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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Updated: Aug 02, 2017
Q&As: 275
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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 210-260 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:
QUESTION NO: 16
A text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 12 is set to auto-enter the following formula:
FirstName & ” ” & LastNarne
FirstName and LastNarne are text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all
referenced fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any
is checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field
(Choose two.)
A. a record is first created
B. each time the value of the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified
C. a user selects the menu item Records > Relookup Field Contents
D. any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
210-260 exam Answer: A,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
Consider a FileMaker Pro 12 database with the following tables:
And the relationship is configured as follows:
Which two statements are true about this situation? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible to create new Salesperson records by importing data into the Order table.
B. Users may create new Order records by entering data into a portal on a Salesperson Detail
layout.
C. A merge field can be used on layouts based on the Salesperson table occurrence to show a list
of all of a salesperson’s orders.
D. Removing the sort from the Order side of the relationship will not change the way that Order
records are displayed in a portal on a Salesperson Detail layout.
E. List (Salesperson:: Salesperson ID) calculated from the context of the Order table returns a list
containing the Salesperson ID for the current order.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event id has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records … nor the
Delete related records … settings to be enabled for the Event table.
210-260 dumps Answer:: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an
External ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation
B. These fields may be indexed unless they are of type Summary.
C. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL when the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
D. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button
in the FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
A FileMaker Pro 12 database has two tables called Company and Customer. Both tables have a
number field called CompanyID. The two tables have a relationship between them formed by the
condition Company:: CompanyID = Customer:: CompanyID. Each table also has a text field called
CompanyName. The CompanyName field in the Customer table is defined to Auto-enter
calculated value, with the formula: Company:: CompanyName and the option Do not replace
existing value of field unchecked.
Under which circumstances will the value of the CompanyName field on a Customer record be
refreshed with data from the related Company record?
A. any time the Customer record is modified
B. any time the index of the Company:: CompanyID field is rebuilt
C. any time the related Company:: CompanyName field is modified
D. any time the CompanyID field on the Customer record is modified
E. any time a user chooses Refresh Window from the Records menu while viewing the Customer
record
210-260 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
Which statement is true about container fields in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. If one container field in a given database file is set to Store container data externally, all
container fields in that file must store their data externally
B. If a file larger than a database’s Maximum container file size value is inserted into a container
field. FileMaker Pro 12 will automatically compress the inserted file.
C. If a container field is set to Store container data externally, then the Store only a reference to
the file option is automatically selected for any file inserted into that field.
D. If the setting Generate and store thumbnails for images is chosen in the Manage Containers
dialog for a given database file, all container fields in that file will have thumbnails generated.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
Which two are directly selectable options in the Validation tab of the field options dialog in
FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two.)
A. Existing value
B. Strict data type: Integer
C. Strict data type: Time of Day
D. Strict datatype: Alphanumeric
E. Minimum number of characters
210-260 vce Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
Which two statements are true about fields using global storage in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose
two.)
A. Globally stored fields are always empty at the start of a user’s session.
B. Fields using global storage can be used as match fields in a relationship.
C. A container field using global storage may not be configured to store its data externally.
D. Globally stored fields can only be accessed from within the file in which they are defined.
E. Changes to data in globally stored fields in a shared file are stored when the server cache is
flushed.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
What is possible when working with shadow fields from an External ODBC Data Source?
A. creating a two-column value list
B. saving formatted text (bold, italic, etc.)
C. checking the Auto-complete using previously entered values checkbox in the Field/Control
Setup dialog
D. inserting binary data such as a PDF file, provided the field options are set to Store container
data externally
210-260 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
Which three field options may be set for a shadow field from an External ODBC Data Source?
(Choose three.)
A. Validation: not empty
B. Validation: unique value
C. Validation: existing value
D. Auto-enter creation timestamp
E. Auto-enter serial number, on creation
F. Storage: automatically create indexes as needed
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 26
A table in a FileMaker Pro 12 database has a text field CompanyName. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
– Validate data in this field only during data entry
– Allow user to override during data entry
– Require not empty
– Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName
field. What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides
the error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see the specified
custom message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog
from the FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors,
along with a count of those records.
210-260 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
Given a text field Full Name, Auto-Enter by Calculated value has been selected in the field
options, using the following formula:
Name First &.” “& Name Last
The developer then disables (unchecks) the option Do not replace existing value of field (if any).
For which two cases will the results of the specified formula be inserted into the field Full Name?
(Choose two.)
