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QUESTION 85
Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true about the IS-IS configuration? (Choose two.)

PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. The router is in area 49.0001.0002.
B. The router has a system ID of 0003.0004.
C. The router acts as a Level 1-2 router.
D. The network service access point selector (NSEL) byte has a value of 0. E. CLNS routing is enabled for the router.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 86
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the IS-IS configurations of router R1 and router R2 are correct? (Choose two.)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. The IS-IS Level 2 metric that is assigned on the serial interface of router R2 is over three times the default value.
B. Router R1 sends only Level 1 hellos out the interface that is connected to R2.
C. Router R2 sends only Level 2 hellos out the interface that is connected to R1.
D. Router R1 is configured as a Level 1-2 router.
E. Router R2 has the same metric value assigned for Level 1 and Level 2 on the serial interface.
F. The network entity titles (NETs) that are configured on L1 and L2 are incompatible.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, what two conclusions can be reached? (Choose two.)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. Three physical interfaces are taking part in integrated IS-IS.
B. Address summarization is configured.
C. There are two neighboring routers sending IS-IS routing information.
D. The default administrative distance has been changed.
E. IS-IS is not redistributing any other routing protocols.
F. IS-IS is not enabled.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
Which three options are supported as address allocation mechanisms for DHCP on Cisco routers? (Choose three.)
A. The IP address can be automatically assigned to a host.
B. The IP address can be assigned as a random hash value of the burned-in-address of the lowest-numbered LAN interface on the router.
C. The network administrator can assign a specific IP address to a specific host MAC address.
D. The IP address can be assigned from configured pools in a reverse lexicographical order.
E. The IP address can be assigned to a host for a limited time or until the host explicitly releases the address. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
F. The IP address can be assigned to a host until the host usurps the assigned value using its own dynamic override mechanism.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 89
Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be made based on the DHCP configuration? (Choose two.)

A. The second DNS server configured will never be queried.
B. The first IP address assigned by DHCP is 172.16.0.1.
C. The IP address of the default router is used for DHCP relay.
D. The DHCP clients learn the excluded address ranges that area configured.
E. The configured domain name is propagated to the DHCP clients.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the configuration?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. Hosts will receive IP settings from pool 1 until the addresses run out, and then hosts will receive the settings from pool 2.
B. Hosts belonging to DHCP pool 1 and pool 2 will retain their IP settings for 30 hours before they must renew.
C. Hosts in the 10.10.20.0/24 subnet will use 10.10.20.50 as its DNS server.
D. DHCP pool 0 needs to have the ip dhcp excluded-address command to exclude the default router and DNS servers.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration is reflected in the output that is displayed in the exhibit?

A. neighbor 192.168.28.1 route-map cisco in ! access-list 66 permit 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 ! route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66 set local-preference 90 PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
B. neighbor 192.168.28.1 route-map cisco out ! access-list 66 permit 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 ! route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66 set metric 90
C. neighbor 192.168.28.1 route-map cisco out ! access-list 66 permit 10.30.0.0 0.0.255.255 ! route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66 set metric 90
D. neighbor 192.168.28.1 route-map cisco in ! PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892 access-list 66 permit 10.30.0.0 0.0.255.255 ! route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66 set local-preference 90

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Refer to the exhibit. Router RT-1 chooses one path to network 198.133.219.0/24. Indicate the reason Router RT-1 chooses this “best” path.

A. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 gives precedence to the origin code.
B. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 gives precedence to the BGP MED values.
C. IP address 128.107.2.2 is lower than 128.107.255.2.
D. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 prefers the IGP metrics.
E. RT-1 prefers internal BGP routes.
F. IP address 128.107.254.2 is lower than 128.107.255.2.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
What technique should be used on BGP edge routers to prevent a multi-homed autonomous system from becoming a transit system?
A. Advertise with a high MED value all networks that are discovered via external BGP.
B. Remove the AS-Path information on all routes in the BGP table prior to advertising externally.
C. Only advertise networks externally if they have been discovered via internal BGP.
D. Use an outgoing distribution list to filter all networks not originating from inside the autonomous system.
E. Set the no-export community attribute on all networks that are advertised externally.
F. Set the origin code to incomplete for all networks that are discovered via external BGP.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 94
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the router configuration that is shown? PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. Additional DHCP options will be imported from another DHCP server.
B. The DHCP server pools need to be bound to an interface to operate.
C. This configuration will provide IP configuration information to two different subnets.
D. Additional DCHP option information needs to be imported from another DHCP server.
E. If the router hands out all the addresses in pool 1, then it will supply addresses from pool 2.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the router with ID 10.64.0.1?

A. It is the BDR for the local segment.
B. It is the DR for the local segment.
C. It is not running OSPF.
D. It has an OSPF priority of 1 on the attached interface.
E. It has a loopback that is configured.
F. It is not the DR or BDR for the local segment.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Which statement is true about Protocol Independent Multicast Dense Mode (PIM DM) multicast routing?
A. PIM DM supports shared distribution trees.
B. If a port is pruned, the administrator must re-enable the port to support multicast traffic.
C. The (S,G) state exists in every router, regardless of the presence of an RPF interface.
D. Flooding of traffic only occurs in the beginning stages of routing. Afterwards, all necessary ports are pruned and multicast traffic is not sent across those interfaces.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
The show ip route command generated routes flagged as O N2 and O N1. Which option best describes how these routes were created?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. Summarization was performed on an ASBR connected to a totally stubby area.
B. Static routes were redistributed into an ASBR.
C. Redistribution was performed into a totally stubby area.
D. Redistribution was performed into an NSSA area.
E. Summarization was performed on an ASBR connected to a NSSA area.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
How is the configuration of a totally stubby area different from that of a stub area?
A. The totally stubby area requires the no-summary command on the ABR.
B. The totally stubby area requires the totally stubby command on the ABR.
C. The no-summary command should be included on all routers within the totally stubby area.
D. The totally stubby command should be included on all routers within the totally stubby area.
E. The totally stubby area requires the no-summary command on the ASBR.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 99
Refer to the exhibit. Which one statement is true?

A. Traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16 network will be blocked by the ACL.
B. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be advertised by Router B because the network statement for the 10.0.0.0/8 network is missing from Router B.
C. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be in the routing table on Router B.
D. Users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network can successfully ping users on the 192.168.5.0/24 network, but users on the 192.168.5.0/24 cannot successfully ping users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network.
E. Router B will not advertise the 10.0.0.0/8 network because it is blocked by the ACL.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
Refer to the exhibit. RTR-38 has two possible paths to reach the indicated networks but only chooses next hop 172.20.72.1. Which two options would cause RTR-38 to choose next hop 172.20.73.1 for network
192.168.101.0 but still use next hop 172.20.72.1 for the remaining networks? (Choose two)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. On RTR-38 apply a route map to neighbor 172.20.73.1 incoming that changes the local-preference to 200 for network 192.168.101.0.
B. On RTR-38 apply a route map to neighbor 172.20.73.1 incoming that changes the local-preference to 200 for all networks accept 192.168.101.0.
C. On RTR-38 apply the command neighbor 172.20.73.1 weight 200.
D. On RTR-38 apply the command neighbor 172.20.72.1 weight 200.
E. On BGP neighbor router 172.20.73.1 apply a route map that advertises a MED of 200 for network
192.168.101.0 to RTR-38.
F. On BGP neighbor router 172.20.72.1 apply a route map that advertises a MED of 200 for network
192.168.101.0 to RTR-38.

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 101
During BGP configuration on a router that has peered with other BGP speakers, the BGP command aggregate-address 172.32.0.0 255.255.252.0 is issued. However, the peers do not receive this aggregate network in BGP advertisements. Also, the router does not have this aggregate network in its BGP table. Which option indicates a possible reason this command did not cause the router to advertise the aggregate network to its peers?
A. Interface NULL 0 is likely shutdown.
B. The BGP command no synchronization is missing.
C. The BGP command no auto-summary is missing.
D. Subnets of 172.32.0.0/22 do not exist in the BGP table.
E. The IGP running on this router does not have network 172.32.0.0/22 installed.
F. The next hop IP address must be a loopback address.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 102
What are the two effects of the IP multicast global configuration command ip pim send-rp-announce loopback0 scope 31 group-list 5 issued on multicast router RTA? (Choose two.)
A. RTA will drop all RP announcements it receives if the TTL field is greater than 31.
B. RTA will forward RP announcements provided they are within the scope of 31.
C. RTA will originate RP announcements with TTL set to 31.
D. RTA will forward RP announcements from any neighbor router with a source IP address that matches access-list 5.
E. RTA will originate RP announcements for multicast groups that match access-list 5.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 103
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output from the show command on RT1 which statement is true?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. OSPFv3 uses global IPv6 addresses to establish neighbor adjacencies.
B. RT1 has a subnet mask of 64 bits.
C. RT1 has FastEthernet0/0 set as a DR for network type broadcast.
D. OSPFv3 uses Link-local addresses to establish neighbor adjacencies.
E. RT1 does not have a global IPv6 address set on FastEthernet0/0.
F. OSPFv3 uses IPv4 addresses to establish neighbor adjacencies.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 104
Refer to the exhibit. In the show ipv6 route output, what would the metric be for a summary route that summarizes all three OSPFv3 routes displayed?

