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QUESTION 116
Match the corresponding terms and OSI layer.(Not all options are used.) 1.bits 2.packets 3.UDP 4.IP addresses 5.segments 6.MAC addresses 7.windowing 8.routing 9.switching
A. Network Layer II.Transprot Layer
B. I(2,4,9),II(5,7,3)
C. I(1,4,9),II(5,3,7)
D. I(1,4,8),II(2,7,3)
E. I(2,4,8),II(5,7,3)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 117
Three of the following are types of flow control. Which are them? (Choose three.)
A. windowing
B. buffering
C. cut-through
D. congestion avoidance
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 118
The following exhibit displays every device attached to the network. How many collision domains are shown in this network?

A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 15
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 119
What do you think is the data structure that is described in the graphic?

A. TCP segment
B. FDDI frame
C. Ethernet frame
D. Token Ring frame
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 120
For the following Layer 4 protocols, which one is used for a Telnet connection?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. ICMP
D. DNS
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 121
Which option is correct about the relationship between the definition and the term? Not all definitions will be used.
1.a protocol that converts human-readable names into machine-readable addresses 2.used to assign IP addresses automatically and set parameters such as subnet mask and default gateway 3.a protocol for using HTTP or HTTPS to exchange XML-based messages over computer networks 4.a connectionless service that uses UDP to transfer files between systems 5.a protocol used to monitor and manage network devices
6.a reliable. Connection-oriented service that uses TCP to transfer files between systems
A. SNMP II.FTP III.TFTP IV.DNS
B. DHCP
C. I-5;II-6;III-4;IV-1;V-2
D. I-5;II-6;III-1;IV-2;V-4
E. I-6;II-5;III-4;IV-1;V-2
F. I-6;II-5;III-4;IV-2;V-1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 122
Look at the following exhibit. To interconnect the devices, which types of cables are needed? (Choose three.)

A. rollover cable
B. V.35 cable
C. crossover cable
D. straight-through cable
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 123
Look at the following exhibit. You are a network administrator for certways. You have added Host A to the network. A certain kind of cable should be used between P4S-S2 and host A. Which is it?

A. console cable
B. crossover cable
C. rollover cable
D. straight-through cable
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 124
Look at the following exhibit. To make the following connections ,what types of cables are recommended?

A. A-crossover B-straight-through C-crossover D-straight-through E-crossover
B. A-rollover B-straight-through C-straight-through D-rollover E-crossover
C. A-straight-through B-straight-through C-rollover D-straight-through E-straight-through
D. A-crossover B-straight-through C-rollover D-straight-through E-straight-through
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 125
From which of the following does a small network get its IP network address?
A. Internet Service Provider (ISP)
B. Internet Architecture Board (IAB)
C. Internet Domain Name Registry (IDNR)
D. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 126
You are a network administrator for certways. By using the Ethernet interfaces as shown in the graphic,
you connect PC hosts certwaysA and certwaysB directly. You ping certwaysB from
certwaysA, and fails. You are required to enable the connectivity between the two hosts. What can be
done? (Choose two.)
A. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
B. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.
C. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
D. The hosts must be reconfigured to use private IP addresses for direct connections of this type.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 127
Part of the certways network is shown below:
Please study the exhibit shown above carefully, how many collision domains are shown
A. three
B. two

C. four
D. one
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 128
What is a necessary to allow host A to ping host B according to the exhibit?

A. a straight-through cable connecting the switches
B. a crossover cable connecting the switches
C. a router connected to the switches with straight-through cables
D. a CSU/DSU connected to the switches with straight-through cables
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 129
You work as a network technician for the P4S company. The displayed wire scheme is terminated at each end with an RJ-45 connector. Which type of cables does the wire diagram represent?

A. a rollover cable
B. an Ethernet straight-through cable
C. a serial crossover cable
D. an Ethernet crossover cable
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 130
On the basis of the exhibit below. When packets travel from Sara to Bill, which three devices will determine a forwarding path by using the destination MAC address of the packet? (Choose three.)

A. P4S-S1
B. P4S-S2
C. P4S-R2
D. P4S-S3
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 131
Study the exhibit carefully. P4S-Host A is forwarding a packet to P4S-Host B for the first time. Which destination MAC address will be used by P4S-Host A in the ARP request?

A. 255.255.255.255
B. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
C. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
D. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
Refer to the following exhibit, Host A should communicate with the email server. Which address will be put in the destination address field of the frame when it leaves Host A?

A. the MAC address of Host A
B. the MAC address of P4S-S1
C. the MAC address of E0 of P4S-R
D. the MAC address of E1 of P4S-R
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 133
The following exhibit shows a planned network. Which three descriptions are true about the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)

A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device
C. Network Device B is a hub.
D. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 134
Refer to the graphic. Workstation A in the Sales location is communicating with the server in the Production location. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by workstation A from the server?

