Designed for those who are eager to obtain the certification of Momentum 365 Function Consultant Deputy Role, how do you get it? First you have to understand what it is and what kind of effective resources to choose. I recommend here Pass4itsure Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate The questions and answers provided will help you prepare for the Dynamics 365 sales function consultant assistant. See below for details.
Summary
The following are the details of your Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate certification. Prepare for maximum learning in the shortest time.
Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate
Exams covered by certification
Certification resources, recommend Pass4itsure
Certification costs
Why get a Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate certification?
New! Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate
Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultants implement solutions that anticipate and plan customer connections, manage deals through processing and closing, and accelerate sales team performance using data analytics.(From the most accurate official answer)
Key point: MB-200 will be replaced by a new exam, or PL-200, plus MB-210, until MB-200 retires on December 31, 2020. But before that, you still have to pass MB-200, plus MB-210 to get this certificate
Maybe you will be interested in other Microsoft certification exams!
Exams covered by certification
You will prepare and test for the following exams, which are covered by your certification guarantee: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales (MB-210) exam + core exam MB-200 will win you Microsoft certification: Dynamic 365 Sales Function Consultant Assistant Certification.
The MB-210 exam tests you on the following skills and knowledge areas:
Perform configuration (40-45%)
Manage core sales entities (20-25%)
Manage sales entities (35-40%)
The MB-200 exam tests you on the following skills and knowledge areas:
Perform discovery, planning, and analysis (5-10%)
Manage user experience design (20-25%)
Manage entities and data (15-20%)
Implement security (5-10%)
Implement integration (15-20%)
Perform solutions deployment and testing (25-30%)
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If you want to take these two exams, you can see all the information about the exam dumps.
MB-200: Microsoft Power Platform + Dynamics 365 Core （164 Q&As Updated: Sep 04, 2020）
MB-210: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales （70 Q&As Updated: Aug 31, 2020）
What’s Included:
Microsoft MB-200 Practice Exam
Microsoft MB-210 Practice Exam
Microsoft MB-200 PDF Dumps Download
Microsoft MB-210 PDF Dumps Download
From Pass4itsure Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate!
Recommended training resources to help you prepare for required exams and earn your certification.
Certification costs
Officialcost:
Exam MB-200 $165 USD*
Exam MB-210 $165 USD*
If you pass it once, you need to spend $330 to get your Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate.
Originally it would cost US$91.98 to pass Pass4itsure resources, but now Pass4itsure offers a 12% discount, so you only need to spend US$80.94, (note that you need to use the discount code “2020PASS“), which reduces your financial burden.
Why get a Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate certification?
When you have Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate certification, you are five times more likely to be hired. Once you find this good job, you are more likely to get a better salary. This is not only good for you, but also good for the company you work for, making you an asset they cannot afford to lose.
P.S.
In summary, you know the basic information about certification and the recommended methods. If you want to get Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate certification, you are in the right place. Click Pass4itsure Dynamics 365 Sales Functional Consultant Associate to prepare for your exam.
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This exam tests a candidate’s ability to develop a design given a set of customer requirements to determine the functional requirements needed to create a logical design and architect a physical design using these elements.
VMware VCAP6.5-DCV Design 3V0-624 Practice Question
QUESTION 1 Customer Requirements: You have been tasked with creating a vSphere 6.5 data center design for an organization. The organization is looking to virtualize their physical email application. The company has provided a list of requirements that must be included in the design: – E-mail database is replicated between two servers at a logical level, with no shared disk configurations. – E-mail databases meet corporate criteria for LUN provisioning, and must reside directly on storage array. – Operating system disks do not meet corporate requirements for LUN provisioning, and per policy should not share the same VMFS storage location for redundancy reasons. -Internal users currently point to three Client Access Servers for load balancing. -External users currently point to three Web Client Access Servers for load balancing. – Customer requires discrete hardware to provide security between internal servers and externally available servers, as well as between externally available servers, and client connections from offsite. Design Requirements: Create a solution that shows the service dependencies required for virtualizing the email application, including: – All required storage for Mail DB VM(s) only – All required network and security connection(s) – All required virtual machine(s) – All required user(s) A. Check below for answer solution Correct Answer: A Place all items in required container(s). Connect VMFS datastore(s) to required virtual machine(s). Place disk(s) over the required storage type(s). Connect firewall(s) to container(s).
