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QUESTION 21
What is the purpose of a Digital Signal Processor? (Choose One)
A. Regulates carrier line voltage
B. Generates tones recognizable to Local Exchange carriers
C. Prevents a caller from hearing their own voice
D. Coverts analog sound into digital data
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Which of the following is not an element of the Dial Plan?
A. Pretranslators
B. Delayed Ringing settings
C. Dial Plan Tables
D. Extension Lists
E. Routes
F. Settings for Extensions ranges
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 23
A Timed Router is a route that defines where calls are routed based on time of day and/or day of week using pre-selected business hours or specific time periods.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
What is the name of the 3com soft-phone application that enables a user computer to have the same features and functions as a NBX. What is the name of the 3com soft-phone application that enables a user? Computer to have the same features and functions as a NBX Telephone? (Choose One)
A. NetView
B. PcXset
C. pcSoftset
D. NetSet
E. Compliment Attendant Software
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25
Desktop Call Assistant requires NBXTSP (NBX TAPI Service Provider).
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 26
The Periodic Time-Stamp on console (PTOC) feature lets the NBX send a timestamp to a remote management console at an interval specified by the administrator.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
Changes to Hot Name, IP Address, Default Gateway and Subnet Mask require a reboot.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 28
Which of the following statements best characterizes NBX Silence Suppression ? ( Choose three.)
A. When enabled, a device that detects silence in conversation sends a small packet with a silence indicator, rather than a full packet of digitized silence
B. Receiving devices generate white noise for the time periods represented by silence indicator packets
C. Can only be enabled or disabled for the entire system
D. Enabling reduces network traffic
E. Can only be used with NBX 3102 phones
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 29
What is the name of the 3com soft-phone application that enables a user computer to have the same features and functions as a NBX. What is the name of the 3com soft-phone application that enables a user? Computer to have the same features and functions as a NBX Telephone? (Choose One)
A. NetSet
B. NetView
C. PcXset
D. Compliment Attendant Software
E. pcSoftset
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Which of the following NBX phones does not support button mappings? (Choose one.)
A. 3103
B. 3101
C. 3102
D. 3100
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
In North America ISDN-PRI uses four wire pairs to provide 23 channels and one 64 kbps D channel. This is referred to a s 3B+D?
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
Automatic Call Back Allows you to queue a transferred call on to a destination extension that is already in use (meaning one or more (but to all) of its system appearance lines are in use).
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
When is NBX Layer 3 (IP Enabled) operation required? (Choose One)
A. None of Above
B. Environment Where the NBX, Chassis and Phones and cards may be on different Ethernet LANs, VLANs and/or separated by WANs
C. Environment where the NBX, Chassis and cards are all on the same Ethernet VLAN
D. Environment where the NBX, Chassis phones and cards are all on the same Ethernet LAN
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 34
Which of the following best defines the term Hunt Group? ( Choose One.)
A. A collection of telephones where all phones will ring simultaneously allowing anyone that is part of the group to pick up the call
B. A collection of outside lines pooled and arbitrated by the call processor for outbound dialing
C. A collection of telephones that ring in a pre-determined pattern until the call is answered or forwarded to a call coverage path such as voicemail or covering extension
D. A collection of outside lines directly mapped to one or more phones
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
For MWI to Telephone Feature to function the target phone must have a MWI Retrieve Programmed button.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 36
When modifying the configuration for a user’s telephone in NetSet, selecting exclude from LCD Directory will invoke which function? (Choose one)
A. The user’s telephone extension will not display during a directory search from any NBX telephone LCD display
B. The user’s telephone extension will not display on other extensions LCDs when called
C. The user will not send Call ID information over the PSTN to telephones with LCD displays and caller ID capability
D. The user will not be able to search the NBX directory via their telephone’s LCD display
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 37
Which NBX Network Call Processors (NCPs) require a memory upgrade to reach top end device and capacity limits? ( Choose two.)
