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[Free New Dumps Version] Latest Release Cisco SWITCH 300-115 Dump Exam Question Youtube Study Guide Free Shared

Where do I get trusted Cisco dumps for 300-115? The Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (300-115 SWITCH) exam is a 120 minutes (30-40 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNP Routing and Switching, CCDP certification. Latest release Cisco SWITCH 300-115 dump exam question Youtube study guide free shared. “Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 300-115 dump test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 300-115 exam. CCNP Routing and Switching SWITCH https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-115.html dump guide from Pass4itsure enables you to succeed on the exam the first time and is the only self-study resource approved by Cisco.

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300-115 dumps

Free Pass4itsure 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 33 A switch is added into the production network to increase port capacity. A network engineer is configuring the switch for DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard, but is unable to configure ip verify source under several of the interfaces. Which option is the cause of the problem?
A. The local DHCP server is disabled prior to enabling IP Source Guard.
B. The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.
C. No VLANs exist on the switch and/or the switch is configured in VTP transparent mode.
D. The switch is configured for sdm prefer routing as the switched database management template.
E. The configured SVIs on the switch have been removed for the associated interfaces.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34 Which command correctly configures standby tracking for group 1 using the default decrement priority value?
A. standby 1 track 100
B. standby 1 track 100 decrement 1
C. standby 1 track 100 decrement 5
D. standby 1 track 100 decrement 20
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35 Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36 RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch. Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.

B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch isoverloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37 Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, localusername, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38 You are giving the debug RHCT exam. The examiner told you that the password of root is redhat. When you tried to login displays the error message and redisplayed the login screen. You changed the root password, again unable to login as a root. How will you make Successfully Login as a root.
Answer and Explanation:
When root unable to login into the system think:
1. Is password correct?
2. Is account expired?
3. Is terminal Blocked?
Do these Steps:
. Boot the System on Single user mode.
. Change the password
. Check the account expire date by using chage -l root command.
If account is expired, set net expire date: chage -E “NEVER” root
1. Check the file /etc/securetty Which file blocked to root login from certain terminal.
2. If terminal is deleted or commented write new or uncomment.
3. Reboot the system and login as a root.
QUESTION 39 You are giving RHCT Exam and in your Exam paper there is a written, make successfully ping to 192.168.0.254.
300-115 vce Answer and Explanation:
In Network problem thinks to check:
1. IP Configuration: use ifconfig command either IP is assigned to interface or not?

2. Default Gateway is set or not?
3. Hostname is set or not?
4. Routing problem is there?
5. Device Driver Module is loaded or not?
6. Device is activated or not?
Check In this way:
1. use ifconfig command and identify which IP is assigned or not.
2. cat /etc/sysconfig/network What, What is written here. Actually here are these parameters.
NETWORKING=yes or no
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
HOSTNAME=?
NISDOMAIN=?
– Correct the file
QUESTION 40 Use vi /etc/sysconfig/network-scirpts/ifcfg-eth0 and check the proper options
DEVICE=eth0
ONBOOT=yes
BOOTPROTO=static
IPADDR=x.x.x.x
NETMAKS=x.x.x.x
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
QUESTION 41  Set the Hostname station?.example.com where ? is your Host IP Address.
300-115 exam Answer and Explanation:
1. hostname station?.example.com This will set the host name only for current session. To set hostname permanently.
2. vi /etc/sysconfig/network HOSTNAME=station?.example.com
3. service network restart

QUESTION 42 The System you are using is for NFS (Network File Services). Some important data are shared from your system. Make automatically start the nfs and portmap services at boot time.
Answer and Explanation:
We can control the services for current session and for next boot time also. For current Session, we use service servicename start or restart or stop or status. For automatically on next reboot time:
1. chkconfig servicename on or off
eg: chkconfig nfs on chkconfig portmap on or ntsysv Select the nfs and portmap services.
2. Reboot the system and identify whether services are running or not.

QUESTION 43
Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?
A. Control Quality
B. Control Scope
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule
compared to the contract is known as:
A. Work performance information.
B. Inspections and audits.
C. Payment systems.
D. Procurement performance reviews.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?
A. Project Communications Management
B. Project Integration Management
C. Project Risk Management
D. Project Scope Management
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate
Costs process?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk register
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
A. Organizational process assets.
B. Enterprise environmental factors updates.
C. Project staff assignments.
D. Organizational charts and position descriptions.
300-115 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete
project activities is known as:
A. Plan Human Resource Management.
B. Acquire Project Team.
C. Manage Project Team.
D. Develop Project Team.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
Which item is an example of personnel assessment?
A. Resource calendar
B. Tight matrix
C. Team-building activity
D. Focus group
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Initiating
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 51
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can
best be involved in a project?
A. Feedback analysis
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Communication management plan
D. Stakeholder management plan
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected
product before actually building is known as:
A. Benchmarking.
B. Context diagrams.
C. Brainstorming.
D. Prototyping.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 53
Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?
A. Power/influence grid
B. Power/interest grid
C. Influence/impact grid
D. Salience model
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?
A. Facilitation techniques
B. Expert judgment
C. Analytical techniques
D. Variance analysis
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?
A. Control charts
B. Pareto diagrams
C. Ishikavva diagrams

D. Checksheets
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:
A. Collect Requirements.
B. Conduct Procurements.
C. Estimate Activity Durations.
D. Estimate Activity Resources.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?
A. Procurement documents
B. Communications plan
C. Project charter
D. Stakeholder register
300-115 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Executing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:
A. Business case.
B. Activity list.
C. Project management plan.
D. Cost forecast.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?
A. Change request
B. Requirements documentation
C. Scope baseline
D. Risk urgency assessment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?
A. Control Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Identify Risks
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:
A. Nominal group technique.
B. Majority.
C. Affinity diagram.
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:
A. mitigate
B. accept
C. transfer
D. avoid
300-115 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:
A. A process improvement plan,
B. Quality control measurements.
C. Work performance information,
D. The project management plan.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 65
A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:
A. Change control plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Risk log
D. Communications management plan
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?
A. Enhance
B. Share
C. Exploit
D. Accept
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:
A. Expert judgment.
B. Analytical techniques.
C. Earned value management.
D. Group decision-making techniques.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?
A. Timing
B. Methodology
C. Risk categories
D. Budgeting
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?
A. Negative
B. Zero
C. Positive
D. Free
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
A reward can only be effective if it is:
A. Given immediately after the project is completed.
B. Something that is tangible.
C. Formally given during project performance appraisals.
D. Satisfying a need valued by the individual.
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and
analysis?
A. Nominal group technique
B. Idea/mind mapping
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 73
Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and
complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement
for a current project describes which type of estimating?
A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric
C. Analogous
D. Three-point
300-115 exam Correct Answer: C
300-115 dumps

“Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks”, also known as 300-115 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-115 dump exam questions answers are updated (456 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 300-115 dump is CCNP Routing and Switching, CCDP. Expert engineer shares preparation hints and test-taking tips, helping you identify areas of weakness and improve https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-115.html dumps both your conceptual knowledge and hands-on skills.

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[Free New Dumps Version] Most Hottest Cisco Specialist 700-260 Dumps PDF Study Material Advanced Security Architecture for Account Manager

Where can I get Cisco 700-260 dumps? The Advanced Security Architecture for Account Manager (700-260) exam is a 50 Q&As assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the Cisco certification.”Advanced Security Architecture for Account Manager” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 700-260 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 700-260 exam. Yes you can prepare 700-260 dumps certification test easily.

Most hottest Cisco Specialist 700-260 dumps pdf study material Advanced Security Architecture for Account Manager. If you want suggestion then I want to recommend you Cisco exam dumps because from here you can get real and most up-to-date https://www.pass4itsure.com/700-260.html dumps.

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700-260 dumps

Free Pass4itsure 700-260 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 1
Increased employee productivity, confidence in data confidentiality, and increased visibility are features that demonstrate which Cisco business value?
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Protection
C. Control
D. Flexibility
E. Completeness
700-260 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which licensing feature enables customers to better manage their software assets and optimize their IT spending?
A. Cisco ONE
B. Smart Accounts
C. Enterprise License Agreements
D. License Bundling
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which Cisco network security solution helps protect against threats by monitoring and responding to any network anomalies, continually analyzing for potential threats and reacting to them in real time?
A. Cisco Security Manager
B. Cisco ASA Firewall Services
C. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
D. Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
E. Cisco Web Security Appliance
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance
G. Cisco Identity Services Engine
H. Cisco Site-to-Site VPN
700-260 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Identity Services Engine
D. Cisco Security Manager
E. Cisco TrustSec
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Upon which component are security solutions directly built in the Cisco future solutions architecture framework?
A. Security intelligence operations
B. Third-party applications

C. Management and intelligence capabilities
D. Cisco security platforms
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
At which point during the attack continuum does a customer experience limited remediation tools?
A. Across the entire continuum
B. During
C. Before
D. After
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which technology solution can resolve the inability of a customer to properly restrict and authorize access to protected resources while still introducing new applications, devices, and business partnerships?
A. Cisco Secure Data Center
B. Cisco Cyber Threat Defense
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Cloud
E. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure
F. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
700-260 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Utilizing the Cisco software lifecycle generates which two benefits for partners? (Choose two.)
A. Adaptable deployment
B. Software portability
C. Improved sales performance
D. Cisco incentives
E. Increased efficiencies
F. Sales promotions
G. Customer support
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 9
Which Cisco security benefit is a differentiator that allows partners to plan and model their businesses?
A. Comprehensive vision for security
B. One solution to fit every need
C. Unparalleled commitment
D. Lowest price points
E. Best-in-class technologies
700-260 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What is the primary customer challenge that is created by the wide variety of security solution providers on
the market?
A. Choosing the right provider

B. Contacting all providers for information
C. Finding a low-cost option
D. Determining the single best security product
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Automatic updates and post-attack guidance are features that demonstrate which Cisco business value?
A. Completeness
B. Cost effectiveness
C. Flexibility
D. Control
E. Protection
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
End-to-end protection and protection across the attack continuum are features that demonstrate which two Cisco business values? (Choose two.)
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Protection
C. Control
D. Flexibility
E. Completeness
700-260 dumps Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 13
The unmatched security that Cisco offers is demonstrated by its long-standing experience in which two
options? (Choose two.)
A. Mobile solutions
B. Networks
C. Software
D. Security
E. Devices
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 14
Click the exhibit button.
Given the diagram in the exhibit, what would be the correct static route configuration on the router on the right, if it is an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. config> static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.1.2.2
B. config>router> static-route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 next-hop 10.1.2.1
C. config>router> static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.1.2.2
D. config>router> static-route 0 0.0 0/0 next-hop 10.1.2.1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements regarding link state protocols are true? (Choose two)
A. When a router receives updates from its neighbors, it adds them to its link state database, performs an SPF computation, and sends the results to its neighbors.
B. An SPF computation is done by each router to determine the best path to destination networks. All the best paths determined by the SPF calculation will be seen in the route table.
C. Each router constructs its own link state database with updates received from neighbors.
D. An SPF computation is done by each router to determine the best path to destination networks. All the
best paths determined by the SPF calculation will be offered to the route table manager.
700-260 vce Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 16
Which of the following OSPFv3 LSAs have an AS scope?
A. Link Local LSA
B. Router LSA
C. Network LSA
D. Inter-Area Router LSA
E. Intra-Area Prefix LSA
F. None of the above LSAs have an AS scope.
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 17
An operator configures an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR with a loopback interface and IPv6 address. The
operator then configures a routing policy to redistribute the loopback prefix into OSPFv3. What type of LSA
is used to advertise the route to other OSPFv3 routers in the same area?
A. Router LSA
B. AS External LSA
C. Intra-Area Prefix LSA
D. Inter-Area Prefix LSA
E. Network LSA
F. None of the statements are correct.
700-260  exam Correct Answer: B

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[Free New Dumps Version] Most Hottest Cisco 400-101 Dumps PDF With High Quality Youtube Training BY Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert

Why you really need Cisco 400-101 dumps? “CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam” also known as 400-101 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Most hottest Cisco 400-101 dumps pdf with high quality Youtube training by Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert. Pass4itsure Cisco 400-101 dumps exam questions answers are updated (828 Q&As) are verified by experts.

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Exam Code: 400-101
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam
Q&As: 828

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400-101 dumps

Free Pass4itsure 400-101 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 1
Which statement about a type 4 LSA in OSPF is true?
A. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR,that is flooded throughout the AS,and that describes a route to the ASBR.
B. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR,that is flooded throughout the AS,and that describes a route to the ABR.
C. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR,that is flooded throughout the AS,and that describes a route to the ASBR.
D. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR,that is flooded throughout the area,and that describes a route to the ASBR.
E. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR,that is flooded throughout the area,and that describes a route to the ASBR.
Pass4itsure 400-101 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which ISAKMP feature can protect a GDOI from a hacker using a network sniffer while a security
association is established?
A. An ISAKMP phase 1 security association
B. An ISAKMP phase 2 security association
C. The Proof of Possession(POP)
D. A ISAKMP phase 2 GROUPKEY-PUSH exchange
E. An ISAKMP phase 2 GROUPKEY-PULL exchange
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which three statements about Ansible are true? {Choose three.)
A. Ansible by default manages remote machines over SSL.
B. No ports other than the SSH port are required ; there is no additional PKI infrastructure to maintain.
C. Ansible requires remote agent software.
D. Ansible by default manages remote machines over SSH.
E. Ansible does not require specific SSH keys or dedicated users.
F. Ansible requires server software running on a management machine.
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which statement is true about conditional advertisements?
A. Conditional advertisements create routes when a predefined condition is met.
B. Conditional advertisements create routes when a predefined condition is not met.

