21 traffic.
C. both HTTP and FTP inspections will be applied to the TCP port 21 traffic.
D. No inspection will be applied to the TCP port 21 traffic, because the http class map configuration
conflicts with the ftp class map
E. All FTP traffic will be denied, because the FTP traffic will fail the HTTP inspection.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617
QUESTION 67
When troubleshooting a Cisco ASA (running 8.2.2) that is operating in transparent firewall mode, what should you verify to ensure proper operation?
A. The Cisco ASA has not been configured for inside static or dynamic NAT.
B. The Cisco ASA global IP address belongs to the same subnet as the directly connected interfaces.
C. The outside and inside interfaceare connected to different Layer 3 subnets.
D. The Cisco ASA is using a dedicated management interface for management access.
E. The Cisco ASA is configured for ARP inspection.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
Which Cisco ASA object group type offers the most flexibility for grouping different services together based on arbitrary protocols?
A. network
B. ICMP
C. protocol
D. TCP-UDP
E. service

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
DRAG DROP A. Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-617

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
Which three parameters are set using the set connection command within a policy map on the Cisco ASA
8.2 release? (Choose three.)
A. per-client TCP and/or UDP idle timeout
B. per-client TCP and/or UDP maximum session time
C. TCP sequence number randomization
D. maximum number of simultaneous embryonic connections
E. maximum number of simultaneous TCP and/or UDP connections
F. fragments reassembly options

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true? PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. Router RAR1 will accept only route 10.10.0.0/19 from its BGP neighbor.
B. Router RAR1 will send only route 10.10.0.0/19 to its BGP neighbor.
C. Only traffic with a destination from 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
D. Only traffic going to 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the 6.6.6.0/24 prefix?

A. If another path advertises the 6.6.6.0/24 path and has the default local preference, that path is more preferred.
B. The command neighbor send-community is configured on BGP neighbor 10.10.23.3.
C. The route 10.10.23.3 is not being advertised to other BGP neighbors.
D. Route 6.6.6.0/24 is learned by an IBGP peer.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Into which two types of areas would an area border router (ABR) inject a default route? (Choose two.)
A. the autonomous system of a different interior gateway protocol (IGP)
B. area 0
C. totally stubby
D. NSSA
E. stub
F. the autonomous system of an exterior gateway protocol (EGP)
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.)
A. No virtual links are allowed.
B. The area cannot be a backbone area.
C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D. The area has no more than 10 routers. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F. Interarea routes are suppressed.
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What are the two reasons for the appearance of 0.0.0.0 as the next hop for a network in the show ip bgp command output? (Choose two.)
A. The network was originated via redistribution of an interior gateway protocol into BGP.
B. The network was defined by a static route.
C. The network was originated via a network or aggregate command.
D. The network was learned via EBGP.
E. The network was learned via IBGP.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the partial configuration that is provided. (Choose two.)