A. the MAC address of router interface e0
B. the MAC address of the server network interface
C. the MAC address of host A D. the MAC address of router interface e1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 135
All devices will be connected through Ethernet according to the exhibit from labeled A to E . Which three
device-to-device configurations most likely require the use of a crossover connection?
(Choose three.)
A. exhibit A
B. exhibit B
C. exhibit C
D. exhibit D
E. exhibit E
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 136
Your company has just installed the mail server and P4S-SW2. UDP packets are not permitted outbound on the Fa0/1 router interface due to security reasons. Bob is now examining the new installation at his workstation and can’t establish SMTP communication to the mail server. Which item is the reason for lack of communication between Bob’s workstation and the mail server?

A. The crossover cable should be a straight-through cable.
B. The IP addresses are all on the same network. No router is required.
C. UDP is blocked coming out of the Fa0/1 interface on the router.
D. The server should be directly connected to the router.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 137
Which two statements best describe the interface configuration according to the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. The encapsulation in use on this interface is PPP.
B. This interface is connected to a LAN.
C. The address mask of this interface is 255.255.255.0.
D. The default serial line encapsulation is in use on this interface.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 138
Refer to the exhibit. What could be possible causes for the “Serial0/0 is down” interface status? (Choose two.)

A. A Layer 1 problem exists.
B. A protocol mismatch exists.
C. The bandwidth is set too low.
D. An incorrect cable is being used.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 139
Which two statements best describe ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. They can provide hosts with information about network problems.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 140
The certways network topology exhibit is shown below:
Please study the exhibit carefully. A technician is troubleshooting a host connectivity problem. The host is
unable to ping a server connected to Switch certwaysA. Based on the result of the testing, what could be
the problem?
A. A remote physical layer problem exists.
B. The host NIC is not functioning.
C. TCP/IP has not been correctly installed on the host.
D. A local physical layer problem exists.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 141
Examine the following options carefully, which line from the output of the show ip interface command indicates that there is a Layer 1 problem?
A. Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is up
B. Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down
C. Serial0/1 is down, line protocol is down
D. Serial0/1 is administratively down, line protocol is down
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 142
What does flow control accomplish?
A. to ensure data is retransmitted if an acknowledgment is not received
B. to reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device
C. to provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender
D. to regulate the size of each segment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 143
For the following transport layer protocols, which one is most suitable for the transport of VoIP data?
A. HTTP
B. UDP
C. RIP
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 144
Which three statements correctly describe the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 145
According to the following exhibit. Which two output fields will be helpful when you determine if a broadcast storm has occurred? (Choose two.)

A. collisions
B. no buffer
C. dribble condition
D. ignored
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 146
You are a network technician at P4S, study the exhibit carefully. The ports displayed are the only active ports on the P4S-S. The MAC address table is displayed in its entirety. The Ethernet frame presented reaches the P4S-S. When receiving this frame, which two operations will the P4S-S perform? (Choose two.)

A. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table.
B. The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.
C. The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/3 only.
D. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 147
Which two characteristics belong to Telnet? (Choose two.)
A. It sends data in clear text format.
B. It is no longer supported on Cisco network devices.
C. It is more secure than SSH.
D. It requires that the destination device be configured to support Telnet connections.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 148
Which error condition could be removed at once when troubleshooting a LAN interface operating in full duplex mode?
A. dribble condition
B. giants
C. collisions
D. no buffers
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 149
Refer to the exhibit.
P4S-PCA is sending packets to the FTP server. Consider the packets as they leave P4S-RA interface
Fa0/0 forwards P4S-RB.Drag the correct frame and packet address to their place in the table.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 150
Choose from the following two statements that describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method. (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 151
Topic – Implement a small switched network.
Select the appropriate media, cables, ports, and connectors to connect switches to other network devices and hosts Explain the technology and media access control method for Ethernet technologies Explain network segmentation and basic traffic management concepts Explain the operation of Cisco switches and basic switching concepts Perform, save and verify initial switch configuration tasks including remote access management Verify network status and switch operation using basic utilities (including: ping, traceroute,telnet,SSH,arp, ipconfig), SHOW DEBUG commands Implement and verify basic security for a switch (port security, deactivate ports) Identify, prescribe, and resolve common switched network media issues, configuration issues, autonegotiation, and switch hardware failures
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 152
You are a network administrator for the P4S company, study the exhibit carefully. Your company has just configured a Catalyst 2950 switch for remote management by pasting into the console the configuration commands displayed in the exhibit. However, a Telnet session is not able to be successfully established from a remote host. How to fix this problem?