A. V3000
B. V3000 BRI-ST
C. V5000
D. V3001R
E. NBX 100
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 38
For WMI to Telephone Feature to function the target phone must have a MWI Retrieve programmed button.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 39
Convergence brings added value to the customer by reducing cabling and skills costs
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40
Account codes are numbers entered by users when dialing outbound for the purpose of associating a call with an account for billing purposes.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 41
System-wide and Personal Speed Dials can only be accessed via a feature code
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 42
Layer 3 operation is required for environments with multiple LANs where the NBX and phones may be on different Ethernet LANs, VLANs or across WANs.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 43
Which of the following statements best characterizes NBX Silence Suppression ? ( Choose three.)
A. Enabling reduces network traffic
B. Can only be enabled or disabled for the entire system
C. When enabled, a device that detects silence in conversation sends a small packet with a silence indicator, rather than a full packet of digitized silence
D. Can only be used with NBX 3102 phones
E. Receiving devices generate white noise for the time periods represented by silence indicator packets
Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 44
What is the transport mechanism used for VTLs?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. SIP
D. RTP
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 45
Before a user can access their voicemail messages or make changes to their voicemail configuration, they must first create a password, name announcement and personal greeting.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 46
Which of the following modes of operation are supported by the NBX? (Choose three.)
A. PBX Mode
B. Traditional Mode
C. Key Mode
D. Hybrid Mode
E. Simulated Mode
Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 47
A device will not receive a page if actively engaged in a call.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48
Which NBX phone has 4 fixed feature buttons, large message waiting indicator, no LCD and supports 802.3af power over Ethernet? (Choose three.)
A. 3106
B. 3101
C. 3102
D. 3103
E. 3100
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 49
The Whisper Page Feature allows you to dial an NBX extension that is involved in a conversation with another person and speak to that person without the other party on the call being able to hear you.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 50
The Admin Log (Adminlog) tracks all activities performed in NetSet utility under the administrator login. It is never renamed or deleted it. It continues to grow over time, but it is unlikely that the size of the file will ever grow to be a problem.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 51
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QUESTION 21
Desktop Call Assistant requires NBXTSP (NBX TAPI Service Provider).
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 22
Click the Task button.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: QUESTION 23
Configurable Operators gives a caller who is directed to voicemail the option of transferring to another destination, one of two different operators that a user has provisioned.
What are these two operators called? (Choose two)
A. Personal Operator
B. User Operator
C. System Operator
D. Destination Operator
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 24
For MWI to Telephone Feature to function the target phone must have a MWI Retrieve programmed button.
A. True
B. False Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25
What are the four Time of Day System Modes which can impact the automated attendants a caller hears and/or other call coverage options (destinations).
A. Open
B. Closed
C. Holiday
D. Lunch
E. Other
F. After-hours
G. Emergency Close
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 26
A device will not receive a page if actively engaged in a call.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
Which of the following is not an element of the Dial Plan? (Choose one)
A. Settings for Extension ranges
B. Extension Lists
C. Dial Plan Tables
D. Routes
E. Delayed Ringing Settings
F. Pretranslators
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 28
Click the Task button.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 29
The Dial Plan entries shown below are representative of which type of operation? (Choose one)
A. Timed Route
B. Phantom Extension
C. Alternate Carrier
D. Phantom Mailbox
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 30
The Dial Plan entries shown below are representative of which type of operation? (Choose one)
A. Timed Route
B. Phantom Extension
C. Alternate Carrier
D. Phantom Mailbox
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 31
A Timed Route is a route that defines where calls are routed based on time of day and/or day of week using pre-selected business hours or specific time periods.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 32
A pretranslator is a portion of the dial plan responsible for mapping incoming calls to internal extensions and providing Calling Line Identification Presentation (CLIP) for outgoing calls.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
Which of the following best defines the term Hunt Group? (Choose one)
A. A collection of outside lines directly mapped to one or more phones.
B. A collection of telephones where all phones will ring simultaneously allowing anyone that is part of the group to pick up the call.
C. A collection of telephones that ring in a pre-determined pattern until the call is answered or forwarded to a call coverage path such as voicemail or covering extension.
D. A collection of outside lines pooled and arbitrated by the Call Processor for outbound dialing.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 34
Which of the following best describes ACD Linear Call Distribution Method?