A. 20
B. 40
C. 100
D. 120
E. 140
F. 160

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
QUESTION 105
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is correct regarding the partial configuration shown?

A. The router’s fa0/0 interface will be assigned the reserved address of 20.0.0.2.
B. The router will import its DHCP options from a configuration file on a TFTP server.
C. The router’s fa0/0 interface will be assigned any address from the 20.0.0.0/8 network except 20.0.0.2.
D. The router will add the DHCP option parameters it learns from another server into its DHCP server database.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 106
Refer to the exhibit. It is desired to set up a BGP neighbor relationship between routers R1 and R4. BGP packets between them could travel through R2 or R3. What is the simplest configuration that will allow for failover?

A. Configure BGP neighbor relationships between all interfaces on R1 and R4.
B. Install a direct connection between R1 and R4.
C. Configure loopback interfaces on R1 and R4 to provide the update source address for BGP packets.
D. Configure only one neighbor relationship between R1’s 192.168.1.2 interface and R4’s 172.16.10.2 interface.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
QUESTION 107
Refer to the exhibit. Routing updates for the 192.168.1.0 network are being received from all three neighbors. Which statement is correct regarding the result of the configuration shown?

A. The router will prefer the next hop of 172.16.1.1 for packets destined for the 192.168.1.0 network.
B. The router will prefer the next hop of 172.26.1.1 for packets destined for the 192.168.1.0 network.
C. The router will advertise the 192.168.1.0 network only to 172.30.1.1.
D. The router will advertise the 192.168.1.0 network only to 172.26.1.1.
E. The router will prefer the next hop of 172.26.1.1 for packets except those destined for the 192.168.1.0 network.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 108
Refer to the exhibit. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 weight 200 BGP configuration command has been configured on router A. What will be the result of this configuration?

A. Router A will prefer the path through router B for network 172.20.0.0. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
B. Router A will prefer the path through router C for network 172.20.0.0.
C. Packets from router D will prefer the path through router B for networks advertised by router A.
D. Packets from router D will prefer the path through router C for networks advertised by router A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 109
Which spanning-tree command would cause a PortFast-enabled interface to lose its PortFast-operational status and disable BPDU filtering if it receives BPDUs?
A. spanning-tree guard root
B. spanning-tree bpduguard enable
C. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default
D. spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
E. spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
Which spanning-tree command would essentially disable spanning tree on an interface and make that interface susceptible to spanning-tree loops?
A. spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default
B. spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
C. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default
D. spanning-tree bpduguard enable
E. spanning-tree guard root

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
Which statement correctly describes the results of the Ethernet switch global configuration command spanning-tree loopguard default?
A. When any port receives a BPDU, it is put it in the error-disabled state.
B. An interface is moved directly to the spanning-tree forwarding state without waiting for the standard forward-time delay.
C. Prevents interfaces that are in a PortFast-operational state from sending or receiving BPDUs.
D. Detects indirect link failures and starts the spanning-tree reconfiguration sooner.
E. Prevents alternate or root ports from becoming designated ports because of a failure that leads to a unidirectional link.
F. Provides fast convergence after a direct link failure where a root port transitions to the forwarding state immediately without going through the listening and learning states.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 112
Which optional feature of an Ethernet switch disables a port on a point-to-point link if the port does not receive traffic while Layer 1 status is up?
A. BackboneFast
B. UplinkFast
C. Loop Guard
D. UDLD aggressive mode
E. Fast Link Pulse bursts
F. Link Control Word

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
Which three statements are true about routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose three)
A. A routed port can support VLAN subinterfaces.
B. A routed port will take an IP address assignment.
C. A routed port can be configured with routing protocols.
D. A routed port is a virtual interface on the multilayer switch. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
E. A routed port is only associated with one VLAN.
F. A routed port is a physical interface on the multilayer switch.

Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
Which three statements are true about CEF? (Choose three.)
A. The FIB table is derived from the IP routing table.
B. The adjacency table is derived from the ARP table.
C. CEF IP destination prefixes are stored in the TCAM table, from the least specific to the most specific entry.
D. When the CEF TCAM table is full, packets are dropped.
E. When the adjacency table is full, a CEF TCAM table entry points to the Layer 3 engine to redirect the adjacency.
F. The FIB lookup is based on the Layer 3 destination address prefix (shortest match).

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
Refer to the exhibit. Why are users from VLAN 100 unable to ping users on VLAN 200?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. Encapsulation on the switch is wrong.
B. Trunking needs to be enabled on Fa0/1.
C. The native VLAN is wrong.
D. VLAN 1 needs the no shutdown command.
E. IP routing needs to be enabled on the switch.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 116
Refer to the exhibit. What problem is preventing users on VLAN 100 from pinging addresses on VLAN 200?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. No default route on DLS1.
B. Encapsulation mismatch between switches.
C. Native VLAN mismatch.
D. Subinterfaces should be created on Fa0/7 and Fa0/8 on DLS1.
E. Trunking needs to be enabled.
F. The ip routing command is missing on DLS1.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
Which three characteristics are true about voice traffic in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. bursty
B. greedy
C. drop sensitive
D. delay sensitive
E. UDP priority
F. TCP retransmits

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
Which three characteristics are true about voice traffic in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. TCP retransmits
B. benign
C. greedy
D. drop sensitive
E. smooth
F. delay insensitive

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 119
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is configured on all routers in the network. On the basis of the show ip ospf PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
neighbor output, what prevents R1 from establishing a full adjacency with R2?

A. Router R1 will only establish full adjacency with the DR and BDR on broadcast multiaccess networks.
B. Router R2 has been elected as a DR for the broadcast multiaccess network in OSPF area 1.
C. Routers R1 and R2 are configured as stub routers for OSPF area 1 and OSPF area 2.
D. Router R1 and R2 are configured for a virtual link between OSPF area 1 and OSPF area 2.
E. The Hello parameters on routers R1 and R2 do not match.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
Which two statements are true about voice VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. Voice VLANs allow IP phones to be moved around without worrying about subnets.
B. Voice VLANs allow voice and data packets to be logically combined.
C. Implementing voice VLANs causes network administrators to change their existing IP topology.
D. Using voice VLANs makes it easier for network administrators to identify and troubleshoot network problems.
E. Voice VLANs are available on all Cisco switches.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
Which two statements are true about trust boundaries? (Choose two.)
A. Classifying and marking traffic should be done as close to the traffic source as possible.
B. Classifying and marking traffic should be done at the distribution layer.
C. Traffic is classified and marked as it travels through the network.
D. If untrusted traffic enters a switch, it can be marked with a new QoS value appropriate for the policy in place.
E. The trust boundary moves depending on the type of traffic entering the network.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. What problem is preventing users on VLAN 100 from pinging addresses on VLAN 200?

A. No default route on DLS1.
B. Encapsulation mismatch between switches.
C. Native VLAN mismatch.
D. Subinterfaces should be created on Fa0/7 and Fa0/8 on DLS1.
E. Trunking needs to be enabled.
F. The ip routing command is missing on DLS1.
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer: F
QUESTION 2
Which three characteristics are true about voice traffic in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. bursty
B. greedy
C. drop sensitive
D. delay sensitive
E. UDP priority
F. TCP retransmits
Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:CDE
QUESTION 3
Which three characteristics are true about voice traffic in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. TCP retransmits
B. benign
C. greedy
D. drop sensitive
E. smooth
F. delay insensitive
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BDE
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. What additional commands should be used to configure OSPF area 5 as a T otally Stubby area?

A. area 0 stub on routers R4 and R5
B. area 5 stub on routers R4 and R5
C. area 5 stub no-summary on routers R4 and R5
D. area 0 stub no-summary on router R4 and area 5 stub no-summary on router R5
E. area 5 stub no-summary on router R4 and area 5 stub on router R5
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer: E
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is configured on all routers in the network. On the basis of the show ip ospf neighbor output, what prevents R1 from establishing a full adjacency with R2?

A. Router R1 will only establish full adjacency with the DR and BDR on broadcast multiaccess networks.
B. Router R2 has been elected as a DR for the broadcast multiaccess network in OSPF area 1.
C. Routers R1 and R2 are configured as stub routers for OSPF area 1 and OSPF area 2.
D. Router R1 and R2 are configured for a virtual link between OSPF area 1 and OSPF area 2.
E. The Hello parameters on routers R1 and R2 do not match.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A
QUESTION 6
In the event that two devices need access to a common server,but they cannot communicate with each other, which security feature should be configured to mitigate attacks between these devices?
A. port security
B. dynamic ARP inspection
C. DHCP snooping
D. private VLANs E. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 7
A hacker is interested in seeing traffic from all switch ports on the switch that he is connected to, including the ports belonging to other VLANs. What type of attack is he likely to implement?
A. MAC address flooding
B. ARP attack
C. spoofing attack
D. DHCP attack
E. VLAN hopping
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A
QUESTION 8
Which statement best summarizes how DHCP snooping works?
A. DHCP snooping validates the header information of all DHCP replies and only allows the reply through if it has a matching request in the DSRT .
B. DHCP snooping validates all DHCP responses from all switch ports and only allows packets through if the destination port sent a DHCP request in the last 5 seconds.
C. DHCP snooping validates all DHCP responses from all switch ports and only allows packets through if the destination port specifically sent a DHCP request.
D. DHCP snooping determines which switch ports are trusted and can source all DHCP messages.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration provided, how are the Hello packets sent by R2 handled by R5 in OSPF area 5?