A. Change the fifth line to ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.17.1.
B. Change the first line to interface fastethernet 0/1.
C. Change the fifth line to ip default-gateway 192.168.17.241.
D. Change the sixth line to line con 0.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 153
You are a network administrator at P4S, study the exhibit below carefully. You substitute the NIC in a desktop PC with a new NIC. The NIC in the PC configuration is set to “100 Mb Half.” Now the PC has intermittent connectivity and loss of communication so you start troubleshooting on the switch. According to the switch output displayed, which is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. Fast Ethernet is incompatible with a megabit NIC.
B. The counters were not cleared after the hardware was replaced.
C. The switch is set to full-duplex.
D. Input flow control is off.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 154
The following graphic displays the topology and switching table. Host P4S-B forwards a frame to Host P4S-C. What would the switch do with the frame?

A. send an ARP request for Host P4S-C
B. send the frame out all ports except port 0/2
C. send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host P4S-B
D. record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host P4S-C
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 155
You work as a network technician for P4S Ltd. Study the exhibit carefully. After the power-on self test
(POST), the system LED of a Cisco 2950 switch becomes amber.
What is the status of the
switch?
A. The switch has experienced an internal problem but data can still be forwarded at a slower rate.
B. The POST was successful.
C. POST failed and there is a problem that prevents the operating system of the switch from being loaded.
D. The switch passed POST, but all the switch ports are busy.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 156
As it is shown in the following exhibit, P4S-SWA receives the frame with the addressing. Based on the command output shown, how will P4S-SWA handle this frame?

A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will flood the frame out all ports.
C. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 157
Which of the following command will set the default gateway to 192.168.12.1 on a Cisco switch?
A. P4S-SW(config)# ip route-default 192.168.12.1
B. P4S-SW(config)# ip route 192.168.12.1 0.0.0.0
C. P4S-SW(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.12.1
D. P4S-SW(config)# ip default-network 192.168.12.1
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 158
Study the exhibit carefully. Two 2950 switches use a straight-through cable to connect through ports fa0/24. What can be concluded about this network according to the output provided in the exhibit and the information that is given?

A. An IP address and default gateway must be configured on each switch.
B. The switches do not share the same VTP domain.
C. Port fa0/24 must be configured as a trunk in order for the switches to share neighbor information.
D. The switches are cabled incorrectly.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 159
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the P4S-S are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected P4S-R and P4S-S ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Reseat all cables.
D. Ensure the P4S-S has power.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 160
What does it indicate when the system LED is amber on a Cisco Catalyst 2950 series switch?
A. The system is not powered up.
B. The system is malfunctioning.
C. The system is forwarding traffic.
D. The system is powered up and operational.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 161
P4S-SWA receives the frame with the addressing displayed in the exhibit. How will P4S-SWA deal with this frame according to the command output shown in the exhibit?

A. It will flood the frame out all ports.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
D. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 162
The following output was displayed on a certways device:
Study the exhibit above. Switch-certways1 needs to send data to host with a MAC address of
00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-certways1 do with this data?
A. certways1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.
B. certways1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.
C. certways1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 163
The following graphic displays the topology and MAC address table. Host P4S-A sends a data frame to host P4S-D. When receiving the frame from host P4S-A, what will the P4S-SWA do?

A. The P4S-SWA will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host P4S-D.
B. The P4S-SWA will flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3.
C. The P4S-SWA will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host P4S-D.
D. The P4S-SWA will discard the frame and send an error message back to host P4S-A.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 164
Examine the following options, which two are effects on network performance of configuring a switch to store an entire frame before forwarding it to the destination? (Choose two.)
A. increase in switch operating speed
B. increased latency
C. filtering of all frame errors
D. filtering of collision fragments only
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 165
The part of certways network is shown below:
According to the diagram, which of the following is true about the internetwork?
A. certways2 is the root bridge.
B. Spanning Tree is not running.
C. No collisions can occur in traffic between certwaysB and certwaysC.
D. certwaysD and certways Server 1 are in the same network.
E. If Fa0/0 is down on certways-R, Pass4usreA cannot access certways Server 1
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 166
Topic- Implement an IP addressing scheme and IP services to meet network requirements for a small branch office.
Describe the need and role of addressing in a network ” Create and apply an addressing scheme to a network Assign and verify valid IP addresses to hosts, servers, and networking devices in a LAN environment Explain the basic uses and operation of NAT in a small network connecting to one ISP Describe and verify DNS operation Describe the operation and benefits of using private and public IP addressing Enable NAT for a small network with a single ISP and connection using SDM and verify operation using CLI and ping Configure, verify and troubleshoot DHCP and DNS operation on a router.(including: CLI/SDM) Implement static and dynamic addressing services for hosts in a LAN environment Identify and correct IP addressing issues
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 167
Match the corresponding command sequence and configure an IP address on a serial interface.(Not all options are used) 1.P4S# interface s0/0 2.P4S(config)# interface s0/0 3.P4S(config-if)# no shutdown 4.P4S(config-if)# enable interface 5.P4S(config)# ip address 172.16.20.21 255.255.255.0 6.P4S(config-if)# ip address 10.8.5.255 255.255.252.0 7.P4S(config-if)# ip address 198.18.2.63 255.255.255.224 8.P4S(config-if)# description T1 to WAN 9.P4S(config)# banner motd! T1 to WAN! 10.P4S# configure terminal
A. enable the interface II.label the interface III.enter global configuration mode IV.enter interface configuration mode
B. configure the interface IP address
C. I-3,II-8,III-10,IV-2,V-6
D. I-3,II-8,III-10,IV-1,V-6
E. I-3,II-9,III-10,IV-2,V-5
F. I-3,II-9,III-10,IV-1,V-5
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 168
Look at the following exhibit. The diagram is provided by the certways network support staff as a recommended configuration for the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project. The entire network expansion will have over 1000 users on 14 network segments. The following IP address space has been allocated for this network:
192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255

