Day: May 11, 2016

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Exam Description
The Cisco 642-035 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) is the exam associated with the Cisco Certified Network Associate certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) v1.0 course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The exam covers topics on VLSM and IPv6 addressing; extending switched networks with VLANs; configuring, verifying and troubleshooting VLANs; the VTP, RSTP, OSPF and EIGRP protocols; determining IP routes; managing IP traffic with access lists; NAT and DHCP; establishing point-to- point connections; and establishing Frame Relay connections.
Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Topic 1 – Configure, verify and troubleshoot a switch with VLANs and interswitch communications. (63 Questions) Describe enhanced switching technologies (including: VTP, RSTP, VLAN, PVSTP, 802.1q) Describe how VLANs create logically separate networks and the need for routing between them Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VLANs Configure, verify, and troubleshoot trunking on Cisco switches Configure, verify, and troubleshoot interVLAN routing Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VTP Configure, verify, and troubleshoot RSTP operation Interpret the output of various show and debug commands to verify the operational status of a Cisco switched network Implement basic switch security (including: port security, unassigned ports, trunk access, etc.)
Topic 2 – Implement IP addressing and Services(18 Questions) Calculate and apply a VLSM IP addressing design to a network Determine the appropriate classless addressing scheme using VLSM and summarization to satisfy addressing requirements in a LAN/WAN environment Describe the technological requirements for running IPv6 (including: protocols, dual stack, tunneling, etc) Describe IPv6 addresses Identify and correct common problems associated with IP addressing and host configurations
Topic 3 – Configure and troubleshoot basic operation and routing on Cisco devices. (69 Questions) Compare and contrast methods of routing and routing protocols Configure, verify and troubleshoot OSPF Configure, verify and troubleshoot EIGRP Verify configuration and connectivity using ping, traceroute, and telnet or SSH Troubleshoot routing implementation issues Verify router hardware and software operation using SHOW DEBUG commands Implement basic router security
Topic 4 – Implement, verify, and troubleshoot NAT and ACLs in a medium-size Enterprise branch office network. (20 Questions) Describe the purpose and types of access control lists Configure and apply access control lists based on network filtering requirements Configure and apply an access control list to limit telnet and SSH access to the router Verify and monitor ACL’s in a network environment Troubleshoot ACL implementation issues Explain the basic operation of NAT Configure Network Address Translation for given network requirements using CLI Troubleshoot NAT implementation issues
Topic 5 – Implement and verify WAN links. (24 Questions) Configure and verify Frame Relay on Cisco routers Troubleshoot WAN implementation issues Describe VPN technology (including: importance, benefits, role, impact, components) Configure and vary PPP connection between Cisco routers

 

Exam A
QUESTION 1
A customer is trying to boot an operating system that is installed on the eUSB on a Cisco UCS B- Series blade server; however, the boot fails. What is the cause of this failure?
A. The local disk must be the first device in the boot order.
B. eUSB is not a supported boot device.
C. eUSB support is available only on the Cisco UCS C-Series rack server.
D. eUSB is not the first device in the boot order for the server.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
A customer is troubleshooting degraded DIMM errors on a Cisco UCS blade server and would like to reset the BMC. What is the correct command sequence to reset the BMC?
A. UCS1-A# server x/y UCS1-A /chassis/server # scope bmc UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc # reset UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc* # commit-buffer
B. UCS1-A# server scope UCS1-A /chassis/server # scope bmc UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc # reset UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc* # commit-buffer
C. UCS1-A# scope server x/y UCS1-A /chassis/server # scope bmc UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc # reset UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc* # commit-buffer
D. UCS1-A# scope server x/y UCS1-A /chassis/server # scope bmc UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc* # commit-buffer