A. When the record is first created
B. When the field Full Name itself is modified
C. Only when the field Full Name was previously empty
D. When either of the fields Name First or Name Last is modified
E. When the field Full Name itself is modified and the record is committed
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28
A new database is created with two tables, Client and Contracts. The only modification made on
the Relationships Graph is to establish a relationship between them which is set to delete related
records in Contracts when a record in Client is deleted.
What happens when the Client table occurrence is deleted from the Relationships Graph?
A. Since it is the only occurrence of the Client table on the graph, it can not be deleted.
B. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records are deleted.
C. The formula in the calculation field Name Full (defined as Name First & ” ” & Name Last) will be
broken.
D. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records will have values
in the client id field deleted.
210-260 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
Consider two FileMaker files, Collection and Item, where tables from Item are included in the
Relationships Graph of Collection.
Which method will preserve all functionality in the Relationships Graph of Collection after
renaming the Item file to Artifact?
A. Choose File > Manage > External Data Sources… for Collection and reset the file path
B. Click the Repair Reference button in the Relationships Graph for Collection and reset the file
path
C. Delete referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and
recreate them for Artifact
D. Select referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and right
click to choose Rename File Source…
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30
Which two FileMaker Pro 12 objects will display data contents even when unrelated to the current
layout’s table occurrence? (Choose two.)
A. Merge variable
B. Indexed tirnestarnp field
C. A text field from a shadow table
D. Globally stored number field placed in a portal
E. A container field defined with the Store as reference only option enabled
Answer: A,D
210-260 vce Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what is known about this database?
A. The Event table occurrence references a table from an external ODBC Data Source
B. There can be zero or one, but no more than one, Event record related to any Task record.
C. The corner arrows indicate all three table occurrences reference tables from external data
sources.
D. From a layout based on the Event table occurrence, a portal could be drawn showing both
related Task and Volunteer data.
210-260 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
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Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Updated: Jul 17, 2017
Q&As: 402
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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 300-101 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:
QUESTION NO: 32
Which GSC describes the degree to which the application communicates directly with the
processor?
A. Data communications
B. Distributed data processing
C. Transaction rate
D. Online update
300-101 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 33
Which of the following statements is a characteristic of the GSC – complex processing?
A. Development of the application is influenced by how the development was carried out
B. Development of the application is influenced by the complexity of data communication
C. Development of the application is influenced by the complexity of the processing logic
D. None of the above
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 34
Which transactional function(s) has (have) the primary intent of presenting information to the user
and must reference a data function to retrieve data or control information?
A. EI
B. EO
C. EQ
D. Both B and C
300-101 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 35
The primary intent of an EQ is to:
A. alter the behavior of the application
B. maintain one or more ILFs
C. present information to a user
D. Both A and C
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 36
An External Inquiry is defined as an elementary process that:
A. Sends data outside the boundary
B. Sends Control Information outside the boundary
C. Has a primary intent to present information to a user through retrieval of data or control
information
D. All of the above
300-101 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 37
Which statement(s) is (are) true regarding mandatory processing logic for an EQ?
A. Data or control information is maintained
B. Conditions are analyzed to determine which are applicable
C. At least one ILF or EIF is referenced
D. Data or control information entering the boundary of the application is accepted
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 38
Which processing logic can be performed by an EQ?
A. Equivalent values are converted
B. Behavior of the application is altered
C. Derived data is created
D. Both A and B
300-101 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 39
The functional complexity of an EQ is based upon the number of:
A. RETs
B. FTRs
C. DETs
D. Both B and C
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 40
Which of the following forms of processing logic is mandatory that an EO perform at least one
(m*)?
A. Behavior of the application is altered
B. Equivalent values are converted
C. At least one ILF or EIF is referenced
D. Information is prepared and then presented outside the boundary
300-101 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 41
Which of the following statements is true regarding EOs?
A. An EO is an elementary process that sends data or control information outside the boundary.
B. An EO includes additional processing logic beyond that of an EQ.
C. An EO always maintains a data function.
D. Both A and B
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Processing logic is defined as any of the requirements specifically requested by the user to
complete an elementary process. Those requirements include which of the following actions?
A. Validations
B. Algorithms or calculations
C. Reading or maintaining a data function
D. All of the above
300-101 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 43
An External Output is defined as an elementary process that:
A. Includes addition processing beyond an external inquiry
B. Sends data outside the boundary
C. Has a primary intent to present information to a user though processing logic or in addition to
retrieval of data or control information.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 44
Which of the following statements about an External Output are true?