192.168.100.1 through 198.168.100.255
There are three problems with this design. What are them? (Choose three.)
A. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.
B. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space.
C. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
D. The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 169
You are a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit above carefully, as the first step in verifying a local host configuration, you perform the ipconfig/all command on a computer. Answer the following questions by using the results of the command. Which destination addresses does not need the use of the default gateway for a packet from this local host?

A. 10.69.2.88
B. 10.4.8.2
C. 10.5.2.27
D. 172.16.236.4
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 170
Refer to the exhibit. Host P4S-A needs to send data to Host P4S-B. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will be used to send the data from Host P4S-A to Host P4S-B?

A. 192.168.24.1 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
B. 192.168.60.5 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
C. 192.168.24.2 and 0007.0e84.acef
D. 192.168.60.5 and 0011.43da.2c98
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 171
You are a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit above carefully, as the first step in verifying a local host configuration, you perform the ipconfig/all command on a computer. Answer the following questions by using the results of the command. Which IP address represents the first server that this computer is trying to contact to resolve an Internet web site URL to an IP address?

A. 10.4.8.1
B. 10.69.2.87
C. 172.16.3.2
D. 172.16.236.1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 172
You are a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit above carefully, as the first step in verifying a local host configuration, you perform the ipconfig/all command on a computer. Answer the following questions by using the results of the command. You can successfully ping to the IP address of the primary DNS server configured on the computer. What can you determine concerning the network?

A. The names of all of the routers in the path can be resolved by the configured DNS servers
B. The DNS server is able to resolve domain names to IP addresses.
C. The router with the address 172.16.3.2 has the correct route to the 10.0.0.0 network
D. The router with the address 172.16.236.1 has a route it can use to reach network of the DNS server
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 173
What can be drawn about traffic on the router interface from the statement “The only UDP port allowed on this router interface is 53.” issued by the network manager?
A. DNS traffic is allowed.
B. Telnet traffic is allowed.
C. RIP traffic is allowed.
D. SMTP traffic is allowed.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 174
Please study the exhibit, and answer the following question. Choose from the following the subnet broadcast address of the LAN connected to P4S-R.
A. 192.168.200.15
B. 192.168.200.31
C. 192.168.200.63
D. 192.168.200.127
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 175
On the LAN to which P4S-R is connected, how many hosts can have IP addresses (Including the address on the P4S-R FastEthernet interface)?
A. 6
B. 14
C. 62
D. 126
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 176
Choose from the following two statements that describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
C. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
D. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 177
According to the following exhibit. A customer is not able to reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the department have no problem. What most likely causes this problem?

A. A DHCP server address is not reachable by the PC.
B. IP routing is not enabled.
C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC.
D. NAT has not been configured on the router that connects to the Internet.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 178
Look at the following exhibit. P4SA should be able to telnet to switch P4S-SW by using router P4S-R for management purposes. To configure this connection successfully, what should be configured?

A. VLAN 1 on P4S-R
B. IP routing on P4S-SW
C. default gateway on P4S-SW
D. cross-over cable connecting P4S-SW and P4S-R
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 179
Look at the following exhibit. The network is designed to provide the most efficient use of IP address space in a network expansion. Each circle defines a network segment and the number of users required on that segment. An IP subnetwork number and default gateway address are displayed for each segment. There are three problems with the network design. What are the problems? (Choose three.)