See the solution below
QUESTION 2 A customer has requested that a new vSphere 6.5 environment be designed with its upcoming data center consolidation effort in mind. 1. The existing environment is a mix of physical and virtual servers 2. Fibre Channel storage is used for 100 vSphere ESXi hosts and 600 physical servers across three data centers, some of which contain latency sensitive applications critical to ongoing business 3. The customer expects to increase its virtualization ratio from 50% today to 90% at the conclusion of this effort, and wants the new design to feature a software-defined storage solution that will decrease their TCO. Which two statements are the business requirements in this scenario? (Choose two.) A. The design must include VMware vSAN as the primary storage solution B. The design must account for business-critical applications C. The design must increase virtualization adoption D. The design must reuse wherever possible to reduce cost Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 3 A leading steel manufacturer relies on SAP for purchase, sales, add invoice processing. 1. It is planning to virtualize its severs to reduce CAPEX and OPEX. 2. However, its CIO is concerned about the availability, performance, manageability, recoverability, and security for the SAP database and ERP instance. Match the business requirement with the appropriate design concept. Select and Place:
QUESTION 4 A customer wants to improve the performance of its vMotion migrations. The current configuration has only one VMkernel port group for vMotion using vmnic3. The customer has vmnicS available for use. What change can be made to increase vMotion performance? A. * Add vmnic5 to the vMotion Port Group as an active uplink. * Create a second vMotion Port Group with vmnic5 as an active uplink and vmnic3 as an active uplink. B. * Add vmnic5 to the vMotion Port Group as a standby uplink. * Do not create a second vMotion Port Group. C. * Add vmnicS to the vMotion Port Group as a standby uplink. * Create a second vMotion Port Group with vmnicS as an active uplink and vmnic3 as a standby uplink. D. * Add vmnic5 to the vMotion Port Group as an active uplink. * Do not create a second vMotion Port Group. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 A customer has these requirements for storage: 1. Protocol used must have a file based access. 2. Protocol used must have built in native multipathing. 3. protocol used must support authentication. To meet these requirements, which protocol should be used for storage? A. NFS v3 B. NFS v4.1 C. FCoE D. iSCSI Correct Answer: B Because NFS 4.1 are support authentication and is a file-based storage
VMware Other Certification 5V0-32.19 Practice Question
QUESTION 1 What is the VMware recommended best practice to scale vCloud Director cells? A. Deploy N+1 cells where N is number of resource groups or n/3000 + 1 powered on virtual machines. B. Deploy one vCloud Director Cell per 3000 simultaneous client connections. C. Deploy one additional vCloud Director Cell per N where N = Virtual Machines / Resource Pools * Number of vCenters. D. Deploy a one to one ratio of vCloud Director Cells per vCenter cluster. Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/vcat/vmware-architecting-a-vclouddirector-solution.pdf (19)
QUESTION 2 What is the benefit of a Data Center Extension inside of VMware vCloud Director Extender? A. register an existing IPsec VPN tunnel to access the VMware vCloud Director environment B. create trunk ports inside of a VMware virtual Distributed Switch for vCloud Director Extender usage C. create an NSX L2 VPN connection to stretch on-premises networks to a VMware vCloud Director environment D. use automation to create VMware vCloud Director Extender appliances Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 How does a VMware NSX distributed firewall function within a VMware vCloud Director environment? A. controls configuration of dynamic NAT rules B. displays concurrent connections coming into VMware vCloud Director C. secures application in the organization virtual data center from inside and outside threats D. manages the BGP and OSPF protocols Correct Answer: C Reference: https://fojta.wordpress.com/2017/03/01/vcloud-director-8-20-distributed-firewall/
QUESTION 2 Which Native AWS construct are third-party ISV partners able to leverage for data archiving within the data-protection service? A. Athena B. Glacier C. Kinesis D. Cognito Correct Answer: B data-processing application on Amazon EC2 and uses Amazon S3 and Amazon S3 Glacier Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/solutions/case-studies/all/
