Month: April 2016
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which two are accurate statements? (Choose two.)
A. NBX 100 supports 48 VTLs
B. NBX V5000 supports 48 VTLs
C. NBX V3000 supports 48 VTLs
D. NBX V5000 supports 72 VTLs
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2
Which three office-to-office and/or office-to-remote user call options are supported by the NBX systems? (Choose three.)
A. With a single NBX system at HQ, users can call to/from a remote office across the data network WAN link using Layer 3 IP communications
B. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each site, users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL)
C. With a single NBX system at HQ and pcXset on the remote office PC, the remote user can call to/from HQ via any WAN link using TCP/IP Layer 4 communications
D. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL) using IP On-the-Fly or a Standard IP license
E. With a NBX system and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a WAN link that supports IP protocol, for example, VPN, T1, E1 and Frame Relay
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 3
Which two are features of the NBX NetSet Administration Utility? (Choose two.)
A. Allows users to sign on with a username of “user” and use their voicemail password for access
B. Is found on 3Com’s NBX systems, as well as, licensed 3rd party Ethernet-based telephony systems
C. Can be accessed through the default IP address of 192.168.1.190.
D. Can be accessed through the default IP address of 192.168.1.191.
E. Allows the administrator to sign on with a username of “administrator” and a password of “0000” for access
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 4
Which three are true statements concerning Silence Suppression? (Choose 3.)
A. Enabling Silence Suppression prioritizes voice traffic
B. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system only
C. Can be enabled or disabled only for individual telephones
D. Enabling Silence Suppression reduces network traffic
E. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system, or for individual telephones and line card ports
F. A device that detects silence in a conversation will not send any packets to the other device during the period of silence
G. A device that detects silence in conversation sends a small packet with a “silence indicator,”rather than a full packet of “digitized silence”
Correct Answer: DEG
QUESTION 5
How do NBX phones prioritize audio traffic?
A. NBX phones forward all voice packets to IEEE 802.1p aware hubs
B. NBX phones tag voice packets using DiffServ for all LAN communication
C. NBX phones use VLAN-tagged frames with the priority level automatically set to 6
D. NBX phones place audio traffic into a priority queue within the NCP, forwarding all voice traffic before forwarding data packets
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which three are prioritization mechanisms used with the NBX Communication Systems? (Choose three.)
A. IP TOS
B. Diff Serv
C. IEEE 802.3
D. IEEE 802.1p
E. ANSI 96/RS232
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 7
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to display a Tab Screen for all of the configuration options for a NBX Communication System?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: QUESTION 8
Which three are maintenance alert features on the NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Can send alert to voicemail
B. Can send alert to a pager or email
C. Can send alert to 3rd party voice messaging systems
D. Can be configured to send alerts to up to 15 mailboxes
E. Can be configured to send an alert for any physical device failure
F. Maintenance alert function is supported on the NBX 100 Communications System only
Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 9
Click theTask button.
Identify the NBX V5000 System components by dragging the descriptions to the correct location? (Choose Three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to modify the Business Information and Business Hours on an NBX Communication System?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 11
Which two devices are not supported by an NBX Analog Terminal Card (ATC) or Analog Terminal Adapter (ATA)? (Choose two.)
A. Modem
B. FAX machine
C. Cordless phone
D. Credit card reader
E. External bell or pager
F. Standard telephone that requires a DTMF connection
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 12
Which four are features of the NBX Analog Line Card? (Choose four.)
A. An NBX V5000 chassis supports only one Analog Line card at a time
B. The NBX Auto Discover Line Cards function can be used to find newly installed Analog Line Cards
C. In Key System Mode, CO lines connected to an Analog Line Card can be mapped to one or more telephones
D. Its Power Failure Jack provides access to the telephone CO in case of a NBX power failure
E. By default, when a port is mapped to multiple telephones, calls will ring at the lowest extension first, then to the next extension, until the call is answered
F. In PBX System Mode, CO lines connected to an Analog Line Card are pooled and allocated by the Call Processor for use by any phone for outbound calls
G. In Hybrid Mode, incoming calls go to an Auto Attendant only and CO lines are pooled and allocated by the Call Processor for use by any phone on the system
Correct Answer: BCDF
QUESTION 13
What is the easiest way for the NBX system administrator to set up calling permissions and/or restrictions for a group of users?