A. The Hello packets will be exchanged and adjacency will be established between routers R2 and R5.
B. The Hello packets will be exchanged but the routers R2 and R5 will become neighbors only.
C. The Hello packets will be dropped and no adjacency will be established between routers R2 and R5.
D. The Hello packets will be dropped but the routers R2 and R5 will become neighbors.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 10
Which statement is true about OSPF Network LSAs?
A. They are originated by every router in the OPSF network. They include all routers on the link, interfaces, the cost of the link, and any known neighbor on the link.
B. They are originated by the DR on every multi-access network. They include all attached routers including the DR itself.
C. They are originated by Area Border Routers and are sent into a single area to advertise destinations outside that area.
D. They are originated by Area Border Router and are sent into a single area to advertise an Autonomous System Border Router.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is configured on all routers in the network. Area 5 is configured as an NSSA area. The RIPv2 routes are redistributed into the OSPF domain on router R5. What two types of LSAs will be originated by router R5? (Choose two.)

A. type 1 Router LSA
B. type 2 Network LSA
C. type 3 Network Summary LSA
D. type 4 ASBR Summary LSA
E. type 5 AS External LSA
F. type 7 NSSA External LSA
Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AF
QUESTION 12
A network administrator would like to configure 802.1x port-based authentication, however, the client workstation is not 802.1x compliant. What is the only supported authentication server that can be used?
A. TACACSwith LEAP extensions
B. TACACS+
C. RADIUS with EAP extensions
D. LDAP
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 13
A switch has been configured with PVLANs. With what type of PVLAN port should the default gateway be configured?
A. Isolated
B. Promiscuous
C. Community
D. Primary
E. Trunk
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. The lightweight wireless architecture splits the processing of the 802.11 data and management protocols and the access point functionality between the access point and the WLAN controller using split MAC approach. Which three functionalities are handled by the WLAN controller?

A. the transmission of beacon frames
B. the portions of the protocol that have real-time requirements
C. the response to Probe Request frames from clients
D. 802.11 authentication
E. 802.11 association and re-association (mobility)
F. 802.11 frame translation and bridging
Correct Answer: DEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:DEF
QUESTION 15
What is the function of the Service Set Identifier (SSID) in the wireless LAN?
A. The SSID should be configured on the client site only and provides data-privacy functions and authentication to the access point.
B. The SSID must match on both the client and the access point. The SSID is advertised in plain-text in the access point beacon messages.
C. The SSID must match on both the client and the access point and provides encryption keys for authentication to the access point.
D. The SSID must match on both the client and the access point and provides MAC Address Authentication to authenticate the client to the access point.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 16
What are two differences between the Autonomous WLAN solution and the Lightweight WLAN solution?
(Choose two.)
A. TACACS+can only be used for authentication with the Cisco Lightweight WLAN solution.
B. CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine can be used for management with the Autonomous WLAN Solution.
C. CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine can be used for management with the Lightweight WLAN Solution.
D. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is used to configure the access points in the Lightweight WLAN solution.
E. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is used to configure the access points in the Autonomous WLAN solution.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BD
QUESTION 17
Which routing protocol will continue to receive and process routing updates from neighbors after the passive-interface router configuration command is entered?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. IS-IS
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 18
When building an IP multicast domain using PIM which mode assumes that other routers do not want to forward multicast packets for the group?
A. PIM-DM
B. PIM-SM
C. PIM-RP
D. CGMP
E. IGMP snooping
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 19
Which statement describes Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) mode ‘desirable’?
A. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode and negotiates to convert the link into a trunk link.
B. The interface actively attempts to convert the link to a trunk link.
C. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode but prevented from generating DTP frames.
D. The interface is put into a passive mode, waiting to convert the link to a trunk link.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 20
In a customer’s network, VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is running with a domain named main1. VLANs 1,2,3,4,5,10,20 are active on the network. Suddenly the whole network goes down. No traffic is being passed on VLANs 2,3,4,5,10,20, however traffic passes on VLAN 1 and indicates all switches are operational. Right before the network problem occurred, a switch named TEST1 was added to the network. What three conditions must exist on TEST1 to cause this network outage? (Choose three.)
A. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with a different domain name.
B. TEST1 is not configured to participate in VTP .
C. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with the domain name main1.
D. TEST1 has a lower VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
E. TEST1 has a higher VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
F. TEST1 is configured with only VLAN1.
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:CEF
QUESTION 21
Given the following partial configuration for Router A: interface serial 0 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 encapsulation frame-relay ip ospf network point-to-multipoint router ospf 7 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. DR/BDR elections do not take place.
B. The router is restricted to a hub and spoke topology.
C. The area 0 NBMA cloud is configured as more than one subnet.
D. OSPF neighbor statements are not necessary.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AD
QUESTION 22
Which command displays the number of times that the OSPF Shortest Path First (SPF) algorithm has been executed?
A. show ip protocol
B. show ip ospf interface
C. show ip ospf
D. show ip ospf database
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 23
Which two methods advertise internal networks to external ISPs via BGP? (Choose two.)
A. using aggregate routes
B. disabling synchronization
C. forcing the next-hop address
D. defining routes via the network statement
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AD
QUESTION 24
Which two table types are CEF components?(Choose two.)
A. forwarding information base
B. adjacency tables
C. neighbor tables
D. caching tables
E. route tables
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AB
QUESTION 25
What is a characteristic of a static VLAN membership assignment?
A. VMPS server lookup
B. easy to configure
C. ease of adds, moves, and changes
D. based on MAC address of the connected device
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 26
A network administrator assigns a multicast address of 239.255.8.5 to an application running on a device with an Ethernet MAC address of 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80. Which Layer 2 multicast address will this device use?
A. 01.00.5e.7F .08.05
B. 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80
C. 01.b2.7d.0a.08.05
D. 01.00.5e.05.f1.80
E. ff.ff.ff.ff.ff.ff
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A
QUESTION 27
For the accompanying router output, which of the following statements describes the state that neighbor 172.16.254.3 is in?
A. The router will not accept connections from the peer.
B. The router has sent out an active TCP connection request to the peer.
C. The router is listening on its server port for connection requests from the peer.
D. BGP can exchange routing information in this state.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 28
Above is the output from show ip bgp neighbors command. What is line 21 stating about the BGP connection?