QUESTION 3 What are two requirements for using the bulk migration feature of HCX for virtual machines migrating into VMware Cloud on AWS? (Choose two.) A. No mounted CD Drives B. Virtual RDMs C. NSX for vSphere D. Virtual Hardware 7 and above 5V0-33.19 VCE Dumps | 5V0-33.19 Practice Test | 5V0-33.19 Study Guide 2 / 7 https://www.pass4itsure.com/5v0-33-19.html 2020 Latest pass4itsure 5V0-33.19 PDF and VCE dumps Download E. Physical RDMs Correct Answer: AD Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-HCX/services/hcx-user-guide.pdf
QUESTION 4 During which two points in a customer engagement is a Hybrid Cloud Readiness Assessment appropriate? (Choose two.) A. During SDDC deployment B. After SDDC deployment C. Before SDDC deployment D. During the validation phase of the SDDC deployment E. Scoping Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5 Which three levels of access could a managed services provider (MSP) partner provide to users of a managed organization? (Choose three.) A. Tenant Management Access B. No Access C. Partially Managed Access D. Full Access E. User Access F. Root Access Correct Answer: ACF
VMware vRealize Operations 2020 5V0-34.19 Practice Question
QUESTION 1 When starting a dashboard from the Manage Dashboards page, to what can a dashboard be directly assigned? A. Groups B. Embed C. URL D. Email Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 What is the minimum assigned role needed to perform user management and cluster management? A. ContentAdmin B. Administrator C. AgentManager D. PowerUser Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 A user finds a cluster is not visible when attempting to navigate to it in the Environment navigation panel. Global settings within vRealize Operations has disabled all vCenter the account authentication. Which two items should be administratively checked within vRealize Operations to ensure that desired object is visible? (Choose two.) A. vCenter user privileges B. User role C. Outbound settings D. Policy assignment E. User object access assignment Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 4 How can vRealize Operations tags be used? A. be dynamically assigned to objects B. to group virtual machines in vCenter C. to set object access controls D. to filter objects within dashboard widgets Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Where in vRealize Operations is the number of additional VMs that can fit into a data center displayed? A. datacenter Capacity Allocation Overview dashboard B. datacenter object Environment tab C. datacenter object Capacity tab D. Cluster Utilization dashboard Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 2 Which statement is true? A. Pivot is used for creating datasets. B. Data models are randomly structured datasets. C. Pivot is used for creating reports and dashboards. D. In most cases, each Splunk user will create their own data model. Correct Answer: C Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.3/Pivot/IntroductiontoPivot
QUESTION 4 Which of the following searches would return a report of sales by product_name? A. chart sales by product_name B. chart sum(price) as sales by product_name C. stats sum(price) as sales over product_name D. timechart list(sales), values(product_name) Correct Answer: C Reference: http://hilllaneconsulting.co.uk/blog/?p=640
QUESTION 5 Which of the following actions can the eval command perform? A. Remove fields from results. B. Create or replace an existing field. C. Group transactions by one or more fields. D. Save SPL commands to be reused in other searches. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which of the following is the correct way to use the datamodel command to search fields in the Web data model within the Web dataset? A. | datamodel Web Web search | fields Web* B. | search datamodel Web Web | fields Web* C. | datamodel Web Web fields | search Web* D. datamodel=Web | search Web | fields Web* Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 In what order are the following knowledge objects/configurations applied? A. Field Aliases, Field Extractions, Lookups B. Field Extractions, Field Aliases, Lookups C. Field Extractions, Lookups, Field Aliases D. Lookups, Field Aliases, Field Extractions Correct Answer: C Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.3/Knowledge/WhatisSplunkknowledge
QUESTION 8 Given the macro definition below, what should be entered into the Name and Arguments fields to correctly configure the macro?