A. Define a Type of Service (ToS) and then assign the ToS to each user
B. Define a Class of Service (CoS) and then assign the CoS to each user
C. Define a User Configuration and then assign the Configuration to each user
D. Define a Type of Service (ToS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new ToS
E. Define a Class of Service (CoS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new CoS
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which four are characteristics or requirements for NBX Bridge Station Appearance (BSA) assuming only 3102 business phones are used in the customer location? (Choose four.)
A. Maps a primary phone to a secondary phone
B. Only need to configure the primary phone settings
C. Up to 16 extensions can be mapped to a common secondary phone
D. To configure BSA settings select Device Configuration / Telephones then select Button Mappings
E. Either phone can answer a call, as incoming primary-phone calls appear on primary and secondary phone
F. Incoming calls to primary phone are automatically transferred to secondary phone based on time-of-day settings
Correct Answer: ACDE
QUESTION 15
Which four Call Forward user settings are available to a user logged into NetSet on a NBX Communication System? (Choose four.)
A. Forward calls to voicemail box
B. Forward calls to an e-mail inbox
C. Disconnect (no forwarding) calls
D. Forward calls to another phone number
E. Forward calls to an Automated Attendant
F. Do not ring, which places the caller into voice mail
G. Forward calls to the LCD Directory so the caller can contact another employee if they choose
Correct Answer: ACDE QUESTION 16
A manager at extension 3002 has asked you to setup a NBX Communication System to allow an assistant at extension 1010 to filter calls. You have decided the best way to do this is Bridged Station Appearance. You have already setup the primary phones button mappings. Which is the correct extension number to add to the secondary phone Bridged Extension Number Field?
A. 1010
B. 1010-2
C. 3002
D. 3002-2
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to create or modify a Hunt Group?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: QUESTION 18
Which two are features of an NBX Calling Group? (Choose two.)
A. Member phones ring simultaneously for incoming calls
B. Calling Groups are the same as NBX Key Mode configuration
C. Up to 100 Calling Groups can be configured on an NBX 100 system
D. NBX administrator can define “ring progression” for a Calling Group
E. Member login/logout password is defined by NBX administrator using NetSet
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 19
Which three best describe how members Login/Logout of a Hunt Group? (Choose three.)
A. Group members can login and logout as their schedule requires
B. A forced login member is always logged in whether they are at their phone or not
C. To login/logout a user only needs to pickup their phone and enter their voice mail password
D. Administrator can set optional automatic logout to force a logout if an incoming call is not answered at a phone
E. All members must login only once during the day. They are automatically logged out at the end of the day based on the NBX System Business Time definition
F. A dynamic login member must login at the start of a day and will only need to login again if they are logged out after 15 minutes pass between phone calls
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 20
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to add Auto Attendants or make changes to existing Auto Attendants?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Match each 3Com Wireless Switch (WX) term with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: QUESTION 2
Which functionality is transferred from 3Com Access Points (APs) to the 3Com Wireless LAN Controller/ Switch, creating Fit APs or Managed Access Points (MAPs) with the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System?
A. Radio frequency (RF) radio, encryption and roaming
B. Encryption, roaming and security policy
C. Authentication, roaming and security policy
D. Encryption, authentication, roaming and security policy
E. Encryption, authentication and security policy
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Wireless LAN (WLAN) IEEE 802.11a Turbo Mode bonds two channels together for up to 108 Mbps data rates.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Which three steps are required to configure a non-encrypted 3Com Wireless Distribution System? (Choose three.)
A. Ensure all access points (APs) are configured for Managed Access Point (MAP) mode
B. Copy the access points (APs) to the Wireless Distribution System (WDS) configuration
C. Configure the access points (APs) for bridge mode
D. Assign each access point (AP) the same IP address
E. Configure the access points (APs) for group mode
F. Assign each access point (AP) the same Service Set ID (SSID) and radio channels
Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Arrange the steps to connect to a Wireless Network in Windows XP.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6
What can the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) do when it discovers a wireless rogue device?
A. Flood the access point (AP), causing a Denial of Service (DoS) condition
B. Verify the IP address of the rouge device and send the information to a Syslog server
C. Verify the IP address of the rouge device and send the information to the management software, which blocks future packets from the device
D. Deactivate the access point (AP) and send a message to the network management software
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Drag each 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System product to the set of features it supports.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8
What is a key alignment issue when installing an outdoor Wireless LAN (WLAN) panel antenna?