A. All the configured neighbors are in autonomous system 100.
B. The peer group shortens the IBGP configuration.
C. The peer group shortens the EBGP configuration.
D. Only the outgoing filters are applied to BGP updates.
E. Three AS-path filters are applied to each BGP neighbor.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. All six routes will be installed in the routing table.
B. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.
C. Four routes will be installed in the routing table.
D. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.
E. All the routes were originated by BGP with the network command.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which three IP multicast related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.1.0 through 238.255.255.255 are called globally scoped addresses. They are used to multicast data between organizations and across the Internet.
B. The multicast address 224.0.0.1 is a globally scoped address that has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
C. Multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are called limited scope addresses. They are constrained to a local group or organization.
D. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 are limited scoped addresses that have been reserved for OSPF.
E. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are used for network protocols on local LAN segments. Because they are always transmitted with a Time to Live (TTL) of 1, they are never forwarded by a router.
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which three IP multicast address related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are always forwarded because they are transmitted with Time to Live (TTL) greater than 1.
B. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 are source multicast addresses for OSPF routers.
C. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.13 and 224.0.0.22 are reserved link-local addresses used by PIMv2 and IGMPv3.
D. Because they would map to overlapping IP multicast MAC addresses, multicast addresses 224.0.1.1 and 238.1.1.1 could not be used together.
E. Multicast address 224.0.1.1 has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
F. The administratively scoped multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are similar in purpose to RFC 1918 private unicast addresses.
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which three IP multicast group concepts are true? (Choose three.)
A. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, all members of the multicast group will receive it.
B. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, the multicast frame contains the source multicast address.
C. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
D. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
E. A router must be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
F. A router must be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which two multicast protocol statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Dense mode multicast requires explicit join messages from their members.
B. Dense mode multicast uses a push model to flood traffic throughout the network and then prunes the unwanted traffic.
C. Sparse mode multicast uses a pull model to send multicast traffic to where it is requested.
D. Sparse mode uses reverse path forwarding (RPF) to prune off redundant flows.
E. The primary use of sparse mode multicast is for test labs and router performance testing.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which command enables OSPF for IPv6?
A. router ospf process-id PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
B. ipv6 ospf process-id
C. ipv6 router ospf process-id
D. router ospf ipv6 process-id
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the output. What IOS command produces this output?

A. show ip ospf
B. show ip ospf interface
C. show ipv6 ospf interface
D. show ipv6 ospf

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about a voice VLAN?

A. Physically the voice network and the data network are separate.
B. The voice traffic will normally be on a different IP subnet than will the data traffic.
C. End user intervention is necessary to place the phone into the proper VLAN.
D. The same security policy should be implemented for both voice and data traffic.
E. The data VLAN must be configured as the native VLAN.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect on the trust boundary of configuring the command mls qos trust cos on the switch port that is connected to the IP phone?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. Effectively the trust boundary has been moved to the IP phone.
B. The host is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The switch is rewriting packets it receives from the IP phone and determining the CoS value.
D. The switch will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will trust the distribution layer switch to set the CoS.
E. RTP will be used to negotiate a CoS value based upon bandwidth utilization on the link.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect when the switchport priority extend cos 3 command is configured on the switch port interface connected to the IP phone?

A. Effectively, the trust boundary has been moved to the PC attached to the IP phone.
B. The computer is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The IP phone is enabled to override with a CoS value of 3 the existing CoS marking of the PC attached to the IP phone.
D. The switch will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will extend the trust boundary to the distribution layer switch.
E. RTP will be used to negotiate a CoS value based upon bandwidth utilization on the link.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which three WLAN statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. A lightweight AP receives control and configuration from a WLAN controller to which it is associated.
B. A WLAN client that is operating in half-duplex mode will delay all clients in that WLAN.
C. Ad hoc mode allows mobile clients to connect directly without an intermediate AP. D. Another term for infrastructure mode is independent service set (IBSS).
D. The Aironet 1230 access point is an example of an access point that operates solely as a lightweight access point.
E. WLANs are designed to share the medium and can easily handle an increased demand of channel contention.
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which statement is true about IP telephony calls?
A. A Voice over IP (VoIP) packet consists of the voice payload, IP header, TCP header, RTP header, and Layer 2 link header.
B. The voice carrier stream uses H.323 to set up, maintain, and tear down call endpoints.
C. Call control signaling uses Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) packets that contain actual voice samples.
D. The sum of bandwidth necessary for each major application, including voice, video, and data, should not exceed 75 percent of the total available bandwidth for each link.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which three statements are true about the voice VLAN feature on a Catalyst 2950 switch? (Choose three.)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. The CoS value is trusted for 802.1p or 802.1q tagged traffic.
B. The voice VLAN feature is disabled by default.
C. The IP phone accepts the priority of all tagged and untagged traffic and sets the CoS value to 4.
D. When the voice VLAN feature is enabled, all untagged traffic is sent according to the default CoS priority of the port.
E. PortFast is automatically disabled when a voice VLAN is configured. F. The default CoS value for incoming traffic is set to 0.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
In what three ways is QoS applied in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. No traffic marking occurs at the core layer. Layer 2/3 QoS tags are trusted from distribution layer switches and used to prioritize and queue the traffic as it traverses the core.
B. IP precedence, DSCP, QoS group, IP address, and ingress interface are Layer 2 characteristics that are set by the access layer as it passes traffic to the distribution layer. The distribution layer, once it has made a switching decision to the core layer, strips these off.
C. MAC address, Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS), the ATM cell loss priority (CLP) bit, the Frame Relay discard eligible (DE) bit, and ingress interface are established by the voice submodule (distribution layer) as traffic passes to the core layer.
D. The distribution layer inspects a frame to see if it has exceeded a predefined rate of traffic within a certain time frame, which is typically a fixed number internal to the switch. If a frame is determined to be in excess of the predefined rate limit, the CoS value can be marked up in a way that results in the packet being dropped.
E. The access layer is the initial point at which traffic enters the network. Traffic is marked (or remarked) at Layers 2 and 3 by the access switch as it enters the network, or is “trusted” that it is entering the network with the appropriate tag.
F. Traffic inbound from the access layer to the distribution layer can be trusted or reset depending upon the ability of the access layer switches. Priority access into the core is provided based on Layer 3 QoS tags.
Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A QUESTION 1
Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.)
A. No virtual links are allowed.
B. The area cannot be a backbone area.
C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D. The area has no more than 10 routers.
E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F. Interarea routes are suppressed.