A. The macro name is sessiontracker and the arguments are action, JESSIONID. B. The macro name is sessiontracker(2) and the arguments are action, JESSIONID. C. The macro name is sessiontracker and the arguments are $action$, $JESSIONID$. D. The macro name is sessiontracker(2) and the Arguments are $action$, $JESSIONID$. Correct Answer: B Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.3/Knowledge/Definesearchmacros
QUESTION 9 By default, how is acceleration configured in the Splunk Common Information Model (CIM) add-on? A. Turned off. B. Turned on. C. Determined automatically based on the sourcetype. D. Determined automatically based on the data source. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Which of the following statements would help a user choose between the transaction and stars commands? A. stats can only group events using IP addresses. B. The transaction command is faster and more efficient. C. There is a 1000 event limitation with the transaction command. D. Use stats when the events need to be viewed as a single correlated event. Correct Answer: C Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.3/SearchReference/Transaction
QUESTION 12 Which of the following statements describe the Common Information Model (CIM)? (Choose all that apply.) A. CIM is a methodology for normalizing data. B. CIM can correlate data from different sources. C. The Knowledge Manager uses the CIM to create knowledge objects. D. CIM is an app that can coexist with other apps on a single Splunk deployment. Correct Answer: AB Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/CIM/4.15.0/User/Overview
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QUESTION 1 Your customer, Alpha Corp, wants to collect data from their global brand website (alpha-corp.com, m.alpha-corp.com), their marketing subdomains (go.alpha-corp.com, products.alpha-corp.com), and their mobile app (available on Android and iOS). How many domains do they have? A. 6 B. 3 C. 4 D. 8 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which two are attributes of third-party data? (Choose two.) A. Can be confirmed from multiple outside sources B. Often billed directly by the media partner C. Offered on a private marketplace, via direct sales to marketers D. Free to use for activation, targeting, and analytics Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 3 You are working with a client to help guide their seat governance structure. After discussing their company policies and procedures, you discover that each region follows its own protocols, operations are for the most part independent and they might benefit from discretionary data-sharing between regions. Based on what you have learned, which seat governance option should you recommend? A. Horizontal regional empowerment B. Global DMP nerve center C. Global template with local nuances D. Full agency control E. A single seat shared by all regions Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4 Identify the dependencies and data sources for a local campaign. A. Dependency: Custom audiences pixel, Data Sources: 1st party offline data B. Dependency: Execution partner must accept mobile and IDs, Data Sources: 2nd party data C. Dependency: Ensure the Blue Kai tag is on the site, Data Sources: 1st and 3rd party unbranded data D. Dependency: Signed Data Usage Agreement for 3rd party data, Data Sources: 1st and 3rd party data E. Dependency: Submit reporting for use of 3rd party data, Data Sources: 2nd and 3rd party data Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 5 What is the CPS pricing model? A. This model allows clients to purchase data each time the campaign wins a unique customer attribute. B. This model allows clients to purchase data based on the overall win rate of the campaign. C. This model allows clients to purchase data on a cost per category agreement. D. This model allows clients to purchase data on a cost per 1,000 impressions basis. E. This model allows clients to purchase data according to the specific terms in their contract for acquiring third-party data from a particular App Partner. Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1 Encumbrance accounting is enabled for your ledger. An encumbrance journal dated 3/15/16 was recorded for a purchase order. The invoice was entered on 5/5/16, but the invoice accounting date was 4/20/16. The encumbrance journal for liquidating the purchase order encumbrance is dated 5/5/16. What is causing this? A. The actual accounting date was set up under the encumbrance accounting Default Date Rule B. The current transaction accounting date was set up under the encumbrance accounting Default Date Rule C. The subledger accounting option is set to system date D. The system date was set up under the encumbrance accounting Default Date Rule E. The prior related transaction accounting date was set up under the encumbrance accounting Default Date Rule Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 You want to automatically post journal batches imported form subledger sources to prevent accidental edits or deletions of the subledger sources journals, which could cause an out-of-balance situation between your subledgers and general ledger. Which two aspects should you consider when defining your AutoPost Criteria? (Choose two.) A. Use the All option for category and accounting period to reduce maintenance and ensure that all imported journals are included in the posting process B. Create your AutoPost criteria using minimal sources and categories C. Include all of your subledger sources in the AutoPost Criteria. Divide up criteria sets by subledger source only if you need to schedule different posting times D. Schedule your AutoPost Criteria set to run during off-peak hours only Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3 When working with Essbase, versions of the tree hierarchy as defined in the General Ledger Cloud are not available in the Essbase balances cube. What should you do to correct this situation? A. Make sure to flatten the rows of the tree version B. Make sure the tree is active C. Make sure the tree version was published successfully D. Redeploy the chart of accounts Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Before implementing Financials Cloud, your customer used to