A. Identical vertical and/or horizontal polarization
B. Fresnel zone obstructions
C. Acknowledgement delay timeout (ACK) setting
D. Length of the antenna cable from the wireless bridge
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which describes the 3Com Receiver Signal Strength Indicator (RSSI) access point (AP) implementation?
A. AP displays its own signal strength and quality as a percentage value
B. AP displays neighbor AP’s signal strength and quality as a value from 0 to 255
C. AP displays its own signal strength as a value from 0 to 255
D. AP displays neighbor AP’s signal strength as a percentage value
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP Drag the 3Com product you would use for each location (A, B and C) to complete the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System solution.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: QUESTION 11
The network administrator can draw or import a JPEG or AutoCAD building floor plan using the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM).
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which three are features of 3Com Dynamic Security Link? (Choose three.)
A. Local and remote access point (AP) authentication and encryption support
B. Per user, per session dynamic key encryption
C. Internal database supporting up to 1,000 user names and passwords
D. 40-, 128- and 168-bit shared key encryption support
E. Superior wireless security for networks without a centralized authentication server
Correct Answer: BCE QUESTION 13
The 3Com Wireless LAN Access Point 8xx0 family supports a single Virtual Access Point (VAP) per RF radio installed in the unit.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
You have installed the 3Com 11a/b/g Wireless PC Card with XJACK Antenna card its software. What is the next step required in the PC Card installation before you can access the Wireless LAN (WLAN)?
A. Using Wireless LAN Profile Manager, select the PC Card icon, click “Enable,” then choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
B. Using Wireless LAN Profile Manager, create a new profile, choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
C. Using Wireless LAN Profile Manager, click “Discover” and from the discovered-list choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
D. Using Wireless Infrastructure Device Manager (WIDM), choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
DRAG DROP
Match each security protocol/standard with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: QUESTION 16
Every mobility domain should have a minimum of two seed switches assigned one main and one backup.
A. False B. True
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Which three are benefits of the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System? (Choose three.)
A. Automates access point (AP) management, i.e., adjusts traffic loads, optimizes AP power, changes AP channel assignments
B. Provides centralized management for wireless controllers/switches and Managed Access Points
C. Enhances user and group security with security profiles
D. Improves throughput of critical data with multiple priority queues and queuing algorithms on each wireless controller/switch
E. Eliminates the need to install access points (APs) throughout the building
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 18
All 3Com OfficeConnect Wireless 54 Mbps 11g PC Cards support 108 Mbps data rate in Turbo mode.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
DRAG DROP Match each 3Com wireless component with its description. Exhibit: 600-c-45.JPG
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 20
Which three types of wireless devices may be detected as rogues by the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM)? (Choose three.)
A. Unauthorized 3Com access point (AP)
B. Unauthorized 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
C. Wireless NIC running in ad-hoc mode
D. Unauthorized third-party access point
E. Authorized wireless NIC
Correct Answer: ACD
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Exam A QUESTION 1
What does the IEEE 802.11d standard specify?
A. Defines Inter Access Point Protocol (IAPP)
B. Defines MAC-based Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism
C. Defines encryption using the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
D. Defines the ability to fine tune Wireless LAN configuration at the Physical (PHY) Layer to comply with country-specific rules
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Click the Task button.
Match each IEEE 802.11 standard with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: QUESTION 3
Wireless LAN (WLAN) IEEE 802.11a Turbo Mode bonds two channels together for up to 108 Mbps data rates.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
Which two are features of a Wireless LAN (WLAN) Infrastructure Basic Service Set? (Choose two.)
A. Also known as an Ad Hoc or Peer-to-Peer WLAN
B. Members communicate directly with each other within the service area
C. Created when two or more Basic Service Sets are connected together
D. Only stations exist in the service area and no access point (AP) is used
E. Management and control of the service area is performed by the access point (AP)
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5
Click the Task button.
Match each Radio Frequency (RF) propagation issue with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6
Which antenna type is typically used indoors to provide large coverage areas within a building?
A. Dipole antenna
B. Omnipole antenna
C. Yagi or semi-directional antenna
D. Patch panel or parabolic antenna
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which statement is true for Wireless LAN (WLAN) data and throughput rates?