C. Conditional advertisements delete routes when a predefined condition is met.
D. Conditional advertisements create routes and withhold them until a predefined condition is met.
E. Conditional advertisements do not create routes, they only withhold them until a predefined condition is met.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which two options are benefits of moving the application development workload to the cloud?(Choose two.)
A. The application availability is not affected by the loss of a single virtual machine.
B. The workload can be moved or replicated easily.
C. it provides you full control over the software packages and vendor used.
D. :High availability and redundancy is handled by the hypervisor.
E. it provides a more secure environment.
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which two statements about DMVPN with NHRP are true? (Choose two)
A. NHRP shortens the configuration of the hub router.
B. NHRP dynamically provides information about the spoke routers to the hub.
C. NHRP disables multicast
D. The hub router uses NHRP to initiate the GRE tunnel with spokes.
E. The spoke routers act as the NHRP servers.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 7
When is it useful to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface?
A. Disable it when you want to provide additional backup paths in your network.
B. Disable it when you want to send routes that are learned from another routing protocol to peer on the same interface.
C. Disable it when you need to send updates to peers on the interface on which the updates were received.
D. It is never advisable to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface.
400-101 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 8

400-101 dumps

Refer to the exhibit. Which two route types advertised by a router with this configuration? (Choose two)
A. connected
B. summary
C. static
D. redistributed
E. external
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which feature can you implement to most efficiently protect customer traffic in a rate-limited WAN Ethernet service?
A. IntServ with RSVP
B. DiffServ
C. Q-in-Q
D. The IPsec VTI qos pre-classify command
E. HCBWFQ
400-101 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label information table
C. the label forwarding information base
D. the IP routing table
E. the adjacency table
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Which command can you enter to allow a multicast-enabled router to advertise itself to the BSR router as PIMv2 c-RP?
A. ip pim autorp listener
B. ip pim send-rp-announce
C. ip pim rp-candidate
D. ip pim rp-address
E. ip pim send-rp- discovery
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding are true? (Choose two)
A. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when distributed Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
B. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the adjacency table.
C. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
D. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the FIB table.
E. The FIB table resides on the route processor and the adjacency table resides on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION NO: 13
Given the following formula in a calculation field that returns a Text result: Let (tmp = “2 * 5” ; Evaluate (Quote (tmp)))
What will be returned?
A. The value 10
B. The value tmp
C. The value 2 *5
D. The value “10”, quotes included
E. The value “tmp”, quotes included
F. The value “2 * 5”, quotes included
400-101 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
Given the following formula;
Substitute (“JoHn” ; [“J” ; “0”] ; [“0” ; “H”] ; [“H” ; “N”] ; [“N” ; “n”]) What is the result?
A. nonn
B. nnnn
C. OoNn
D. OHNn
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 15
Given a text field myText that contains “red-blue-green”, which two formulas could be used to extract the word “blue” from the field? (Choose two.)
A. Filter(myText ; “blue”)
B. MiddleWords(myText; 2 ; 2)
C. PatternMatch(myText ; “blue”)
D. GetValue(Substitute { myText ; “-” ; “¶” ); 2)
E. Middle(myText; Position(myText ; “-” ; 1 ; 1)+ 1 ; 4)
400-101 vce Answer: D,E
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION 51
An internal auditor for a large automotive parts retailer wishes to perform a risk analysis and wants to use an appropriate statistical tool to help identify stores that
would be out of line compared to the majority of stores. The most appropriate statistical tool to use is:
A. Lineartime series analysis.
B. Cross-sectional regression analysis.
C. Cross tabulations with chi-square analysis of significance

D. Time series multiple regression analysis to identify changes in individual stores over time.
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Time series data pertain to a given entity over a number of prior time periods. Cross-sectional data, however, pertain to different entities for a given time period or
at a given time. Thus, cross-sectional regression analysis is the most appropriate statistical tool because it compares attributes of all stores’ operating statistics at
one moment in time.
QUESTION 52
What coefficient of correlation results from the following data?
A. 0
B. -1
C. +1
D. Cannot be determined from the data given.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The coefficient of correlation (in standard notation, r) measures the strength of the linear relationship. The magnitude of ris independent of the scales of
measurement of x and y. Its range is -1 to +1. A value of -1 indicates a perfectly inverse linear relationship between x and y. A value of zero indicates no linear
relationship between x and y. A value of 1 indicates a perfectly direct relationship between x and y As x increases by 1, y consistently decreases by 2. Hence, a
perfectly inverse relationship exists, and r must be equal to -1.
QUESTION 53
In regression analysis, which of the following correlation coefficients represents the strongest relationship between the independent and dependent variables?
A. 1.03
B. -.02
C. -.89
D. .75
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Because the range of values is between-1 and 1.-89 suggests a very strong inverse relationship between the independent and dependent variables. A value of –1
signifies a perfect inverse relationship, and a value of 1 signifies a perfect direct relationship.
QUESTION 54
The following data on variables x and y was collected from June to October.
The correlation coefficient between variables x and y is nearest to:
A. 1.0
B. -1.0
C. 0.5
D. 0.0
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The simplest way to solve this problem is to use a scatter diagram:

The data points appear to form a straight line with a negative slope. Thus,-1 is the best estimate of the coefficient of correlation.
QUESTION 55
The correlation coefficient that indicates the weakest linear association between two variables is:
A. -0.73
B. -0.11
C. 0.12
D. 0.35
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The correlation coefficient can vary from -1 to +1. A–1 relationship indicates a perfect inverse correlation, and a +1 relationship indicates a perfect direct
correlation. A zero correlation coefficient indicates no linear association between the variables. Thus, the correlation coefficient that is nearest to zero would
indicate the weakest linear association. Of the options given in the question, the correlation coefficient that is nearest to zero is -0.11.
QUESTION 56
Correlation is a term frequently used in conjunction with regression analysis and is measured by the value of the coefficient of correlation, r. The best explanation
of the value r is that it:
A. Is always positive.
B. Interprets variances in terms of the independent variable.
C. Ranges in size from negative infinity to positive infinity.
D. Is a measure of the relative relationship between two variables.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The coefficient of correlation (r) measures the strength of the linear relationship between the dependent and independent variables. The magnitude of r is
independent of the scales of measurement of xand y. The coefficient has a range of-1 to +1. A value of zero indicates no linear relationship between the x and y
variables. A value of+1 indicates a perfectly direct relationship, and a value of –1 indicates a perfectly inverse relationship.
QUESTION 57
In preparing the annual profit plan for the coming year.
Based upon the data derived from the regression analysis, 420 maintenance hours in a month would mean the maintenance costs (rounded to the nearest US
dollar) would be budgeted at:
A. US$3,780
B. US$3,600
C. US$3,790
D. US$3,746
200-155  vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Substituting the given data into the regression equation results in a budgeted cost of US $3,746 (rounded to the nearest US dollar).
y=a + bx
= 684.65 + 7.2884(420)
= US $3,746
Answer:
QUESTION 58
In preparing the annual profit plan for the coming year.
What is the percentage of the total variance that can be explained by the regression equation?
A. 99.724%
B. 69.613%
C. 80.982%
D. 99.862%
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The coefficient of determination (r2) measures the percentage of the total variance in cost that can be explained by the regression equation. If the coefficient of
determination is .99724,99.724% of the variance is explained by the regression equation. Thus, the values in the regression equation explain virtually the entire
amount of total cost.
QUESTION 59
The internal auditor of a bank has developed a multiple regression model that has been used for a number of years to estimate the amount of interest income from
commercial loans. During the current year, the auditor applies the model and discovers that the r2 value has decreased dramatically, but the model otherwise
seems to be working.
Which of the following conclusions is justified by the change?
A. Changing to a cross-sectional regression analysis should cause r2to increase.
B. Regression analysis is no longer an appropriate technique to estimate interest income.
C. Some new factors not included in the model are causing interest income to change.
D. A linear regression analysis would increase the model’s reliability.
200-155  exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The coefficient of determination (r2) is the amount of variation in the dependent variable (interest income) that is explained by the independent variables. In this
case, less of the change in interest income is explained by the model. Thus, some other factor must be causing interest income to change.
This change merits audit investigation.

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 22
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
210-260 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 23
Which statement about personal firewalls is true?
A. They can protect a system by denying probing requests.
B. They are resilient against kernel attacks.
C. They can protect email messages and private documents in a similar way to a VPN.
D. They can protect the network against attacks.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 25
How does a device on a network using ISE receive its digital certificate during the new- device registration
process?
A. ISE acts as a SCEP proxy to enable the device to receive a certificate from a central CA server.
B. ISE issues a certificate from its internal CA server.
C. ISE issues a pre-defined certificate from a local database.
D. The device requests a new certificate directly from a central CA.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps

The Admin user is unable to enter configuration mode on a device with the given configuration. What
change can you make to the configuration to correct the problem?
A. Remove the autocommand keyword and arguments from the username admin privilege line.
B. Change the Privilege exec level value to 15.
C. Remove the two Username Admin lines.
D. Remove the Privilege exec line.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A
Question: 27
You are a HR Professional for your organization and your supervisor is asking you about the details of
the Civil Rights Act of 1991, and what it means to your company. He wants to know what the total
damages could be if an organization is found liable by a jury trial. What is the maximum amount that
could be awarded to a victim of discrimination if the organization is found liable?
A. There is no limited amount as the jury can determine damages
B. $50,000
C. $300,000
D. $500,000
Answer: C
Explanation:
The maximum amount that can be awarded is $300,000. This amount, however, can be lowered
based on the number of people involved in the discrimination lawsuit.
Answer options B, D, and A are incorrect. The maximum amount allowed by the Civil Rights Act of
1991, is $300,000.
Question: 28
On November 13, 2000 CFR Part 60-2 was revised to address affirmative action to make the rules
more accessible and easier to implement. Which of the following statements is not part of this
significant update to the Affirmative Action program in CFR Part 60-2?
A. Reduced the number of additional required elements of the written Affirmative Action Plan from
10 to 4
B. Reaffirmed that affirmative action isn’t to establish quotes, but to create goals
C. Granted employers with fewer than 100 employees, permission to prepare a job group analysis
that uses EEO-1 categories as job groups
D. Workforce analysis was replaced with a one-page organizational profile
210-260 vce Answer: C
Explanation:
The update to CFR Part 60-2 was revised and allowed employers with fewer than 150 employees,
not 100, permission to prepare a job group analysis that uses EEO-1 categories as job groups.
Answer options D, B, and A are incorrect. These statements are part of the CFR Part 60-2 revision.
Question: 29
Herb is the HR Professional for his organization. He is preparing to hire a new employee, Hans, to the
firm. Herb has asked Hans to agree, in writing, to mandatory arbitration as part of the employment
offer. What does this agreement mean?
A. It means that Hans and the organization must settle all disputes, if any arise, through a neutral
third party rather than through a lawsuit.
B. It means that Hans must file all legal complaints with the organization’s attorney, before filing a
lawsuit against the organization.
C. It means that Herb’s firm can research Hans to determine if he’s had any lawsuits.
D. It means that Hans cannot work for competitors without the written permission of the employer.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Mandatory arbitration helps the organization avoid lawsuits, should any arise, between the
employee and the employer, by agreeing up-front to settle potential disagreements through an
arbitrator versus a lawsuit.
Answer option D is incorrect. This answer describes a non-compete agreement.
Answer option C is incorrect. This isn’t a valid answer for the mandatory arbitration agreement.
Answer option B is incorrect. Hans doesn’t need to file legal complaints with his employer under this
agreement. The agreement means that Hans and the employer will settle the problem without a
lawsuit.

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Updated: Sep 17, 2017
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION 8
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest resolutions to the problems.
Which of statement is true regarding STP issue identified with switches in the given topology?
A. Loopguard configured on the New_Switch places the ports in loop inconsistent state
B. Rootguard configured on SW1 places the ports in root inconsistent state
C. Bpduguard configured on the New_Switch places the access ports in error-disable
D. Rootguard configured on SW2 places the ports in root inconsistent state
300-135 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
On the new switch, we see that loopguard has been configured with the “spanning-tree guard loop” command.
The loop guard feature makes additional checks. If BPDUs are not received on a non-designated port, and loop guard is enabled, that port is moved into the STP loop-inconsistent blocking state, instead of the listening / learning / forwarding state. Without the loop guard feature, the port assumes the designated port role. The port moves to the STP forwarding state and creates a loop.
QUESTION 9
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest 300-135 dumps resolutions to the problems. You have configured PVST+ load balancing between SW1 and the New_Switch in such a way that both the links E2/2 and E2/3 are utilized for traffic flow, which component of the configuration is preventing PVST+ load balancing between SW1 and SW2 links
A. Port priority configuration on SW1
B. Port priority configuration on the New_Switch
C. Path cost configuration on SW1
D. Path cost configuration on the New_Switch
Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Here is the configuration found on the New_Switch:
This causes the port cost for link eth 1/3 to increase the path cost to 250 for all VLANs, making that link less preferred so that only eth 1/2 will be used.
QUESTION 10
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest resolutions to the problems.
Refer to the topology.
SW1 Switch Management IP address is not pingable from SW4. What could be the issue?
A. Management VLAN not allowed in the trunk links between SW1 and SW4
B. Management VLAN not allowed in the trunk links between SW1 and SW2
C. Management VLAN not allowed in the trunk link between SW2 and SW4
D. Management VLAN ip address on SW4 is configured in wrong subnet
E. Management VLAN interface is shutdown on SW4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In the network, VLAN 300 is called the Management VLAN. Based on the configurations shown below, SW1 has VLAN 300 configured with the IP address of 192.168.10.1/24, while on SW4 VLAN 300 has an IP address of 192.168.100.4/24, which is not in the same subnet.
QUESTION 11
You have been brought in to troubleshoot an EIGRP network. A network engineer has made configuration changes to the network rendering some locations unreachable. You are to locate the problem and suggest solution to resolve the issue.
R5 has become partially isolated from the remainder of the network. R5 can reach devices on directly connected networks but nothing else. What is causing the problem?
A. An outbound distribute list in R3
B. Inbound distribute lists in R5
C. An outbound distribute list in R6
D. Incorrect EIGRP routing process ID in R5
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Here we see that distribute list 3 has been applied to EIGRP on router R%, but access-list 3 contains only deny statements so this will effectively block all routing advertisements from its two EIGRP neighbors, thus isolating R5 from the rest of the EIGRP network:

QUESTION  12.If correct permissions have been setup, users can execute their own programs at a fixed time by submitting their jobs to the cron service using the crontab command.
A. True B.
False
Answer: A
QUESTION  13.The following entry appears in the /etc/crontab as follows:
30 4 * * 1 /bin/sh /home/Tom/rmcore 2>&1 /dev/null
Select the action below which best represents what it will accomplish.
A. “rmcore” will execute on April 30th for one hour
B. “rmcore” will execute on the first day of every month
C. “rmcore” will execute every Monday at 4:30 a.m.
D. None of the above

300-135 vce Answer: C
QUESTION 14.Which of the following statements about cron/crontab is NOT true?
A. each user can have his/her own personal crontab file
B. the crontab file is automatically created when a user account is created
C. the superuser can edit the cron table using the “crontab -e” command
D. cron jobs run with the permission of whomever submitted the job
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 15
You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005
as its application development platform. You have recently created an application that includes the
code shown below.
string str1 = “ABC”;
string str2 = “u”;
str2 += “Certify”;
Console.WriteLine(str1 == str2);
Console.WriteLine((Object) str1 == (Object) str2);
Console.WriteLine(str1.Equals(str2));
What will be the output of the above code?
A. False
False
False
B. False
True
False
C. True
True
True
D. True
False
True
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 16
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET

Framework 3.5. You want to use a HTTP module called on each and every request made by the
application. It is called as part of the ASP.NET request pipeline. It has right to access life-cycle
events throughout the request. You also want to ensure that the HTTP module allows a user to
inspect incoming and outgoing requests and take appropriate action based on the request. What
will be the correct order to create the HTTP module?

