Month: September 2016
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QUESTION 31
Neil works as a project manager for SoftTech Inc. He is working with Tom, the COO of his company, on several risks within the project. Tom understands that through qualitative analysis Neil has identified many risks in the project. Tom’s concern, however, is that the priority list of these risk events are sorted in “high-risk,” “moderate-risk,” and “low-risk” as conditions apply within the project. Tom wants to know that is there any other objective on which Neil can make the priority list for project risks. What will be Neil’s reply to Tom?
A. Risk may be listed by the responses inthe near-term
B. Risks may be listed by categories
C. Risks may be listed by the additional analysis and response
D. Risks may be listed by priority separately for schedule, cost, and performance
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
In which type of access control do user ID and password system come under?
A. Administrative
B. Technical
C. Power
D. Physical
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
You and your project team are identifying the risks that may exist within your project. Some of the risks are small risks that won’t affect your project much if they happen. What should you do with these identified risk events?
A. These risks can be accepted.
B. These risks can be added to a low priority risk watch list.
C. All risks must have a valid, documented risk response.
D. These risks can be dismissed.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
Your project uses a piece of equipment that if the temperature of the machine goes above 450 degree Fahrenheit the machine will overheat and have to be shut down for 48 hours. Should this machine overheat even once it will delay the project’s end date. You work with your project to create a response that should the temperature of the machine reach 430, the machine will be paused for at least an hour to cool it down. The temperature of 430 is called what?
A. Risk identification
B. Risk response
C. Risk trigger
D. Risk event
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35
Adrian is the project manager of the NHP Project. In her project there are several work packages that deal with electrical wiring. Rather than to manage the risk internally she has decided to hire a vendor to complete all work packages that deal with the electrical wiring. By removing the risk internally to a licensed electrician Adrian feels more comfortable with project team being safe. What type of risk response has Adrian used in this example?
A. Mitigation
B. Transference
C. Avoidance
D. Acceptance
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
James work as an IT systems personnel in SoftTech Inc. He performs the following tasks:
Runs regular backups and routine tests of the validity of the backup data. Performs data restoration from
the backups whenever required. Maintains the retained records in accordance with the established
information classification policy.
What is the role played by James in the organization?
A. Manager
B. User
C. Owner
D. Custodian
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Which of the following is an entry in an object’s discretionary access control list (DACL) that grants permissions to a user or group?
A. Access control entry (ACE)
B. Discretionary access control entry (DACE)
C. Access control list (ACL)
D. Security Identifier (SID)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
You are the project manager for your organization. You have identified a risk event you’re your organization could manage internally or externally. If you manage the event internally it will cost your project $578,000 and an additional $12,000 per month the solution is in use. A vendor can manage the risk event for you. The vendor will charge $550,000 and $14,500 per month that the solution is in use. How many months will you need to use the solution to pay for the internal solution in comparison to the vendor’s solution?
A. Approximately 13 months
B. Approximately 11 months
C. Approximately 15 months
D. Approximately 8 months
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Which of the following refers to the ability to ensure that the data is not modified or tampered with?
A. Confidentiality
B. Availability
C. Integrity
D. Non-repudiation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Management wants you to create a visual diagram of what resources will be utilized in the project deliverables. What type of a chart is management asking you to create?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Resource breakdown structure
C. RACI chart
D. Roles and responsibility matrix
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
You are preparing to start the qualitative risk analysis process for your project. You will be relying on some organizational process assets to influence the process. Which one of the following is NOT a probable reason for relying on organizational process assets as an input for qualitative risk analysis?
A. Information on prior, similar projects
B. Review of vendor contracts to examine risks in past projects
C. Risk databases that may be available from industry sources
D. Studies of similar projects by risk specialists
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
System Authorization is the risk management process. System Authorization Plan (SAP) is a
comprehensive and uniform approach to the System Authorization Process. What are the different phases
of System Authorization Plan?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Pre-certification
B. Certification
C. Post-certification
D. Authorization
E. Post-Authorization
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 43
A part of a project deals with the hardware work. As a project manager, you have decided to hire a company to deal with all hardware work on the project. Which type of risk response is this?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Exploit
D. Transference
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Risks with low ratings of probability and impact are included on a ____ for future monitoring.