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
What does the command clear ipv6 ospf process accomplish?
A. The OSPF adjacencies are cleared and initiated again.
B. The route table is cleared. Then the OSPF neighbors are reformed.
C. The shortest path first (SPF) algorithm is performed on the LSA database.
D. The OSPF database is repopulated. Then the shortest path first (SPF) algorithm is performed.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which statement is true about the Forward Information Base (FIB) table?
A. The FIB is derived from the IP routing table and is optimized for maximum lookup throughput.
B. The FIB table is derived from the Address Resolution Protocol table, and it contains Layer 2 rewrite (MAC) information for the next hop.
C. The FIB lookup is based on the Layer 2 destination MAC address.
D. When the FIB table is full, a wildcard entry redirects traffic to the Layer 3 engine.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?

A. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplex mismatch with another switch
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What does the Catalyst switch interface configuration command switchport trunk native vlan 7 accomplish?
A. configures the interface to be a trunking port and causes traffic on VLAN 7 to be 802.1q tagged
B. causes the interface to apply ISL framing for traffic on VLAN 7
C. configures the trunking interface to send traffic from VLAN 7 untagged
D. configures the trunking interface to forward traffic from VLAN 7
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output generated by the show commands, which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. All interfaces on the switch have been configured as access ports.
B. Because it has not been assigned to any VLAN, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
C. Because it is configured as a trunk interface, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
D. There are no native VLANs configured on the trunk.
E. VLAN 1 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.
F. VLAN 2 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Host A and Host B are connected to the Catalyst 3550 switch and have been
assigned to their respective VLANs. The rest of the 3550 configuration is the default configuration. Host A is
able to ping its default gateway, 10.10.10.1, but is unable to ping Host B. Given the output displayed in the
exhibit, which statement is true?

A. HSRP must be configured on SW1.
B. A separate router is required to support interVLAN routing.
C. Interface VLAN 10 must be configured on the SW1 switch.
D. The global config command ip routing must be configured on the SW1 switch.
E. VLANs 10 and 15 must be created in the VLAN database mode.
F. VTP must be configured to support interVLAN routing.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN2, VLAN3, and VLAN10 are configured on the switch D-SW1. Host computers are on VLAN 2 (10.1.2.0), servers are on VLAN 3 (10.1.3.0), and the management VLAN is on VLAN10 (10.1.10.0). Hosts are able to ping each other but are unable to reach the servers. On the basis of the exhibited output, which configuration solution could rectify the problem?