300-135 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 17
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET
Framework 3.5. The application contains two HTML pages named Error.htm and
PageNotFound.htm. You want to make sure that the following requirements are met:
l When any user requests a page that does not exist, the PageNotFound.htm page is
displayed.
l When any other error occurs, the Error.htm page is displayed. Which of the following code
segments will you add to the Web.config file to accomplish this task?
A. <customErrors mode=”On” defaultRedirect=”Error.htm”>
<error statusCode=”404″ redirect=”PageNotFound.htm”/>
</customErrors>
B. <customErrors mode=”Off”>
<error statusCode=”400″ redirect=”Error.htm”/>
<error statusCode=”404″ redirect=”PageNotFound.htm”/>
</customErrors>
C. <customErrors mode=”On”>
<error statusCode=”400″ redirect=”Error.htm”/>
error statusCode=”404″ redirect=”PageNotFound.htm”/
</customErrors>
D. <customErrors mode=”Off” defaultRedirect=”Error.htm”>
<error statusCode=”404″ redirect=”PageNotFound.htm”/>
</customErrors>
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 18
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You are creating an ASP.NET Web application using .NET
Framework 3.5. The application will be used to share any type of photos on Internet. All the photos
should be accessible in various sizes and formats. You need to add a download feature that can
be easily maintained. You also need to make sure that only a single version of all photos is stored
on a SQL server database. What will you do?
A. Create an HttpModule class to determine the request for the photo download. Process the
photo according to the given format and size, and after that return the processed photo in the
response.
B. Create a user control that converts the photo to the required format and size.
C. Create an HttpHandler class to determine the request for the photo download. Process the
photo according to the given format and size, and after that return the processed photo in the
response.
D. Create an ActiveX control that converts the photo to the required format and size.
300-135 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 19
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You have recently finished development of an ASP.NET Web
application using the .NET Framework 3.5. You host the application on a Web farm that consists
of three Web servers. You should configure the ASP.NET application for session state to meet the
following requirements:
l Session state data should not be lost if a server fails.
l Session state must be maintained across browser requests by the same user.
You are required to configure the Web.config file to meet these requirements. Which of the
following configurations will you use?

A. <sessionState mode=”StateServer”/>
B. <sessionState mode=”InProc”/>
C. <sessionState mode=”Custom”/>
D. <sessionState mode=”SQLServer”/>
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 210-250
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Updated: Aug 19, 2017
Q&As: 80

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QUESTION 09
Consider a FileMaker Pro 11 database with the following tables and fields:
Assuming only the above relationships between table occurrences, using sorting if necessary, which two
actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. create a value list that shows all Invoices for a chosen Customer
B. create a value list on a Product layout which displays all Customers
C. find all of the Customers who have ever ordered a specific Product
D. create a portal to display each Product that has been ordered by a Customer
E. display all records from the Customer table in a portal on a layout for an Invoice Item record
210-250 exam Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 10
Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event ID has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID.
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records… nor the Delete
related records… settings to be enabled for the Event table.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
On the RSTP network as shown in the figure, what RSTP operations will occur after the E1 port of SWB
fails? (Select 3 Answers)
A. SWB deletes the MAC address entries with the E1 port as the destination interface.
B. The spanning tree is recalculated and the E2 port is elected as the new root port.
C. All the interfaces in forwarding state send topology change notifications (TCNs) to notify other switches
of the topology change.
D. All the non-edge ports in forwarding state send TCNs to notify other switches of the topology change.
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 12
Which is the port state defined in RSTP?
A. Discarding
B. Learning
C. Forwarding
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
RSTP has all functions that STP has and it is backward compatible with STP.
A. True

B. False
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
RSTP adopts fast convergence mechanism. So, there is no Forward Delay interval in RSTP.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Two switches are directly connected to each other and they are working in full duplex mode. By default,
RSTP will consider the link between the switches as point-to-point link.
A. True
B. False
210-250 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
In RSTP network environment, a port can be set as edge port when it is directly connected with terminal.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements about RSTP and STP is true?
A. STP has more port states than RSTP.
B. The port roles used in RSTP is less than the port roles used in STP.
C. Since RSTP adopts fast convergence mechanism, it does not have Learning state which is available in
STP.
D. Same as STP, the ports will enter into Listening state once the RSTP has been enabled. Then, the
ports can receive BPDU and calculate the spanning tree.
210-250 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
In a switching network that runs RSTP, the topology change notification message will not be sent when the
switch detects that the Alternate Port is failed.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
When the topology of a network running RSTP changes, what happens after the change?
A. Flooding on the entire network.
B. The aging time of MAC address entries is changed.
C. Some MAC address entries are deleted.
D. All of the above
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which ports defined by RSTP cannot work in Forwarding state? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Root Port
B. Designated Port
C. Backup Port
D. Alternate Port
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 21
On an RSTP network, when an edge port is in protected state, what operation is performed after the edge
port receives BPDUs?
A. The edge port forwards BPDUs.
B. The edge port discards BPDUs.
C. The edge port is shut down.
D. The edge port obtains required information from BPDUs.
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
In RSTP, the port status can be discarding and learning. Which statements about the port status are true?
(Select 2 Answers)
A. The port in discarding or learning state does not forward data frames.
B. The port in discarding state does not learn MAC addresses.
C. The port in learning state does not learn MAC addresses.
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 23
On the RSTP network as shown in the figure, what is the port role of SWC E0/1 according to the
configuration? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Designated port
B. Root port
C. Alternate port

D. Edge port
210-250 vce Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 24
As shown in the figure, when the link between SWC and LAND is faulty, through which path are TCA
BPDUs sent?
A. From SWA to SWB
B. From SWB to SWC
C. From SWB to SWA
D. From SWC to SWB
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
As shown in the figure, when the STP network runs properly, which device does the designated port of
LANC reside?
A. SWA
B. SWB
C. SWC
D. None of the above
210-250 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
In STP configuration, which statement about BPDUs is true?
A. BPDUs cannot be sent from the designated port.
B. BPDUs can be sent only from the designated port.
C. BPDUs can be sent from any port.
D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
On an STP network, after the network topology changes, which BPDUs are sent during flooding of
topology change information on the entire network?
A. BPDUs with the TCN flag
B. BPDUs with the TCA flag
C. BPDUs with the TC flag
D. All of the above
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
After an STP switch starts, it considers itself as the root switch. Which statements about BDPU parameter
setting are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The switch is the designated root.
B. The designated cost is 0.

C. The switch is the designated bridge.
D. The designated port is 0.
Correct Answer: ABC

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Updated: Aug 02, 2017
Q&As: 275

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 210-260 Dumps  Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION NO: 16
A text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 12 is set to auto-enter the following formula:
FirstName & ” ” & LastNarne
FirstName and LastNarne are text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all
referenced fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any
is checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field
(Choose two.)
A. a record is first created
B. each time the value of the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified
C. a user selects the menu item Records > Relookup Field Contents
D. any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
210-260 exam Answer: A,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
Consider a FileMaker Pro 12 database with the following tables:
210-260 dumps

And the relationship is configured as follows:
210-260 dumps

Which two statements are true about this situation? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible to create new Salesperson records by importing data into the Order table.
B. Users may create new Order records by entering data into a portal on a Salesperson Detail
layout.
C. A merge field can be used on layouts based on the Salesperson table occurrence to show a list
of all of a salesperson’s orders.
D. Removing the sort from the Order side of the relationship will not change the way that Order
records are displayed in a portal on a Salesperson Detail layout.
E. List (Salesperson:: Salesperson ID) calculated from the context of the Order table returns a list
containing the Salesperson ID for the current order.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event id has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records … nor the
Delete related records … settings to be enabled for the Event table.
210-260 dumps Answer:: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an
External ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation
B. These fields may be indexed unless they are of type Summary.
C. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL when the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
D. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button
in the FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
A FileMaker Pro 12 database has two tables called Company and Customer. Both tables have a
number field called CompanyID. The two tables have a relationship between them formed by the
condition Company:: CompanyID = Customer:: CompanyID. Each table also has a text field called
CompanyName. The CompanyName field in the Customer table is defined to Auto-enter
calculated value, with the formula: Company:: CompanyName and the option Do not replace
existing value of field unchecked.
Under which circumstances will the value of the CompanyName field on a Customer record be
refreshed with data from the related Company record?
A. any time the Customer record is modified
B. any time the index of the Company:: CompanyID field is rebuilt
C. any time the related Company:: CompanyName field is modified
D. any time the CompanyID field on the Customer record is modified
E. any time a user chooses Refresh Window from the Records menu while viewing the Customer
record
210-260 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
Which statement is true about container fields in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. If one container field in a given database file is set to Store container data externally, all
container fields in that file must store their data externally
B. If a file larger than a database’s Maximum container file size value is inserted into a container
field. FileMaker Pro 12 will automatically compress the inserted file.
C. If a container field is set to Store container data externally, then the Store only a reference to
the file option is automatically selected for any file inserted into that field.
D. If the setting Generate and store thumbnails for images is chosen in the Manage Containers
dialog for a given database file, all container fields in that file will have thumbnails generated.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
Which two are directly selectable options in the Validation tab of the field options dialog in
FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two.)
A. Existing value
B. Strict data type: Integer
C. Strict data type: Time of Day
D. Strict datatype: Alphanumeric
E. Minimum number of characters
210-260 vce Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
Which two statements are true about fields using global storage in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose
two.)
A. Globally stored fields are always empty at the start of a user’s session.
B. Fields using global storage can be used as match fields in a relationship.
C. A container field using global storage may not be configured to store its data externally.
D. Globally stored fields can only be accessed from within the file in which they are defined.
E. Changes to data in globally stored fields in a shared file are stored when the server cache is
flushed.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
What is possible when working with shadow fields from an External ODBC Data Source?
A. creating a two-column value list
B. saving formatted text (bold, italic, etc.)
C. checking the Auto-complete using previously entered values checkbox in the Field/Control
Setup dialog
D. inserting binary data such as a PDF file, provided the field options are set to Store container
data externally
210-260 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
Which three field options may be set for a shadow field from an External ODBC Data Source?
(Choose three.)
A. Validation: not empty
B. Validation: unique value
C. Validation: existing value
D. Auto-enter creation timestamp
E. Auto-enter serial number, on creation
F. Storage: automatically create indexes as needed
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 26
A table in a FileMaker Pro 12 database has a text field CompanyName. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
– Validate data in this field only during data entry
– Allow user to override during data entry
– Require not empty
– Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName
field. What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides
the error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see the specified
custom message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog
from the FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors,
along with a count of those records.
210-260 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
Given a text field Full Name, Auto-Enter by Calculated value has been selected in the field
options, using the following formula:
Name First &.” “& Name Last
The developer then disables (unchecks) the option Do not replace existing value of field (if any).
For which two cases will the results of the specified formula be inserted into the field Full Name?
(Choose two.)
A. When the record is first created
B. When the field Full Name itself is modified
C. Only when the field Full Name was previously empty
D. When either of the fields Name First or Name Last is modified
E. When the field Full Name itself is modified and the record is committed
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28
A new database is created with two tables, Client and Contracts. The only modification made on
the Relationships Graph is to establish a relationship between them which is set to delete related
records in Contracts when a record in Client is deleted.

What happens when the Client table occurrence is deleted from the Relationships Graph?
A. Since it is the only occurrence of the Client table on the graph, it can not be deleted.
B. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records are deleted.
C. The formula in the calculation field Name Full (defined as Name First & ” ” & Name Last) will be
broken.
D. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records will have values
in the client id field deleted.
210-260 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
Consider two FileMaker files, Collection and Item, where tables from Item are included in the
Relationships Graph of Collection.
Which method will preserve all functionality in the Relationships Graph of Collection after
renaming the Item file to Artifact?