A. Data rates drop as the distance to the access point (AP) increases
B. Data rates drop as the distance to the access point (AP) decreases
C. Actual data throughput on a WLAN is about 25% of the defined throughput rate
D. Data rates on an IEEE 802.11a/g WLAN are not affected by distance from the access point (AP)
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
Which three are features of 3Com Dynamic Security Link? (Choose three.)
A. Per user, per session dynamic key encryption
B. 40-, 128- and 168-bit shared key encryption support
C. Internal database supporting up to 1,000 user names and passwords
D. Local and remote access point (AP) authentication and encryption support
E. Superior wireless security for networks without a centralized authentication server
Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 9
Many access points (APs) are set up with a default configuration, known as “open system” or “open system authentication,” so any station can associate and connect.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10
Click the Task button.
Match each security protocol/standard with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: QUESTION 11
What is the optimal access point (AP) channel allocation configuration on a Wireless LAN (WLAN)?
A. APs should be configured with overlapping channels
B. APs should be configured with different non-overlapping channels
C. It makes no difference if APs use overlapping or non-overlapping channels
D. Allow APs to automatically perform the hunting process to determine the best channels
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
What was a limitation of first-generation Wireless LAN (WLAN) products?
A. Were designed to be managed individually
B. Did not support roaming for mobile computers
C. Did not provide authentication or encryption services
D. Were not designed to support large number of users
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
Click the Task button.
Match each 3Com OfficeConnect wireless client product with its features.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 14
Which three are features supported on the OfficeConnect ADSL Wireless 11g Firewall Router and the 3Com OfficeConnect Wireless 11g Cable/DSL Router? (Choose three.)
A. VPN termination
B. Stateful packet inspection
C. Power over Ethernet (PoE)
D. Four 10/100 Ethernet LAN ports
E. 256-bit Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) encryption
F. 40/64-bit and 128-bit Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) encryption
Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 15
The 3Com 11a/b/g Wireless LAN Workgroup Bridge enables a laptop, PC or printer without built-in wireless capability to connect to a wireless LAN.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16
Click the Exhibit button at the bottom of the screen.
Choose the two features supported by the 3Com Wireless LAN Managed Access Point (MAP) 2750.
(Choose two.)
A. Fit access point
B. IEEE 802.1X Network Login and IPSec
C. Dual-mode radio allows operation for both IEEE 802.11b/g and IEEE 802.11a
D. Dual-mode radio allows operation for either IEEE 802.11b/g or IEEE 802.11a
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 17
Which describes the 3Com Receiver Signal Strength Indicator (RSSI) access point (AP) implementation?
A. AP displays its own signal strength as a value from 0 to 255
B. AP displays neighbor AP’s signal strength as a percentage value
C. AP displays its own signal strength and quality as a percentage value
D. AP displays neighbor AP’s signal strength and quality as a value from 0 to 255
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which two are reasons a company may choose to use a building-to-building wireless bridge versus a T1/ E1 or fiber link? (Choose two.)
A. Reliability of the connection
B. Time to deploy and set up the connection
C. The distances between the two buildings
D. The initial installation costs and/or recurring monthly charges
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 19
Which wireless building-to-building bridge distance-related parameter must be set to ensure each wireless bridge waits the appropriate period for a response from other wireless bridges?
A. Basic Rate Set
B. Broadcast Service Set Identifier (SSID)
C. Acknowledgement Delay Timeout (ACK)
D. Request to Send/Clear to Send (RTS/CTS)
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
To configure encryption on an access point (AP) that is part of a Wireless Distribution System (WDS), you must configure each AP separately, using a wired-Ethernet connected computer.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
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Exam A QUESTION 1
Which of the following routers supports version 2.41 router code?
A. 5231
B. 5232
C. 5640
D. 5680
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a standard port available on the Router 5012?
A. ISDN
B. Console
C. Serial WAN
D. 10/100 Ethernet
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
True or False: The Flexible Interface Cards (FICs) in the Router 6040 can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
True or False: The RPU can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
What kind of modules does the Router 5232 use?
A. SICs only
B. MIMs only
C. SICs and MIMs
D. SICs and FICs
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
Which of the following modules is a daughter card that fits onto the RPU2?
A. ATM
B. Enhanced Serial
C. Encryption Card
D. Memory Expansion Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
How many FIC slots does a Router 6040 have?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
Which of the following features is available on both the RPU and the RPU2?