A. Enable IP routing on the switch D-SW1.
B. Configure a default route that points toward network 200.1.1.0/24.
C. Assign an IP address of 10.1.3.1/24 to VLAN3.
D. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.2.1 on each host.
E. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.10.1 on each host.
F. Configure default gateways to IP address 200.1.1.2 on each host.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. For what purpose is the command show ip cef used?

A. to display rewritten IP unicast packets
B. to display ARP resolution packets
C. to display ARP throttling
D. to display TCAM matches
E. to display CEF-based MLS lookups
F. to display entries in the Forwarding Information Base (FIB)

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. The switchport output in Figure 1 displays the default settings of interface
FastEthernet 0/13 on switch SW1. Figure 2 displays the desired interface settings. Which command
sequence would configure interface FastEthernet 0/13 as displayed in Figure 2?

A. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
B. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic auto SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan add 1,10,20
C. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
D. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10 SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
E. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
An administrator types in the command router ospf 1 and receives the error message: “OSPF process
1 cannot start.” (Output is omitted.) What should be done to correctly set up OSPF?
A. Ensure that an interface has been configured with an IP address.
B. Ensure that an interface has been configured with an IP address and is up.
C. Ensure that IP classless is enabled.
D. Ensure that the interfaces can ping their directly connected neighbors.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
E. SVI is another name for a routed port.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is verifying that a CEF FIB entry exists to destination network
192.168.150.0. Given the output generated by the show ip cef and show adjacency detail commands,
which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. entry for the destination network 192.168.150.0.
B. The “valid cached adjacency” entry indicates that CEF will put all packets going to such an adjacency to the next best switching mode.
C. The counters (0 packets, 0 bytes) indicate a problem with the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
D. There is an adjacency for the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
E. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
F. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the source IP address.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

A. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 7 LSAs. RTB will translate the type 7 LSAs into type 5 LSAs and flood them throughout the OSPF backbone.
B. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 7 LSAs. RTB will flood the type 7 LSAs throughout the backbone.
C. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 5 LSAs. RTB will flood the type 5 LSAs throughout the backbone.
D. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 5 LSAs. RTB will translate the type 5 LSAs into type 7 LSAs and flood them throughout the OSPF backbone.
E. RTA will not redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
What are two Cisco IOS commands that can be used to view neighbor adjacencies? (Choose two.)
A. show ip ospf database
B. show ip ospf neighbors
C. show ip ospf protocols
D. show ip ospf interfaces
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 16
Which enhancement was added to IGMP version 3?
A. membership query message
B. membership report message
C. leave group message
D. source filtering
E. destination filtering
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which two tasks are required to configure PIM for IP multicast routing? (Choose two.)
A. Join a multicast group.
B. Enable CGMP.
C. Enable IP multicast routing.
D. Configure the TTL threshold.
E. Enable PIM on an interface.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
What is the default metric used on IS-IS routers for each interface?
A. The cost is set to 10 for all interfaces.
B. The cost is set to 10 for LAN interfaces and 20 for WAN interfaces.
C. The cost is based on the speed of the interface.
D. The cost is based on a composite of bandwidth and delay of the interface.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
What does IS-IS use to establish and maintain neighbor relationships between IS’s?
A. IIH
B. LSP
C. CLNS
D. CLNP
E. ISH
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
What is periodically sent by a DIS on a LAN to ensure that all adjacent neighbors’ IS-IS link-state databases are synchronized?
A. complete SNP (CSNP)
B. partial SNP (PSNP)
C. database query
D. database description packet (DDP)
E. link-state summary
F. hello
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

This volume is part of the Exam Certification Guide Series from Cisco 642-892.Cisco 642-892 in this series provide officially developed exam preparation materials that offer assessment, review, and practice to help Cisco 642-892 Certification candidates identify weaknesses,concentrate their study efforts,and enhance their confidence as Cisco 642-892 exam day nears.

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