A. When you employ this call distribution option, the NBX system distributes calls to the first extension in the group unless that extension is busy and then the call will go to the next extension in the group. Incoming calls will progress in sequence always starting with the first extension.
B. When you employ this call distribution option, the NBX system distributes calls to the first extension in the group. The second call will go to the second extension in the group. The third call will go to the third extension in the group and so on. If an extension is busy, the call will go to the next available phone in the group. This method is sometimes referred to as round-robin.
C. When you employ this call distribution option, the NBX system distributes calls to the agent that has been waiting for a call the longest period of time.
D. When you employ this call distribution option, the NBX system distributes calls to members of an ACD Group according to the number of calls handled by each agent. The agent who has handled the fewest calls, gets the next call.
E. When you employ this call distribution option, a single call rings on all phones of the ACD Group until a member answers the call or the call times out and is routed to the group’s call coverage. This option sends only a single call at a time from the ACD queue to the group.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which of the following are accurate statements concerning Call Privacy Feature? (Choose three)
A. Configured via a Feature Code
B. Configured via Button Mappings
C. Allows a user to prevent a call from being monitored on a per call basis.
D. Allows the administrator to prevent all calls from being monitored by logging users in and out of feature.
E. Activated before or during a call
F. Can only be activated before a call
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 36
The Whisper Page feature allows you to dial an NBX extension that is involved in a conversation with another person and speak to that person without the other party on the call being able to hear you.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
Camp On allows you to queue a transferred call on to a destination extension that is already in use (meaning one or more (but not all) of its system appearance lines are in use).
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
Automatic Call Back allows you to queue a transferred call on to a destination extension that is already in use (meaning one or more (but not all) of its system appearance lines are in use).
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Account Codes are numbers entered by users when dialing outbound for the purpose of associating a call with an account for billing purposes.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40
When is NBX Layer 3 (IP enabled) operation required? (Choose one)
A. Environments where the NBX, Chassis, phones, and cards are all on the same Ethernet LAN
B. Environments where the NBX, Chassis, phones, and cards are all on the same Ethernet VLAN
C. Environments where the NBX, Chassis, phones, and cards may be on different Ethernet LANs, VLANs and/or separated by WANs
Correct Answer: C
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true? PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. Router RAR1 will accept only route 10.10.0.0/19 from its BGP neighbor.
B. Router RAR1 will send only route 10.10.0.0/19 to its BGP neighbor.
C. Only traffic with a destination from 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
D. Only traffic going to 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the 6.6.6.0/24 prefix?
A. If another path advertises the 6.6.6.0/24 path and has the default local preference, that path is more preferred.
B. The command neighbor send-community is configured on BGP neighbor 10.10.23.3.
C. The route 10.10.23.3 is not being advertised to other BGP neighbors.
D. Route 6.6.6.0/24 is learned by an IBGP peer.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Into which two types of areas would an area border router (ABR) inject a default route? (Choose two.)
A. the autonomous system of a different interior gateway protocol (IGP)
B. area 0
C. totally stubby
D. NSSA
E. stub
F. the autonomous system of an exterior gateway protocol (EGP)
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.)
A. No virtual links are allowed.
B. The area cannot be a backbone area.
C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D. The area has no more than 10 routers. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F. Interarea routes are suppressed.
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What are the two reasons for the appearance of 0.0.0.0 as the next hop for a network in the show ip bgp command output? (Choose two.)
A. The network was originated via redistribution of an interior gateway protocol into BGP.
B. The network was defined by a static route.
C. The network was originated via a network or aggregate command.
D. The network was learned via EBGP.
E. The network was learned via IBGP.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the partial configuration that is provided. (Choose two.)
A. All the configured neighbors are in autonomous system 100.
B. The peer group shortens the IBGP configuration.
C. The peer group shortens the EBGP configuration.
D. Only the outgoing filters are applied to BGP updates.
E. Three AS-path filters are applied to each BGP neighbor.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. All six routes will be installed in the routing table.
B. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.
C. Four routes will be installed in the routing table.
D. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.
E. All the routes were originated by BGP with the network command.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which three IP multicast related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.1.0 through 238.255.255.255 are called globally scoped addresses. They are used to multicast data between organizations and across the Internet.