A. Choose File > Manage > External Data Sources… for Collection and reset the file path
B. Click the Repair Reference button in the Relationships Graph for Collection and reset the file
path
C. Delete referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and
recreate them for Artifact
D. Select referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and right
click to choose Rename File Source…
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30
Which two FileMaker Pro 12 objects will display data contents even when unrelated to the current
layout’s table occurrence? (Choose two.)
A. Merge variable
B. Indexed tirnestarnp field
C. A text field from a shadow table
D. Globally stored number field placed in a portal
E. A container field defined with the Store as reference only option enabled
Answer: A,D
210-260 vce Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what is known about this database?
A. The Event table occurrence references a table from an external ODBC Data Source
B. There can be zero or one, but no more than one, Event record related to any Task record.
C. The corner arrows indicate all three table occurrences reference tables from external data
sources.
D. From a layout based on the Event table occurrence, a portal could be drawn showing both
related Task and Volunteer data.
210-260 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Updated: Jul 17, 2017
Q&As: 402

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 300-101 Dumps  Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION NO: 32
Which GSC describes the degree to which the application communicates directly with the
processor?
A. Data communications
B. Distributed data processing
C. Transaction rate
D. Online update
300-101 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 33
Which of the following statements is a characteristic of the GSC – complex processing?
A. Development of the application is influenced by how the development was carried out
B. Development of the application is influenced by the complexity of data communication
C. Development of the application is influenced by the complexity of the processing logic
D. None of the above
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 34
Which transactional function(s) has (have) the primary intent of presenting information to the user
and must reference a data function to retrieve data or control information?
A. EI
B. EO
C. EQ
D. Both B and C
300-101 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 35
The primary intent of an EQ is to:
A. alter the behavior of the application
B. maintain one or more ILFs
C. present information to a user
D. Both A and C
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 36
An External Inquiry is defined as an elementary process that:
A. Sends data outside the boundary
B. Sends Control Information outside the boundary
C. Has a primary intent to present information to a user through retrieval of data or control
information
D. All of the above
300-101 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 37
Which statement(s) is (are) true regarding mandatory processing logic for an EQ?
A. Data or control information is maintained
B. Conditions are analyzed to determine which are applicable
C. At least one ILF or EIF is referenced
D. Data or control information entering the boundary of the application is accepted
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 38
Which processing logic can be performed by an EQ?
A. Equivalent values are converted
B. Behavior of the application is altered
C. Derived data is created
D. Both A and B
300-101 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 39
The functional complexity of an EQ is based upon the number of:
A. RETs
B. FTRs
C. DETs
D. Both B and C
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 40
Which of the following forms of processing logic is mandatory that an EO perform at least one
(m*)?
A. Behavior of the application is altered
B. Equivalent values are converted
C. At least one ILF or EIF is referenced
D. Information is prepared and then presented outside the boundary
300-101 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 41
Which of the following statements is true regarding EOs?
A. An EO is an elementary process that sends data or control information outside the boundary.
B. An EO includes additional processing logic beyond that of an EQ.
C. An EO always maintains a data function.
D. Both A and B
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Processing logic is defined as any of the requirements specifically requested by the user to
complete an elementary process. Those requirements include which of the following actions?
A. Validations
B. Algorithms or calculations
C. Reading or maintaining a data function
D. All of the above
300-101 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 43
An External Output is defined as an elementary process that:
A. Includes addition processing beyond an external inquiry
B. Sends data outside the boundary
C. Has a primary intent to present information to a user though processing logic or in addition to
retrieval of data or control information.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 44
Which of the following statements about an External Output are true?
A. Processing logic must contain multiple mathematical formulas
B. Processing logic must perform at least one mathematical formula
C. Processing logic creates derived data
D. Processing logic contains derived data
300-101 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 45
An FTR is be defined as a:
A. data function maintained by a base functional component
B. data function read and/or maintained by a transactional function
C. base functional component maintained by a transactional function
D. base functional component read and/or maintained by a transactional function
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 46

What is the primary intent of an ILF?
A. Hold data maintained through system tools for use by the application being measured
B. Hold code data for use by the application being measured
C. Hold data maintained through one or more elementary processes of the application being
measured
D. Both A and C
300-101 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 47
Data Element Type is defined as?
A. Functionality provided to the user to meet internal or external data storage requirements
B. An attribute that further describes one or more attributes of another entity
C. Two types of the base functional components identified in the IFPUG International Standard
D. Unique, user recognizable, non-repeated attribute
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 200-105
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Updated: Jul 16, 2017
Q&As: 204

Study Material  for Cisco 200-105 Dumps ICND2 Outline

  1. Cisco Device Management
  2. Troubleshooting Networks
  3. Network Addressing
  4. VLANs and Trunking
  5. Spanning Tree Protocol
  6. Advanced Switch Redundancy
  7. Access Layer Security
  8. Routing Fundamentals
  9. EIGRP Configuration
  10. OSPF Configuration
  11. PPP WANs
  12. eBGP Configuration
  13. Secure VPNs and Tunneling
  14. Intelligent Networks
  15. Quality of Service

200-105

Free Pass4itsure Cisco 200-105 Dumps  Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 7
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a
server with the address of 192.168.13.26. Which commands can the administrator issue to verify that the
access list is working properly? (Choose three.)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
200-105 exam Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

200-105

Correct Answer:

200-105

QUESTION 9
Lab – Access List Simulation
A network associate is adding security to the configuration of the Corp1 router. The user on host C should
be able to use a web browser to access financial information from the Finance Web Server. No other hosts
from the LAN nor the Core should be able to use a web browser to access this server. Since there are

multiple resources for the corporation at this location including other resources on the Finance Web
Server, all other traffic should be allowed.
The task is to create and apply a numbered access-list with no more than three statements that will allow
ONLY host C web access to the Finance Web Server. No other hosts will have web access to the Finance
Web Server. All other traffic is permitted.
Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host.
All passwords have been temporarily set to “cisco”.
The Core connection uses an IP address of 198.18.196.65
The computers in the Hosts LAN have been assigned addresses of 192.168.33.1 – 92.168.33.254
Host A 192.168.33.1
Host B 192.168.33.2
Host C 192.168.33.3
Host D 192.168.33.4
The servers in the Server LAN have been assigned addresses of 172.22.242.17 – 172.22.242.30
The Finance Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172.22.242.23.
The Public Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172.22.242.17

200-105

200-105 dumps Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation
QUESTION 10
A sporting goods manufacturer has decided to network three (3) locations to improve efficiency in inventory
control. The routers have been named to reflect the location: Boston, Frankfurt, and Lancaster.
The necessary networking has been completed at each location, and the routers have been configured
with single area OSPF as the routing protocol. The Boston router was recently installed but connectivity is
not complete because of incomplete routing tables.
Identify and correct any problem you see in the configuration.
Note: The OSPF process must be configured to allow interfaces in specific subnets to participate in the
routing process.

200-105

Correct Answer: The question mentioned Boston router was not configured correctly or incomplete so we
should check this router first. Click on Host B to access the command line interface (CLI) of Boston router.
QUESTION 11
200-105

200-105

200-105

200-105

200-105

200-105

200-105

Why did Branch1 router lose WAN connectivity with R1 router?
A. The IP address is misconfigured on PPP multilink interface on the Branch1 router.
B. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the anch1 serial interfaces.
C. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the R1 serial interfaces.
D. The Branch1 serial interfaces are placed in a shutdown condition.
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a
device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
200-105 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
C. Only RADIUS uses TCP.
D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which IEEE standard does PVST+ use to tunnel information?
A. 802.1x
B. 802 1q
C. 802.1w
D. 802.1s
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client?
A. Ethernet
B. dialer
C. serial
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
200-105 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105

Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105

At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105

A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the
AcmeB router. What action does the router take?

A. forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface
B. forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface
C. forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface
D. forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
A. a backup route, stored in the routing table
B. a primary route, stored in the routing table
C. a backup route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the topology table
200-105 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE

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Recommended Training
Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions (DESGN) E-Learning is the recommended training for this exam. offered by Cisco Learning Partners-the only authorized source for Cisco IT training delivered exclusively by Certified Cisco Instructors. Check the List of Learning Partners for a Cisco Learning Partner nearest you
Additional Resources
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QUESTION 8
Many users, located in different geographic regions, all need access to certain secure web applications and EJB components. The users although dispersed, have common Job descriptions. What is the best way to generically provide access for all of these users?
A. Use declarative security by providing authorization based user roles
B. Programmatically authorize each user who requests a protected resource
C. Use Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) to implement discretionary security
D. Create all user accounts in an LDAP server, and make it the default realm for the domain
E. Define a custom security proxy that stores and propagates each authenticated user’s credential information
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Within a Service-Oriented Architecture, which of the following is NOT specified by a Service Policy?
A. Encryption rules
B. Execution Rules
C. Versioning Rules
D. Authorization rules
E. Authentication rules
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
Which statement best describes the way in which WebLogic Workshop can be used to develop applications following the MVC pattern?
A. Create EJBs and JSPs. Call EJBs from Servlets.
B. WebLogic Workhop doesn’t use the MVC model.
C. Create a Struts Action from and associate it with the appropriate action mapping definition
D. Create a serializable javaBean THAT DEFINES THE STATEFUL FIELDS AND THEIR METHODS AND PASSES THE DATA BETWEEN THE MODEL INVOCATION AND VIEW ELEMENTS
E. Create an action from that defines the stateful fields and their accessor/mutator methods. Scope the form to a PageFlow and pass the state to controls, and call from the view as necessary.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 11
Your application requirements include accessing a legacy mainframe application with native communication protocols. The legacy system must be accessible from J2EE and Net servers. To do this most effectively, you would use a product based on which specification?
A. J2CA
B. JDBC
C. RMI/IIOP
D. Web Services
E. Java to CORBA bridge

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Within a Service -Oriented Architecture, service version are bound to consumer through the;
A. UDDI Server
B. Service Policy
C. Connectivity Layer
D. Services Directory
E. Orchestration Layer

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
When considering distributed transactions and the two phase commit protocol which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. WebLogic SERVER DOES NOT SUPPORT NESTED TRANSACTIONS
B. WebLogic SERVER ALLOWS TRANSACTIONS TO BE terminated only by the client that created the transaction
C. Recovering transactions for a failed WebLogic server instance requires a weblogic cluster configuration
D. A heuristic decision occurs when any XA resource makes a unilateral decision during the completion phase
E. By default, the Transaction Manager will continue to complete the transaction during the second phase for up to 24 hours

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Within the WebLogic Platform environment, which of these events are NOT part the of the Application Lifecycle when re-deploying an application and when the debug flags are set?
A. preStart
B. postStop
C. postStart
D. completed
E. inialization

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
When designing a Service-Oriented Architecture you plan to provide Services Management capabilities. Primarily Services Management includes:
A. The Message Broker
B. Java Control tracking
C. Business Process instances
D. Security implementation Details
E. Service registration and discovery

Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 31
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference: http://www.pass4cert.net/70-480-dumps-download.html
The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols are needed so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and
frames.
The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populated based on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding
Information Base (FIB) is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.

QUESTION 32
Which option is the most effective action to avoid packet loss due to microbursts?
A. Implement larger buffers.
B. Install a faster CPU.
C. Install a faster network interface.
D. Configure a larger tx-ring size.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can’t avoid or prevent them as such without modifying the sending host’s application/network stack so it smoothes out the bursts. However, you can manage microbursts by tuning the size of receive buffers / rings to absorb occasional microbursts.
QUESTION 33
Which two statements about packet fragmentation on an IPv6 network are true? (Choose two.)
A. The fragment header is 64 bits long.
B. The identification field is 32 bits long.
C. The fragment header is 32 bits long.
D. The identification field is 64 bits long.
E. The MTU must be a minimum of 1280 bytes.
F. The fragment header is 48 bits long.
Correct Answer: AB Explanation   cisco-200-125 ccna pdf

Explanation/Reference:
The fragment header is shown below, being 64 bits total with a 32 bit identification field: Reference: http://www.openwall.com/presentations/IPv6/img24.html

QUESTION 34
You are backing up a server with a 1 Gbps link and a latency of 2 ms. Which two statements about the backup are true? (Choose two.)
A. The bandwidth delay product is 2 Mb.
B. The default TCP send window size is the limiting factor.
C. The default TCP receive window size is the limiting factor.
D. The bandwidth delay product is 500 Mb.
E. The bandwidth delay product is 50 Mb.

Correct Answer: AC Explanation Explanation/Reference:
1 Gbps is the same as 1000 Mbps, and 1000Mb x .0002 = 2 Mbps. With TCP based data transfers, the receive window is always the limiting factor, as the sender is generally able to send traffic at line rate, but then must wait for the acknowledgements to send more data.
QUESTION 35
Which two pieces of information does RTCP use to inform endpoint devices about the RTP flow? (Choose two.)
A. the transmitted octet
B. the lost packet count
C. session control function provisioning information
D. the CNAME for session participants
E. the authentication method
F. MTU size changes in the path of the flow Correct Answer: AB

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
RTCP transports statistics for a media connection and information such as transmitted octet and packet counts, packet loss, packet delay variation, and round-trip delay time. An application may use this information to control quality of service parameters, perhaps by limiting flow, or using a different codec.

QUESTION 36
How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32

Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference:
In order to understand how the load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table), which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.

QUESTION 37
Which three features require Cisco Express Forwarding? (Choose three.)
A. NBAR
B. AutoQoS
C. fragmentation
D. MPLS
E. UplinkFast
F. BackboneFast

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.certadept.com/cisco-200-125-exam-with-our-dumps-pdf-vce-free-try.html

Recognition.
QoS Features That Require CEF These class-based QoS features are supported only on routers that run CEF. Network Based Application Recognition (NBAR) provides intelligent network classification. For more information, refer to Network Based Application

The AutoQoS -VoIP feature simplifies and speeds up the implementation and provisioning of QoS for VoIP traffic. This feature is enabled with the help of the
auto qos voip command. CEF must be enabled at the interface or ATM PVC before the auto qos command can be used. For more information about this feature and its prerequisites, refer to AutoQoS – VoIP.
From MPLS Fundamentals – Luc De Ghein Why Is CEF Needed in MPLS Networks? Concerning MPLS, CEF is special for a certain reason; otherwise, this book would not explicitly cover it. Labeled packets that enter the router are switched according to the label forwarding information base (LFIB) on the router. IP packets that enter the router are switched according to the CEF table on the router. Regardless of whether the packet is switched according to the LFIB or the CEF table, the outgoing packet can be a labeled packet or an IP packet

QUESTION 38
Which two options are interface requirements for turbo flooding? (Choose two.)
A. The interface is Ethernet.
B. The interface is configured for ARPA encapsulation.
C. The interface is PPP.
D. The interface is configured for GRE encapsulation.
E. The interface is configured for 802.1Q encapsulation.