A. the number of consecutive TCP connections to the specified remote neighbor
B. the number of times the router has established a TCP connection
C. the number of total TCP connections that the router has
D. the number of neighbors that the router has
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 29
Given the network diagram, which address would successfully summarize only the networks seen?
A. 192.168.0.0/24
B. 192.168.8.0/20
C. 192.168.8.0/21
D. 192.168.12.0/20
E. 192.168.16.0/21
F. These networks cannot be summarized.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 30
A. R3,R4,R6
B. R3,R4,R5,R6
C. R2,R3,R6,R7
D. R2,R3,R4,R6,R7
E. R1 through R8
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 31
Which statement is true regarding the configuration of ISL trunks?
A. All Catalyst switches support ISL trunking.
B. A Catalyst switch will report giants if one side is configured for ISL while the other side is not.
C. ISL trunking requires that native VLANs match.
D. A Catalyst switch cannot have ISL and IEEE 802.1q trunks enabled.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:Answer:B
QUESTION 32
Which statement is correct about 802.1Q trunking?
A. Both switches must be in the same VTP domain.
B. The encapsulation type on both ends of the trunk does not have to match.
C. The native VLAN on both ends of the trunk must be VLAN 1.
D. 802.1Q trunking can only be configured on a Layer 2 port.
E. In 802.1Q trunking, all VLAN packets are tagged on the trunk link, except the native VLAN.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer: E
QUESTION 33
Why should iBGP sessions be fully meshed within a TransitAS?
A. BGP requires redundant TCP sessions between iBGP peers.
B. A full mesh allows for optimal routing within the TransitAS.
C. Routes learned via iBGP are never propagated to other eBGP peers.
D. Routes learned via iBGP are never propagated to other iBGP peers.
E. Routes learned via eBGP are never propagated to other iBGP peers.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 34
The 192.168.0.0 network is not being propagated throughout the network. Observe the BGP configuration commands from the advertising router. What is the reason the 192.168.0.0 route is not being advertised? router bgp 65111 neighbor 172.16.1.1 remote-as 65111 neighbor 172.16.2.1 remote-as 65112 network 192.168.0.0 network 10.0.0.0 ! ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 null0
A. The network 192.168.0.0 statement is missing mask 255.255.0.0
B. The network 192.168.0.0 statement is missing mask 0.0.255.255.
C. The network 10.0.0.0 statement is missing mask 255.0.0.0.
D. The network 10.0.0.0 statement is missing mask 0.255.255.255.
E. The auto-summary configuration is missing.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Answer:A
QUESTION 35
What are the basic configuration steps to enable IS-IS?
A. Configure the net system-id command under router isis and enable IS-IS on each interface with the ip router isis command.
B. Configure the network net-id command(s) under router isis and enable IS-IS on each interface with the ip router isis command.
C. Configure the network net-id command(s) and the is-type level-1-2 command under router isis.
D. Configure the net system-id and the network net-id commands under router isis.
E. Configure the net system-id and the network net-id commands under router isis and enable IS-IS on each interface with the ip router isis command.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A
QUESTION 36
Which three characteristics apply to IS-IS but not to OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. encapsulates PDUs directly into a data-link frame
B. uses a DIS and a backup DIS to present the pseudo-node on the LAN
C. uses stubby areas to improve network scalability
D. uses a default IOS metric of 10 on each interface
E. runs PRC (Partial Route Calculations) to calculate IP reachability information
F. uses an on-demand circuit to reduce the hello and LSA flooding across switched WAN links, such as ISDN
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:ADE
QUESTION 37
A network administrator has enabled OSPF across an NBMA network and has issued the command ip ospf network nonbroadcast. Given those facts, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. DR and BDR elections will occur.
B. DR and BDR elections will not occur.
C. All routers must be configured in a fully meshed topology with all other routers.
D. The neighbor command is required to build adjacencies.
E. Interfaces will automatically detect and build adjacencies with neighbor routers.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AD
QUESTION 38
Which three statements are correct about the differences in IS-IS and OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. IS-IS LSP contains TLV fields and OSPF LSU contains the LSAs.
B. New additions to the protocol are easily implemented in OSPF but not with IS-IS.
C. For greater fine tuning there are more IS-IS timers.
D. OSPF has more area types than does IS-IS.
E. IS-IS is more CPU-intensive than is OSPF .
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:ACD
QUESTION 39
Which enhancement was added to IGMP version 3?
A. membership query message
B. membership report message
C. leave group message
D. source filtering
E. destination filtering
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 40
Given the above diagram and assuming that STP is enabled on all switch devices, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. DSW11will be elected the root bridge.
B. DSW12 will be elected the root bridge.
C. ASW13 will be elected the root bridge.
D. P3/1 will be elected the nondesignated port.
E. P2/2 will be elected the nondesignated port.
F. P3/2 will be elected the nondesignated port.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AD
QUESTION 41
Which three statements about STP timers are true? (Choose three.)
A. STP timers values (hello, forward delay, max age) are included in each BPDU.
B. A switch is not concerned about its local configuration of the STP timers values. It will only consider the value of the STP timers contained in the BPDU it is receiving.
C. To successfully exchange BPDUs between two switches, their STP timers value (hello, forward delay, max age) must be the same.
D. If any STP timer value (hello, forward delay, max age) needs to be changed, it should at least be changed on the root bridge and backup root bridge.
E. On a switched network with a small network diameter, the STP hello timer can be tuned to a lower value to decrease the load on the switch CPU.
F. The root bridge passes the timer information in BPDUs to all routers in the Layer 3 configuration.
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:ABD
QUESTION 42
Which configuration commands will enable RTA to advertise all local interfaces over OSPF?
A. RTA(config)#router ospf 1 RTA(config-router)#default-information originate
B. RTA(config)#router ospf 1 RTA(config-router)#network 255.255.255.255 255.255.255.255
C. RTA(config)#router ospf 1 RTA(config-router)#network 0.0.0.0
D. RTA(config)#router ospf 1 RTA(config-router)#network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
E. RTA(config)#router ospf 1 RTA(config-router)#redistribute static
F. RTA(config)#router ospf 1 RTA(config-router)#redistribute connected
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer: F
QUESTION 43
Which command lists the system IDs of all known IS-IS routers?
A. show clns neighbors
B. show isis database
C. show isis topology
D. show clns neighbors detail
E. show is-is neighbors detail
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 44
Observe the diagram. RTC is the hub router and RTA and RTB are the spokes. There are no virtual circuits between the spoke locations. What is needed to successfully route traffic to the 11.11.11.0/24 network from RTA?

A. The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on RTA.
B. The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on RTB.
C. The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on RTC.
D. Nothing is required. This is the default behavior on this topology.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit diagram and configuration. RTB is summarizing its networks from AS 64100 with the aggregate-address command. However, the show ip route command on RTA reveals the RTB individual networks as well as its summary route. Which option would ensure that only the summary route would appear in the routing table of RTA?

A. Delete the four network statements and leave only the aggregate-address statement in the BGP configuration.
B. Add the keyword summary-only to the aggregate-address command.
C. Add a static route with a prefix of 192.168.24.0 255.255.252.0 pointing to the null0 interface.
D. Create a route map permitting only the summary address.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured on router RTA to summarize all routes from area 0 to area 1?

A. area 0 range 172.16.96.0 255.255.224.0
B. area 0 range 172.16.96.0 255.255.255.0
C. area 1 range 172.16.96.0 255.255.224.0
D. area 1 range 172.16.96.0 255.255.0.0
E. summary-address 172.16.96.0 255.255.224.0
F. summary-address 172.16.96.0 0.0.63.255
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A
QUESTION 47
Which VTP information does a Catalyst switch advertise on its trunk ports when using VTP? (Choose two.)
A. VTP mode
B. STP root status
C. negotiation status
D. management domain
E. configuration revision number
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:DE
QUESTION 48
What is the maximum Ethernet frame size on a trunk link configured using IEEE 802.1Q encapsulation?
A. 1496 Bytes
B. 1500 Bytes
C. 1518 Bytes
D. 1522 Bytes
E. 1548 Bytes
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 49
What are two Cisco IOS commands that can be used to view neighbor adjacencies? (Choose two.)
A. show ip ospf database
B. show ip ospf neighbors
C. show ip ospf protocols
D. show ip ospf interfaces
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BD
QUESTION 50
Which two provide intra-area routing services? (Choose two.)
A. L1 IS
B. L1 ES
C. L2 IS
D. L2 ES
E. L1/L2 IS

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AE Exam D
QUESTION 1
The lack of which two prevents VTP information from propagating between switches? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN 1
B. a trunk port
C. VTP priority
D. a root VTP server
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AB
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R2, R3, R4, and R5 have OSPF enabled. What should be configured on the routers in area 1 to ensure that all default summary routes and redistributed EIGRP routes will be forwarded from R6 to area 1, and only a default route for all other OSPF routes will be forwarded from R5 to area 1.

A. R5(config-router)# area 1 stub R6(config-router)# area 1 stub
B. R5(config-router)# area 1 stub no-summary R6(config-router)# area 1 stub
C. R5(config-router)# area 1 nssa R6(config-router)# area 1 nssa
D. R5(config-router)# area 1 nssa no-summary R6(config-router)# area 1 nssa
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 3
Which statement is true about EBGP?
A. An internal routing protocol can be used to reach an EBGP neighbor.
B. The next hop does not change when BGP updates are exchanged between EBGP neighbors.
C. A static route can be used to form an adjacency between neighbors.
D. EBGP requires a full mesh.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 4
Which two are characteristics of the IS-IS protocol but not OSPF? (Choose two.)
A. provides for network scalability by allowing the network to be separated into areas
B. provides routing support for multiple network layer protocols
C. three layers of hierarchical routing
D. utilizes SPF algorithm
E. forms adjacencies with all neighbors
F. supports demand circuit routing
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BE
QUESTION 5
Which three are benefits of IS-IS over OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. supports more routers in an area
B. does not require Hello packets to establish neighbor relationships
C. produces fewer link state advertisements for a given network
D. supports route tags
E. supports network layer protocols other than IP
F. requires fewer neighbor relationships in a broadcast multiaccess network
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:ACE
QUESTION 6
Which two conditions can cause BGP neighbor establishment to fail? (Choose two.)
A. There is an access list blocking all TCP traffic between the two BGP neighbors.
B. The IBGP neighbor is not directly connected.
C. BGP synchronization is enabled in a transit autonomous system with fully-meshed IBGP neighbors.
D. The BGP update interval is different between the two BGP neighbors.
E. The BGP neighbor is referencing an incorrect autonomous system number in its neighbor statement.
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Answer:AE
QUESTION 7

A. The BGP session to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor is established.
B. The BGP session to the 10.2.2.2 neighbor is established.
C. The BGP session to the 10.3.3.3 neighbor is established.
D. The router is attempting to establish a BGP peering session with the 10.1.1.1 neighbor.
E. The BGP session to the 10.3.3.3 neighbor is established, but the router has not received any BGP routing updates from the 10.3.3.3 neighbor.
F. The router is attempting to establish a BGP peering session with the 10.2.2.2 neighbor.

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AF
QUESTION 8
OSPF is configured over a Frame Relay network as shown in the exhibit. All PVCs are active. However,
R1 and R3 fail to see all OSPF routes in their routing tables. The show ip ospf neighbor command
executed
on R2 shows the state of the neighbors. What should be done to fix the problem?
A. The ip ospf network non-broadcast command should be configured on each Frame Relay interface.
B. The ip ospf network broadcast command should be configured on each Frame Relay interface.
C. The neighbor command should be configured under the OSPF routing process on all routers.
D. The ip ospf priority value on the hub router should be set to 0.
E. The ip ospf priority value on the spoke routers should be set to 0.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer: E
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. All network links are FastEthernet. Although there is complete connectivity throughout the network, Front Line users have been complaining that they experience slower network performance when accessing the server farm than the Reception office experiences. Based on the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Changing the bridge priority of S1 to 4096 would improve network performance.
B. Changing the bridge priority of S1 to 36864 would improve network performance.
C. Changing the bridge priority of S2 to 36864 would improve network performance.
D. Changing the bridge priority of S3 to 4096 would improve network performance.
E. Disabling the Spanning Tree Protocol would improve network performance.
F. Upgrading the link between S2 and S3 to Gigabit Ethernet would improve performance.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BD
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. A workstation PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone access port. Based on the configuration in the exhibit, how will the traffic be managed?