B. The multicast address 224.0.0.1 is a globally scoped address that has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
C. Multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are called limited scope addresses. They are constrained to a local group or organization.
D. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 are limited scoped addresses that have been reserved for OSPF.
E. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are used for network protocols on local LAN segments. Because they are always transmitted with a Time to Live (TTL) of 1, they are never forwarded by a router.
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which three IP multicast address related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are always forwarded because they are transmitted with Time to Live (TTL) greater than 1.
B. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 are source multicast addresses for OSPF routers.
C. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.13 and 224.0.0.22 are reserved link-local addresses used by PIMv2 and IGMPv3.
D. Because they would map to overlapping IP multicast MAC addresses, multicast addresses 224.0.1.1 and 238.1.1.1 could not be used together.
E. Multicast address 224.0.1.1 has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
F. The administratively scoped multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are similar in purpose to RFC 1918 private unicast addresses.
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which three IP multicast group concepts are true? (Choose three.)
A. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, all members of the multicast group will receive it.
B. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, the multicast frame contains the source multicast address.
C. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
D. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
E. A router must be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
F. A router must be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which two multicast protocol statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Dense mode multicast requires explicit join messages from their members.
B. Dense mode multicast uses a push model to flood traffic throughout the network and then prunes the unwanted traffic.
C. Sparse mode multicast uses a pull model to send multicast traffic to where it is requested.
D. Sparse mode uses reverse path forwarding (RPF) to prune off redundant flows.
E. The primary use of sparse mode multicast is for test labs and router performance testing.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which command enables OSPF for IPv6?
A. router ospf process-id PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
B. ipv6 ospf process-id
C. ipv6 router ospf process-id
D. router ospf ipv6 process-id
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the output. What IOS command produces this output?
A. show ip ospf
B. show ip ospf interface
C. show ipv6 ospf interface
D. show ipv6 ospf
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about a voice VLAN?
A. Physically the voice network and the data network are separate.
B. The voice traffic will normally be on a different IP subnet than will the data traffic.
C. End user intervention is necessary to place the phone into the proper VLAN.
D. The same security policy should be implemented for both voice and data traffic.
E. The data VLAN must be configured as the native VLAN.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect on the trust boundary of configuring the command mls qos trust cos on the switch port that is connected to the IP phone?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. Effectively the trust boundary has been moved to the IP phone.
B. The host is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The switch is rewriting packets it receives from the IP phone and determining the CoS value.
D. The switch will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will trust the distribution layer switch to set the CoS.
E. RTP will be used to negotiate a CoS value based upon bandwidth utilization on the link.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect when the switchport priority extend cos 3 command is configured on the switch port interface connected to the IP phone?
A. Effectively, the trust boundary has been moved to the PC attached to the IP phone.
B. The computer is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The IP phone is enabled to override with a CoS value of 3 the existing CoS marking of the PC attached to the IP phone.
D. The switch will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will extend the trust boundary to the distribution layer switch.
E. RTP will be used to negotiate a CoS value based upon bandwidth utilization on the link.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which three WLAN statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. A lightweight AP receives control and configuration from a WLAN controller to which it is associated.
B. A WLAN client that is operating in half-duplex mode will delay all clients in that WLAN.
C. Ad hoc mode allows mobile clients to connect directly without an intermediate AP. D. Another term for infrastructure mode is independent service set (IBSS).
D. The Aironet 1230 access point is an example of an access point that operates solely as a lightweight access point.
E. WLANs are designed to share the medium and can easily handle an increased demand of channel contention.
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which statement is true about IP telephony calls?
A. A Voice over IP (VoIP) packet consists of the voice payload, IP header, TCP header, RTP header, and Layer 2 link header.
B. The voice carrier stream uses H.323 to set up, maintain, and tear down call endpoints.
C. Call control signaling uses Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) packets that contain actual voice samples.
D. The sum of bandwidth necessary for each major application, including voice, video, and data, should not exceed 75 percent of the total available bandwidth for each link.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which three statements are true about the voice VLAN feature on a Catalyst 2950 switch? (Choose three.)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. The CoS value is trusted for 802.1p or 802.1q tagged traffic.