A. Watchlist
B. Risk alarm
C. Observation list
D. Risk register
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 45
Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system, network, or Web
application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Which of the following areas can be
exploited in a penetration test?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Social engineering
B. File and directory permissions
C. Buffer overflows
D. Kernel flaws
E. Race conditions
F. Information system architectures
G. Trojan horses
Correct Answer: ABCDEG
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QUESTION 21
One class B network 155. 16. 0. 0, the mask is 255. 255. 255. 192. Then subnet quantity available is ( ) , the host quantity in every subnet at most is ( )
A. 512 126
B. 1024 64
C. 1024 62
D. 256 254
E. 192 254
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
For network segment 192.168.2.16/28, how many hosts it can hold at most?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 15
D. 14
E. 7
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
The IP address 0. 0. 0.0 indicates ( ).
A. Network address
B. Broadcast address of specially designated network segment
C. All networks
D. Broadcast address of all nodes of local network segment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
What is the network address for 190. 233. 27. 13/16?
A. 190. 0. 0. 0
B. 190. 233. 0. 0
C. 190. 233. 27. 0
D. 190. 233. 27. 1
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Which of the following address types are reserved for multicast use?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class E
D. Class D
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 26
Which is the default network mask length of 219.25.23.56?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 27
What is the maximum bits of a Class B address can be used for subnet ?
A. 8
B. 14
C. 16
D. 22
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
The subnet mask of a class a address is 250. 205. 240. 0, how many bits are used to divide subnet?
A. 4
B. 0
C. 9
D. 12
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 29
Which of the following statements are correct regarding OSPF Router LSA ?
A. Every router running OSPF must generate Router LSA.
B. In broadcast and NBMA network, only DR0ther generates Router LSA
C. Router LSA describes link states of the router in area.
D. Router LSA is flooded in the whole AS.
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 30
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Network LSA in OSPF network?
A. Network LSA is generated by ABR.
B. Only the router which connects NBMA or Broadcast Network may generate Network LSA.
C. DR uses Network LSA to describe routers that have established adjacency relation with it in the network.
D. Network LSA is flooded in the whole AS.
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 31
Which type of LSA is only used to calculate external route?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
E. Type 5
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 32
Which of the followings are OSPF packet type ?
A. LSA
B. LS Request
C. LSP
D. LS Update
E. LS Ack
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 33
Which of the following elements together uniquely identify a LSA?
A. LS type
B. Link state ID
C. Advertising Router
D. LS Sequence number
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 34
Which of the following statements are correct regarding how OSPF detects old and duplicate LSAs?
A. The smaller the sequence number, the more recent the LSA.
B. The smaller the LS age, the more recent the LSA.
C. When router generates a new LSA at the first time, it will use Ox80000001 as the sequence number.
D. An LSA can be flushed from routing domain by setting its LSA age to \4axage.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 35
Which of the following statements are correct regarding intra-area route calculation of OSPF?
A. Every OSPF router only uses one Router LSA to describe local active link state for one area.
B. Every OSPF uses more than one Router LSA to describe local active link state for one area.
C. One Router LSA only describes one link.
D. One Router LSA describes more than one link.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 36
In OSPF, the process of calculating shortest path tree can be divided into two phases, calculate Transit
node first,
then calculate Stub network.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 37
In the process of calculating SPF tree, the cost from a node to root node equals to metric listed in the Router LSA generated by the node.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38
In OSPF protocol, which of the following elements are used to describe one link?
A. Link ID
B. Data
C. Type
D. Metric
Correct Answer: ABCD QUESTION 39
OSPF uses SPF algorithm to calculate SPF tree according to topology. What is the node of the SPF tree?