Correct Answer: AB Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ccie-routing-switching.html
In the switch, the majority of packets are forwarded in hardware; most packets do not go through the switch CPU. For those packets that do go to the CPU, you can speed up spanning tree-based UDP flooding by a factor of about four to five times by using turbo-flooding. This feature is supported over Ethernet interfaces configured for ARPA encapsulation.
swiprout.html
QUESTION 39
Which three options are sub-subfields of the IPv4 Option Type subfield? (Choose three.)
A. Option Class
B. GET
C. Copied
D. PUSH
E. Option Number
F. TTL

Correct Answer: ACE Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Each IP option has its own subfield format, generally structured as shown below. For most options, all three subfields are used. Option Type, Option Length and Option Data.

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QUESTION 7
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager at one time. Which option should be used?
A. Bulk Administration Tool
B. Product Upgrade Tool
C. Command Lookup Tool
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E. Cisco Upload Tool

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text Label
B. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user’s phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page?
A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box
B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box
C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box
D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber. Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems?
A. Show Connection Status
B. Report A Problem
C. Advanced Settings
D. About Jabber
E. Reset Jabber
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Use the exhibits below to answer the question.

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QUESTION 132
Which command assigns a cost value of “17” to a switch port?
A. spanning-tree interfacefastethernet 5/8 17
B. spanning-treeportcost 17
C. spanning-treeportcost 17
D. spanning-treevlan 1 cost 17

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
You have configured and applied a Cisco IOS Firewall access rule to the inbound, untrusted interface. You suspect that the rule may be blocking necessary traffic onto the network. What must you do to delete that rule when using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager?
A. Select ACL Editor > Access Rules to delete the rule.
B. You must remove the association between the rule and the interface before deleting the rule
C. You must delete the associated access list on the interface, then reconfigure the access list as required, and then reapply the access group to the proper interface.
D. Go to the Edit Firewall Policy tab to delete the rule.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
A customer in Europe needs to establish an 11-Mbps wireless bridge link between two office buildings that are approximately 1.3 km apart. The wireless link will pass through a public park, which contains a lake that is surrounded by trees. You run the range calculation and determine that the Cisco Aironet 1300 Series Outdoor Access Point/Bridge should work. You install the link using 10.5-dB yagis with 75 feet of standard Cisco cabling and both radios set at 20 mW. The wireless bridges are not able to establish or maintain a link.
What is needed to successfully complete this link?
A. An amplifier needs to be installed at one of the sites.
B. The antenna must be raised high enough to clear the trees
C. Lower loss cabling needs to be used to bring the EIRP into legal limits.
D. Due to the trees, a 21-dBi dish needs to be used for its narrower beam width.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
You connect via Telnet to a Cisco access point and enter the command show dot11 link test. Which output might you obtain?
A. signal-to-noise ratio
B. incoming and outgoing signal strength
C. TX packets dropped
D. RX packets per second

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Refer to the exhibit. The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configurations of Router A and Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the sitE.to-site VPN between Router A and Router B.
What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?

A. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a Turbo ACL (150-199).
B. The IKE encryption methods on the two routers are different
C. the IPSec policy map names on the two routers are different.
D. the IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the Answer: interesting traffic.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

How many active VPN clients are currently connected to the 1841 ISR router?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

Which IP address or address range will be used when allocating an internal IP address to the VPN clients
for the “test” VPN group?________________________________________________________________________
A. 10.1.1.100 to 10.1.1.200 I
B. 10.1-1.2 to 10.1.1.254
C. 192.168.1.1 to 192.168.1.100
D. 192.168.1.2 to 192.168.1.254
E. 192.168.1.1
F. 192.168.1.2

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

Which authentication method is used by the test” VPN group?
A. RSA Encrypted Nounce
B. RSA Digital Signature
C. PrE.Shared Key
D. Digital Certificate
E. DH2

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 140
You are the network consultant. You have a customer with a small network of 15 remote sites is trying to optimize its VPN by migrating some remote sites using Frame Relay connections to the Internet to using cable connections to the Internet. The keypoint for your customer is to save money. Only a moderate amount of IP traffic is passing through the network, most of which is from the remote sites to the central site. IPSec should be used to provide VPN functionality and basic confidentiality is desired..Considering the above requirements. Which solution would be the easiest for this customer to set up and manage?
A. point-to-point
B. partial mesh
C. point-to-multipoint
D. hub-and-spoke

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
In an infrastructure based on a wireless advanced feature set using lightweight access points, by which method is a rogue contained?
A. The WCS sends excessive traffic to the rogue thus overloading the access point.
B. The rogue MAC address is used to spoof broadcastdeassociation packets.
C. The rogue MAC address is used to spoof broadcastdeauthentication packets.
D. The WCS sends out excessive signals on the same channel when the rogue is detected.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
With industry-leading services and performance, the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switch is Cisco’s flagship switching solution. It delivers the most comprehensive feature sets for core, distribution, wiring closet, data center, enterprise WAN routing, and Metro-Ethernet deployments. Which layer you think is recommended that the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WLSM be placed?
A. core
B. distribution
C. access
D. presentation

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
The Cisco Lifecycle Services approach defines the activities needed to help you successfully deploy and operate Cisco technologies and optimize their performance throughout the lifecycle of your network. Which statement is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases?
A. initiation, prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
B. site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing, and operations
C. prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
D. deployment, testing, implementation, and production

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Which IP address or address range will be used when allocating an internal ip address to the VPN client for the test

A. 120.1.1.100 to 10.1.1.200
B. 10.1.1.2 to 10.1.1.254
C. 192.1681.1 to 192.1681.1.100
D. 192.1681.2 to 192.1681.1.254

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
Which authentication method is used by the test VPN group?

A. RSA EncryptedNounce
B. RSA Digital Signature
C. Pre-shared key
D. DH2

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RA and RB. Given the debug output on RA, which two statements are true?(Choose two)
A. RA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
B. RA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
C. RA will form an adjacency with RB.
D. RAwill not form an adjacency with RB.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
You are the network administrator. There is one Gigabit Ethernet port on the Cisco CE520 used in the Smart Business Communications System. Which port role assignment would you make for?
A. Cisco Express 520
B. Cisco UC520
C. Cisco CE520
D. Cisco 871W

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Refer to the exhibit. CK-SA and CK-SC are running PVST+ STP, and CK-SB is running 802.1 Q STP. If the BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VU\N 2, then there is no blocking port in the VLAN 2 topology. The BPDU of VU\N 2 never makes a “full circle” around the topology; it is replaced by the VLAN 1 BPDU on the CK-SB-CK-SC link, because CK-SB runs only one STP merged with VU\N 1 STP of PVST+. Thus, there is a forwarding loop.

What does PVST+ do to correct this?
A. CK-SA sends PVST+ BPDUs ofVLAU 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SC. CK-SC will put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
B. CK-SB sends PVST+ BPDUs of VU\N 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SA) towards CK-SC. CK-SC will put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
C. CK-SC sends PVST+BPDUsofVU\N 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SC. CK-SAwill put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
D. CK-SA sends PVST+ BPDUs of VU\N 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SB. CK-SA will put port CK-C-CK-B into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
A wireless autonomous 1200 access point running core feature set in root mode has its SSID set to Factory_floor and provides connection to a repeater access point with its SSID set to factory_floor, if the root-mode access point is using channel 11 which channel will the repeater access point use?
A. channel 11
B. channel 1 or 6
C. anynonoverlapping channel
D. The root access point and the repeater will negotiate this setting

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
The VPN server uses a preshared key for remote device authentication
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
A customer with a large enterprise network wants to allow employees to work from home over the Internet. The customer anticipates a large amount of traffic, predominantly toward the central site. The customer also requires a VPN using strong user authentication and encryption to protect highly sensitive data. Which solution best meets this customer’s requirements?
A. remote-access VPN with software encryption
B. remote-access VPN with hardware encryption
C. site-to-site VPN with hub-and-spoke tunnels using 3DES and pre-shared secrets
D. site-to-site Cisco Easy VPN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configurations of RA and RB. Traffic between PC1 and PC2 is not successfully establishing the site-to-site VPN between -RA and -RB. What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?
A. RAis using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while RB is using a Turbo ACL(150-199).
B. The IPSec encryption methods used by each router do not match.
C. The D-H Group settings on the two routers are the same.
D. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
You are the network consultant. When will you assess a customer’s current network infrastructure?
A. plan
B. design
C. operate
D. optimize

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
A client is experiencing lower throughput and more packet retransmits is one area of the wireless network. At these times, the client utility shows high signal strength but low signal quality. What may be causing this issue?
A. The client does not support Cisco Compatible Extensions version 2.
B. Diversity is not enabled in the access point.
C. The WDS is failing to register the client card in the WLSM.
D. The channel is set incorrectly in the access point or in the client configuration.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Which statement is correct about the current address translation configurations on the security appliance?
A. Dynamic NAT is used to translate the 10.0.1.100 host on the inside interface to a global address of
192.168.1.1
B. Port AddressTranslation(PAT) is used to translate any host on the inside interface to the 192.168.1.100 global address.
C. Static NAT is used to translate the 172.16.1.2 host on thedmzl interface to a global address of
192.168.1.102
D. Dynamic NAT is used to translate any host ondmzl and dmz2 interfaces to a mapped address from the address from the address pool of 192.168.1.110 to 192.168.1.250

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
VLAN Hopping is one of the primary VLAN based attacks used by hackers to infiltrate network security. VLAN hopping is used to attack a network by sending packets to a port which is generally not accessible. VLAN hopping attacks are mainly conducted in the Dynamic Trunking Protocol and, in some cases; the attacks are targeted to the trunking encapsulation protocol (802.1 q or ISL).You worry about the switched infrastructure in an integrated network is vulnerable to VLAN hopping attacks. Which two configuration can be used to mitigate VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. switchporttrunk encapsulation
B. switchport mode trunk
C. switchport access vlan
D. switchport mode access

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
CiscoWorks SNMS is a part of the CiscoWorks family of products for managing small to large networks. CiscoWorks SIMMS is a new Web-based network management solution for small to medium-sized businesses, with 40 or fewer Cisco internetworking devices such as switches, routers, hubs, and access servers. CiscoWorks SNMS can also monitor third-party IT assets such as servers, applications, services, and printers A Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) trunk is typically the voice interconnect between any business and the outside world. Which network management tool is designed to allow businesses to manage up to 40 devices?
A. CiscoWorks Unrestricted
B. CiscoWorks WAN Management
C. CiscoWorks LAN Management
D. CiscoWorks SNMS

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
Which statement is correct about the information in the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager General and License Information screen?
A. The security appliance supports active/active failover only.
B. The security appliance supports 3DES-AES only.
C. The managed device is a Cisco ASA 5540 Security Appliance with VPN premium license enabled.
D. The managed device is Cisco PIX515E Security Appliance.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
Which three are different types of STP inconsistencies in a Layer 2 network?(Choose three)
A. MAC inconsistency
B. Root inconsistency
C. EtherChannel inconsistency
D. type inconsistency

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
According to the error log, VLAN 1 is where the BPDU was received, and VLAN 2 is where the BPDU originated. When inconsistency is detected, what happens?
A. VLAN 1 is blocked, while VLAN 2 is forwarding
B. VLAN1 is blocked, while VLAN 2 is listening
C. Both VLANs are listening on the port from which this BPDU is send
D. Both VLANs are blocked on the port from which this BPDU is received

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
Which is the current configured default gateway IP address on the security appliance?
A. 172.16.10.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 192.168.1.2
D. 10.0.1.1

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which statement is true about a Cisco Aironet 350 Series wireless client when its green LED appears to be off and its amber LED is blinking?
A. The client adapter is scanning for a network.
B. The client adapter is in ad hoc mode.
C. The client adapter is performing a self-test.
D. The client adapter is in power-save mode.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant. Your IT Manager tells you 802.11b telephone can receive an audio signal from an access point, but cannot send audio. What is the most likely reason?
A. The value of RSSI telephone is greater than 30.
B. The access point only receives 802.11g data rates.
C. The security settings in the telephone mismatch the access point.
D. The telephone transmit power is significantly lower than the t the access point

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 139
You connect via Telnet to a Cisco access point and enter the command show dot11 link test. Which output might you obtain?
A. signal-to-noise ratio
B. incoming and outgoing signal strength
C. TX packets dropped
D. RX packets per second

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 140
Refer to the exhibit. The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configurations of Router A and Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the sitE.to-site VPN between Router A and Router B.
What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?

A. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a Turbo ACL (150-199). ”
B. The IKE encryption methods on the two routers are different
C. the IPSec policy map names on the two routers are different.
D. the IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the Answer: interesting traffic.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

How many active VPN clients are currently connected to the 1841 ISR router?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the
tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

Which IP address or address range will be used when allocating an internal IP address to the VPN clients for the “test” VPN group?________________________________________________________________________
A. 10.1.1.100 to 10.1.1.200 I
B. 10.1-1.2 to 10.1.1.254
C. 192.168.1.1 to 192.168.1.100
D. 192.168.1.2 to 192.168.1.254
E. 192.168.1.1
F. 192.168.1.2

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

Which authentication method is used by the test” VPN group?
A. RSA Encrypted Nounce
B. RSA Digital Signature
C. PrE.Shared Key
D. Digital Certificate
E. DH2

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
You are the network consultant. You have a customer with a small network of 15 remote sites is trying to optimize its VPN by migrating some remote sites using Frame Relay connections to the Internet to using cable connections to the Internet. The keypoint for your customer is to save money. Only a moderate amount of IP traffic is passing through the network, most of which is from the remote sites to the central site. IPSec should be used to provide VPN functionality and basic confidentiality is desired..Considering the above requirements. Which solution would be the easiest for this customer to set up and manage?
A. point-to-point
B. partial mesh
C. point-to-multipoint
D. hub-and-spoke

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
In an infrastructure based on a wireless advanced feature set using lightweight access points, by which method is a rogue contained?

A. The WCS sends excessive traffic to the rogue thus overloading the access point.
B. The rogue MAC address is used to spoof broadcastdeassociation packets.
C. The rogue MAC address is used to spoof broadcastdeauthentication packets.
D. The WCS sends out excessive signals on the same channel when the rogue is detected.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
With industry-leading services and performance, the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switch is Cisco’s flagship switching solution. It delivers the most comprehensive feature sets for core, distribution, wiring closet, data center, enterprise WAN routing, and Metro-Ethernet deployments. Which layer you think is recommended that the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WLSM be placed?
A. core
B. distribution
C. access
D. presentation

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 147
The Cisco Lifecycle Services approach defines the activities needed to help you successfully deploy and operate Cisco technologies and optimize their performance throughout the lifecycle of your network. Which statement is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases?
A. initiation, prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
B. site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing, and operations
C. prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
D. deployment, testing, implementation, and production

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Which IP address or address range will be used when allocating an internal ip address to the VPN client for the test
A. 120.1.1.100 to 10.1.1.200
B. 10.1.1.2 to 10.1.1.254
C. 192.1681.1 to 192.1681.1.100
D. 192.1681.2 to 192.1681.1.254

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Which authentication method is used by the test VPN group?

A. RSA EncryptedNounce
B. RSA Digital Signature
C. Pre-shared key
D. DH2

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150

A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RA and RB. Given the debug output on RA, which two statements are true?(Choose two)
A. RA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
B. RA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
C. RA will form an adjacency with RB.
D. RAwill not form an adjacency with RB.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
You are the network administrator. There is one Gigabit Ethernet port on the Cisco CE520 used in the Smart Business Communications System. Which port role assignment would you make for?
A. Cisco Express 520
B. Cisco UC520
C. Cisco CE520
D. Cisco 871W
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Refer to the exhibit. CK-SA and CK-SC are running PVST+ STP, and CK-SB is running 802.1 Q STP. If the BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VU\N 2, then there is no blocking port in the VLAN 2 topology. The BPDU of VU\N 2 never makes a “full circle” around the topology; it is replaced by the VLAN 1 BPDU on the CK-SB-CK-SC link, because CK-SB runs only one STP merged with VU\N 1 STP of PVST+. Thus, there is a forwarding loop.

What does PVST+ do to correct this?
A. CK-SA sends PVST+ BPDUs ofVLAU 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SC. CK-SC will put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
B. CK-SB sends PVST+ BPDUs of VU\N 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SA) towards CK-SC. CK-SC will put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
C. CK-SC sends PVST+BPDUsofVU\N 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SC. CK-SAwill put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
D. CK-SA sends PVST+ BPDUs of VU\N 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SB. CK-SA will put port CK-C-CK-B into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
A wireless autonomous 1200 access point running core feature set in root mode has its SSID set to Factory_floor and provides connection to a repeater access point with its SSID set to factory_floor, if the root-mode access point is using channel 11 which channel will the repeater
access point use?
A. channel 11
B. channel 1 or 6
C. anynonoverlapping channel
D. The root access point and the repeater will negotiate this setting

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
The VPN server uses a preshared key for remote device authentication
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
A customer with a large enterprise network wants to allow employees to work from home over the Internet. The customer anticipates a large amount of traffic, predominantly toward the central site. The customer also requires a VPN using strong user authentication and encryption to protect highly sensitive data. Which solution best meets this customer’s requirements?
A. remote-access VPN with software encryption
B. remote-access VPN with hardware encryption
C. site-to-site VPN with hub-and-spoke tunnels using 3DES and pre-shared secrets
D. site-to-site Cisco Easy VPN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configurations of RA and RB. Traffic between PC1 and PC2 is not successfully establishing the site-to-site VPN between -RA and -RB. What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?
A. RAis using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while RB is using a Turbo ACL(150-199).
B. The IPSec encryption methods used by each router do not match.
C. The D-H Group settings on the two routers are the same. ”
D. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
You are the network consultant. When will you assess a customer’s current network infrastructure?
A. plan
B. design
C. operate
D. optimize

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
A client is experiencing lower throughput and more packet retransmits is one area of the wireless network. At these times, the client utility shows high signal strength but low signal quality. What may be causing this issue?
A. The client does not support Cisco Compatible Extensions version 2.
B. Diversity is not enabled in the access point.
C. The WDS is failing to register the client card in the WLSM.
D. The channel is set incorrectly in the access point or in the client configuration.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
Which statement is correct about the current address translation configurations on the security appliance?
A. Dynamic NAT is used to translate the 10.0.1.100 host on the inside interface to a global address of
192.168.1.1
B. Port AddressTranslation(PAT) is used to translate any host on the inside interface to the 192.168.1.100 global address.
C. Static NAT is used to translate the 172.16.1.2 host on thedmzl interface to a global address of
192.168.1.102
D. Dynamic NAT is used to translate any host ondmzl and dmz2 interfaces to a mapped address from the address from the address pool of 192.168.1.110 to 192.168.1.250 ”

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
VLAN Hopping is one of the primary VLAN based attacks used by hackers to infiltrate network security. VLAN hopping is used to attack a network by sending packets to a port which is generally not accessible.
VLAN hopping attacks are mainly conducted in the Dynamic Trunking Protocol and, in some cases; the attacks are targeted to the trunking encapsulation protocol (802.1 q or ISL).You worry about the switched infrastructure in an integrated network is vulnerable to VLAN hopping attacks. Which two configuration can be used to mitigate VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. switchporttrunk encapsulation
B. switchport mode trunk
C. switchport access vlan
D. switchport mode access

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
CiscoWorks SNMS is a part of the CiscoWorks family of products for managing small to large networks. CiscoWorks SIMMS is a new Web-based network management solution for small to medium-sized businesses, with 40 or fewer Cisco internetworking devices such as switches, routers, hubs, and access servers. CiscoWorks SNMS can also monitor third-party IT assets such as servers, applications, services, and printers A Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) trunk is typically the voice interconnect between any business and the outside world. Which network management tool is designed to allow businesses to manage up to 40 devices?
A. CiscoWorks Unrestricted
B. CiscoWorks WAN Management
C. CiscoWorks LAN Management
D. CiscoWorks SNMS

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which statement is correct about the information in the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager General and License Information screen?

A. The security appliance supports active/active failover only.
B. The security appliance supports 3DES-AES only.
C. The managed device is a Cisco ASA 5540 Security Appliance with VPN premium license enabled.
D. The managed device is Cisco PIX515E Security Appliance.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
Which three are different types of STP inconsistencies in a Layer 2 network?(Choose three) A. MAC inconsistency
B. Root inconsistency
C. EtherChannel inconsistency
D. type inconsistency

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
According to the error log, VLAN 1 is where the BPDU was received, and VLAN 2 is where the BPDU originated. When inconsistency is detected, what happens?
A. VLAN 1 is blocked, while VLAN 2 is forwarding
B. VLAN1 is blocked, while VLAN 2 is listening
C. Both VLANs are listening on the port from which this BPDU is send
D. Both VLANs are blocked on the port from which this BPDU is received

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Which is the current configured default gateway IP address on the security appliance?
A. 172.16.10.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 192.168.1.2
D. 10.0.1.1

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 166
Which statement is true about a Cisco Aironet 350 Series wireless client when its green LED appears to be off and its amber LED is blinking?
A. The client adapter is scanning for a network.
B. The client adapter is in ad hoc mode.
C. The client adapter is performing a self-test.
D. The client adapter is in power-save mode.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 167
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant. Your IT Manager tells you 802.11b telephone can receive an audio signal from an access point, but cannot send audio. What is the most likely reason?
A. The value of RSSI telephone is greater than 30.
B. The access point only receives 802.11g data rates.
C. The security settings in the telephone mismatch the access point.
D. The telephone transmit power is significantly lower than the t the access point

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 109
You are configuring a VLAN and the switch you are using requires that you do so within the VLAN database. Which command allows you to enter the VLAN database?
A. Switch#vlan database
B. Switch (config)# vlan database
C. Switch (config-if)# vlan database
D. Switch (vlan)# vlan database

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing repeater topology? (Choose two.)
A. RF overlap between access points should be 10 to 15 percent with unique channels configured.
B. RF overlap between primary and repeater access points should be 10 to 15 percent with the same channel configured.
C. RF overlap between primary and repeater access points should be 50 percent with the same channel configured
D. RF overlap between primary and repeater access points should be 50 percent with unique channels configured.
E. Clients that are associated with the repeater access point will have 10 to 15 percent less data throughput than clients that are associated with the primary root access point.
F. Clients that are associated with the repeater access point will have 50 percent less data throughput than clients that are associated with the primary root access point
Correct Answer: CF Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
:Refer to the exhibit. The Cisco Aironet 802.1 la/b/g Wireless LAN Client Adapter has two LEDs. Which two LED states indicate that the card is associated to an access point and is working properly? (Choose two.)

A. green LED off; amber LED solid
B. green LED off; amber LED blinking sporadically
C. green LED blinking quickly: amber LED blinking quickly
D. green LED blinking slowly, amber LED blinking slowly
E. green LED blinking slowly; amber LED blinking quickly

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 112
Refer to the exhibit. The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configuration of Router A and Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the sitE.to-site VPN between Router A and Router B. What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?

A. The IPSec and IKE encryption methods do not match. They all have to be either 3DES or AES.
B. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a turbo ACL (150-199).
C. The D.H Group settings on the two routers are set to group 2. They must be set to group 1 for SHA. 1.
D. The IPSec policy map names on the two routers do not match. They must be the same on both routers.
E. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
OSPF routes are being redistributed into EIGRP but they are not showing up in the routing table. What are two possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. CEF has not been enabled.
B. Synchronization has been turned off.
C. incorrect distribute lists have been configured
D. No default metric has been configured for EIGRP
E. Theip classless command is missing.
F. There are mismatched autonomous system numbers.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
Which two statements best describe the wireless implementation of Cisco Aironet root and non- root bridging? (Choose two.)
A. Point-to-point access points can be used if one is root and the other is non-root.
B. WGB can be used with an access point if the distance is less than one mile
C. Root mode must be enabled only on one side in a point-to-point link to intemperate with other vendors and comply with 802.11
D. Up to 17 non-root bridges can associate to a root bridge
E. Point-to-point WGB can be used if total number of PCs is fewer than eight. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 is the BDR

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
The customer wants to implement wireless security through implementation of WPAv2. Which component of WPAv2 would limit the rollout because of the continued use of old access points?
A. 48-bit IV
B. AES
C. TKIP
D. MIC

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 116
A company needs to provide sitE.to-site VPN, remote access VPN, and firewall protection. Which device best supports all three functions?
A. Cisco PIX
B. Cisco ASA
C. Cisco Concentrator
D. Cisco Router and Security Device Manager

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
Refer to the exhibit. R2 is always in the init state. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. R2 is seeing hello packets from R1.
B. R2 is not seeing hello packets from R1.
C. The exchanging of data between R1 and R2 is occurring because each is sending hello packets.
D. Two-way communication has not been established between R1 and R2 because R2 is not seeing its router ID in the hello packets that it is receiving from R1
E. R2 has an access list defined for SO that is blocking an OSPF multicast IP address of 224.0.0.5.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
Which two features are only supported when using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) Advanced Firewall wizard and not supported when using the Cisco SDM Basic Firewall wizard? (Choose two.)
A. deep-packet inspections
B. IP unicast Reverse Path Forwarding on the outside (untrusted) interface
C. DMZ services
D. Custom inspection rules
E. proxy authentication

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 119
:When troubleshooting poor network performance, which two symptoms would typically be associated with a network layer problem? (Choose two.)
A. Packet loss is more than 30 percent
B. There is excessive broadcast traffic.
C. There are excessive CRC errors.
D. Pings succeed only part of the time
E. Slips are detected on WAN interfaces.
F. ARP requests are timing out.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
Which command can be used to verify that RIPv2 is running on a router?
A. show startup-config
B. show ip route
C. showip route rip
D. Show ip protocols

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router.
B. Layer 2 services can be configured in a Cisco Aironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router
C. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or controllers.
D. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSM.
E. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSE.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 122
You have just configured and enabled the Cisco IOS Firewall feature set from a remote location using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) Firewall wizard. You later want to doublE. check your configuration using Cisco SDM. However, you find that you can no longer connect to the Cisco IOS Firewall using Cisco SDM.
What is the probable cause of this failure?
A. You must additionally specify the Cisco SDM management port number to gain access when the configuration has been applied.
B. You have not generated an RSA key pair between the host and device to allow secure access via Cisco SDM.
C. You have been locked out via access lists mat nave been applied to the router as a result of your Cisco SDM configuration.
D. You must specify the host IP address of Cisco SDM in the Configuration panel for allowed management connections.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 123
An 802.11 b telephone is receiving an audio signal from an access point, but cannot send audio. What is a possible cause?
A. the RSSI value on the telephone is greater than 35.
B. The access point is set to receive only at 802.11g data rates.
C. The security settings in the telephone do not match the settings in the access point.
D. The transmit power in the telephone is significantly lower than the transmit power in the access point.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Refer to the exhibit. A host on the Sales subnet (10.0.2.0/24) is not able to initiate a web connection to an outside website. According to the network diagram and partial Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager configuration shown in the exhibit, what is the cause of the problem?