A. The IP phone access port will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
B. The IP phone access port will trust the priority of the frames received from the PC.
C. The switch port Fa0/4 will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
D. The switch port Fa0/4 will trust the priority for the frames received from the PC.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. A trunk link is connected between switch A_SW and switch D_SW. Based on the configuration shown in the exhibit, how would the traffic coming from the switch A_SW be managed?

A. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from the IP phone.
B. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone.
C. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from port Fa0/1 on A_SW.
D. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the A_SW switch port Fa0/4.
E. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone port.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 12
Which option correctly identifies the Cisco IOS switching methods in descending order from the fastest method to the slowest method?
A. CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching, process switching
B. distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching, process switching
C. fast switching, process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
D. process switching, fast switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
E. process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching
F. process switching, CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 13
163. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is verifying that a CEF FIB entry exists to destination network
192.168.150.0. Given the output generated by the show ip cef and show adjacency detail commands, which

A. There is a valid CEF entry for the destination network 192.168.150.0.
B. The “valid cached adjacency” entry indicates that CEF will put all packets going to such an adjacency to the next best switching mode.
C. The counters (0 packets, 0 bytes) indicate a problem with the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
D. There is an adjacency for the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
E. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
F. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the source IP address.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:ADE
QUESTION 14
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
E. SVI is another name for a routed port.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BC
QUESTION 15
What is the effect of configuring the following command on a switch? Switch(config) # spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default
A. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, then PortFast is disabled and the BPDUs are processed normally.
B. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, they are ignored and none are sent.
C. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for Portfast, the port will transition to forwarding state.
D. The command will enable BPDU filtering on all ports regardless of whether they are configured for BPDU filtering at the interface level.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A
QUESTION 16
Which three statements are true about the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)? (Choose three.)
A. IGMP is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of other routing protocols such as EIGRP .
B. IGMP is used to register individual hosts with a multicast group.
C. IGMP messages are IP datagrams with a protocol value of 2, destination address of 224.0.0.2, and a TTL value of 1.
D. IGMP snooping runs on Layer 3 routers.
E. IGMP version 3 enables a multicast receiving host to specify to the router which sources it should forward traffic from.
F. There are three IGMP modes: dense mode, sparse mode, and sparse-dense mode.
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BCE
QUESTION 17
Which two statements are true about Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) snooping? (Choose two.)
A. IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) can be used simultaneously on a switch.
B. IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) were developed to help Layer 3 switches make intelligent forwarding decisions on their own.
C. IGMP snooping examines IGMP join/leave messages so that multicast traffic is forwarded only to hosts that sent an IGMP message toward the router.
D. IGMP snooping is an IP multicast constraining mechanism for Layer 2 switches.
E. IGMP snooping is enabled with the ip multicast-routing global configuration command.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:CD
QUESTION 18
Which two multicast IP addresses can be represented by the multicast MAC address 0100.5e0A.0A07? (Choose two.)
A. 228.10.10.7
B. 228.10.10.8
C. 228.10.138.7
D. 229.11.10.7
E. 229.138.10.7
F. 229.138.10.8
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AE
QUESTION 19
When authentication is required, where must 802.1x be configured in order to connect a PC to a switch?
A. client PC only
B. switch port only
C. switch port and client PC
D. switch port and local router port
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit. The user who is connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1 is on VLAN 10 and cannot access network resources. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which command sequence would correct the problem?

A. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# no shut
B. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access
C. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access SW1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 10
D. SW1(config)# vlan 10 SW1(config-vlan)# no shut
E. SW1(config)# vlan 10 SW1(config-vlan)# state active
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A
QUESTION 21
Which two statements are true about IBGP neighbor relationships? (Choose two.)
A. An EGP or static routing is required between IBGP neighbors.
B. A full-mesh IBGP requires that neighbor relationships be established between all BGP enabled routers in the autonomous system.
C. IBGP neighbors must be in different autonomous systems.
D. The BGP split-horizon rule specifies that routes learned via EBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers.
E. The BGP split horizon rule specifies that routes learned via IBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BE
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. Routers RTA and RTB are running BGP but the session is active. What command needs to be added to establish the BGP session?

A. ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 s0/0 ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 s0/1
B. network 10.10.10.0
C. neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self
D. no synchronization
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A
QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. Given the exhibited router output, which command sequence can be added to R1 to generate a default route into the OSPF domain?

A. default-router
B. ip default-network
C. default-information originate always
D. ip default-gateway
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. What does the command channel-group 1 mode desirable do?

A. enables LACP unconditionally
B. enables PAgPonly if a PAgPdevice is detected
C. enables PAgPunconditionally
D. enables Etherchannel only
E. enables LACP only if a LACP device is detected
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 25
Which three statements are true about IP multicast configuration? (Choose three.)
A. PIM sparse mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
B. PIM dense mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
C. PIM sparse-dense mode acts as PIM dense mode if an RP is not known.
D. PIM sparse-dense mode and PIM dense mode require an RP on the network.
E. PIM sparse mode and PIM sparse-dense mode require an RP on the network.
F. PIM sparse mode and PIM dense mode require an RP on the network.
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BCE
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. For what purpose is the command show ip cef used?

A. to display rewritten IP unicast packets
B. to display ARP resolution packets
C. to display ARP throttling
D. to display TCAM matches
E. to display CEF-based MLS lookups
F. to display entries in the Forwarding Information Base (FIB)
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer: F
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. Host A and Host B are connected to the Catalyst 3550 switch and have been assigned to their respective VLANs. The rest of the 3550 configuration is the default configuration. Host A is able to ping its default gateway, 10.10.10.1, but is unable to ping Host B. Given the output displayed in the
exhibit, which statement is true?

A. HSRP must be configured on SW1.
B. A separate router is required to support interVLAN routing.
C. Interface VLAN 10 must be configured on the SW1 switch.
D. The global config command ip routing must be configured on the SW1 switch.
E. VLANs 10 and 15 must be created in the VLAN database mode.
F. VTP must be configured to support interVLAN routing.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit. Switch P1S1 is not applying VLAN updates from switch P2S1. What are three reasons why this is not occurring? (Choose three.)

A. Switch P2S1 is in server mode.
B. Switch P1S1 is in transparent mode.
C. The MD5 digests do not match.
D. The passwords do not match.
E. The VTP domains are different.
F. VTP trap generation is disabled on both switches.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BDE
QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2,what can we conclude about interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?

A. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplex mismatch with another switch

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 30
Which two statements about multicast addressing are true? (Choose two.)
A. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 24 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
B. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 1.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
E. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
F. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Answer:BD
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN2, VLAN3, and VLAN10 are configured on the switch D-SW1. Host computers are on VLAN 2 (10.1.2.0), servers are on VLAN 3 (10.1.3.0), and the management VLAN is on

A. Enable IP routing on the switch D-SW1.
B. Configure a default route that points toward network 200.1.1.0/24.
C. Assign an IP address of 10.1.3.1/24 to VLAN3.
D. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.2.1 on each host.
E. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.10.1 on each host.
F. Configure default gateways to IP address 200.1.1.2 on each host.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 32
Refer to the show interface Gi0/1 switchport command output shown in the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this interface? (Choose two.)

A. This interface is a dot1q trunk passing all configured VLANs.
B. This interface is configured for access mode.
C. This interface is a member of VLAN1.
D. This interface is a member of VLAN7.
E. This interface is a member of a voice VLAN.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BD
QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

A. IP traffic matching access list ABC is forwarded through VLANs 5-10.
B. IP traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all other traffic will be dropped.
C. All VLAN traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all traffic matching access list ABC is dropped.
D. All VLAN traffic in VLANs 5-10 that match access list ABC will be forwarded, and all else will be dropped.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 34
Which three interface commands will configure the switch port to support a connected Cisco phone and to trust the CoS values received on the port if CDP discovers that a Cisco phone is attached? (Choose three.)
A. mls qos trust override cos
B. mls qos trust cos
C. mls qos trust device cisco-phone
D. switchport priority extend cos_value
E. switchport voice vlan vlan-id
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BCE
QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. How will interface FastEthernnet0/1 respond when an 802.1x-enabled client connects to the port?

A. The switch port will enable 802.1x port-based authentication and begin relaying authentication messages between the client and the authentication server.
B. The switch port will disable 802.1x port-based authentication and cause the port to transition to the authorized state without any further authentication exchange.
C. The switch will cause the port to remain in the unauthorized state, ignoring all attempts by the client to authenticate.
D. The switch will uniquely authorize the client by using the client MAC address.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true when voice traffic is forwarded on the same VLAN used by the data traffic?