A. Router
B. Router and network segment
C. Port and network segment
D. Router and port
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 40
In OSPF protocol, which of the following elements are used by Network LSA to describe broadcast network segment or NBMA network segment?
A. Link ID
B. Net mask
C. Attached Router list
D. Metric
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 41
Which of the connection types that Router LSA can describe?
A. Point-to-point
B. Stub
C. Transit
D. Virtual link Correct Answer: ABCD
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Question No : 46 – (Topic 1)
Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs process?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk register
Answer: C
Question No : 47 – (Topic 1)
An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
A. Organizational process assets.
B. Enterprise environmental factors updates.
C. Project staff assignments.
D. Organizational charts and position descriptions.
Answer: B
Question No : 48 – (Topic 1)
The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is known as:
A. Plan Human Resource Management.
B. Acquire Project Team.
C. Manage Project Team.
D. Develop Project Team.
Answer: B
Question No : 49 – (Topic 1)
Which item is an example of personnel assessment?
A. Resource calendar
B. Tight matrix
C. Team-building activity
D. Focus group
Answer: D
Question No : 50 – (Topic 1)
The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Initiating
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling
Answer: C
Question No : 51 – (Topic 1)
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project?
A. Feedback analysis
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Communication management plan
D. Stakeholder management plan
Answer: D Question No : 52 – (Topic 1)
A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as:
A. Benchmarking.
B. Context diagrams.
C. Brainstorming.
D. Prototyping.
Answer: D
Question No : 53 – (Topic 1)
Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?
A. Power/influence grid
B. Power/interest grid
C. Influence/impact grid
D. Salience model
Answer: A
Question No : 54 – (Topic 1)
Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?
A. Facilitation techniques
B. Expert judgment
C. Analytical techniques
D. Variance analysis
Answer: C Question No : 55 – (Topic 1)
Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?
A. Control charts
B. Pareto diagrams
C. Ishikavva diagrams
D. Checksheets
Answer: D
Question No : 56 – (Topic 1)
The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:
A. Collect Requirements.
B. Conduct Procurements.
C. Estimate Activity Durations.
D. Estimate Activity Resources.
Answer: D
Question No : 57 – (Topic 1)
Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?
A. Procurement documents
B. Communications plan
C. Project charter
D. Stakeholder register
Answer: C
Question No : 58 – (Topic 1)
The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Executing
Answer: A
Question No : 59 – (Topic 1)
An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:
A. Business case.
B. Activity list.
C. Project management plan.
D. Cost forecast.
Answer: A
Question No : 60 – (Topic 1)
Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?
A. Change request
B. Requirements documentation
C. Scope baseline
D. Risk urgency assessment
Answer: A
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QUESTION 57
You are configuring NFS export settings for a share point that resides on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer. What does the “All to Nobody” mapping do?
A. It prohibits export of items and contents to users.
B. It creates the group, “Nobody”, that will be used for NFS access.
C. It tells the NFS server to identify all users by their client settings.
D. It provides all NFS users with the same file privileges as the “nobody” account.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
You have configured the folder at /Shared Items/Documents/ as an NFS share point on your Mac OS X Server at server.pretendco.com. Which URL should you provide to Mac OS X users to allow them to access the share point?
A. nfs://server.pretendco.com/
B. nfs://documents.server.pretendco.com/
C. nfs://server.pretendco.com/Documents/
D. nfs://server.pretendco.com/Shared Items/Documents/
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
Which three actions can the FTP service in Mac OS X Server perform on requested files, before
transferring them?
Choose three – partial credit is possible.
A. Decrypt requested files
B. Encrypt requested files
C. Archive requested files
D. Compress requested files
E. Convert requested files to PDF
F. Encode requested files as MacBinary
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 60
Using Server Admin in Mac OS X Server, which two options can be set for the FTP service? Choose two – partial credit is possible.