A. Processing logic must contain multiple mathematical formulas
B. Processing logic must perform at least one mathematical formula
C. Processing logic creates derived data
D. Processing logic contains derived data
300-101 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 45
An FTR is be defined as a:
A. data function maintained by a base functional component
B. data function read and/or maintained by a transactional function
C. base functional component maintained by a transactional function
D. base functional component read and/or maintained by a transactional function
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 46
What is the primary intent of an ILF?
A. Hold data maintained through system tools for use by the application being measured
B. Hold code data for use by the application being measured
C. Hold data maintained through one or more elementary processes of the application being
measured
D. Both A and C
300-101 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 47
Data Element Type is defined as?
A. Functionality provided to the user to meet internal or external data storage requirements
B. An attribute that further describes one or more attributes of another entity
C. Two types of the base functional components identified in the IFPUG International Standard
D. Unique, user recognizable, non-repeated attribute
Answer: D
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Exam Code: 200-105
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Updated: Jul 16, 2017
Q&As: 204
Study Material for Cisco 200-105 Dumps ICND2 Outline
- Cisco Device Management
- Troubleshooting Networks
- Network Addressing
- VLANs and Trunking
- Spanning Tree Protocol
- Advanced Switch Redundancy
- Access Layer Security
- Routing Fundamentals
- EIGRP Configuration
- OSPF Configuration
- PPP WANs
- eBGP Configuration
- Secure VPNs and Tunneling
- Intelligent Networks
- Quality of Service
Free Pass4itsure Cisco 200-105 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:
QUESTION 7
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a
server with the address of 192.168.13.26. Which commands can the administrator issue to verify that the
access list is working properly? (Choose three.)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
200-105 exam Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 9
Lab – Access List Simulation
A network associate is adding security to the configuration of the Corp1 router. The user on host C should
be able to use a web browser to access financial information from the Finance Web Server. No other hosts
from the LAN nor the Core should be able to use a web browser to access this server. Since there are
multiple resources for the corporation at this location including other resources on the Finance Web
Server, all other traffic should be allowed.
The task is to create and apply a numbered access-list with no more than three statements that will allow
ONLY host C web access to the Finance Web Server. No other hosts will have web access to the Finance
Web Server. All other traffic is permitted.
Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host.
All passwords have been temporarily set to “cisco”.
The Core connection uses an IP address of 198.18.196.65
The computers in the Hosts LAN have been assigned addresses of 192.168.33.1 – 92.168.33.254
Host A 192.168.33.1
Host B 192.168.33.2
Host C 192.168.33.3
Host D 192.168.33.4
The servers in the Server LAN have been assigned addresses of 172.22.242.17 – 172.22.242.30
The Finance Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172.22.242.23.
The Public Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172.22.242.17
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation
QUESTION 10
A sporting goods manufacturer has decided to network three (3) locations to improve efficiency in inventory
control. The routers have been named to reflect the location: Boston, Frankfurt, and Lancaster.
The necessary networking has been completed at each location, and the routers have been configured
with single area OSPF as the routing protocol. The Boston router was recently installed but connectivity is
not complete because of incomplete routing tables.
Identify and correct any problem you see in the configuration.
Note: The OSPF process must be configured to allow interfaces in specific subnets to participate in the
routing process.
Correct Answer: The question mentioned Boston router was not configured correctly or incomplete so we
should check this router first. Click on Host B to access the command line interface (CLI) of Boston router.
QUESTION 11
Why did Branch1 router lose WAN connectivity with R1 router?
A. The IP address is misconfigured on PPP multilink interface on the Branch1 router.
B. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the anch1 serial interfaces.
C. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the R1 serial interfaces.
D. The Branch1 serial interfaces are placed in a shutdown condition.
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a
device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
200-105 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
C. Only RADIUS uses TCP.
D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which IEEE standard does PVST+ use to tunnel information?
A. 802.1x
B. 802 1q
C. 802.1w
D. 802.1s
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client?
A. Ethernet
B. dialer
C. serial
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
200-105 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the
AcmeB router. What action does the router take?
A. forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface
B. forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface
C. forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface
D. forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
A. a backup route, stored in the routing table
B. a primary route, stored in the routing table
C. a backup route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the topology table
200-105 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE
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Exam Code: 70-767
Exam Name: Implementing a SQL Data Warehouse (beta)
Updated: Jul 16, 2017
Q&As: 112
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Question: 69
This Security Standard addresses the proper functions to be performed on a specific workstation as
well as the physical attributes of its surroundings,
A. information Access Management
B. Workstation Security
C. Access Control
D. Facility Access Controls
E. Workstation Use
70-767 pdf Answer: E
Question: 70
In addition to code sets, HIPAA transactions also contain:
A. Security information such as a fingerprint.
B. Privacy information.
C. Information on all business associates,
D. Information on all health care clearinghouses.
E. Identifiers.
Answer: E
Question: 71
Select the correct statement regarding the administrative requirements of The HIPAA privacy rule.