A. Quality of service cannot be applied for the voice traffic.
B. The voice traffic cannot be forwarded to the distribution layer.
C. Port security cannot be enabled on the switch that is attached to the IP phone.
D. The voice traffic cannot use 802.1p priority tagging.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 37
Which statement is true about 802.1x port-based authentication?
A. Hosts are required to have a 802.1x authentication client or utilize PPPoE.
B. Before transmitting data, an 802.1x host must determine the authorization state of the switch.
C. RADIUS is the only supported authentication server type.
D. If a host initiates the authentication process and does not receive a response, it assumes it is not authorized.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 38
Which two statements are true about recommended practices in VLAN design? (Choose two.)
A. Routing should occur at the access layer if voice VLANs are utilized. Otherwise, routing should occur at the distribution layer.
B. Routing should always be performed at the distribution layer.
C. Routing should not be performed between VLANs located on separate switches.
D. VLANs should be localized to a switch.
E. VLANs should be localized to a single switch unless voice VLANs are being utilized.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BD
QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration on switch CAT1?

A. The configuration overrides 802.1p priorities on packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of
B. The configuration establishes policed DSCP on ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with values ranging from 8 to
56.
C. The configuration overrides the Quality of Service value in packets entering ports Fa0/11and Fa0/12 with a value of 45.
D. Two IP phones with the MAC addresses of 0008.8595.d1a7 and 0007.8595.d2b7 are connected to CAT1 ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12, respectively.
E. Security violation shutdown mode has been activated for ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12.
F. Untagged Port VLAN ID (PVID) frames will carry voice traffic on VLAN 40.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 40
Which statement is true about the Forward Information Base (FIB) table?
A. The FIB is derived from the IP routing table and is optimized for maximum lookup throughput.
B. The FIB table is derived from the Address Resolution Protocol table, and it contains Layer 2 rewrite (MAC) information for the next hop.
C. The FIB lookup is based on the Layer 2 destination MAC address.
D. When the FIB table is full, a wildcard entry redirects traffic to the Layer 3 engine.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:A
QUESTION 41
Refer to the exhibit. Both host stations are part of the same subnet but are in different VLANs. On the basis of the information presented in the exhibit, which statement is true about an attempt to ping from host to host?

A. A trunk port will need to be configured on the link between Sw_A and Sw_B for the ping command to be successful.
B. The two different hosts will need to be in the same VLAN in order for the ping command to be successful.
C. A Layer 3 device is needed for the ping command to be successful.
D. The ping command will be successful without any further configuration changes.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 42
A. R2# show ip route <output omitted>
10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks
i L1 10.200.200.14/32 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0
i L2 10.200.200.13/32 [115/30] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1
i L1 10.1.3.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0
i L1 10.1.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/0
i L2 10.1.1.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1
i L2 10.1.0.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/1

B. R2# show ip route <output omitted> 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks i L2 10.200.200.14/32 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 i L2 10.200.200.13/32 [115/30] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1 i L1 10.1.3.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 C 10.1.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/0 i L2 10.1.1.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1 C 10.1.0.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/1
C. R2# show ip route <output omitted> 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks i L1 10.200.200.14/32 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 i L2 10.200.200.13/32 [115/30] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1 i L1 10.1.3.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 C 10.1.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/0 i L2 10.1.1.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1 C 10.1.0.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/1
D. R2# show ip route <output omitted> 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 7 subnets, 3 masks i L1 10.200.200.14/32 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 i L2 10.200.200.13/32 [115/30] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1 i L1 10.1.3.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 C 10.1.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/0 i su 10.1.2.0/23 [115/10] via 0.0.0.0, Null0 C 10.1.0.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/1 i L2 10.1.0.0/23 [115/20] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1
E. R2# show ip route <output omitted> 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks i L1 10.200.200.14/32 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 i L1 10.200.200.13/32 [115/30] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 [115/30] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1 i L1 10.1.3.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 C 10.1.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/0 i L1 10.1.1.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1 C 10.1.0.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/1

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 43
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have established a neighbor relationship and are exchanging routing information. The network design requires that R1 receive routing updates from R2, but not advertise any routes to R2. Which configuration command sequence will successfully accomplish this task?

A. R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
B. R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
C. R1(config)# access-list 20 deny any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
D. R2(config)# access-list 20 deny any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
E. R1(config)# access-list 20 permit any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0
F. R2(config)# access-list 20 permit any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 44
Which two statements about the IS-IS routing protocol are true? (Choose two.)
A. In the IS-IS routing domain, routers may have adjacencies with other routers on multipoint links.
B. IS-IS metrics are based on delay, bandwidth, reliability,load, and MTU.
C. Level 1 routers learn about paths within the areas that the routers are connected to.
D. Level 2 routers are equivalent to ABRs in OSPF and learn about paths both within and between areas.
E. Level 1 and Level 2 routing is a function of ES-IS.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Answer:AC
QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit. All multilayer switches are running PIM dense mode. Recipient A and Recipient B

A. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 4 and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
B. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
C. Switch 3 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switch 1 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
E. Switch 1 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
F. Switch 3 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit. All multilayer switches are running PIM sparse mode. Host B and Host F are sending IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which statement is true?

A. The multicast server is the rendezvous point of the multicast tree.
B. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
C. Switches 2 and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree.
E. Switch 1 is the rendezvous of the multicast tree.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:D
QUESTION 47
A router is running BGP and receives more than one route for a particular prefix. Assume all the routes for this prefix have the same attributes. Which three path features would be reasons be for the router to ignore some of the routes and not consider them as candidates for the best path? (Choose three.)
A. paths that are marked as synchronized in the show ip bgp output
B. paths that are marked as not synchronized in the show ip bgp output
C. paths for which the NEXT_HOP is accessible
D. paths for which the NEXT_HOP is inaccessible
E. paths from an external BGP (eBGP) neighbor if the local autonomous system (AS) appears in the AS_PATH
F. paths from an internal BGP (iBGP) neighbor if the local autonomous system (AS) appears in the AS_PATH
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:Answer:BDE
QUESTION 48
Refer to the exhibit. Autonomous systems 200 and 300 have EBGP sessions established with their directly connected routers in autonomous system 100. IGP has been configured on all routers in autonomous system 100 and they successfully exchange routing updates. Traffic originated in autonomous system 200 cannot reach the destination autonomous system 300. What configuration should be done on the routers in autonomous system 100 in order for the traffic coming from autonomous system 200 to be

A. IBGP session must be established between routers R1 and R3, and the synchronization must be turned on.
B. IBGP session must be established between routers R1 and R3, and the synchronization must be turned off.
C. IBGP session must be established between routers R1 R2 and R2 R3, and the synchronization must be turned on.
D. IBGP session must be established between routers R1 R2 and R2 R3, and the synchronization must be turned off.
E. IBGP speakers within autonomous 100 must be fully meshed, and the synchronization must be turned on.
F. IBGP speakers within autonomous 100 must be fully meshed, and the synchronization must be turned off.
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer: F
QUESTION 49
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are IPv6 BGP peers that have been configured to support a neighbor relationship over an IPv4 internetwork. Which three neighbor IP addresses are valid choices to use in the highlighted section of the exhibit? (Choose three.)

A. ::0A43:0002
B. 0A43:0002::
C. ::10.67.0.2
D. 10.67.0.2::
E. 0:0:0:0:0:0:10.67.0.2
F. 10.67.0.2:0:0:0:0:0:0
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:ACE
QUESTION 50
An IPv6 overlay tunnel is required to communicate with isolated IPv6 networks across an IPv4 infrastructure. There are currently five IPv6 overlay tunnel types. Which three IPv6 overlay tunnel statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Overlay tunnels can only be configured between border routers capable of supporting IPv4 and IPv6.
B. Overlay tunnels can be configured between border routers or between a border router and a host capable of supporting IPv4 and IPv6.
C. Cisco IOS supports manual, generic routing encapsulation (GRE), IPv6-compatible, 4to6, and Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) overlay tunneling mechanisms.
D. Cisco IOS supports manual, generic routing encapsulation (GRE), IPv4-compatible, 6to4, and Intra-Site Automatic TunnelAddressing Protocol (ISATAP)overlay tunneling mechanisms.
E. A manual overlay tunnel supports point-to-multipoint tunnels capable of carrying IPv6 and Connectionless Network Service (CLNS) packets.
F. Overlay tunneling encapsulates IPv6 packets in IPv4 packets for delivery across an IPv4 infrastructure.
Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BDF
QUESTION 51
Which three route filtering statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. After the router rip and passive-interface s0/0 commands have been issued, the s0/0 interface will not send any RIP updates, but will receive routing updates on that interface.
B. After the router eigrp 10 and passive-interface s0/0 commands have been issued, the s0/0 interface will not send any EIGRP updates, but will receive routing updates on that interface.
C. After the router ospf 10 and passive-interface s0/0 commands have been issued , the s0/0 interface will not send any OSPF updates, but will receive routing updates on that interface.
D. When you use the passive-interface command with RIPv2, multicasts are sent out the specified interface.
E. When you use the passive-interface command with EIGRP , hello messages are not sent out the specified interface.
F. When you use the passive-interface command with OSPF, hello messages are not sent out the specified interface.

Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AEF
QUESTION 52
Which statement describes the difference between a manually configured IPv6 in IPv4 tunnel versus an automatic 6to4 tunnel?
A. A manually configured IPv6 in IPv4 tunnel allows multiple IPv4 destinations.
B. An automatic 6to4 tunnel allows multiple IPv4 destinations.
C. A manually configured IPv6 in IPv4 tunnel does not require dual-stack (IPv4 and IPv6) routers at the tunnel endpoints.
D. An automatic 6to4 tunnel does not require dual-stack (IPv4 and IPv6) routers at the tunnel endpoints.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:B
QUESTION 53
Which two statements about the IS-IS routing protocol are true? (Choose two.)
A. IS-IS is capable of supporting IPv4 and IPv6.
B. IS-IS is only capable of supporting IPv4 and CLNS.
C. IS-IS routers use ES-IS hellos (ESH) to establish and to maintain neighbor relationships.
D. IS-IS routers run the Bellman-Ford algorithm against their LSDBs to pick the best paths.
E. Level 1 routers learn about paths within the area of which they are a part.
F. Level 2 routers learn about paths both within areas and between areas.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:AE
QUESTION 54
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF has been configured on all routers in the network and Area 1 has been configured as a NSSA. Which statement is true about the NSSA Area 1?

A. Redistributed RIP and IGRP routes will appear in Area 1. They will be advertised via type 5 LSAs.
B. Only redistributed RIP routes will appear in Area 1. They will be advertised via type 7 LSAs.
C. Only redistributed IGRP routes will appear in Area 1. They will be advertised via type 7 LSAs.
D. No redistributed routes can appear in Area 1, only summary routes.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C
QUESTION 55
Which two statements are true about the rendezvous point (RP) in a multicast network? (Choose two.)
A. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast dense mode (PIM DM).
B. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse mode (PIM SM).
C. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse-dense mode (PIM-SDM).
D. The multicast sources must register with the RP to form the multicast distribution tree.
E. The multicast receivers must register with the RP to form the multicast distribution tree.
F. To form the multicast distribution tree, the multicast sources register with and the receivers join the RP.

Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:BF

QUESTION 56
Refer to the exhibit. IP multicast for group address 224.1.1.1 has been enabled on all routers in the network. Hosts on Network A receive the multicast traffic. However,hosts on Network B do not. On the basis of outputs provided, what could be the cause of the problem?

A. Router R2 does not have an RP configured on the multicast network.
B. Router R2 does not see the upstream router R1 as a PIM neighbor.
C. Because of RPF failure, Router R2 does not forward multicast packets to Network B.
D. The multicast packets are sourced from a server with an unspecified IP address.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Answer:C Exam E
QUESTION 1 lab Answer:AB

A. ALswitch#conf t ALswitch(config)#vtp mode client ALswitch(config)#vtp domain CISCO ALswitch(config)#end ALswitch#copy run start DLswitch#conf t DLswitch(config)#vtp mode server DLswitch(config)#vtp domain CISCO DLswitch(config)#vlan 20 DLswitch(config-vlan)#vlan 21 DLswitch(config-vlan)#exit DLswitch(config)#int vlan 20 DLswitch(config-if)#ip add 172.64.200.1 255.255.255.0 DLswitch(config-if)#int vlan 21
B. DLswitch(config-if)#ip add 192.162.39.1 255.255.255.0 DLswitch(config-if)#exit DLswitch(config)#ip routing DLswitch(config)#end DLswitch#copy run start
C.
D.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Answer:AB
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QUESTION 80 Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82

A.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83

Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 84 Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85

B.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 87

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

F.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89 Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91 Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92

A.
B.

D.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93 Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98

B.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 99

C.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 101

A. active
B. speak
C. learn
D. listen
E. init
F. standby
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 60

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 61

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 62

A. acceess
B. non negotiate
C. trunk
D. dynamic desirable
E. dynamic auto
F. none of the other alternatives apply
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 63

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 64

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 65

Correct Answer: Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 66

A. auto
B. negotiate
C. designate
D. non negotiate
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 67

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 68

A. DTP
B. VTP
C. 802.1Q
D. ISL
E. none of the other alternatives apply
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 69

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 70

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 71

A. MST00
B. MST01
C. the last MST instance configured
D. none
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 72

A. 802.11b
B. spanning-tree
C. 802.1q
D. ISL
E. VTP
F. Q.921
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 73

A. region name
B. configuration revision number
C. VLAN INSTANCE MAP
D. ist stp bpdu HELLO TIMER
E. CST instance map
F. PVST+ instance map
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 74

A.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 75

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 76

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 77

Correct Answer: CF Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 78

A. VTP mode
B. STP ROOT STATUS
C. Negotiation status
D. management domain
E. configuration revision number
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 79

D.

E.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 80

A. the host will be allowed to connect
B. the port will shut down
C. the host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected
D. the host will be refused access
E. none of th other alternatvies apply
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 81

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 82

A. snooping attack
B. rougue device attack
C. STP attack
D. VLAN attack
E. spoofing attack
F. MAC flooding attack
Correct Answer: E Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 83

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 84

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 85

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 86

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 87

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 88

A. ports 0/1 and 0/2
B. the trunk port 0/22 and ethernchannel ports
C. ports 0/1 0/2 and 0/3
D. ports 0/1 0/2 and 0/3, the trunk port 0/22 and ethernchannel ports
E. port 0/1
F. ports 0/1 0/2 and 0/3, the trunk port 0/22
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 89

A. EAP over LAN
B. EAP MD5
C. STP
D. portocols not filtered by an ACL
E. CDP
F. TACACS+
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 90

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 91

Correct Answer: F Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 92

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 93

A. STP
B. CDP
C. EAP MD5
D. TACACS+
E. EAP-over-LAN
F. portocols not filtered by an ACL
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 94

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 95

E.
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 96

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 97

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 98

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

F.

Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 99

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 100

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 101

A. trunk
B. isolated
C. primary
D. community
E. promiscous
F. non of the alternatives apply
Correct Answer: E Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 102

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 103

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 104

A.
B.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 105

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 106

C.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 107

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 108

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 109

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 110

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 111

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 112

A. hubs
B. switch
C. router
D. bridge
E. none of the other alternatvies apply
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 113

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 114 Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 115

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 116

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 117

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 118

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 119

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 120

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121 Correct Answer: BC Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 122

A. ip routing
B. switchport mode trunk
C. no switchport
D. switchport turnk native vlan 1
E. none of the other alternatives apply
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 123

A. configure VACLs

C.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none)
Explanation

QUESTION 124

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 125

B.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 127

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 128

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

F.

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 129 Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 130

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 131

A.

C.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 132

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

F.

Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 133

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none)Explanation

QUESTION 134

Select and Place: Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 135

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 136

A. accounting
B. analog and digital voice
C. mobility
D. security
E. routing and switching
F. VLAN and QoS
Correct Answer: CDF Section: (none) Explanation

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QUESTION 73
With Cisco Express Forwarding, prefixes that require exception processing can be cached with one of
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
which four special adjacencies. (Choose four.)
A. forward
B. null
C. glean
D. kick
E. discard
F. drop

Correct Answer: BCEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 74
Refer to the exhibit. Why are users from VLAN 100 unable to ping users on VLAN 200?

A. Encapsulation on the switch is wrong.
B. Trunking needs to be enabled on Fa0/1.
C. The native VLAN is wrong.
D. VLAN 1 needs the no shutdown command.
E. IP routing needs to be enabled on the switch.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
QUESTION 75
Refer to the exhibit. What problem is preventing users on VLAN 100 from pinging addresses on VLAN
200?

A. No default route on DLS1.
B. Encapsulation mismatch between switches.
C. Native VLAN mismatch.
D. Subinterfaces should be created on Fa0/7 and Fa0/8 on DLS1.
E. Trunking needs to be enabled.
F. The ip routing command is missing on DLS1.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
An attacking device has gained unauthorized access to data on a different VLAN through the use of
double tagging. What is the name of this network attack?
A. switch spoofing TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
B. IP spoofing
C. VLAN hopping
D. VLAN jumping
E. DHCP spoofing
F. MAC flooding

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
Which three characteristics are true about voice traffic in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. bursty
B. greedy
C. drop sensitive
D. delay sensitive
E. UDP priority
F. TCP retransmits

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
Which three characteristics are true about voice traffic in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. TCP retransmits
B. benign
C. greedy
D. drop sensitive
E. smooth
F. delay insensitive

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
Which two statements are true about voice VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. Voice VLANs allow IP phones to be moved around without worrying about subnets.
B. Voice VLANs allow voice and data packets to be logically combined.
C. Implementing voice VLANs causes network administrators to change their existing IP topology.
D. Using voice VLANs makes it easier for network administrators to identify and troubleshoot network TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside problems.
E. Voice VLANs are available on all Cisco switches.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
Which two statements are true about trust boundaries? (Choose two.)
A. Classifying and marking traffic should be done as close to the traffic source as possible.
B. Classifying and marking traffic should be done at the distribution layer.
C. Traffic is classified and marked as it travels through the network.
D. If untrusted traffic enters a switch, it can be marked with a new QoS value appropriate for the policy in place.
E. The trust boundary moves depending on the type of traffic entering the network.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
In the event that two devices need access to a common server, but they cannot communicate with each
other, which security feature should be configured to mitigate attacks between these devices?
A. port security
B. dynamic ARP inspection
C. DHCP snooping
D. private VLANs
E. BPDU guard

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
A hacker is interested in seeing traffic from all switch ports on the switch that he is connected to,
including the ports belonging to other VLANs. What type of attack is he likely to implement?
A. MAC address flooding
B. ARP attack
C. spoofing attack
D. DHCP attack
E. VLAN hopping

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
QUESTION 83
Which statement best summarizes how DHCP snooping works?
A. DHCP snooping validates the header information of all DHCP replies and only allows the reply through if it has a matching request in the DSRT.
B. DHCP snooping validates all DHCP responses from all switch ports and only allows packets through if the destination port sent a DHCP request in the last 5 seconds.
C. DHCP snooping validates all DHCP responses from all switch ports and only allows packets through if the destination port specifically sent a DHCP request.
D. DHCP snooping determines which switch ports are trusted and can source all DHCP messages.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 84
Which three statements are true about DAI? (Choose three.)
A. DAI determines the validity of an ARP packet based on the valid MAC address-to-IP address bindings stored in the DHCP Snooping database.
B. DAI forwards all ARP packets received on a trusted interface without any checks.
C. DAI determines the validity of an ARP packet based on the valid MAC address-to-IP address bindings stored in the CAM table.
D. DAI forwards all ARP packets received on a trusted interface after verifying and inspecting the packet against the DAI table.
E. DAI intercepts all ARP packets on untrusted ports.
F. DAI is used to prevent against a DHCP Snooping attack.