A. Enable anonymous access
B. Disable passive mode transfers
C. Maximum number of downloadable files per session
D. Maximum number of simultaneous authenticated users
E. Allow Challenge-Response Authentication Mechanism-MD5 (CRAM-MD5)
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 61
What protocol does Mac OS X Server v10.6 use to send email between mail servers?
A. POP
B. IMAP
C. MAPI
D. SMTP
E. XMPP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
What protocol does the Mail application in Mac OS X v10.6 use to send email from a client computer to a mail server for delivery?
A. POP
B. IMAP
C. LDAP
D. SMTP
E. XMPP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 63
You have set up multiple mail servers to receive email for your company. Which DNS record specifies the hostname of the mail server whose availability should be checked first when mail is being routed to an employee?
A. The A record with the priority number that is lowest
B. The A record with the priority number that is highest
C. The MX record with the priority number that is lowest
D. The MX record with the priority number that is highest
E. The PTR record with the priority number that is lowest
F. The PTR record with the priority number that is highest
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
Which of these is a blacklist server?
A. A server that provides a list of known open relay servers
B. A server that blocks outgoing email to specified domains
C. A server that sends mail to a large recipient group simultaneously
D. A server that allows anyone to send email through it without authenticating
E. A server that provides a list of email addresses that are known sources of spam
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
Which tactic will reduce the disk space required by mail service in Mac OS X Server v10.6?
A. Enable the mail service option to compress all incoming file attachments.
B. Set a mail quota to limit the amount of mail stored for each user account.
C. Set an alternate mail store location on a striped and mirrored RAID partition.
D. Enable the “Archive mail database” option for the mail service in Server Admin.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 66
You are configuring users’ mail accounts in Workgroup Manager. Which option can you define for each user?
A. mail filter type
B. mail quota size
C. mail workgroup name
D. protocol each account will use to send mail to the server
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
Using Server Admin you can configure a Mac OS X Server computer to send you an email notification when certain conditions occur. Which condition can trigger an email notification?
A. A software update is available for the server.
B. A user exceeds his or her assigned disk quota.
C. The number of users exceeds a specified limit.
D. The number of files on the server exceeds a specified limit.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 68
You have set up a Mac OS X Server computer to serve mail for a department at PretendCo. Because of security concerns, you want to make sure that your mail server only accepts mail from other mail servers on PretendCos network, which uses IP addresses 10.1.0.0 through 10.1.255.255. Which entry could you add to the list of addresses from which your server will accept relays?
A. 10.1.0.0/8
B. 10.1.0.0/16
C. 10.1.0.0/24
D. 10.1.0.0/32
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
You want to restrict access to certain pages of a website to a specific group of users. How do you password protect just a portion of your website?
A. Create a realm for the folder where the protected pages reside.
B. Assign sole ownership permissions of the website’s Documents folder to the user “www”.
C. Using Server Admin, create a second website that uses port 8080. Set the “Web Folder” setting for the new website to point to the folder of restricted content.
D. Create a group with the specified users, then set the permissions for the folder containing the protected content so that its “Group” is this new group, and “Everyone” has no access.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 70
You have set up a website for your users on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer. To prevent others from logging into the server and accessing the website files in the Finder, you changed the Everyone permissions for all of the website files to None, made yourself the owner of the website files, and assigned group ownership of the website files to a group containing only your account. Now when users try to access the website via a browser they see an “Access forbidden!” message. Which group should have been given read access to prevent this error?
A. admin
B. root
C. staff
D. wheel
E. _www
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 71
Which statement about WebDAV is true?
A. You enable WebDAV for each website individually.
B. The URL to access a WebDAV server begins with “wdav://”.
C. You define the size of a WebDAV volume using Server Admin.
D. You can only connect to a WebDAV server using a web browser.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 72
Which two logs does the Mac OS X Server web service keep by default? Choose two.
A. Hits
B. Error
C. Access
D. Request
E. Throughput
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 73
You are managing the web service on a Mac OS X Server computer. The first website on the server is
configured as the default website. You want to add a second website with the address web.example.com,
which will publish documents stored in the WebDocs folder. You have created a DNS record for
web.example.com. What three additional steps must you complete in Server Admin in order to publish the
documents on the new website?