B. The voice VLAN feature is disabled by default.
C. The IP phone accepts the priority of all tagged and untagged traffic and sets the CoS value to 4.
D. When the voice VLAN feature is enabled, all untagged traffic is sent according to the default CoS priority of the port.
E. PortFast is automatically disabled when a voice VLAN is configured. F. The default CoS value for incoming traffic is set to 0.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
In what three ways is QoS applied in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. No traffic marking occurs at the core layer. Layer 2/3 QoS tags are trusted from distribution layer switches and used to prioritize and queue the traffic as it traverses the core.
B. IP precedence, DSCP, QoS group, IP address, and ingress interface are Layer 2 characteristics that are set by the access layer as it passes traffic to the distribution layer. The distribution layer, once it has made a switching decision to the core layer, strips these off.
C. MAC address, Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS), the ATM cell loss priority (CLP) bit, the Frame Relay discard eligible (DE) bit, and ingress interface are established by the voice submodule (distribution layer) as traffic passes to the core layer.
D. The distribution layer inspects a frame to see if it has exceeded a predefined rate of traffic within a certain time frame, which is typically a fixed number internal to the switch. If a frame is determined to be in excess of the predefined rate limit, the CoS value can be marked up in a way that results in the packet being dropped.
E. The access layer is the initial point at which traffic enters the network. Traffic is marked (or remarked) at Layers 2 and 3 by the access switch as it enters the network, or is “trusted” that it is entering the network with the appropriate tag.
F. Traffic inbound from the access layer to the distribution layer can be trusted or reset depending upon the ability of the access layer switches. Priority access into the core is provided based on Layer 3 QoS tags.
Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Exam A QUESTION 1
Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.)
A. No virtual links are allowed.
B. The area cannot be a backbone area.
C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D. The area has no more than 10 routers.
E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F. Interarea routes are suppressed.
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
What does the command clear ipv6 ospf process accomplish?
A. The OSPF adjacencies are cleared and initiated again.
B. The route table is cleared. Then the OSPF neighbors are reformed.
C. The shortest path first (SPF) algorithm is performed on the LSA database.
D. The OSPF database is repopulated. Then the shortest path first (SPF) algorithm is performed.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which statement is true about the Forward Information Base (FIB) table?
A. The FIB is derived from the IP routing table and is optimized for maximum lookup throughput.
B. The FIB table is derived from the Address Resolution Protocol table, and it contains Layer 2 rewrite (MAC) information for the next hop.
C. The FIB lookup is based on the Layer 2 destination MAC address.
D. When the FIB table is full, a wildcard entry redirects traffic to the Layer 3 engine.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?
A. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplex mismatch with another switch
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What does the Catalyst switch interface configuration command switchport trunk native vlan 7 accomplish?
A. configures the interface to be a trunking port and causes traffic on VLAN 7 to be 802.1q tagged
B. causes the interface to apply ISL framing for traffic on VLAN 7
C. configures the trunking interface to send traffic from VLAN 7 untagged
D. configures the trunking interface to forward traffic from VLAN 7
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output generated by the show commands, which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. All interfaces on the switch have been configured as access ports.
B. Because it has not been assigned to any VLAN, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
C. Because it is configured as a trunk interface, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
D. There are no native VLANs configured on the trunk.
E. VLAN 1 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.
F. VLAN 2 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Host A and Host B are connected to the Catalyst 3550 switch and have been
assigned to their respective VLANs. The rest of the 3550 configuration is the default configuration. Host A is
able to ping its default gateway, 10.10.10.1, but is unable to ping Host B. Given the output displayed in the
exhibit, which statement is true?
A. HSRP must be configured on SW1.
B. A separate router is required to support interVLAN routing.
C. Interface VLAN 10 must be configured on the SW1 switch.
D. The global config command ip routing must be configured on the SW1 switch.
E. VLANs 10 and 15 must be created in the VLAN database mode.
F. VTP must be configured to support interVLAN routing.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN2, VLAN3, and VLAN10 are configured on the switch D-SW1. Host computers are on VLAN 2 (10.1.2.0), servers are on VLAN 3 (10.1.3.0), and the management VLAN is on VLAN10 (10.1.10.0). Hosts are able to ping each other but are unable to reach the servers. On the basis of the exhibited output, which configuration solution could rectify the problem?