A. The dynamic NAT global pool is not configured correctly.
B. The source networks for static NAT are not configured correctly.
C. The administrator has not added an access list to allow the connection.
D. The source network for dynamic NAT is not configured correctly

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
Users logging into Cisco Router and Security Device Manager should be authenticated using the Cisco ISR local user database. Currently, none of the users can access Cisco Router and Security Device Manager via HTTP. You should check the configuration of which command or commands when attempting to resolve this problem?
A. There is no ip http secure-server
B. There is ip http authentication local
C. There is linevty 0 5 login local
D. There isaaa new-model

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
When using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager to configure AAA login authentication policies, which four methods are available? (Choose four.)
A. group RADIUS: use a list of RADIUS hosts
B. group TACACS+ use a list of TACACS+ hosts
C. enable: use enable password
D. otp: use onE.time password
E. local use local database
F. default: use line password

Correct Answer: ABCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
You have just configured HSRP and need to determine which router is active. Which command should you enter?
A. show ip hsrp active
B. show standby active
C. show star
D. show active

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 128
A North American customer is using 2.4-GHz radios in a point-to-point configuration. The radio power level is 17 dBm and is transmitting at 11 Mbps. The customer is using 21.5-dBi dish antennas and 50 feet of cabling, with a loss of 8.4 dB per 100 feet. The customer increased the distance between the transmitter stations and began experiencing link problems.
Without using a professional installer, which step should the customer take to fix the situation?
A. Use a cable with a lower loss.
B. Upgrade to an 802.11a radio.
C. Install a higher gain antenna.
D. Increase the transmitter power.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
A user is unable to connect to the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager via HTTPS. Which two of these might have caused this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Theip https server command is missing from the running configuration.
B. The ip http securE.server command is missing from the running configuration
C. The user is trying to launch Cisco Router and Security Device Manager from the inside (secured) interface with a firewall enabled.
D. The user has a privilege level lower than 15.
E. The browser security level is set too high.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two.)
A. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is configured via the infrastructure access point GUI.
B. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is automatically discovered by the infrastructure access points through multicast
C. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest MAC address, followed by priority number.
D. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest priority number followed by MAC address.
E. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest IP address, followed by MAC address.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 131
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between Router A and Router B. Given the debug output on Router A, which two statements are true? (Choose two.) Router A= debug eigrp packets . m .
01:39:13:
EIGRP: Received HELLO on SerialQ 0 nbr 10.1.2.2

01:39:13:
AS 100, Flags 0x0, Seq 0/0 idbQ 00 iidbQ un/rely 0/0 peerQ un/rely 0/0

01:39:13:
K-value mismatch

A.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.

B.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.

C.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.

D.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatchedmetriC.calculation mechanisms

E.
Router A will form an adjacency with Router B.

F.
Router A will not form an adjacency with Router B

Correct Answer: DF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 113
OSPF routes are being redistributed into EIGRP but they are not showing up in the routing table. What are two possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. CEF has not been enabled.
B. Synchronization has been turned off.
C. incorrect distribute lists have been configured
D. No default metric has been configured for EIGRP
E. Theip classless command is missing.
F. There are mismatched autonomous system numbers.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
Which two statements best describe the wireless implementation of Cisco Aironet root and non- root bridging? (Choose two.)
A. Point-to-point access points can be used if one is root and the other is non-root.
B. WGB can be used with an access point if the distance is less than one mile
C. Root mode must be enabled only on one side in a point-to-point link to intemperate with other vendors and comply with 802.11
D. Up to 17 non-root bridges can associate to a root bridge
E. Point-to-point WGB can be used if total number of PCs is fewer than eight. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 is the BDR

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
CORRECT TEXT
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: : about what is displayed? (Choose two.) Answer: C, D
QUESTION 116
The customer wants to implement wireless security through implementation of WPAv2. Which component of WPAv2 would limit the rollout because of the continued use of old access points?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 43 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
A. 48-bit IV
B. AES
C. TKIP
D. MIC

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
A company needs to provide sitE.to-site VPN, remote access VPN, and firewall protection. Which device best supports all three functions?
A. Cisco PIX
B. Cisco ASA
C. Cisco Concentrator
D. Cisco Router and Security Device Manager

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
CORRECT TEXT
Which two statements are
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: : about using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) to configure the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose two.) Answer: B, E
QUESTION 119
Refer to the exhibit. R2 is always in the init state. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. R2 is seeing hello packets from R1.
B. R2 is not seeing hello packets from R1. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 44 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
C. The exchanging of data between R1 and R2 is occurring because each is sending hello packets.
D. Two-way communication has not been established between R1 and R2 because R2 is not seeing its router ID in the hello packets that it is receiving from R1
E. R2 has an access list defined for SO that is blocking an OSPF multicast IP address of 224.0.0.5.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 120
Which two features are only supported when using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) Advanced Firewall wizard and not supported when using the Cisco SDM Basic Firewall wizard? (Choose two.)
A. deep-packet inspections
B. IP unicast Reverse Path Forwarding on the outside (untrusted) interface
C. DMZ services
D. Custom inspection rules
E. proxy authentication

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
:When troubleshooting poor network performance, which two symptoms would typically be associated with a network layer problem? (Choose two.)
A. Packet loss is more than 30 percent
B. There is excessive broadcast traffic.
C. There are excessive CRC errors.
D. Pings succeed only part of the time
E. Slips are detected on WAN interfaces.
F. ARP requests are timing out.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 122
Which command can be used to verify that RIPv2 is running on a router?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 45 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
A. show startup-config
B. show ip route
C. showip route rip
D. Show ip protocols

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 123
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router.
B. Layer 2 services can be configured in a Cisco Aironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router
C. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or controllers.
D. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSM.
E. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSE.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
You have just configured and enabled the Cisco IOS Firewall feature set from a remote location using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) Firewall wizard. You later want to doublE. check your configuration using Cisco SDM. However, you find that you can no longer connect to the Cisco IOS Firewall using Cisco SDM.
What is the probable cause of this failure?
A. You must additionally specify the Cisco SDM management port number to gain access when the configuration has been applied.
B. You have not generated an RSA key pair between the host and device to allow secure access via Cisco SDM.
C. You have been locked out via access lists mat nave been applied to the router as a result of your Cisco SDM configuration.
D. You must specify the host IP address of Cisco SDM in the Configuration panel for allowed management connections. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 46 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
An 802.11 b telephone is receiving an audio signal from an access point, but cannot send audio. What is a possible cause?
A. the RSSI value on the telephone is greater than 35.
B. The access point is set to receive only at 802.11g data rates.
C. The security settings in the telephone do not match the settings in the access point.
D. The transmit power in the telephone is significantly lower than the transmit power in the access point.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
Refer to the exhibit. A host on the Sales subnet (10.0.2.0/24) is not able to initiate a web connection to an outside website. According to the network diagram and partial Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager configuration shown in the exhibit, what is the cause of the problem?
A. The dynamic NAT global pool is not configured correctly.
B. The source networks for static NAT are not configured correctly.
C. The administrator has not added an access list to allow the connection.
D. The source network for dynamic NAT is not configured correctly

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
Users logging into Cisco Router and Security Device Manager should be authenticated using the Cisco ISR local user database. Currently, none of the users can access Cisco Router and Security Device Manager via HTTP. You should check the configuration of which command or commands when attempting to resolve this problem?
A. There is no ip http secure-server
B. There is ip http authentication local
C. There is linevty 0 5 login local
D. There isaaa new-model

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
When using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager to configure AAA login authentication policies, which four methods are available? (Choose four.)
A. group RADIUS: use a list of RADIUS hosts
B. group TACACS+ use a list of TACACS+ hosts
C. enable: use enable password
D. otp: use onE.time password
E. local use local database
F. default: use line password

Correct Answer: ABCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
CORRECT TEXT
Which two statements are
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: : about OSPF in a multiarea environment? (Choose two.) Answer: C, D
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 48 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
QUESTION 130
You have just configured HSRP and need to determine which router is active. Which command should you enter?
A. show ip hsrp active
B. show standby active
C. show star
D. show active

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 131
A North American customer is using 2.4-GHz radios in a point-to-point configuration. The radio power level is 17 dBm and is transmitting at 11 Mbps. The customer is using 21.5-dBi dish antennas and 50 feet of cabling, with a loss of 8.4 dB per 100 feet. The customer increased the distance between the transmitter stations and began experiencing link problems.
Without using a professional installer, which step should the customer take to fix the situation?
A. Use a cable with a lower loss.
B. Upgrade to an 802.11a radio.
C. Install a higher gain antenna.
D. Increase the transmitter power.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
CORRECT TEXT Which three statements are
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: : about the IEEE 802.3af Power over Ethernet standard? (Choose three.) Answer: A, C, E
QUESTION 133
A user is unable to connect to the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager via HTTPS. Which two of these might have caused this problem? (Choose two.)
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 49 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
A. Theip https server command is missing from the running configuration.
B. The ip http securE.server command is missing from the running configuration
C. The user is trying to launch Cisco Router and Security Device Manager from the inside (secured) interface with a firewall enabled.
D. The user has a privilege level lower than 15.
E. The browser security level is set too high.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two.)
A. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is configured via the infrastructure access point GUI.
B. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is automatically discovered by the infrastructure access points through multicast
C. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest MAC address, followed by priority number.
D. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest priority number followed by MAC address.
E. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest IP address, followed by MAC address.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between Router A
and Router B. Given the debug output on Router A, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
Router A= debug eigrp packets
. m .

01:39:13:
EIGRP: Received HELLO on SerialQ 0 nbr 10.1.2.2

01:39:13:
AS 100, Flags 0x0, Seq 0/0 idbQ 00 iidbQ un/rely 0/0 peerQ un/rely 0/0

01:39:13:
K-value mismatch

A.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.

B.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.

C.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.

D.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatchedmetriC.calculation mechanisms

E.
Router A will form an adjacency with Router B.

F.
Router A will not form an adjacency with Router B “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 50 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam

Correct Answer: DF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Which command assigns a cost value of “17” to a switch port?
A. spanning-tree interfacefastethernet 5/8 17
B. spanning-treeportcost 17
C. spanning-treeportcost 17
D. spanning-treevlan 1 cost 17

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
You have configured and applied a Cisco IOS Firewall access rule to the inbound, untrusted interface. You suspect that the rule may be blocking necessary traffic onto the network. What must you do to delete that rule when using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager?
A. Select ACL Editor > Access Rules to delete the rule.
B. You must remove the association between the rule and the interface before deleting the rule
C. You must delete the associated access list on the interface, then reconfigure the access list as required, and then reapply the access group to the proper interface.
D. Go to the Edit Firewall Policy tab to delete the rule.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
A customer in Europe needs to establish an 11-Mbps wireless bridge link between two office buildings that are approximately 1.3 km apart. The wireless link will pass through a public park, which contains a lake that is surrounded by trees. You run the range calculation and determine that the Cisco Aironet 1300 Series Outdoor Access Point/Bridge should work. You install the link using 10.5-dB yagis with 75 feet of standard Cisco cabling and both radios set at 20 mW. The wireless bridges are not able to establish or maintain a link.
What is needed to successfully complete this link?
A. An amplifier needs to be installed at one of the sites.
B. The antenna must be raised high enough to clear the trees
C. Lower loss cabling needs to be used to bring the EIRP into legal limits. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 51 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
D. Due to the trees, a 21-dBi dish needs to be used for its narrower beam width.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference

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QUESTION 156
Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port? switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
A. The port will shut down.
B. The host will be allowed to connect. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
C. The host will be refused access.
D. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Choose three.)
A. STP
B. CDP
C. EAP MD5
D. TACACS+
E. EAP-over-LAN
F. protocols not filtered by an ACL

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
When you issue a command show port 3/1 on an Ethernet port, you observe the Giants column has a non-zero entry. What could cause this?
A. IEEE 802.1Q
B. IEEE 802.10
C. misconfigured NIC
D. user configuration

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
Which VTP information does a Catalyst switch advertise on its trunk ports when using VTP? (Choose two.)
A. VTP mode
B. STP root status
C. negotiation status
D. management domain
E. configuration revision number

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 160
What are two benefits provided in VTP Version 2 but NOT in VTP Version 1? (Choose two.)
A. supports Token Ring VLANs
B. allows VLAN consistency checks
C. saves VLAN configuration memory
D. reduces the amount of configuration necessary
E. allows active redundant links when used with spanning tree

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
Refer to the exhibit. All network links are FastEthernet. Although there is complete connectivity throughout the network, Front Line users have been complaining that they experience slower network performance when accessing the server farm than the Reception office experiences. Based on the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Changing the bridge priority of S1 to 4096 would improve network performance.
B. Changing the bridge priority of S1 to 36864 would improve network performance.
C. Changing the bridge priority of S2 to 36864 would improve network performance.
D. Changing the bridge priority of S3 to 4096 would improve network performance. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
E. Disabling the Spanning Tree Protocol would improve network performance.
F. Upgrading the link between S2 and S3 to Gigabit Ethernet would improve performance.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Refer to the exhibit. PCs in VLAN 2 are not able to communicate with PCs in VLAN 3. What could be
the cause?

A. IP routing is not enabled.
B. VTP is not configured correctly on the interfaces.
C. The command mls rp management-interface is missing.
D. The command mls rp ip must be disabled to enable the routing.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
Which three statements are true of the Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP)? (Choose three.)
A. LACP is used to connect to non-Cisco devices.
B. LACP packets are sent with the command channel-group 1 mode desirable.
C. LACP packets are sent with the command channel-group 1 mode active.
D. Standby interfaces should be configured with a higher priority.
E. Standby interfaces should be configured with a lower priority.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 164
Refer to the exhibit. A workstation PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone access port. Based on the
configuration in the exhibit, how will the traffic be managed?