Choose three.
A. Enable proxy caching.
B. Add a new site from the Sites pane.
C. Create a realm for the WebDocs folder.
D. Select the WebDocs folder as the site’s web folder.
E. Change the new website’s Domain Name field to web.example.com.
F. Add a new realm to define browsing/authoring permissions for web.example.com.
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 74
You are hosting the website www.pretendco.com on a Mac OS X Server computer. You have also configured a share point on Data, another volume on the server, to host networked home folders. A user with the short name alexander would like to access a website stored in his home folder on the server. What URL should he use?
A. http://www.pretendco.com/~alexander
B. http://www.pretendco.com/Users/alexander
C. http://www.pretendco.com/Data/Users/alexander
D. http://www.pretendco.com/Volumes/Data/Users/alexander
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 75
Which statement best describes the wiki in Mac OS X Server v10.6?
A. A wiki is a website that is configured to provide access to mail accounts.
B. A wiki is a series of date-stamped and chronologically-ordered entries on a website hosted by Mac OS X Server v10.6.
C. A wiki is a folder on a website hosted by Mac OS X Server v10.6, with permissions that restrict access to the files it contains.
D. A wiki is a collection of web pages that can be edited in a web browser; the web pages allow members of a group to share information.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 76
Which statement about setting up a wiki on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer is true?
A. To allow a user to create a wiki, select the “Web Services” option in the Advanced pane for the user account in Workgroup Manager.
B. To enable a website on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer to host wikis, enable the wikiblog_module for the web service in Server Admin.
C. To allow members of a group to create a wiki, select the “Web Services” option in the Advanced pane for the group account in Workgroup Manager.
D. To enable a website on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer to host wikis, select the Wikis option in the Web Services pane for the website in Server Admin.
E. To enable all websites on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer to host wikis, enable the “Wikis and blogs” option in Web Services for the Settings pane for the web service in Server Admin.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 77
Which protocol do clients of the iCal service in Mac OS X Server v10.6 use to access calendar files on the server?
A. AFP
B. FTP
C. NFS
D. SMB
E. HTTP
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 78
Which utility should you use on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer to create resources, such as rooms and projectors, in an LDAP directory so that those resources can be scheduled by iCal service users?
A. Directory
B. Address Book
C. Directory Utility
D. iCal Server Utility
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 79
What is the purpose of the federation feature in the Mac OS X Server v10.6 iChat service?
A. To allow admin users to send instant messages to all members of a given group
B. To allow iChat service users to chat with users of other instant messaging services
C. To automatically add all members of a group to the iChat buddies list for each group member
D. To allow users from different directory servers, including Active Directory, to use the iChat service
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 80
How do you configure the iChat service hosted on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer to allow only the members of a specific group account to use the iChat service?
A. In Workgroup Manager, select the group account, and turn on the iChat Account option in the Advanced pane.
B. In Server Admin, in the Settings pane of the iChat service for the server, add the allowed group account to the Allow Access list.
C. In Workgroup Manager, select all of the allowed user accounts in the group, and turn on the iChat Account option in the Advanced pane.
D. In Server Admin, in the Services pane of the Access section for the server, select the iChat service, and add a group that contains all of the allowed users to the “Allow only users and groups below” list.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 81
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QUESTION 109
You are configuring a VLAN and the switch you are using requires that you do so within the VLAN database. Which command allows you to enter the VLAN database?
A. Switch#vlan database
B. Switch (config)# vlan database
C. Switch (config-if)# vlan database
D. Switch (vlan)# vlan database
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing repeater topology? (Choose two.)
A. RF overlap between access points should be 10 to 15 percent with unique channels configured.
B. RF overlap between primary and repeater access points should be 10 to 15 percent with the same channel configured.
C. RF overlap between primary and repeater access points should be 50 percent with the same channel configured
D. RF overlap between primary and repeater access points should be 50 percent with unique channels configured.
E. Clients that are associated with the repeater access point will have 10 to 15 percent less data throughput than clients that are associated with the primary root access point.