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which commands can you enter to see if a component in the Cisco UCS domain generated a core file?
A. 6100-A# scope monitoring 6100-A /monitoring # scope sysdebug 6100-A /monitoring/sysdebug # show cores Core Files: Name Fabric ID
B. 6100-A# scope sysdebug 6100-A /sysdebug # scope monitoring 6100-A /sysdebug/monitoring # show cores Core Files: Name Fabric ID
C. 6100-A# scope system 6100-A /system # scope monitoring 6100-A /system/monitoring # show cores Core Files: Name Fabric ID
D. 6100-A# scope cores 6100-A /cores # show cores Core Files: Name Fabric ID
E. 6100-A# scope logging 6100-A /logging # scope monitoring 6100-A /logging/monitoring # show cores Core Files: Name Fabric ID

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which four tech support files can you create with the Cisco UCS Manager that you can submit to Cisco TAC for support?
A. UCSM
B. disk LUNs
C. fabric extender
D. memory
E. rack server
F. chassis
G. server cache

Correct Answer: ACEF
QUESTION 5
Which protocols can be used to send to Cisco TAC (Technical Assistance Center) the show tech- support command output information about the Cisco UCS domain?
A. TFTP
B. FTP
C. SCP
D. Telnet
E. SecureTelnet

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6
The Cisco UCS Manager displays FSM information for which four of these?
A. which FSM task is being executed
B. the current state of an FSM task
C. the status of the previous FSM task
D. any error codes returned while processing
E. all completed FSM tasks
F. multiple FSM tasks that completed over multiple tries
G. multiple FSM tasks that failed
Correct Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 7
How will the Cisco UCS Manager react when all of the FSM tasks fail?
A. retries for 60 seconds
B. raises faults and alarms
C. restarts from the previous known good task
D. sends an NOC SNMP trap email

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
What should you do when you see faults during the initial setup and discovery process?
A. Take note and address the faults.
B. You can safely ignore these faults.
C. Log them and try to address the first one.
D. Reboot until the error messages go away.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
When using the Cisco UCS Manager GUI to troubleshoot a suspected bad memory, which logs contain data that are related to the faulty DIMM?
A. the System Event log and Faults log that are located under the Admin tab
B. the Events log and Faults log that are located under the Admin tab
C. the System Event log that is located under the Server tab in the Navigation panel and the Faults log that is located under the Admin tab
D. the System Event log that is located under the Equipment tab and the Faults log that is located under the Admin tab

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which three are valid tech support bundles to collect in the local management shell? (Choose three.)
A. UCSM
B. UCSM-MGMT
C. Port-Channel
D. Adapter
E. SAN
F. FEX

Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 11
The Core File Exporter automatically exports cores to a remote server as they are generated. Which protocol does it use for this action?
A. FTP
B. SCP
C. SFTP
D. TFTP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which log file in Cisco UCS Manager contains information about which user took a specific action?
A. user access log
B. system change log
C. audit log
D. access control log
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
Which statement is true about system event logs?
A. By default, they require manual clearing.
B. They report operating system crashes and errors.
C. They are also referred to as system error logs.
D. They can only be accessed from Cisco UCS Manager.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
Which piece of information does the FSM provide?
A. the current task and status
B. a collection of blade statistics
C. the last user to access the resource
D. a list of faults currently suppressed by the Cisco UCS Manager

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Which of these does not have an FSM associated with it?
A. vCenter connection
B. service profile
C. server hardware
D. service profile templates

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

Which tab would be the most useful for troubleshooting a blade discovery problem?
A. Faults
B. Events
C. FSM
D. Servers

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
RBAC is a method of restricting access for a particular user on which two of these? (Choose two.)
A. roles
B. realm
C. locales
D. RADIUS
E. LDAP

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 18
Which two types of ports does end host mode switching have? (Choose two.)
A. VSS
B. border
C. router
D. server
E. STP
F. client

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 19
In a Cisco UCS environment, what are the three power types in a power policy? (Choose three.)
A. backup
B. grid
C. redund
D. n-plus-1
E. non-redund
F. plus-1