A. Network 10.1.2.0/25 requires more user address space.
B. Network 10.1.3.128/25 requires more user address space.
C. Interface fa0/3 has an incorrect IP address.
D. Interface fa0/1 has an invalid IP address for the subnet on which it resides.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 180
Two of the following describe private IP addresses. Which are them? (Choose two.)
A. a scheme to conserve public addresses
B. addresses that can be routed through the public Internet
C. addresses that cannot be routed through the public Internet
D. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the Internet
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 181
You are a network technician at P4S. Study the exhibit above carefully, as the first step in verifying a local host configuration, you perform the ipconfig/all command on a computer. Answer the following questions by using the results of the command. Which two things can you determine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address 172.16.236.1? (Choose two)

A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly.
B. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer.
C. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured.
D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 182
Which of the following is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?
A. 172.16.0.0
B. 172.16.156.0
C. 172.16.128.0
D. 172.16.159.0
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 183
Tom works as a network technician for the P4S company. He is tasked to design a small network with redundancy according to the exhibit below which presents this design with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions could be drawn from this design?

A. The connection between switches should be a trunk.
B. This design will function as intended.
C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.
D. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 184
The P4S company has required a 300-workstation expansion of its network. These workstations will be
installed in a single broadcast domain. However, each workstation needs to have its own
collision domain. The expansion will be as cost-effective as possible while still satisfying the requirements.
Which three options can correctly fulfill the request? (Choose three).

A. one IP subnet with a mask of 255.255.254.0
B. seven 48-port hubs
C. seven 48-port switches
D. one router interface
Correct Answer: ACD

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QUESTION 86
One of the following attack is characterized by a flood of packets that are requesting a TCP connection to a server. Which is it?
A. brute force
B. Trojan horse
C. reconnaissance
D. denial of service
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 87
Match the corresponding command and configuration task. (Not all options are used.)
1.
login password certways1

2.
enable password certways2

3.
enable secret certways4

4.
service password-encryption

5.
line vty 0 4 password certways5

6.
line console 0 password certways3

A. encrypt all clear text passwords II.protect access to the user mode prompt III.set privileged mode encrypted password IV.set password to allow Telnet connections
B. set privileged mode clear text password
C. I-4,II-3,III-5,IV-2,V-6
D. I-4,II-5,III-3,IV-2,V-6
E. I-4,II-6,III-3,IV-5,V-2
F. I-4,II-6,III-5,IV-3,V-2
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 88
You need to create a security plan for the certways network. What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 89
Topic – Implement and verify WAN links.
Describe different methods for connecting to a WAN Configure and verify a basic WAN serial connection A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 90
Two of the following statements correctly describe the following network. What are them? (Choose two.)

A. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are seven collision domains in the network.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 91
You need to create a security plan for the certways network. What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. 64 Kbit/sec
B. 32 Kbit/sec
C. 512 Kbit/sec
D. 128 Kbit/sec
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 92
Look at the following exhibit. You are a network administrator for certways. You are configuring P4S-R to connect to a non-Cisco network. Which two commands would be applied to the S0/0 WAN interface, but not to the Fa0/0 LAN interface? (Choose two.)

A. ip address
B. no shutdown
C. encapsulation ppp
D. authentication pap
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 93
Look at the following exhibit. You are a network administrator for certways.You want to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown. What kind of cable should be used?

A. 1 – Ethernet crossover cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – fiber optic cable
4 – rollover cable

B. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
C. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
D. 1 – Ethernet rollover cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – null modem cable
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 94
Which of the following are included WAN data link encapsulation types? (Choose two.)
A. DSL
B. T1
C. PPP
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 95
Which item gives the correct relationship between WAN connection technology and the associated communication link type? 1.PSTN 2.ATM 3.Leased Line 4.Frame Relay
A. Point to Point II.Circuit Switched III.Packet Switched IV.Cell Switched
B. I-3;II-1;III-4;IV-2
C. I-3;II-2;III-1;IV-4
D. I-3;II-1;III-2;IV-4
E. I-3;II-2;III-4;IV-1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 96
Part of the certways WAN is shown below:
Two buildings on the Los Angeles campus of a small company must be connected to use Ethernet with a
bandwidth of at least 100 Mbps. The company is concerned about possible problems from voltage
potential differences between the two buildings. Which media type should be used for the connection?

A. coaxial cable
B. UTP cable
C. STP cable
D. fiber optic cable
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 97
For the following items, which signaling standard is in charge of managing the connection and maintaining status between the router and the local Frame Relay switch?
A. CIR
B. DLCI
C. FECN
D. LMI
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 98
John works as a network administrator. It is difficult for him to establish a serial link between a Cisco router
and a router from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation.
Which two options are correct about this configuration? (Choose two.)