A. A covered entity must designate, and document, a privacy official, security officer and a HIPAA
compliance officer
B. A covered entity must designate, and document, the same person to be both privacy official and
as the contact person responsible for receiving complaints and providing further information about
the notice required by the regulations.
C. A covered entity must implement and maintain written or electronic policies and procedures with
respect to PHI that are designed to comply with HIPAA standards, implementation specifications and
other requirements.
D. A covered entity must train, and document the training of. at least one member of its workforce
on the policies and procedures with regard to PHI as necessary and appropriate for them to carry
out their function within the covered entity no later than the privacy rule compliance date.
E. A covered entity must retain the document required by the regulations for a period often years
from the time of it’s creation or the time it was last in effect, which ever is later
70-767 vce Answer: C
Question: 72
To comply with the Privacy Rule, a valid Notice of Privacy Practices:
A. Is required for all Chain of Trust Agreements.
B. Must allow for the patient’s written acknowledgement of receipt.
C. Must always be signed by the patient.
D. Must be signed in order for the patient’s name to be sold to a mailing list organization.
E. Is not required if an authorization is being developed.
Answer: B
Question: 73
Security to protect information assets is generally defined as having:
A. Controls
B. PRI
C. Biometrics
D. VPN technology
E. Host-based intrusion detection
70-767 dumps Answer: A
Question: 74
One characteristic of the Notice of Privacy Practices is:
A. It must be written in plain, simple language.
B. It must explicitly describe all uses of PHI.
C. A description about the usage of hidden security cameras for tracking patient movements for
implementing privacy.
D. A description of the duties of the individual.
E. A statement that the individual must abide by the terms of the Notice.
Answer: A
Question: 75
Select the FALSE statement regarding the transaction rule.
A. The Secretary is required by statue to impose penalties of at least $100 per violation on any
person or entity that fails to comply with a standard except that the total amount imposed on any
one person in each calendar year may not exceed $1 .000.000 for violations of one requirement.
B. Health plans are required to accept all standard transactions.
C. Health plans may not require providers to make changes or additions to standard transactions.
D. Health plans may not refuse or delay payment of standard transactions.
E. If additional information is added to a standard transaction it must not modify the definition,
condition, intent, or use of a data element.
70-767 exam Answer: A
Question: 76
Which of the following is primarily concerned with implementing security measures that are
sufficient to reduce risks and vulnerabilities to a reasonable and appropriate level.
A. Access Establishment and Modification
B. Isolating Health care clearinghouse Functions
C. Information System Activity Review
D. Risk Management
E. Risk Analysis
Answer: D
Question: 77
The applicable methods for HIPAA-related EDI transactions are:
A. Remote and enterprise.
B. Claim status and remittance advice.
C. Subscriber and payer.
D. Batch and real-time.
E. HCFA-1500 and 837.
Answer: D
Question: 78
A valid Notice of Privacy Practices must
A. Detail specifically all activities that are considered a use or disclosure
B. Describe in plain language what is meant by treatment, payment, and health care operations
(TPO).
C. Inform the individual that protected health information (PHI) may only be used for valid medical
research.
D. Inform the individual that this version of the Notice will always cover them, regardless of
subsequent changes.
E. State the expiration date of the Notice.
70-767 pdf Answer: B
Question: 79
The office manager of a small doctors office wants to donate several of their older workstations to
the local elementary school. Which Security Rule Standard addresses this situation?
A. Security Management Process
B. Device and Media Controls
C. information Access Management
D. Facility Access Controls
E. Workstation Security
Answer: B
Question: 80
Information in this transaction is generated by the payer’s adjudication system:
A. Eligibility (2701271)
B. Premium Payment 2O)
C. Unsolicited Claim Status (277)
D. Remittance Advice 35)
E. Functional Acknowledgment (997)
Answer: D
Question: 81
The key objective of a contingency plan is that the entity must establish and implement policies and
procedures to ensure The:
A. Creation and modification of health information during and after an emergency.
B. Integrity of health information during and after an emergency.
C. Accountability of health information during and after an emergency.
D. Vulnerability of health information during and after an emergency.
E. Non-repudiation of the entity.
70-767 vce Answer: B
Question: 82
A covered entity’ that fails to implement the HIPAA Privacy Rule would risk:
A. $50O0 in fines.
B. $5000 in fines and six months in prison.
C. An annual cap of $5000 in fines.
D. A fine of up to $50000 if they wrongfully disclose PHI.
E. Six months in prison.
Answer: D
Question: 83
This transaction supports multiple functions. These functions include: telling a bank to move money
OR telling a bank to move money while sending remittance information
A. 277.
B. 276
C. 271
D. 820.
E. 270.
70-767 dumps Answer: D
Question: 84
When PHI is sent or received over an electronic network there must be measures to guard against
unauthorized access. This is covered under which security rule standard?