F. Clients that are associated with the repeater access point will have 50 percent less data throughput than clients that are associated with the primary root access point
Correct Answer: CF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
:Refer to the exhibit. The Cisco Aironet 802.1 la/b/g Wireless LAN Client Adapter has two LEDs. Which two LED states indicate that the card is associated to an access point and is working properly? (Choose two.)
A. green LED off; amber LED solid
B. green LED off; amber LED blinking sporadically
C. green LED blinking quickly: amber LED blinking quickly
D. green LED blinking slowly, amber LED blinking slowly
E. green LED blinking slowly; amber LED blinking quickly
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 112
Refer to the exhibit. The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configuration of Router A and Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the sitE.to-site VPN between Router A and Router B. What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?
A. The IPSec and IKE encryption methods do not match. They all have to be either 3DES or AES.
B. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a turbo ACL (150-199).
C. The D.H Group settings on the two routers are set to group 2. They must be set to group 1 for SHA. 1.
D. The IPSec policy map names on the two routers do not match. They must be the same on both routers.
E. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
OSPF routes are being redistributed into EIGRP but they are not showing up in the routing table. What are two possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. CEF has not been enabled.
B. Synchronization has been turned off.
C. incorrect distribute lists have been configured
D. No default metric has been configured for EIGRP
E. Theip classless command is missing.
F. There are mismatched autonomous system numbers.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
Which two statements best describe the wireless implementation of Cisco Aironet root and non- root bridging? (Choose two.)
A. Point-to-point access points can be used if one is root and the other is non-root.
B. WGB can be used with an access point if the distance is less than one mile
C. Root mode must be enabled only on one side in a point-to-point link to intemperate with other vendors and comply with 802.11
D. Up to 17 non-root bridges can associate to a root bridge
E. Point-to-point WGB can be used if total number of PCs is fewer than eight. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 is the BDR
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
The customer wants to implement wireless security through implementation of WPAv2. Which component of WPAv2 would limit the rollout because of the continued use of old access points?
A. 48-bit IV
B. AES
C. TKIP
D. MIC
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 116
A company needs to provide sitE.to-site VPN, remote access VPN, and firewall protection. Which device best supports all three functions?
A. Cisco PIX
B. Cisco ASA
C. Cisco Concentrator
D. Cisco Router and Security Device Manager
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
Refer to the exhibit. R2 is always in the init state. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. R2 is seeing hello packets from R1.
B. R2 is not seeing hello packets from R1.
C. The exchanging of data between R1 and R2 is occurring because each is sending hello packets.
D. Two-way communication has not been established between R1 and R2 because R2 is not seeing its router ID in the hello packets that it is receiving from R1
E. R2 has an access list defined for SO that is blocking an OSPF multicast IP address of 224.0.0.5.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
Which two features are only supported when using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) Advanced Firewall wizard and not supported when using the Cisco SDM Basic Firewall wizard? (Choose two.)
A. deep-packet inspections
B. IP unicast Reverse Path Forwarding on the outside (untrusted) interface
C. DMZ services
D. Custom inspection rules
E. proxy authentication
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 119
:When troubleshooting poor network performance, which two symptoms would typically be associated with a network layer problem? (Choose two.)
A. Packet loss is more than 30 percent
B. There is excessive broadcast traffic.
C. There are excessive CRC errors.
D. Pings succeed only part of the time
E. Slips are detected on WAN interfaces.
F. ARP requests are timing out.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
Which command can be used to verify that RIPv2 is running on a router?
A. show startup-config
B. show ip route
C. showip route rip
D. Show ip protocols
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router.
B. Layer 2 services can be configured in a Cisco Aironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router
C. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or controllers.
D. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSM.
E. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSE.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 122
You have just configured and enabled the Cisco IOS Firewall feature set from a remote location using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) Firewall wizard. You later want to doublE. check your configuration using Cisco SDM. However, you find that you can no longer connect to the Cisco IOS Firewall using Cisco SDM.
What is the probable cause of this failure?
A. You must additionally specify the Cisco SDM management port number to gain access when the configuration has been applied.
B. You have not generated an RSA key pair between the host and device to allow secure access via Cisco SDM.
C. You have been locked out via access lists mat nave been applied to the router as a result of your Cisco SDM configuration.
D. You must specify the host IP address of Cisco SDM in the Configuration panel for allowed management connections.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 123
An 802.11 b telephone is receiving an audio signal from an access point, but cannot send audio. What is a possible cause?
A. the RSSI value on the telephone is greater than 35.
B. The access point is set to receive only at 802.11g data rates.
C. The security settings in the telephone do not match the settings in the access point.
D. The transmit power in the telephone is significantly lower than the transmit power in the access point.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Refer to the exhibit. A host on the Sales subnet (10.0.2.0/24) is not able to initiate a web connection to an outside website. According to the network diagram and partial Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager configuration shown in the exhibit, what is the cause of the problem?
A. The dynamic NAT global pool is not configured correctly.
B. The source networks for static NAT are not configured correctly.
C. The administrator has not added an access list to allow the connection.
D. The source network for dynamic NAT is not configured correctly
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
Users logging into Cisco Router and Security Device Manager should be authenticated using the Cisco ISR local user database. Currently, none of the users can access Cisco Router and Security Device Manager via HTTP. You should check the configuration of which command or commands when attempting to resolve this problem?
A. There is no ip http secure-server
B. There is ip http authentication local
C. There is linevty 0 5 login local
D. There isaaa new-model
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
When using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager to configure AAA login authentication policies, which four methods are available? (Choose four.)
A. group RADIUS: use a list of RADIUS hosts
B. group TACACS+ use a list of TACACS+ hosts
C. enable: use enable password
D. otp: use onE.time password
E. local use local database
F. default: use line password
Correct Answer: ABCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
You have just configured HSRP and need to determine which router is active. Which command should you enter?
A. show ip hsrp active
B. show standby active
C. show star
D. show active
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 128
A North American customer is using 2.4-GHz radios in a point-to-point configuration. The radio power level is 17 dBm and is transmitting at 11 Mbps. The customer is using 21.5-dBi dish antennas and 50 feet of cabling, with a loss of 8.4 dB per 100 feet. The customer increased the distance between the transmitter stations and began experiencing link problems.
Without using a professional installer, which step should the customer take to fix the situation?
A. Use a cable with a lower loss.
B. Upgrade to an 802.11a radio.
C. Install a higher gain antenna.
D. Increase the transmitter power.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
A user is unable to connect to the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager via HTTPS. Which two of these might have caused this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Theip https server command is missing from the running configuration.
B. The ip http securE.server command is missing from the running configuration
C. The user is trying to launch Cisco Router and Security Device Manager from the inside (secured) interface with a firewall enabled.
D. The user has a privilege level lower than 15.
E. The browser security level is set too high.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two.)
A. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is configured via the infrastructure access point GUI.
B. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is automatically discovered by the infrastructure access points through multicast
C. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest MAC address, followed by priority number.
D. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest priority number followed by MAC address.
E. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest IP address, followed by MAC address.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 131
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between Router A and Router B. Given the debug output on Router A, which two statements are true? (Choose two.) Router A= debug eigrp packets . m .
01:39:13:
EIGRP: Received HELLO on SerialQ 0 nbr 10.1.2.2
01:39:13:
AS 100, Flags 0x0, Seq 0/0 idbQ 00 iidbQ un/rely 0/0 peerQ un/rely 0/0
01:39:13:
K-value mismatch
A.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatchedmetriC.calculation mechanisms
E.
Router A will form an adjacency with Router B.
F.
Router A will not form an adjacency with Router B
Correct Answer: DF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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