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 20
When a service profile is disassociated from a server, what happens to the identity and connectivity information for the server?
A. It is cleared and set to the default that was setup initially by the first configuration.
B. It is maintained and can be reused.
C. It is reset to factory defaults.
D. It uses master service profile parameters.
E. It takes parameters of other servers in the service profile.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
At any given time, each server can be associated with how many service profiles?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
E. unlimited
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
In new Cisco UCS release 2.0 installations, what are the default VLAN IDs?
A. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 4048, FCOE default VLAN ID 4048
B. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 1, FCOE default VLAN ID is 3968
C. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 1, FCOE default VLAN ID is 2
D. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 2, FCOE default VLAN ID is 4047
E. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 1, FCOE default VLAN ID is 4048

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 23
If a server is not associated with a service profile, the activated firmware remains pending. Which two steps should you take? (Choose two.)
A. Manually reboot the server.
B. Reset the server to a new profile.
C. Reset the unassociated server to activate the firmware.
D. Reinitialize the firmware process with Cisco UCS Manager.
E. Download the firmware and start over.
F. Shut down gracefully and start over.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 24
After migrating a server that is configured with dynamic vNICs, Cisco UCS Manager assigns new dynamic vNICs to the server. If you had been monitoring traffic on an original dynamic vNIC, what must you do when the server comes back up?”
A. Reassign the dynamic vNIC back to the old configuration.
B. Nothing; Cisco UCS Manager will take over.
C. Reassign the service profile back to the master one.
D. Remove and reconfigure the dynamic vNIC.
E. Reassign the monitoring source.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.

Using RBAC for security in a Cisco UCS environment, what is seen in the exhibit?
A. custom role
B. default role
C. LDAP group map
D. external service profile

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.

Which of these is an extension of the virtual machine abstraction that is applied to physical servers?
A. service profile
B. compute profile
C. organization profile
D. locale profile
E. role profile

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 27
Which two Cisco Nexus 2000-Series Fabric Extenders support connections to both Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 2248TP
B. Cisco Nexus 2248TP-E
C. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
D. Cisco Nexus 2232TM

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 28
UCS-A# scope eth-uplink UCS-A /eth-uplink # scope fabric a UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric # scope interface 2 3 UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric/interface # create mon-src Monitor23 UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric/interface/mon-src* # set direction receive UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric/interface/mon-src* # commit-buffer What does the command scope interface 2 3 in the above CLI command sequence do on a Cisco UCS
blade server?
A. enters the interface command mode for the specified uplink port
B. enters the interface command mode for the specified Fabric A
C. enters the interface command mode for the specified Fabric B
D. enters slot 3 port 2 specified uplink port

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 29
A customer is configuring SAN pin groups in a Cisco UCS domain. The customer notices that pinning is not working and traffic from the vHBA is not passing over the Fibre Channel uplink port. Which of these must be done for pinning to work correctly?
A. Include the SAN pin group in a vHBA policy and then include the vHBA policy in the service profile that is assigned to that server.
B. Include the SAN policy in the Cisco UCS Manager to match with pin groups on the fabric interconnect.
C. The customer must have Cisco UCS Manager version 2.0 or above.
D. Fibre Channel switch mode needs to be configured first.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 30
A customer is configuring LAN pin groups in a Cisco UCS domain. The customer has two fabric interconnects and would like to associate the pin group with only one interconnect. Which statement about this configuration is true?
A. In a system with two fabric interconnects, you can associate the pin group with only one fabric interconnect, and the other fabric interconnect will not be usable.
B. In a system with two fabric interconnects, you can only associate the pin group with both fabric interconnects; you cannot associate the pin group with only one fabric interconnect.
C. In a system with two fabric interconnects, you can associate the pin group with only one fabric interconnect or with both fabric interconnect. This is a supported configuration.
D. This configuration is not supported in a Cisco UCS domain.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 31
A customer is configuring an upstream disjoint Layer 2 network in a Cisco UCS domain. So far they have
configured the following:
Fabric Interconnects are in switching mode.
There is symmetrical configuration for high availability.
There are no overlapping VLANs.
Each vNIC is communicating with one disjoint Layer 2 network.
After validating the above, the customer is still having issues with network connectivity. What is the issue?