A. The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary “Type” field that may not be compatible with equipment of other vendors.
B. Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link
C. PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.
D. HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 99
Which two characteristics belong to a Frame Relay point-to-point subinterface? (Choose two.)
A. requires the frame-relay map command
B. resolves NBMA split horizon issues
C. maps one IP subnet across multiple DLCIs
D. maps one IP subnet per DLCI
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 100
Examine the following technologies, which one will you use when a router connected to a LAN has only one WAN interface, but multiple virtual circuits are needed?
A. DSL
B. ADSL
C. Cable
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 101
Host P4S-F sends out an ARP request to begin communicating with the server. How do you think the devices in the topology will respond to this request?

A. Router P4S-SFX will forward the ARP request to the ILM router.
B. The P4S-ILM router will respond with the IP address of the WWW server.
C. Router P4S-SFX will respond with the MAC address of its Fa0/0 interface.
D. Switch P4S-SWB will block the request since the server is not on the LAN.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 102
As a network administrator, you will need to decide on the appropriate network devices to use. Which of the following correctly describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
C. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 103
The certways WAN connection is shown below:
Based on this diagram shown above, which two devices can be used to complete the connection between
the WAN router at the customer site and the service provider? (Choose two.)

A. multiplexer
B. ATM switch
C. CSU/DSU
D. modem
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 104
Topic – Describe the operation of data networks.
Describe the purpose and functions of various network devices Select the components required to meet a given network specification Use the OSI and TCP/IP models and their associated protocols to explain how data flows in a network Describe common networking applications including web applications Describe the purpose and basic operation of the protocols in the OSI and TCP models Describe the impact of applications (Voice Over IP and Video Over IP) on a network Interpret network diagrams Determine the path between two hosts across a network Describe the components required for network and Internet communications Identify and correct common network problems at layers 1, 2, 3 and 7 using a layered model approach Differentiate between LAN/WAN operation and features
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 105
Host P4S-F, which needs to build the packet, has received the ARP reply. Two of the following information will be placed in the header of the packet that leaves host P4S-F if host P4S-F is to communicate with the WWW server. What is it? (Choose two)

A. The source address will be the IP address of host P4S-F.
B. The destination address will be the IP address of the WWW server.
C. The destination address will be the IP address of interface Fa0/0 of router P4S-SFX.
D. The destination address will be the IP address of interface Fa0/0 of the P4S-ILM router.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 106
As it is shown in the exhibit, two World Wide Web documents from the WWW server Host are displayed by P4S-F in two browser windows at the same time. How did the data find its way to the correct browser windows?

A. The browsers track the data by the URL.
B. TCP port numbers are used to direct the data to the correct application window.
C. The OSI application layer tracks the conversations and directs them to the correct brower.
D. The IP source addresses of the packets will be used to direct the data to the correct browser window.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 107
You work in a medium-sized company .The network performance of your company has slowed to the point that users are complaining. In order to resolve this problem, You are asked to determine what the users might be doing to cause the slowdown. Which two types of network services or applications most likely cause slowdown? (Choose two.)
A. social networking web sites
B. blogs and other online browsing
C. PC-based VoIP services
D. online video sites
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 108
Before a workstation is able to exchange HTTP packets with a web server, what must occur?
A. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 109
Look at the following exhibit. Connection problems are reported in the internetwork. By the output from P4S-HostA, what is the problem indicated?

A. The routing on P4S-R2 is not functioning properly.
B. The gateway address of P4S-HostA is incorrect or not configured.
C. The Fa0/24 interface of P4S-S1 is down.
D. An access list is applied to an interface of P4S-R3.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 110
Choose from the following three that are found in a TCP header, but not in a UDP header? (Choose three.)
A. window size
B. destination port
C. sequence number
D. acknowledgment number
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 111
Match the corresponding commands and functions. (Not all options are used.) 1.ping 10.0.0.1 2.ping 127.0.0.1 3.tracert 4.ipconfig/all 5.arp -a 6.telnet
A. displays PC network configuration
II. displays the list of routers on a path to a network destination III.tests VTY configuration
IV. tests TCP/IP protocol stack
B. displays IP to MAC address mappings on a Windows PC
C. I-4,II-3,III-6,IV-2,V-5
D. I-4,II-3,III-1,IV-6,V-5
E. I-4,II-3,III-6,IV-5,V-2
F. I-4,II-3,III-5,IV-6,V-2
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 112
Choose from the following two advantages of Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs. (Choose two.)
A. filtering frames based on MAC addresses
B. increasing the size of broadcast domains
C. decreasing the number of collision domains
D. allowing simultaneous frame transmissions
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 113
Data is divided into smaller pieces for transmission when files are transferred between a host and an FTP server. After these pieces reach the destination host, they should be reassembled to reconstruct the original file. What is used for the reassembly of these pieces into the correct order?
A. the TTL in the IP header
B. the sequence number in the TCP header
C. the Start Frame Delimiter in the 802.3 Preamble
D. the frame check sequence in the Ethernet frame trailer
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 114
On the basis of the exhibit below. After adding host A to the network, Host A is unable to communicate on
the network. A ping issued on the host to address 127.0.0.1 fails.
What is the problem?