A. Enable IP routing on the switch D-SW1.
B. Configure a default route that points toward network 200.1.1.0/24.
C. Assign an IP address of 10.1.3.1/24 to VLAN3.
D. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.2.1 on each host.
E. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.10.1 on each host.
F. Configure default gateways to IP address 200.1.1.2 on each host.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. For what purpose is the command show ip cef used?
A. to display rewritten IP unicast packets
B. to display ARP resolution packets
C. to display ARP throttling
D. to display TCAM matches
E. to display CEF-based MLS lookups
F. to display entries in the Forwarding Information Base (FIB)
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. The switchport output in Figure 1 displays the default settings of interface
FastEthernet 0/13 on switch SW1. Figure 2 displays the desired interface settings. Which command
sequence would configure interface FastEthernet 0/13 as displayed in Figure 2?
A. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
B. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic auto SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan add 1,10,20
C. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
D. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10 SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
E. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
An administrator types in the command router ospf 1 and receives the error message: “OSPF process
1 cannot start.” (Output is omitted.) What should be done to correctly set up OSPF?
A. Ensure that an interface has been configured with an IP address.
B. Ensure that an interface has been configured with an IP address and is up.
C. Ensure that IP classless is enabled.
D. Ensure that the interfaces can ping their directly connected neighbors.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
E. SVI is another name for a routed port.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is verifying that a CEF FIB entry exists to destination network
192.168.150.0. Given the output generated by the show ip cef and show adjacency detail commands,
which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. entry for the destination network 192.168.150.0.
B. The “valid cached adjacency” entry indicates that CEF will put all packets going to such an adjacency to the next best switching mode.
C. The counters (0 packets, 0 bytes) indicate a problem with the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
D. There is an adjacency for the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
E. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
F. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the source IP address.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 7 LSAs. RTB will translate the type 7 LSAs into type 5 LSAs and flood them throughout the OSPF backbone.
B. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 7 LSAs. RTB will flood the type 7 LSAs throughout the backbone.
C. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 5 LSAs. RTB will flood the type 5 LSAs throughout the backbone.
D. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 5 LSAs. RTB will translate the type 5 LSAs into type 7 LSAs and flood them throughout the OSPF backbone.
E. RTA will not redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
What are two Cisco IOS commands that can be used to view neighbor adjacencies? (Choose two.)
A. show ip ospf database
B. show ip ospf neighbors
C. show ip ospf protocols
D. show ip ospf interfaces
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 16
Which enhancement was added to IGMP version 3?
A. membership query message
B. membership report message
C. leave group message
D. source filtering
E. destination filtering
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which two tasks are required to configure PIM for IP multicast routing? (Choose two.)
A. Join a multicast group.
B. Enable CGMP.
C. Enable IP multicast routing.
D. Configure the TTL threshold.
E. Enable PIM on an interface.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
What is the default metric used on IS-IS routers for each interface?
A. The cost is set to 10 for all interfaces.
B. The cost is set to 10 for LAN interfaces and 20 for WAN interfaces.
C. The cost is based on the speed of the interface.
D. The cost is based on a composite of bandwidth and delay of the interface.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
What does IS-IS use to establish and maintain neighbor relationships between IS’s?
A. IIH
B. LSP
C. CLNS
D. CLNP
E. ISH
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
What is periodically sent by a DIS on a LAN to ensure that all adjacent neighbors’ IS-IS link-state databases are synchronized?
A. complete SNP (CSNP)
B. partial SNP (PSNP)
C. database query
D. database description packet (DDP)
E. link-state summary
F. hello
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
If no metric is specified for the routes being redistributed into IS-IS, what metric value is assigned to the routes?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 20
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
2. Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.)
A. No virtual links are allowed.
B. The area cannot be a backbone area.
C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D. The area has no more than 10 routers.
E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F. Interarea routes are suppressed.
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
3. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the partial configuration that is provided. (Choose two.)