A. Overlapping VLANs are allowed in a disjoint Layer 2 network.
B. The vNIC configuration is incorrect and must communicate with two or more disjoint layer 2 networks.
C. The fabric interconnect must be in end-host mode for a disjoint Layer 2 network.
D. Asymmetrical configuration for high availability needs to be configured.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
A customer is configuring a network control policy in a Cisco UCS domain. The network control policy configures the network control settings for the Cisco UCS domain, including which three of these? (Choose three.)
A. how the VIF behaves if no uplink port is available in end-host mode
B. the action that the Cisco UCS Manager takes on the remote Ethernet interface, vEthernet interface, or vFibreChannel interface when the associated border port fails
C. Layer 2 switching on the fabric interconnect
D. whether MAC registration occurs on a per-vNIC basis or for all VLANs
E. the end-host mode setting on the I/O module

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 33
A customer is troubleshooting QoS in a Cisco UCS domain due to high packet drops in the network. The customer has configured the vNIC and associated QoS policy, and changed the MTU from 1000 to 1200. Packet drops still exist. What is the cause of this issue?
A. The MTU specified here must be greater than the MTU specified in the associated QoS system class. If this MTU value is less than the MTU value in the QoS system class, packets may be dropped during data transmission.
B. The MTU specified here must be equal to or less than the MTU specified in the associated QoS system class. If this MTU value exceeds the MTU value in the QoS system class, packets may be dropped during data transmission.
C. The MTU specified here must be less than the MTU specified in the associated QoS system policy. If this MTU value exceeds the MTU value in the QoS system policy, packets may be not be dropped during data transmission.
D. The MTU must be optimized and should be changed to fc with the CLI command set mtu fc.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
A customer is configuring the dynamic vNIC connection policy in a Cisco UCS domain. Why is the dynamic vNIC policy required?
A. It is only required if you are configuring VM-FEX.
B. It is only required if you are configuring Adapter-FEX.
C. It is mainly for the Cisco UCS Manager to communicate with the fabric interconnect.
D. It is required for Cisco UCS instances that include servers with VIC adapters on which you have installed VMs and configured dynamic vNICs.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
What is the default number of dynamic vNICs that is specified by the Cisco UCS Manager when creating a dynamic vNIC connection policy?
A. 54
B. 128
C. 256
D. 257

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
Looking at the Equipment > Chassis > Servers > Server X view from the Cisco UCS Manager GUI, which tab would you select to identify the fabric interconnect uplink associated with a given virtual circuit?
A. Paths
B. vNIC Paths
C. Virtual Circuit Paths
D. VIF Paths

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
While attempting to boot a Cisco UCS server from SAN, you are unable to see the LUN. Which of these are causing the problem? (Choose three.)
A. VHBA template
B. RAID policy
C. zoning
D. LUN ID
E. vACLs
F. disjoint fabrics

Correct Answer: ACD

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Exact exams
QUESTION 1
What are two features of a bridge? (Choose two.)
A. reliable transmission
B. operate at OSI Layer 2
C. operate at OSI Layer 3
D. create multiple broadcast domains
E. create multiple collision domains
F. flood input packets to all ports
G. drop IP packets with invalid destination ports
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 2
What are three reasons that switches supersede bridges? (Choose three.)
A. Smaller frame buffers decrease latency.
B. Forward, filter, or flood frames.
C. Multiple simultaneous communications between ports.
D. Larger inspection engine allows for higher throughput.
E. Switches have many ports.
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 3
Which statement describes the purpose of the MAC address forwarding table of a switch?
A. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the best route to a destination.
B. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the output port.
C. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if the packet is routable.
D. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if access control permits the packet.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
What are two attributes of a VLAN? (Choose two.)
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 4 Cisco 640-911 Exam
A. A VLAN defines a collision domain.
B. A VLAN defines a broadcast domain.
C. Broadcasts are flooded to all VLANs.
D. Collisions are flooded to all VLANs.
E. A Layer 3 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
F. A Layer 2 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
Which four statements indicate unique properties of VLAN 1 on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose four.)
A. VLAN 1 is used to flood multicast traffic.
B. VLAN 1 cannot be deleted.
C. VLAN 1 is used for Cisco Discovery Protocol.
D. VLAN 1 is used for VTP advertisements.
E. VLAN 1 defines a collision domain.
F. VLAN 1 defines a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: BCDF
QUESTION 6
Which VTP mode disallows the creation of local VLANs?
A. transparent
B. tunneling
C. server
D. client
E. off
F. native