manually reconcile their intercompany payables and receivables accounts. What is a more automated approach to do this? A. Use Oracle Hyperion Close Manager to automatically reconcile intercompany account balances B. In Financials Cloud, you must manually reconcile your intercompany account balances C. Run the BI Publisher reports called Intercompany Transaction Summary and Account Details to automatically reconcile intercompany balances D. Run the Intercompany Reconciliation report, which shows pairs of intercompany receivables and payables accounts that are out of balance E. Create a query using Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence (OTBI) that will match the intercompany payables and receivables balances Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Your customer is implementing budgetary control with encumbrance accounting. Your customer has businesses in Australia, New Zealand, and Singapore with a ledger in each country with a Corporate chart of account instance that has four segments. Which three statements are true regarding the creation of a control budget? (Choose three.) A. The control budget structure has all the chart of account segments as budget segments B. Control budgets are always absolute to generate encumbrance accounting C. A control budget is associated with a ledger and creates three control budgets for Australia, New Zealand, and Singapore D. A control budget can allow override rules only if the control level is absolute E. A control budget can be associated with a different calendar than the accounting calendar Correct Answer: BDE
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QUESTION 1 As an implementation consultant, you are required to define a legal entity. Which three options are correct about a legal entity? (Choose three.) A. A legal entity must comply with regulations and local jurisdictions. B. A legal entity can be identified as a legal employer in Human Capital Management. C. Legal entities are not responsible for payment of social insurance. D. A legal entity may act as a virtual organization. E. A legal entity can own assets, record sales, pay taxes, and perform transactions. Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 2 A client requires that promotion approvals should go to a static set of three users in a sequential manner, with the approval process continuing to the next user if the prior approver is not available. What setup is required to meet this requirement? A. While configuring Approval Group List Builder, select “Allow empty groups” as True. B. While configuring Approval Group List Builder, select “Allow empty groups” as False. C. All approves must be present in the system; else, the promotion transaction fails. D. The default functionality is that if any approver is not present, then the transaction gets auto-approved. E. Enable a descriptive flex field to capture the approvers in the required sequence and create Approval Group List Builder. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 An HR representative enters employee details in the application as part of the hiring process. On the Review page, the HR representative notices that Person Number does not show any number, but indicates “Generated Automatically” Identify the option that relates to this intended behavior. A. Person Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Manual. B. Person Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Automatic after final save. C. Worker Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Manual. D. Person Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Automatic before submission. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 You are an HR specialist and want to add new values to a lookup. You have access to the specific work area, but are unable to perform the activity. Identify the correct statement about this. A. You cannot add new lookup codes and meanings to the existing lookup types. B. You can access the task for profile options from the Setup and Maintenance menu. C. The system administrator must enable the lookup before it is modified in the work area. D. Oracle applications contain certain predefined system lookups that are locked for editing. E. You can create new lookup types but cannot modify the existing ones. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which Approval Types are supported while configuring the Managing Approval Rules: Promote transaction? A. Application Role, Approval Groups, Management Hierarchy, Position Hierarchy, Representative, Self Auto Approve, User B. Application Role, Approval Groups, Management Hierarchy, Parent Position, Representative, User, Self Auto Approve C. Enterprise Role, Application Role, Approval Groups, Parent Position, Representative, User, Self Auto Approve D. Data Role, Application Role, Approval Groups, Management Hierarchy, Position Hierarchy, Self Auto Approve, User Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1 A customer set up the certification requirement for art absence. After scheduling the absence for a subordinate, the line manager wants to add a certification requirement as an action item, but is unable to do it. What is the reason for this? A. You can add the certification requirement to appear as an action item only during the manual absence enrollment process. B. Line managers can add the certification requirement, on demand, as an action item when they approve the absence; C. Only HR Specialists can add the certification requirement, on demand, as an action item when they schedule an absence. D. Only workers can add the certification requirement, on demand, as an action item when they schedule an absence. E. Line managers can configure the certification requirement to appear as an action item after completion of the absence. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 When setting the expiration details for a Compensatory Plan, which of the following is a valid option? A. Employee Termination B. Worked Period C. Ongoing D. End of Acquisition Week Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which three are true statements about Absence and Payroll integration? (Choose three.) A. The options available for configuration vary depending on the legislation chosen when creating absence plans. B. The setup required in payroll may vary depending on payroll localization. C. The Absence Element Template creates all of the attributes required to process absences through payroll. D. The options available for configuration are the same for all the legislations when creating absence plans. Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 4 Your client has a requirement that the employee will not get enrolled into the plan for first six months of hire. Enrollment and accruals will start after the completion of six months. The plan needs to be Front-Loaded. How will you configure this in the system? A. Create a plan having Vesting Period with UOM as Months and duration as 6. B. Create a rule in Accrual Matrix where you will check the length of service of an employee and if the Length of Service is less than six months then accrual value should be 0. C. Write partial period fast formula that enrolls the employee only after six months from hire date. D. Create a plan having a Waiting Period with UOM as Months and duration as 6. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 After running the calculate accrual process, you notice that 100 employees\\’ balances have not been updated despite the process running to a successful status. Your customer has requested that the process should fail if any employees are in error. What absence batch parameter should you decrease to achieve this requirement? (Choose three.) A. Thread Count B. Errors C. Chunk Size D. Maximum Errors E. Minimum Errors F. Thread Size G. Total Threads Correct Answer: ACF
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Practice with Cisco 300-625 Exam Practice Questions Answers
QUESTION 1 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the mechanisms of Cisco Secure Boot from the left into the correct order on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2 A storage network engineer must install and configure a new MDS switch in a data center network. Which two statements about available choices during the MDS switch initial setup are correct? (Choose two.) A. The engineer can choose what will be the administrator account. B. A secure password standard is required. C. The engineer can configure the default zone policy. D. The engineer can configure the default switch port trunk mode. E. The engineer does not have the choice to enable or disable full zone set distribution. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3 What is the function of the 0xFFFFFC address in a Fibre Channel fabric? A. management server B. fabric controller C. name server D. time server Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Refer to the exhibit.
A port-channel has been configured between a Cisco MDS and a Cisco Fabric Interconnect switch. Which interface(s) in Does the port-channel carry the control plane traffic? A. per-packet, balanced between interfaces fc1/9 and fc1/10 B. from interface fc1/9 C. from interface fc1/10 D. per flow, balanced between interfaces fc1/9 and fc1/10 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which feature on MDS platforms ensures that the code that is running on the hardware platform is authentic and unmodified, while also validating the BIOS to eliminate any rootkits. A. Cisco Secure Boot B. UEFI Secure Boot C. Secure Unique Device Identifier D. BIOS Secure Boot Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 A Cisco MDS Series Switch with the POAP feature boots and does not find the startup configuration. Which location is checked first when the switch enters POAP mode? A. A USB device that contains the software image files and the switch configuration file B. DHCP server to bootstrap the interface IP address, gateway, DNS server, and TFTP IP addresses C. TFTP server where the necessary configuration files are downloaded D. HTTP server where the URL is used to download the software image Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 Which configuration is always required when running the setup utility on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch? A. administrator password B. management IP address C. active NTP server D. active default gateway Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 After user account attributes are modified in Cisco NX-OS, when do changes to the user\\’s session attributes take effect? A. immediately B. at the scheduled time C. when the user logs out of a session D. when the user creates a new session Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 What is the effect of a non-graceful virtual machine shutdown on a virtualized server that is connected to a SAN with Fibre Channel interfaces? A. NP Port reload connected to the upstream SAN switch B. out-of-service Fibre Channel interfaces on the SAN switch C. frames stuck in the storage system D. frames stuck in the HBA buffer of the server Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer created a new user that uses the VSAN-Admin role on a Cisco MDS switch so a new colleague can manage the VSANs configured on the switch. Which action is required for the configuration to give permission to the new colleague? A. permit vsan 1-1000 must be configured as rule 5. B. permit vsan 1-1000 must be configured as rule 1. C. permit vsan 1-1000 must be configured under the VSAN policy deny. D. permit vsan 1-1000 must be configured under the VSAN policy allow. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 A storage network engineer is implementing disk-array data replication between two SAN environments in two different data centers not connected via Fibre Channel. Which SAN switch feature must be implemented? A. FCIP B. zoning merge over LAN C. VSAN scoping D. IVR Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Which benefit of upgrading to the Cisco DCNM server-based advanced feature license for a Cisco MDS switch is correct? A. The license can be reassigned when a switch is replaced with a newer version within the same product family. B. The license can be assigned to either server MAC address or switch serial number. C. An unlimited number of devices can be added to the list of licensed devices. D. The license can be reassigned when the switch is replaced with a Cisco Nexus switch. Correct Answer: A
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