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
What does the auto qos voip cisco-phone command do?
A. If a Cisco IP phone is attached, the switch trusts the CoS.
B. The switch assigns a CoS value of 5 to incoming packets.
C. It turns on STP to see if a Cisco IP phone is attached.
D. If a Cisco IP phone is attached and removed, the switch continues to trust the CoS values as long as the switch is not rebooted.
E. It disables the trust boundary feature because the switch knows a Cisco IP phone is attached. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 86
A network administrator would like to configure 802.1x port-based authentication, however, the client workstation is not 802.1x compliant. What is the only supported authentication server that can be used?
A. TACACS with LEAP extensions
B. TACACS+
C. RADIUS with EAP extensions
D. LDAP

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
A switch has been configured with PVLANs. With what type of PVLAN port should the default gateway be configured?
A. Isolated
B. Promiscuous
C. Community
D. Primary
E. Trunk

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
Workstations on a segment with HSRP running should have their IP default gateway configured for which device?
A. standby router
B. virtual router
C. router physically connected to the network segment
D. router closest to the network segment
E. backup router

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
Refer to the exhibit. The lightweight wireless architecture splits the processing of the 802.11 data and management protocols and the access point functionality between the access point and the WLAN
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
controller using split MAC approach. Which three functionalities are handled by the WLAN controller?
(Choose three.)

A. the transmission of beacon frames
B. the portions of the protocol that have real-time requirements
C. the response to Probe Request frames from clients
D. 802.11 authentication
E. 802.11 association and re-association (mobility)
F. 802.11 frame translation and bridging

Correct Answer: DEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
What is the function of the Service Set Identifier (SSID) in the wireless LAN?
A. The SSID should be configured on the client site only and provides data-privacy functions and authentication to the access point.
B. The SSID must match on both the client and the access point. The SSID is advertised in plain-text in the access point beacon messages.
C. The SSID must match on both the client and the access point and provides encryption keys for authentication to the access point.
D. The SSID must match on both the client and the access point and provides MAC Address Authentication to authenticate the client to the access point.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Refer to the exhibit. Three different wireless groups of users are allowed to gain access to the wireless
LAN. What type of security policy should be enforced for the users in the Guest group?
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Testinside

A. static WEP and MAC authentication
B. LEAP authentication
C. primary SSID with open or no WEP authentication
D. open authentication with WEP plus MAC authentication

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the repeater access point that is deployed in this wireless network?

A. The repeater access point should use a different SSID than the SSID configured on the parent access point.
B. The repeater access point should use a different WEP encryption method than the WEP encryption that is enabled on the parent access point.
C. The repeater access point reduces the throughput in half because it receives and then re-transmits each packet on the same channel.
D. The repeater access point requires a 10 percent channel overlap with channel of the root access point.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 93
What are two differences between the Autonomous WLAN solution and the Lightweight WLAN solution?
(Choose two.)
A. TACACS+ can only be used for authentication with the Cisco Lightweight WLAN solution.
B. CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine can be used for management with the Autonomous WLAN Solution.
C. CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine can be used for management with the Lightweight WLAN Solution.
D. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is used to configure the access points in the Lightweight WLAN solution.
E. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is used to configure the access points in the Autonomous WLAN solution.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
Which statement is true about the data traffic between the access point and controller?
A. The data traffic is switched at the access point before being sent to the WLAN controller where VLAN tagging and QoS are applied.
B. The data traffic is encrypted with AES.
C. The data traffic between the access point and controller is encrypted.
D. The data traffic is encapsulated with LWAPP.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95
How are VRRP messages exchanged between routers sharing a common LAN segment?
A. VRRP relies on TCP to open a connection and to maintain that connection using TCP keepalives.
B. Unicast IP addresses with UDP port ID 112.
C. Destination IP address 224.0.0.18 with IP Protocol ID 112.
D. VRRP messages are directly encapsulated into the Ethernet data field using type code 0x112.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the minimal VRRP configuration, which VRRP command issued on RTA
will ensure that RTA is the master virtual router?
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A. vrrp 100 priority 0
B. vrrp 100 priority 1
C. vrrp 100 priority 100
D. vrrp 100 priority 254
E. vrrp 100 preempt
F. no vrrp 100 preempt

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
Refer to the exhibit. What does the output of the debug command indicate on VRRP router RTA?
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A. VRRP is not active on RTA.
B. RTB does not have VRRP active.
C. RTA does not have VRRP preempt active.
D. RTB has a different IP address coded for VRRP group 1 than RTA.
E. RTB has the same IP address coded on its Ethernet interface as RTA.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
Which method enables GLBP to forward traffic from a LAN segment via multiple routers
simultaneously?
A. Clients need to have different default gateway IP addresses coded.
B. Separate GLBP groups are coded on the routers.
C. The AVG assigns different virtual MAC addresses.
D. Multiple AVG designated routers respond to ARP requests.
E. Proxy ARP allows multiple routers to respond to ARP requests from clients.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 99
How are GLBP messages exchanged between routers that share a common LAN segment?
A. GLBP messages are multicast to UDP port ID 3222.
B. GLBP messages are directly encapsulated into the Ethernet data field using type code 3222.
C. GLBP relies on TCP to open a connection and to maintain that connection using TCP keepalives.
D. Routers inform clients with GLBP messages and use ARP messages to exchange information about first-hop redundancy.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
Which method used by GLBP allows the AVG to prefer one GLBP router as the AVF over other GLBP routers until its tracked interface goes down, when another router might be more preferred?
A. no glbp group load-balancing
B. glbp group load-balancing host-dependent
C. glbp group load-balancing round-robin
D. glbp group load-balancing weighted

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 101
Refer to the exhibit. If VLAN 21 does not exist before typing the commands, what is the result of the configuration applied on switch SW1?

A. A new VLAN 21 is created and port 0/8 is assigned to that VLAN.
B. A new VLAN 21 is created, but no ports are assigned to that VLAN.
C. No VLAN 21 is created and no ports are assigned to that VLAN.
D. Configuration command vlan database should be used first to create the VLAN 21.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 102
Refer to the exhibit. The link between switch SW1 and switch SW2 is configured as a trunk, but the trunk failed to establish connectivity between the switches. Based on the configurations and the error TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam
http://www.TestInside.com Testinside messages received on the console of SW1, what is the cause of the problem?

A. The two ends of the trunk have different duplex settings.
B. The two ends of the trunk have different EtherChannel configuration.
C. The two ends of the trunk have different native VLAN configuration.
D. The two ends of the trunk allow different VLANs on the trunk.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 103
What action should a network administrator take to enable VTP pruning on an entire management
domain?
A. enable VTP pruning on any client switch in the domain
B. enable VTP pruning on every switch in the domain
C. enable VTP pruning on any switch in the management domain
D. enable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 104
Which process plays a major role in the creation of the CEF adjacency table?
A. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
B. PDU header rewrite
C. NetFlow switching
D. hello packet exchange

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 105
How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?
A. by restricting unicast traffic to across VTP domains
B. by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs
C. by limiting the spreading of VLAN information
D. by disabling periodic VTP updates

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 106
The network operations center has received a call stating that users in VLAN 107 are unable to access
resources through Router 1. From the information contained in the graphic, what is the cause of this
problem?
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A. VLAN 107 does not exist on switch A.
B. VTP is pruning VLAN 107
C. VLAN 107 is not configured on the trunk
D. spanning tree is not enabled on VLAN 107

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 107
Which two table types are CEF components?(Choose two.)
A. forwarding information base
B. adjacency tables
C. neighbor tables TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com
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D. caching tables
E. route tables

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 108
Which Cisco IOS command assigns a Catalyst switch port to VLAN 10?
A. switchport mode vlan 10
B. switchport trunk native 10
C. switchport access vlan 10
D. switchport mode access vlan 10

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 109
Which statement is true regarding the configuration of ISL trunks?
A. All Catalyst switches support ISL trunking.
B. A Catalyst switch will report giants if one side is configured for ISL while the other side is not.
C. ISL trunking requires that native VLANs match.
D. A Catalyst switch cannot have ISL and IEEE 802.1q trunks enabled.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
Which three statements are true regarding the above diagram? (Choose three.)
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A. A trunk link will be formed.
B. Only VLANs 1-1001 will travel across the trunk link.
C. The native VLAN for Switch B is vlan 1.
D. DTP is not running on Switch A.
E. DTP packets are sent from Switch B.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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