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which three statements are true concerning RFC 1918 IP addresses? (Choose three.)
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 5 Cisco 640-911 Exam
A. They are globally routable.
B. They are not globally routable.
C. They must not be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
D. They should be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
E. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/16, and 192.168.1.0/24.
F. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/21, and 192.168.0.0/16.

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 8
What are three reasons to migrate from IPv4 to IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. IPv6 eliminates the requirement for NAT.
B. IPv6 includes enough IP addresses to allocate more than four billion IP addresses to every person on earth.
C. IPv6 eliminates the need for VLANs.
D. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DHCP.
E. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DNS.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 9
Which two options describe services that are provided by TCP? (Choose two.)
A. session multiplexing
B. EtherTypes identify destination services
C. connection-oriented
D. best-effort packet delivery
E. binary translation
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10
Which two options represent a subnet mask that allows for a maximum of 14 available host addresses on a subnet? (Choose two.)
A. 255.255.255.240
B. 255.255.255.192
C. 255.255.240.0
D. 255.255.192.0
E. /14
F. /21
G. /26
H. /28
Correct Answer: AH
QUESTION 11
What is the binary value of the hexadecimal number 0x511?
A. 10100011001
B. 10101010101
C. 10110010001
D. 10100010001
E. 10100110011
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 12
What are three modular Layer 2 processes in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose three.)
A. UDLD
B. PIM “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 7 Cisco 640-911 Exam

C. HSRP
D. STP
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol

F. OSPF
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 13
What are three modular Layer 3 processes in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose three.)
A. UDLD
B. PIM
C. HSRP
D. STP

E. OSPF
F. Cisco Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 14
On most keyboards, the Up arrow and Down arrow keys move through the command history. Which two key sequences can be used as alternatives? (Choose two.)
A. Alt-A
B. Alt-F
C. Alt-N
D. Alt-E
E. Alt-P

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 15
Where does Cisco Nexus Operating System store the running configuration file?
A. RAM
B. flash
C. bootflash
D. volatile

E. NVRAM
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Where does Cisco Nexus Operating System store the startup configuration file?
A. RAM
B. flash
C. bootflash
D. volatile

E. NVRAM
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 17
What is the minimum required command to enter global configuration mode on a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. nexus# con “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 9 Cisco 640-911 Exam
B. nexus# configure
C. nexus# configure global
D. nexus# configure terminal

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which option would you use to exit the Cisco Nexus Operating System interface configuration mode and return to the exec prompt?
A. nexus(config-if)#Ctrl-C nexus#
B. nexus(config-if)#Ctrl-Z nexus#
C. nexus(config-if)#Ctrl-E nexus#
D. nexus(config-if)#exit nexus#
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
What is the correct format of an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny FTP traffic from any source to destination host 10.10.1.110?
A. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq ftp
B. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq ftp
C. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq ftp N5K-A(config)#access-list 101denyip any any
D. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# denyudp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
E. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 21 “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 10 Cisco 640-911 Exam N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any

Correct Answer: E
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Exam A QUESTION 1
1
Which two networking devices operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub

Correct Answer: AE QUESTION 2
2
Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address? (Choose two.)

A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 3
3
Which two network topologies are the most popular in switching? (Choose two.)

A. bus
B. token passing bus
C. star
D. extended star
E. ring

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 4
4
Which device would you select to partition a network into VLANs?