A. Device and Media Controls
B. Access Controls
C. Transmission Security
D. Integrity
E. Audit Controls
Answer: C
Question: 85
Title 1 of the HIPAA legislation in the United States is about:
A. P1<1 requirements for hospitals and health care providers.
B. Encryption algorithms that must be supported by hospitals and health care providers.
C. Fraud and abuse in the health care system and ways to eliminate the same.
D. Guaranteed health insurance coverage to workers and their families when they change
employers.
E. The use of strong authentication technology that must be supported by hospitals and health care
providers.
Answer: D
Question: 86
Implementing policies and procedures to prevent, detect, contain, and correct security violations is
required by which security standard?
A. Security incident Procedures
B. Assigned Security Responsibility
C. Access control
D. Facility Access Controls
E. Security Management Process
Answer: E
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The MCDBA certification is targeted at the following job functions that use Microsoft Windows and back office applications:
- Database Administrator
- Database Analyst
- Database Developer
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MCDBA Exam Requirements Included In Specialized Lead4pass:
Microsoft Certified Database Administrator (MCDBA) on Microsoft SQL Server™ 2000 candidates need to pass three core exams and one elective exam that provide a valid and reliable measure of technical proficiency and expertise in the Lead4pass implementation and administration of SQL Server databases.
Microsoft is integrating Microsoft Windows® XP Professional and Microsoft Lead4pass NET Enterprise Servers exams into the MCDBA on Microsoft SQL Server 2000 certification. Individuals should continue to pursue training and certification in Windows 2000, as skills acquired for Windows 2000 will be highly relevant to and provide a critical foundation for Windows XP Professional and Lead4pass NET Enterprise Servers.
Lead4pass 070-447 Questions & Answers
Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCDBA
Exam Name: UPGRADE:MCDBA Skills to MCITP DB Admin by Using MS SQL 2005
Exam Code: 070-447
Total Questions: 137 Q&As
Last Updated: May 05, 2017
Exam Information:
QUESTION 1
When using a proxy server to manage how BlackBerry Smartphone connect to web pages, what are the types available for creating a proxy profile?
A. SQUID, Microsoft ISA
B. Manual configuration, PAC configuration
C. Filtering, Caching, DNS
D. Transparent Proxy, Onion Router
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Where can ‘new email notifications be configured?
A. Settings -> Notifications -> Messages
B. Options -> Notifications -> Messages
C. BlackBerry Hub -> Notifications -> Messages
D. BlackBerry Hub -> Advanced -> Notifications -> Messages
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
A user trying to activate their device over USB logs onto Web Desktop with a version of Internet Explorer notices this error Complete the setup process. The necessary controls have not been installed. The ActiveX control is installed on the user s computer. The user should retry the connection with
A. Internet Explorer 8.0 or later browser.
B. Internet Explorer 7.0 or later browser.
C. Firefox 3.5 or later browser.
D. Internet Explorer 9.0 or earlier browser.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
The BDS administrator can create an SCEP profile for a simplified means of:
A. deploying certificates for large-scale implementation to everyday users.
B. generating certificates for large-scale deployment.
C. auditing which accounts have certificates in large-scale implementation for everyday users.
D. creating device shortcut icons that the device owner can use to request certificates.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
What are the different methods for assigning an activation password for a BlackBerry device?
A. Login to BlackBerry Administration Console, search the user, and select option Specify an Activation password from the user properties
B. Login to BlackBerry Administration Console, search the user, and select option Generate an Activation Email from the user properties
C. Login to BlackBerry Administration Console, search the user, and select option Assign EA password from the user properties
D. Instruct the user to login to BlackBerry Web Desktop and assign their Activation password
Correct Answer: A
MCDBAs on Microsoft SQL Server 2000 will not be required to pass Windows XP Professional/.NET Enterprise Servers exams to retain MCDBA certification. The Windows 2000 exams and the Windows XP/.NET Enterprise Servers exams for the MCDBA on Microsoft SQL Server 2000 certification are expected to remain available concurrently.
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