A. SFP Interface Slot
B. CF Memory Card slot
C. Gigabit Ethernet Interfaces
D. Power and Fan LED indicators
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
What does it indicate if the LEDs on the Power Supply of the Router 6000 are as follows? ALM (red) – OFF RUN (green) ON
AC OK (red) – ON
A. Power is OFF or has failed
B. A Runtime error has occurred
C. Power is ON and voltage is normal
D. Power is ON but operating voltage is not within acceptable range
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
True or False, The Router 6080 Fans have two rotational speeds.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
True or False: The RPU2 can support a daughter card.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which of the following Network Management applications does NOT support the Router 5000/6000?
A. Enterprise Management Suite
B. 3Com Network Director Firewall
C. Router Manager
D. Switch Manager
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
The default baud rate for the Router 6040 is 9600 bps. What are the other settings?
A. 7 data bits, 2 stop bits, Even Parity
B. 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, Even Parity
C. 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, No Parity
D. 8 data bits, 0 stop bits, No Parity
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
At which prompt will you receive an error if you entered the command Interface Serial 0/0?
A. <Router>
B. [Router]
C. [Router-ospf-1]
D. [Router-Eth 1/0]
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Which command will reset the router to factory defaults?
A. undo start
B. reset start
C. reset to factory
D. reset saved-configuration
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Which interface/command shows the correct syntax to configure an IP address on a serial interface of the router 5012 on slot 1 port 0?
A. [RTA-Serial 1/0] ip interface10.1.3.1 24
B. [RTA-Serial 0/1] ip address 10.1.3.1 24
C. [RTA-Serial 1/0/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24
D. [RTA-Serial 0/1/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements is true about Router 5000/6000 series routers, with regard to TFTP?
A. They can be TFTP clients only
B. They can be TFTP servers only
C. They can be either TFTP clients or TFTP Servers
D. They do not support TFTP
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
True or False, The Router 6000 series routers have boot code and main code to upgrade while the 5000 Series Routers only have main code to upgrade.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
In a Router 5012, which command lists the files in a directory?
A. ls
B. dir
C. show list
D. display directory
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20
In the command delete /unreserved name2.bin What does /unreserved specify
A. to hide the file so that it looks deleted
B. to store the file in the recycle bin after deleting
C. to delete the file and not add it to the recycle bin
D. to perform the command immediately and not to queue the operation
Correct Answer: C
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which file system command displays the directory entries on a 3Com switch?
A. dir /all
B. cd dir /all
C. display dir
D. display dir /all
E. dir display /all
F. mkdir display /all
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of the RIP View command network network_address?
A. Enables RIP on all switches with this network address
B. Enables RIP on the switch that is configured with this IP address
C. Displays all RIP routes associated with this network address or with a subnet of this address
D. Enables RIP on all interfaces that are configured with this network address or with a subnet of this address
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which two are Super-VLAN configuration requirements/limitations on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. Up to 64 ports can be assigned to a Super-VLAN
B. Up to 64 Sub-VLANs can be assigned to a Super-VLAN
C. ARP, VRRP and DHCP are not supported on Super-VLANs
D. Sub-VLANs terminate at a router and are isolated at Layer 3
E. Super-VLANs are assigned an IP address; Sub-VLANs may not be assigned an IP address
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 4
Which Switch 5500 model(s) does not support Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)?
A. Switch 5500-EI
B. Switch 5500-SI
C. Switch 5500G-EI
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
What is the result of the command boot boot-loader file-url?
A. Reboots the switch using the file-url for the operational code
B. Updates the switch BootROM with the file-url on the system flash
C. Reboots the switch fabric only using the file-url for the operational code
D. Specifies the switch to use file-url for the operational code on the next boot
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Click on the exhibit button.
Which Switch 7700 command shows all the hardware and software information on the modules (review the output shown in the exhibit)?
A. [SW7700] display device
B. [SW7700] display version
C. [SW7700] display interfaces
D. [SW7700] display current-configuration
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 7
Click on the exhibit button.
What can be determined from the output of the display ip routing-table (based on the IP routing-table information shown in the exhibit)?
A. The default route is 200.0.0.1
B. Switch interface 1.0.0.2 is connected to network 1.0.0.0/24
C. VLAN-interface3 has two IP networks configured on the single switch
D. The most desired paths for forwarding packets are IP network 25.0.0.0 and 30.0.0.0
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which two methods can be used for day-to-day copying of switch configuration and software files on the Switch 5500/7700/8800? (Choose two.)