A. All the configured neighbors are in autonomous system 100.
B. The peer group shortens the IBGP configuration.
C. The peer group shortens the EBGP configuration.
D. Only the outgoing filters are applied to BGP updates.
E. Three AS-path filters are applied to each BGP neighbor.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. All six routes will be installed in the routing table.
B. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.
C. Four routes will be installed in the routing table.
D. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.
E. All the routes were originated by BGP with the network command.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which three IP multicast related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.1.0 through 238.255.255.255 are called globally scoped addresses. They are used to multicast data between organizations and across the Internet.
B. The multicast address 224.0.0.1 is a globally scoped address that has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
C. Multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are called limited scope addresses. They are constrained to a local group or organization.
D. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 are limited scoped addresses that have been reserved for OSPF .
E. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are used for network protocols on local LAN segments. Because they are always transmitted with a Time to Live (TTL) of 1, they are never forwarded by a router.
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which three IP multicast address related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are always forwarded because they are transmitted with Time to Live (TTL) greater than 1.
B. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 are source multicast addresses for OSPF routers.
C. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.13 and 224.0.0.22 are reserved link-local addresses used by PIMv2 and IGMPv3.
D. Because they would map to overlapping IP multicast MAC addresses, multicast addresses 224.0.1.1 and 238.1.1.1 could not be used together.
E. Multicast address 224.0.1.1 has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
F. The administratively scoped multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are similar in purpose to RFC 1918 private unicast addresses.
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which three IP multicast group concepts are true? (Choose three.)
A. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, all members of the multicast group will receive it.
B. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, the multicast frame contains the source multicast address.
C. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
D. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
E. A router must be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
F. A router must be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which two multicast protocol statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Dense mode multicast requires explicit join messages from their members.
B. Dense mode multicast uses a push model to flood traffic throughout the network and then prunes the unwanted traffic.
C. Sparse mode multicast uses a pull model to send multicast traffic to where it is requested.
D. Sparse mode uses reverse path forwarding (RPF) to prune off redundant flows.
E. The primary use of sparse mode multicast is for test labs and router performance testing.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about a voice VLAN?
A. Physically the voice network and the data network are separate.
B. The voice traffic will normally be on a different IP subnet than will the data traffic.
C. End user intervention is necessary to place the phone into the proper VLAN.
D. The same security policy should be implemented for both voice and data traffic.
E. The data VLAN must be configured as the native VLAN.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect on the trust boundary of configuring the command mls qos trust cos
A. Effectively the trust boundary has been moved to the IP phone.
B. The host is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The switch is rewriting packets it receives from the IP phone and determining the CoS value.
D. The switch will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will trust the distribution layer switch to set the CoS.
E. RTP will be used to negotiate a CoS value based upon bandwidth utilization on the link.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which three WLAN statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. A lightweight AP receives control and configuration from a WLAN controller to which it is associated.
B. A WLAN client that is operating in half-duplex mode will delay all clients in that WLAN.
C. Ad hoc mode allows mobile clients to connect directly without an intermediate AP.
D. Another term for infrastructure mode is independent service set (IBSS).
E. The Aironet 1230 access point is an example of an access point that operates solely as a lightweight access point.
F. WLANs are designed to share the medium and can easily handle an increased demand of channel contention.
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which statement is true about IP telephony calls?
A. A Voice over IP (VoIP) packet consists of the voice payload, IP header, TCP header, RTP header, and Layer 2 link header.
B. The voice carrier stream uses H.323 to set up, maintain, and tear down call endpoints.
C. Call control signaling uses Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) packets that contain actual voice samples.
D. The sum of bandwidth necessary for each major application, including voice, video, and data, should not exceed 75 percent of the total available bandwidth for each link.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which three statements are true about the voice VLAN feature on a Catalyst 2950 switch? (Choose three.)
A. The CoS value is trusted for 802.1p or 802.1q tagged traffic.
B. The voice VLAN feature is disabled by default.
C. The IP phone accepts the priority of all tagged and untagged traffic and sets the CoS value to 4.
D. When the voice VLAN feature is enabled, all untagged traffic is sent according to the default CoS priority of the port.