A. The IP phone access port will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
B. The IP phone access port will trust the priority of the frames received from the PC.
C. The switch port Fa0/4 will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
D. The switch port Fa0/4 will trust the priority for the frames received from the PC.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Refer to the exhibit. A trunk link is connected between switch A_SW and switch D_SW. Based on the
configuration shown in the exhibit, how would the traffic coming from the switch A_SW be managed?
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A. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from the IP phone.
B. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone.
C. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from port Fa0/1 on A_SW.
D. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the A_SW switch port Fa0/4.
E. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone port.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Which option correctly identifies the Cisco IOS switching methods in descending order from the fastest
method to the slowest method?
A. CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching, process switching
B. distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching, process switching
C. fast switching, process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
D. process switching, fast switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
E. process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching
F. process switching, CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
What will occur when a nonedge switch port that is configured for Rapid Spanning Tree does not
receive a BPDU from its neighbor for three consecutive hello time intervals?
A. RSTP information is automatically aged out.
B. The port sends a TCN to the root bridge.
C. The port moves to listening state.
D. The port becomes a normal spanning tree port.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
Refer to the exhibit. Why does the trust state of interface FastEthernet 0/3 show “not trusted”?
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A. DSCP map needs to be configured for VOIP.
B. ToS has not been configured.
C. ToS has been misconfigured.
D. The command mls qos needs to be turned on in global configuration mode.
E. There is not a Cisco Phone attached to the interface.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 169
What two things will occur when an edge port receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)
A. The port immediately transitions to the Forwarding state.
B. The switch generates a Topology Change Notification (TCN) BPDU.
C. The port immediately transitions to the err-disable state.
D. The port becomes a normal STP switch port.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
What two pieces of information will the show vlan id 5 command display? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN information on port 0/5
B. ports in VLAN 5
C. MTU and type
D. utilization
E. filters

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
Based on the network diagram and routing table output in the exhibit, which of these statements is
true?
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A. InterVLAN routing has been configured properly, and the workstations have connectivity to each other.
B. InterVLAN routing will not occur since no routing protocol has been configured.
C. Although interVLAN routing is not enabled, both workstations will have connectivity to each other.
D. Although interVLAN routing is enabled, the workstations will not have connectivity to each other.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 172
What is the default VTP advertisement for subset advertisements in Catalyst switches that are in server or client mode?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 1 minute
E. 5 minutes

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 173
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the debug output that is shown, which three statements about HSRP
are true? (Choose three.)
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A. The final active router is the router with IP address 172.16.11.111.
B. The router with IP address 172.16.11.111 has preempt configured.
C. The priority of the router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is preferred over the router with IP address

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
16.11.111.
A. The IP address 172.16.11.115 is the virtual HSRP IP address.
B. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 has nonpreempt configured.
C. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is using default HSRP priority.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
What must be configured on a Cisco switch in order to advertise VLAN information?
A. VTP password
B. VTP domain name
C. VTP revision number
D. VTP mode
E. VTP pruning

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
Which describes the default load balancing scheme used by the Gateway Load Balancing Protocol
(GLBP)?
A. per host basis using a round-robin scheme
B. per host basis using a strict priority scheme
C. per session using a round-robin scheme
D. per session using a strict priority scheme
E. per GLBP group using a round-robin scheme TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
F. per GLBP group using a strict priority scheme

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
When authentication is required, where must 802.1x be configured in order to connect a PC to a
switch?
A. client PC only
B. switch port only
C. switch port and client PC
D. switch port and local router port

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
How are STP timers and state transitions affected when a topology change occurs in an STP
environment?
A. All ports will temporarily transition to the learning state for a period equal to the max age timer plus the forward delay interval.
B. All ports will transition temporarily to the learning state for a period equal to the forward delay interval.
C. The default aging time for MAC address entries will be reduced for a period of the max age timer plus the forward delay interval.
D. The default hello time for configuration BDPUs will be reduced for the period of the max age timer.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 179
Refer to the exhibit. VTP has been enabled on the trunk links between all switches within the TEST
domain. An administrator has recently enabled VTP pruning. Port 1 on Switch 1 and port 2 on Switch 4 are
assigned to VLAN 2. A broadcast is sent from the host connected to Switch 1. Where will the broadcast
propagate?
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A. Every switch in the network receives the broadcast and will forward it out all ports.
B. Every switch in the network receives the broadcast, but only Switch 4 will forward it out port 2.
C. Switches 1, 2, and 4 will receive the broadcast, but only Switch 4 will forward it out port 2.
D. Only Switch 4 will receive the broadcast and will forward it out port 2.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 180
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 1 and VLAN 2 are configured on the trunked links between Switch A and Switch B. Port Fa 0/2 on Switch B is currently in a blocking state for both VLANs. What should be done to load balance VLAN traffic between Switch A and Switch B?

A. Lower the port priority for VLAN 1 on port 0/1 for Switch A.
B. Lower the port priority for VLAN 1 on port 0/2 for Switch A.
C. Make the bridge ID of Switch B lower than the ID of Switch A.
D. Enable HSRP on the access ports.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181
Refer to the exhibit. Which two problems are the most likely cause of the exhibited output? (Choose
two.)
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A. spanning tree issues
B. HSRP misconfiguration
C. VRRP misconfiguration
D. physical layer issues
E. transport layer issues

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
Refer to the exhibit. Initially, LinkA is connected and forwarding traffic. A new LinkB is then attached between SwitchA and HubA. Which two statements are true about the possible result of attaching the second link? (Choose two.)

A. The switch port attached to LinkB will not transistion to up.
B. One of the two switch ports attached to the hub will go into blocking mode when a BPDU is received.
C. Both switch ports attached to the hub will transition to the blocking state.
D. A heavy traffic load could cause BPDU transmissions to be blocked and leave a switching loop.
E. The switch port attached to LinkA will immediately transition to the blocking state.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 183
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration on routers R1 and R2. Hot Standby Routing Protocol (HSRP) is configured on the network to provide network redundancy for the IP traffic. The network administrator noticed that R2 does not became active when the R1 serial0 interface goes down. What should be changed in the configuration to fix the problem?

A. R2 should be configured with a HSRP virtual address.
B. R2 should be configured with a standby priority of 100.
C. The Serial0 interface on router R1 should be configured with a decrement value of 20.
D. The Serial1 interface on router R2 should be configured with a decrement value of 20.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the output?
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A. The port on switch CAT1 is forwarding and sending BPDUs correctly.
B. The port on switch CAT1 is blocking and sending BPDUs correctly.
C. The port on switch CAT2 is forwarding and receiving BPDUs correctly.
D. The port on switch CAT2 is blocking and sending BPDUs correctly.
E. The port on switch CAT3 is forwarding and receiving BPDUs correctly.
F. The port on switch CAT3 is forwarding, sending, and receiving BPDUs correctly.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 185
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true based upon the configuration of router R1 and router R2?
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A. Router R1 will become the active virtual gateway.
B. Router R2 will become the active virtual gateway.
C. The hello and hold timers are incompatible with multi-homed BGP.
D. The hello and hold timers are incompatible with OSPF type 5 LSAs.
E. Router R1 will become the master for Virtual Router 1, and router R2 will become the backup for Virtual Router 2.
F. Router R2 will become the master for Virtual Router 1, and router R1 will become the backup for Virtual Router 2.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 186
Refer to the exhibit. The switchport output in Figure 1 displays the default settings of interface
FastEthernet 0/13 on switch SW1. Figure 2 displays the desired interface settings. Which command
sequence would configure interface FastEthernet 0/13 as displayed in Figure 2?
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A. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SW1 (config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
B. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic auto SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA SW1(config-if)# witchport trunk allowed vlan add 1,10,20
C. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
D. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10 SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
E. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 187
Refer to the exhibit. For what purpose is the command show ip cef used?
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A. to display rewritten IP unicast packets
B. to display ARP resolution packets
C. to display ARP throttling
D. to display TCAM matches
E. to display CEF-based MLS lookups
F. to display entries in the Forwarding Information Base (FIB)

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 188
Which two statements are true about HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP? (Choose two.)
A. GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment without the different host IP configurations required to achieve the same results with HSRP.
B. GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment by utilizing the creation of multiple standby groups.
C. GLBP and VRRP allow for MD5 authentication, whereas HSRP does not.
D. Unlike HSRP and VRRP, GLBP allows automatic selection and simultaneous use of multiple available gateways.
E. HSRP allows for multiple upstream active links being simultaneously used, whereas GLBP does not.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 189
Refer to the exhibit. Host A and Host B are connected to the Catalyst 3550 switch and have been
assigned to their respective VLANs. The rest of the 3550 configuration is the default configuration. Host A is able to ping its default gateway, 10.10.10.1, but is unable to ping Host B. Given the output displayed in the exhibit, which statement is true?

A. HSRP must be configured on SW1.
B. A separate router is required to support interVLAN routing.
C. Interface VLAN 10 must be configured on the SW1 switch.
D. The global config command ip routing must be configured on the SW1 switch.
E. VLANs 10 and 15 must be created in the VLAN database mode.
F. VTP must be configured to support interVLAN routing.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 190
Refer to the exhibit and the show interfaces fastethernet0/1 switchport outputs. Users in VLAN 5 on
switch SW_A complain that they do not have connectivity to the users in VLAN 5 on switch SW_B. What
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A. Configure the same number of VLANs on both switches.
B. Create switch virtual interfaces (SVI) on both switches to route the traffic.
C. Define VLAN 5 in the allowed list for the trunk port on SW_A.
D. Disable pruning for all VLANs in both switches.
E. Define VLAN 5 in the allowed list for the trunk port on SW_B

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 191
What does the Catalyst switch interface configuration command switchport trunk native vlan 7
accomplish?
A. configures the interface to be a trunking port and causes traffic on VLAN 7 to be 802.1q tagged
B. causes the interface to apply ISL framing for traffic on VLAN 7
C. configures the trunking interface to send traffic from VLAN 7 untagged
D. configures the trunking interface to forward traffic from VLAN 7

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 192
Refer to the exhibit. The show port-security interface fa0/1 command was issued on switch SW1.
Given the output that was generated, which two security statement are true? (Choose two.)

A. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security aging command.
B. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security protect command.
C. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security violation restrict command.
D. When the number of secure IP addresses reaches 10, the interface will immediately shut down.
E. When the number of secure MAC addresses reaches 10, the interface will immediately shut down and an SNMP trap notification will be sent.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 193
Which two statements about the various implementations of STP are true? (Choose two.)
A. Common Spanning Tree maintains a separate spanning-tree instance for each VLAN configured in the network.
B. The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is an evolution of the IEEE 802.1w standard.
C. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) supports 802.1Q trunking. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
D. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus(PVST+) is an enhancement to 802.1Q specification and is supported only on Cisco devices.
E. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) includes features equivalent to Cisco PortFast, UplinkFast, and BackboneFast for faster network reconvergence.
F. Multiple Spanning Tree (MST) assumes one spanning-tree instance for the entire Layer 2 network, regardless of the multiple number of VLANs.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 194
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration of switch SW_A and SW_B. STP is configured on all
switches in the network. SW_B receives this error message on the console port:

00:06:34:
%CDP-4-DUPLEX_MISMATCH: duplex mismatch discovered on FastEthernet0/5 (not half
duplex),
with SW_A FastEthernet0/4 (half duplex) ,
with TBA05071417(Cat6K-B) 0/4 (half duplex).
What would be the possible outcome of the problem?
A.
The root port on switch SW_A will automatically transition to full-duplex mode.

B.
The root port on switch SW_B will fallback to full-duplex mode.

C.
The interfaces between switches SW_A and SW_B will transition to a blocking state.

D.
Interface Fa 0/6 on switch SW_B will transition to a forwarding state and create a bridging loop. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 195
Which two statements are true about BPDU port-guard and BPDU filtering? (Choose two.)
A. BPDU port-guard can be enabled globally, whereas BPDU filtering must be enabled on a per-interface basis.
B. When globally enabled, BPDU port-guard and BPDU filtering apply only to PortFast enabled ports.
C. When globally enabled, BPDU port-guard and BPDU filtering apply only to trunking-enabled ports.
D. When a BPDU is received on a BPDU port-guard enabled port, the interface goes into the err-disabled state.
E. When a BPDU is received on a BPDU filtering enabled port, the interface goes into the err-disabled state.
F. When a BPDU is received on a BPDU filtering enabled port, the interface goes into the STP blocking state.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 196
Refer to the exhibit. Switch 15 is configured as the root switch for VLAN 10 but not for VLAN 20. If the
STP configuration is correct, what will be true about Switch 15?

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A. All ports will be in forwarding mode.
B. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode.
C. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in blocking mode.
D. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in standby mode.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 197
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

A. IP traffic matching access list ABC is forwarded through VLANs 5-10.
B. IP traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all other traffic will be dropped.
C. All VLAN traffic matching VLAN list 5-10 will be forwarded, and all traffic matching access list ABC is dropped.
D. All VLAN traffic in VLANs 5-10 that match access list ABC will be forwarded, and all else will be dropped.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 198
Refer to the exhibit. Switch P1S1 is not applying VLAN updates from switch P2S1. What are three
reasons why this is not occurring? (Choose three.)
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A. Switch P2S1 is in server mode.
B. Switch P1S1 is in transparent mode.
C. The MD5 digests do not match.
D. The passwords do not match.
E. The VTP domains are different.
F. VTP trap generation is disabled on both switches.

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 199
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about
interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?
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A. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplex mismatch with another switch

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 200
What must be the same to make multiple switches part of the same Multiple Spanning Tree (MST)?
A. VLAN instance mapping and revision number
B. VLAN instance mapping and member list
C. VLAN instance mapping, revision number, and member list
D. VLAN instance mapping, revision number, member list, and timers

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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