A. USB port with a flash drive
B. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
C. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
D. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 9
Which Switch 5500 command would display the status of the front panel Ethernet port #13 on switch unit #2?
A. [ 5500-EI ] display interface e 2/13
B. [ 5500-EI ] display interface e 2/0/13
C. [ 5500-EI ] display interface e 2/1/13
D. [ 5500-EI ] display interface e 13/0/2
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
What is the reason to connect the p port on the bottom Switch 5500 in the stack to the down port of the top Switch 5500 in the same stack?
A. Reliability – creates a resilient topology
B. Security – prevents an unauthorized user from connecting to the switch stack
C. Performance – creates the 48-Gbps eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN) Fabric
D. Management – enables Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR) on the Switch 5500-SI
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
Click on the exhibit button.
Why is it important to enable Interface Tracking for VRRP routers (based on the VRRP diagram shown in the exhibit)?
A. If a link failure occurs, the path to the virtual gateway will be blocked
B. If a link failure occurs, it takes longer for the VRRP routers to reconfigure the virtual gateway path
C. If a link failure occurs, the master router can configure a new physical link to the virtual gateway
D. If a link failure occurs, a less efficient network path may be used to forward packets to the Internet or connectivity to the Internet may be lost altogether
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Click on the exhibit button.
How many OSPF areas are configured on the Switch 8800 (Router ID 1.1.1.1) (based on the set of OSPF commands and diagram shown in the exhibit)?
A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
Click on the exhibit button.
Which IP static route command would configure Switch A with a path to Host C (based on the network diagram shown in the exhibit)?
A. [Switch A]ip route-static 1.1.3.0 255.255.255.0 1.1.1.2
B. [Switch A]ip route-static 1.1.3.2 255.255.255.0 1.1.2.2
C. [Switch A]ip route-static 1.1.4.0 255.255.255.0 1.1.2.2
D. [Switch A]ip route-static 1.1.5.0 255.255.255.0 1.1.2.2
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
What does a slow (once per second) flashing RUN LED indicate on the Switch 7700 Fabric I/O module?
A. The fabric module is faulty
B. The fabric module is running normally
C. The fabric module is faulty or out of position
D. The fabric module is booting or has not registered successfully
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
What is the result of configuring a switch port that permits traffic from all Virtual LANs (VLANs), i.e., configured as a Trunk Port?
A. All VLANs will be tagged
B. All VLANs will be untagged
C. VLAN 1 will be tagged; all other VLANs will be untagged
D. VLAN 1 will be untagged; all other VLANs will be tagged
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Which two multicast protocols cannot be enabled on the Switch 5500/7700/8800, if IGMP snooping is enabled on the VLAN interface? (Choose two.)
A. IGMP
B. PIM-DM/PIM-SM
C. Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF)
D. Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP)
E. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 17
How do you configure Ethernet ports on the Switch 5500/7700/8800 families?
A. Use the thernet command to enter the Ethernet Port View
B. Use the Portview command to enter the Ethernet Port View
C. Use the Interface command to enter the Ethernet Port View
D. Use the Configure command to enter the Ethernet Port View
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
How would you stop a specific port interface, which has no router attached, from sending and receiving RIP updates?
A. From the interface view, issue the ndo network command
B. From the interface view, issue the ndo rip work command
C. From the interface view, issue the ndo rip input command
D. From the interface view, issue the ndo rip output command
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
You have already configured and enabled individual switch ports for IEEE 802.1X Network Login. What is required for authentication to be activated on the ports?
A. From the System View, enable 802.1X Network Login
B. From the Ethernet Port View, set the port access control mode
C. From the System View, configure the authentication method for 802.1X users
D. From the Ethernet Port View, configure the authentication method, i.e., chap, pap, eap, etc.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Protocol Independent Multicast – Sparse Mode (PIM-SM) only delivers multicast traffic to network segments with active receivers that have explicitly requested the data.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Which best defines the mechanism of IEEE 802.1X Network Login?
A. An authenticator requests access to network services; the authentication server enforces authentication before allowing access to the network and validates the supplicant on behalf of the authenticator
B. A supplicant requests access to network services; the authenticator enforces authentication before allowing access to the network; the authentication server validates the supplicant on behalf of the authenticator
C. A supplicant requests access to network services; the authentication server enforces authentication before allowing access to the network; the authenticator validates the supplicant on behalf of the authentication server
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
How would you configure the Switch 5500/7700/8000 to ensure DHCP clients can communicate with the DHCP server, regardless of which network the client and server reside on?