A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
5
At which layer of the OSI model does TCP operate?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
6
Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet forwarding based on destination IP address? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
7
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams?
A. datagram
B. routing
C. network
D. data link
E. transport
F. transmission
G. session
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8
8
Which three terms are used to describe data at Layers 1, 2, and 4 of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
A. PDUs
B. bits
C. sequences
D. segments
E. packets
F. frames
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 9
9
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite application layer? (Choose two.)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 10
10
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite network access layer? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
11
In an IEEE 802.3 Ethernet frame, what is the significance of the DSAP field?
A. The DSAP field specifies the TCP or UDP port that is associated with the transport protocol.
B. The DSAP field is only used on United States Department of Defense networks to indicate the information classification level.
C. The DSAP field is only used in Ethernet II frames.
D. The DSAP field indicates the network layer protocol.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
12
Which field in an Ethernet II frame performs the same function as the DSAP field in an 802.3 Ethernet frame?
A. start of frame
B. EtherType
C. frame check sequence
D. Subnetwork Access Protocol
E. Logical Link Control
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
13
What are two features of a bridge? (Choose two.)
A. reliable transmission
B. operate at OSI Layer 2
C. operate at OSI Layer 3
D. create multiple broadcast domains
E. create multiple collision domains
F. flood input packets to all ports
G. drop IP packets with invalid destination ports

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 14
14
What are three reasons that switches supersede bridges? (Choose three.)
A. Smaller frame buffers decrease latency.
B. Forward, filter, or flood frames.
C. Multiple simultaneous communications between ports.
D. Larger inspection engine allows for higher throughput.
E. Switches have many ports.

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 15
15
What action does a switch take if the destination MAC address is unknown?
A. discard frame
B. send ICMP unreachable message to source
C. flood packet on all ports
D. compare destination IP address against an ACL to determine if it is permitted
E. send gratuitous ARP on all ports and wait for reply before forwarding

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
16
Which statement describes the purpose of the MAC address forwarding table of a switch?
A. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the best route to a destination.
B. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the output port.
C. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if the packet is routable.
D. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if access control permits the packet.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
17
What are two attributes of a VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. A VLAN defines a collision domain.
B. A VLAN defines a broadcast domain.
C. Broadcasts are flooded to all VLANs.
D. Collisions are flooded to all VLANs.
E. A Layer 3 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
F. A Layer 2 device is required to route packets between VLANs.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 18
18
Which four statements indicate unique properties of VLAN 1 on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose four.)
A. VLAN 1 is used to flood multicast traffic.
B. VLAN 1 cannot be deleted.
C. VLAN 1 is used for Cisco Discovery Protocol.
D. VLAN 1 is used for VTP advertisements.
E. VLAN 1 defines a collision domain.
F. VLAN 1 defines a broadcast domain.

Correct Answer: BCDF
QUESTION 19
19
Which command displays the Trunking Native Mode VLAN on port Ethernet 1/18?
A. show running-config switchport e1/18
B. show running-config e1/18 switchport
C. show interface e1/18
D. show interface e1/18 switchport
E. show interface e1/18 native

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
20
Which VTP mode disallows the creation of local VLANs?
A. transparent
B. tunneling
C. server
D. client
E. off
F. native
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
21
Which three statements are true concerning RFC 1918 IP addresses? (Choose three.)
A. They are globally routable.
B. They are not globally routable.
C. They must not be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
D. They should be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
E. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/16, and 192.168.1.0/24.
F. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/21, and 192.168.0.0/16.

Correct Answer: BDF QUESTION 22
22
Which two statements describe the purpose of RFC 1918? (Choose two.)

A. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to the growing use of multicast video.
B. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to the growing use of peer-to-peer file-sharing applications.
C. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to use on internal networks.
D. Establish a range of IP addresses to address the shrinking pool of globally routable addresses.
E. Delay the transition to IPv6.

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 23
23
What are three reasons to migrate from IPv4 to IPv6? (Choose three.)