A. The remote host at 127.0.0.1 is unreachable.
B. The default gateway is incorrect.
C. The IP address of host A is incorrect.
D. The TCP/IP protocols are not loaded.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 115
Attaching an Ethernet cable to a PC NIC and then attaching to a switch port. The PC power is turned on and the switch port link LED becomes green. Which two conditions does the link light indicate? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 communication has been established between the PC and switch.
B. Traffic is being sent from the switch to the PC.
C. If flashing, the green LED indicates port speed of 100 Mb/s.
D. The Layer 1 media is functioning between the PC and switch.
Correct Answer: AD
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Exam A QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit . Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?

A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role? A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reasons that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root

Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 7
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
A. discarding
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. disabled
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 10
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
What is one benefit of PVST+?
A. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
B. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.
D. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
What are three characteristics of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. It converges quickly.
B. OSPF is a classful routing protocol.
C. It uses cost to determine the best route.
D. It uses the DUAL algorithm to determine the best route.
E. OSPF routers send the complete routing table to all directly attached routers.
F. OSPF routers discover neighbors before exchanging routing information.
Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 13
Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?
A. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.
B. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
C. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
D. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
A. Bandwidth
B. Bandwidth and Delay C. Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)
A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C. Successor routes are flagged as ‘active’ in the routing table.
D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

The network associate is configuring OSPF on the Core router. All the connections to the branches should be participating in OSPF. The link to the ISP should NOT participate in OSPF and should only be advertised as the default route. What set of commands will properly configure the Core router?
A. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
B. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.13 0.0.0.242 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
C. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.16 0.0.0.15 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
D. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.32 0.0.0.31 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 18
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 16
D. unlimited

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 21
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.

Correct Answer: BG
QUESTION 22
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?
A. ipv6 local
B. ipv6 host
C. ipv6 unicast-routing
D. ipv6 neighbor

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
A router is running three routing processes: RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP, each configured with default characteristics. Each process learns a route to the same remote network. If there are no static routes to the destination and none of the routes were redistributed, which route will be placed in the IP routing table?
A. the route learned through EIGRP
B. the route learned through OSPF
C. the route learned through RIP
D. the route with the lowest metric
E. all three routes with the router load balancing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit.

Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?
A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.154.154.1
C. 172.16.5.1
D. 192.168.5.3

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router.

Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)
A. Corp-1
B. Corp-2
C. Corp-3
D. Corp-4
E. Branch-1
F. Branch-2

Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 26
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?
A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.

The network is converged. After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
A. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthernet 0/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
B. O 208.149.23.64 [110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
C. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
D. O 208.149.23.64 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
The following configuration is applied to a Layer 2 Switch: interface fastethernet 0/4 switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security mac-address 0000.1111.1111 switchport port-security maximum 2 swithcport port-security What is the result of the above configuration being applied to the switch?
A. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and up to two other hosts can connect to FastEthernet 0/4 simultaneously
B. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and one other host can connect to Fast Ethernet 0/4 simultaneously
C. Violating addresses are dropped and no record of the violation is kept
D. The switch can send an SNMP message to the network management station
E. The port is effectively shutdown

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.

Which of these correctly describes the results of port security violation of an unknown packet?
A. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; no SNMP or syslog messages
B. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; SNMP or syslog messages
C. port disabled; no SNMP or syslog messages
D. port disabled; SNMP or syslog messages

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit.

What three actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source MAC address arrives at the interface? (Select three.)
A. Send an SNMP trap.
B. Send a syslog message.
C. Increment the Security Violation counter.
D. Forward the traffic.
E. Write the MAC address to the startup-config.
F. Shut down the port.

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 33
A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
What does the frame-relay interface-dlci command configure?
A. local DLCI on the subinterface
B. remote DLCI on the main interface
C. remote DCLI on the subinterface
D. local DLCI on the main interface
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?
A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.
B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.
C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.
D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit.

What information about the interfaces on the Main_Campus router is true?
A. The LAN interfaces are configured on different subnets.
B. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is configured as a trunk.
C. The Layer 2 protocol of interface Serial 0/1 is NOT operational.
D. The router is a modular router with five FastEthernet interfaces.
E. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is administratively deactivated.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit.

C-router is to be used as a “router-on-a-stick” to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration?
A. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router eigrp 123 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
B. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router ospf 1 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
C. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router rip C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
D. No further routing configuration is required.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit.

Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In addition, assume that OSPF has been correctly configured on router R2. How will the default route configured on R1 affect the operation of R2?
A. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be dropped.
B. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately.
C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately because of the lack of a gateway on R1.
D. The networks directly connected to router R2 will not be able to communicate with the 172.16.100.0, 172.16.100.128, and 172.16.100.64 subnetworks.
E. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit.