A. Configure the switch for UDP Helper
B. Configure the switch for DHCP Relay
C. Configure all the switches as DHCP servers
D. Configure both the DHCP master and DHCP slave
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Which best describes the result of the command 5500-EI-Ethernet1/0/1]traffic-priority inbound ip-group 3010 cos video where video is defined at priority 5 in the IEEE 8021.p priority table?
A. The Switch 5500 assigns a priority of 5 to all inbound packets
B. Ethernet port 1 on switch unit ID 1 assigns a priority of 5 to all inbound packets
C. The Switch 5500 assigns a priority of 5 to all outbound packets identified by ACL 3010
D. Ethernet port 1 on switch unit ID 1 assigns a priority of 5 to all inbound packets identified by ACL 3010
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
You have previously configured a switch port as port link-type trunk. You now want the port to support packets without tagging from multiple VLANs with untagged packets?
A. Use the port link-type hybrid command
B. Use the port link-type access command
C. Use the port link-type access command followed by the port link-type trunk command
D. Use the port link-type access command followed by the port link-type hybrid command
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 25
Which three are properties of the OSPF Designated Router (DR)? (Choose three.)
A. It speaks for all of its adjacent routers in its area
B. All DRs on a network must have the same Router ID
C. The router with the lowest MAC address is elected DR
D. A router with a priority of zero will never become the DR
E. It is responsible for generating and flooding network link advertisements
Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 26
Click on the exhibit button.
Which best describes the configuration of the voice VLAN on the switch (based on the information shown in the exhibit)?
A. The voice VLAN ID is 2; it has been enabled at both the System View and Port View; and all IP phones will automatically be added to the VLAN
B. The voice VLAN ID is 2; it has been enabled only at the System View; and 3Com and Cisco IP phones will automatically be added to the VLAN
C. The voice VLAN ID is 2; 3Com and Cisco IP phones will automatically be added to the VLAN 2; and the switch filters out all Ethernet frames in the Voice VLAN whose source MAC does not match the OUI
D. The voice VLAN ID is 2; it was automatically configured; 3Com and Cisco IP phones will be recognized by the switch; and the switch allows all Ethernet frames in the Voice VLAN that are not OUI-based frames
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
What is the primary purpose for using Q-in-Q VLANs (on the Switch 7700/8800, it is referred to as VLAN-VPN)?
A. To provide a VLAN tunneling technique that is transparent to the Internet Service Provider (ISP)
B. To interconnect multiple VLANs to allow packets to be sent between the VLANs without the requirement of a router
C. To create QoS profiles that can be assigned to multiple VLANs vs. configuring each VLAN’s parameters individually
D. Enables a Service Provider to offer transport services that preserve and extend customers’ VLAN topology over a metropolitan-area network (MAN)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
Which three steps are required to configure and enable an ACL on the Switch 5500/7700/8800? (Choose three.)
A. Define the ACL
B. Create the ACL rules
C. Apply the ACL to the switch
D. Apply the ACL to an interface
E. Apply the user-defined flow template to the ACLs
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 29
What is a key reason for using Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) vs.
Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) on a network with multiple VLANs?
A. MSTP supports fast-forwarding configuration on edge ports
B. MSTP supports load balancing Virtual LANs (VLANs) across multiple data paths
C. MSTP allows you to choose the root bridge so you can eliminate the need to use VLANs on a Layer 2 network
D. MSTP allows you to configure more than one switch to be the Primary Root for a Multiple Spanning Tree Instance (MSTI) to provide better resilience when VLANs are used
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
Click on the exhibit button.
Which best describes the Switch 5500-EI Link Aggregation configuration (based on the output of the display link-aggregation verbose command shown in the exhibit)?
A. The LA group contains two links, the links were manually configured and load sharing has been turned off for the LA group
B. The LA group contains two links, the links were dynamically configured and load sharing has been turned on for the LA group
C. The LA group contains four links, the links were manually configured and load sharing has been turned on for the LA group
D. The LA group contains four links, the links were dynamically configured and load sharing has been turned off for the LA group
Correct Answer: B
related 3M0-250:https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-250.html