A. IPv6 eliminates the requirement for NAT.
B. IPv6 includes enough IP addresses to allocate more than four billion IP addresses to every person on earth.
C. IPv6 eliminates the need for VLANs.
D. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DHCP.
E. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DNS.

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 24
24
Which two options describe services that are provided by TCP? (Choose two.)

A. session multiplexing
B. EtherTypes identify destination services
C. connection-oriented
D. best-effort packet delivery
E. binary translation

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 25
25
Which two options describe services that are provided by UDP? (Choose two.)

A. session multiplexing
B. segmentation
C. connection-oriented
D. reliable packet delivery
E. best-effort packet delivery Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 26
26
Which two options represent a subnet mask that allows for a maximum of 14 available host addresses on a subnet? (Choose two.)
A. 255.255.255.240
B. 255.255.255.192
C. 255.255.240.0
D. 255.255.192.0
E. /14
F. /21
G. /26
H. /28
Correct Answer: AH
QUESTION 27
27
What is the binary value of the hexadecimal number 0x511?
A. 10100011001
B. 10101010101
C. 10110010001
D. 10100010001
E. 10100110011
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
28
What is the binary value of the decimal number 1263?
A. 11011101101
B. 10011101111
C. 10011101011
D. 11010001111
E. 10111101111
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
29
Which option is an example of a distance vector routing protocol?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. ARP
D. IS-IS
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Which option is an example of an advanced distance vector routing protocol?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF

D. ARP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
31
Which option is an example of a link-state routing protocol?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. ARP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
32
What is the maximum allowable hop count for RIPv1?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 15
E. 16
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
33
What is the default periodic interval at which RIPv1 sends routing updates?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
E. 90 seconds
F. RIPv1 only sends routing updates when the topology changes.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
34
What does RIPv1 send to its neighbors?
A. information about changed routes
B. information about new routes
C. the entire routing table
D. information about deleted routes

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
35
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 36
36
Which statement correctly describes an SVI?

A. An SVI is a Layer 2 interface and uses a dynamic MAC address.
B. An SVI cannot have an IP address assigned to it.
C. An SVI provides Layer 3 routing between VLANs.
D. Each switch port requires an SVI assignment.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
37
What is the Cisco Nexus Operating System command to define a port as a Layer 3 port?

A. port routed
B. no switchport
C. l3 switchport
D. port switching off

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38
38
Which statement is correct regarding a routed port on a multilayer switch?

A. A routed port requires an SVI definition.
B. Routed ports cannot be configured on a multilayer switch that uses SVIs.
C. A maximum of 32 routed ports can be provisioned on a given multilayer switch.
D. A routed port is a physical port that supports Layer 3 routing.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
39
On a new Cisco Nexus switch, you receive an error message when you attempt to create an SVI. What is the first command you must use to create the SVI?
A. interface vlan (vlan_id)
B. vlan (vlan_id)
C. feature svi
D. interface routed

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
40
Which command should you use to configure a Cisco Nexus switch port for Layer 2 operation?
A. nexus(config-if)#switchport
B. nexus(config-if)#layer-2
C. nexus(config-if)#routed
D. nexus(config)#interface vlan 10 nexus(config-if)#switchport

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
41
Which version of Cisco Nexus Operating System became a common operating system for Cisco Nexus switches and Cisco MDS storage switches?
A. 2.7
B. 3.3
C. 3.9
D. 4.1
E. 5.01GD
F. 6.2
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
42
What are two core features of Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose two.)
A. SNMPv3
B. RMON
C. System Manager

D. PSS
E. VRF
F. TRILL
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 43
43
What is the acronym expansion of the UDLD feature of Cisco Nexus Operating System?
A. UniDirectional Link Detection
B. Unified Data Link Distribution
C. Unified Data Loss Detection
D. Unified Directional Link Distribution
E. Unidirectional Data Loss Detection
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
44
What are four security features that are included in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco TrustSec
B. IEEE 802.1Qau
C. CoPP
D. port security
E. PIM
F. SSL VPN
G. IPsec VPN
H. ACLs
Correct Answer: ACDH