E. PortFast is automatically disabled when a voice VLAN is configured.
F. The default CoS value for incoming traffic is set to 0.
Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which two Aironet enterprise solution statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A Cisco Aironet AP handles the transmission of beacon frames and also handles responses to probe-request frames from clients.
B. A Cisco Aironet solution includes intelligent Cisco Aironet access points (APs) and Cisco Catalyst switches.
C. In the Cisco Aironet solution, each AP is locally configured by the use of either a web interface or the command line interface.
D. The Cisco Aironet AP handles real-time portions of the LWAPP protocol, and the WLAN controller handles those items which are not time sensitive.
E. Virtual MAC architecture allows the splitting of the 802.11 protocol between the Cisco Aironet AP and a LAN switch.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which statement about the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP)is true?
A. LWAPPencrypts control traffic between the AP and the controller.
B. LWAPPencrypts user traffic with a x.509 certificate using AES-CCMP .
C. LWAPPencrypts both control traffic and user data.
D. When set to Layer 3, LWAPPuses a proprietary protocol to communicate with the Cisco Aironet APs.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements accurately describe this GLBP topology? (Choose three.)
A. RouterA is responsible for answering ARP requests sent to the virtual IP address.
B. If Router A becomes unavailable, Router B will forward packets sent to the virtual MAC address of Router A.
C. If another router were added to this GLBP group, there would be two backup AVGs.
D. Router B is in GLBP listen state.
E. Router A alternately responds to ARP requests with different virtual MAC addresses.
F. Router B will transition from blocking state to forwarding state when it becomes the AVG.
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit. Which Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) statement is true about the roles of the master virtual router and the backup virtual router?
A. RouterA is the master virtual router, and Router B is the backup virtual router. When Router A fails, Router B will become the master virtual router. When Router A recovers, Router B will maintain the role of master virtual router.
B. Router A is the master virtual router, and Router B is the backup virtual router. When Router A fails, Router B will become the master virtual router. When Router A recovers, it will regain the master virtual router role.
C. Router B is the master virtual router, and Router A is the backup virtual router. When Router B fails, Router A will become the master virtual router. When Router B recovers, Router A will maintain the role of master virtual router.
D. Router B is the master virtual router, and Router A is the backup virtual router. When Router B fails, Router A will become the master virtual router. When Router B recovers, it will regain the master virtual router role.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which issue or set of issues does the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP)address?
A. reduction of processing in wireless controllers
B. distributed approach to authentication, encryption, and policy enforcement
C. provides security by blocking communication between access points and wireless clients
D. access point discovery,information exchange, and configuration
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. When a profile is configured in the Aironet Desktop Utility, which security option permits the configuration of host-based Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)?
A. WPA/WPA2/CCKM
B. WPA/WPA2Passphrase
C. 802.1x
D. Pre-Shared Key (Static WEP)
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about where trust boundaries should be established in a network?
A. Endpoint 1 is the only acceptable place to establish a trust boundary.
B. Endpoint 1 is the optimal place to establish a trust boundary.Endpoints 2 and 3 are acceptable places to establish a trust boundary.
C. Endpoint 2 is the only acceptable place to establish a trust boundary.
D. Endpoint 2 is the optimal place to establish a trust boundary.Endpoints 1 and 3 are acceptable places to establish a trust boundary.
E. Endpoints 1 and 2 are optimal places to establish a trust boundary. Endpoint 3 is an acceptable place to establish a trust boundary.
F. Endpoints 2 and 3 are optimal places to establish a trust boundary. Endpoint 1 is an acceptable place to establish a trust boundary.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco 642-892 Exam Certification Guide presents you with an organized test preparation routine through the use of proven series elements and techniques.“Do I Know This Already?”quizzes open each chapter and allow you to decide how much time you need to spend on each section.Cisco 642-892 lists and Foundation Summary tables make referencing easy and give you a quick refresher whenever you need it.Challenging Cisco 642-892 review questions help you assess your knowledge and reinforce key concepts.Cisco 642-892 exercises help you think about exam objectives in real-world situations, thus increasing recall during exam time.