Assume that all of the router interfaces are operational and configured correctly. How will router R2 be affected by the configuration of R1 that is shown in the exhibit?
A. Router R2 will not form a neighbor relationship with R1.
B. Router R2 will obtain a full routing table, including a default route, from R1.
C. R2 will obtain OSPF updates from R1, but will not obtain a default route from R1.
D. R2 will not have a route for the directly connected serial network, but all other directly connected networks will be present, as well as the two Ethernet networks connected to R1.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 41
Refer to the exhibit.

The show interfaces serial 0/1 command was issued on the R10-1 router. Based on the output displayed which statement is correct?
A. The cable connected to the serial 0/1 interface of the R10-1 router is a DTE cable.
B. The R10-1 router can ping the router interface connected to the serial 0/1 interface.
C. The clock rate used for interface serial 0/1 of the R10-1 router is 1,544,000 bits per second.
D. The CSU used with the serial 0/1 interface of the R10-1 router has lost connection to the service provider.
E. The interface of the remote router connected to the serial 0/1 interface of the R10-1 router is using the default serial interface encapsulation.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 42
Refer to the exhibit.

RTA is configured with a basic configuration. The link between the two routers is operational and no routing protocols are configured on either router. The line shown in the exhibit is then added to router RTA . Should interface Fa0/0 on router RTB shut down, what effect will the shutdown have on router RTA?
A. A route to 172.16.14.0/24 will remain in the RTA routing table.
B. A packet to host 172.16.14.225 will be dropped by router RTA
C. Router RTA will send an ICMP packet to attempt to verify the route.
D. Because router RTB will send a poison reverse packet to router RTA, RTA will remove the route.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.
B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 44
The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows “PVC STATUS = INACTIVE”. What does this mean?
A. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected for more than five minutes.
B. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address of the remote router.
C. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger a call to the remote router.
D. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC
E. The PVC is not configured on the local switch.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit.

Hosts in network 192.168.2.0 are unable to reach hosts in network 192.168.3.0. Based on the output from RouterA, what are two possible reasons for the failure? (Choose two.)
A. The cable that is connected to S0/0 on RouterA is faulty.
B. Interface S0/0 on RouterB is administratively down.
C. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is configured with an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The IP address that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB is not in the correct subnet.
E. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU.
F. The encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB does not match the encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterA

Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit.

The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit.

When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?
A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers
B. Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected
C. The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C
D. Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48
Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?
A. converged
B. redundant
C. provisioned
D. spanned

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 49
What command is used to verify the DLCI destination address in a Frame Relay static configuration?
A. show frame-relay pvc
B. show frame-relay lmi
C. show frame-relay map
D. show frame relay end-to-end

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 50
Refer to the exhibit.

A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Sw11 as an access link in VLAN 1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on Sw12, what will be the result of making this change on Sw11?
A. Only the hosts in VLAN 1 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
B. The hosts in all VLANs on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
C. Only the hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 15 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
D. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Refer to the exhibit.

What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-if)# no shut down
B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# no shut down Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0
D. Switch1(config)# vlan database Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 52
Refer to the exhibit.

How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?
A. The router will drop the packet.
B. The router will return the packet to its source.
C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2.
D. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 53
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.

Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 54
What is the advantage of using a multipoint interface instead of point-to-point subinterfaces when configuring a Frame Relay hub in a hub-and-spoke topology?
A. It avoids split-horizon issues with distance vector routing protocols.
B. IP addresses can be conserved if VLSM is not being used for subnetting.
C. A multipoint interface offers greater security compared to point-to-point subinterface configurations.
D. The multiple IP network addresses required for a multipoint interface provide greater addressing flexibility over point-to-point configurations.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
Which two statistics appear in show frame-relay map output? (Choose two.)
A. the number of BECN packets that are received by the router
B. the value of the local DLCI
C. the number of FECN packets that are received by the router
D. the status of the PVC that is configured on the router
E. the IP address of the local router

Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 51
Which description is correct about the operational state of the FastEthernet 0/0 interface on the basis of the exhibit below?

A. The interface is generating protocol errors.
B. The interface has failed because of a media error.
C. The interface is operational and currently handling traffic.
D. The interface requires a no shutdown command to be issued.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
Two certways routers are connected as shown below:
certways1 configuration exhibit:
certways2 configuration exhibit:
Two routers named certways1 and certways2 are connected by their serial interfaces as shown in the
exhibit, but there is no data connectivity between them. The certways1 router is known to have a correct
configuration. Given the partial configurations shown in the exhibit, what is the problem on the certways2
router that is causing the lack of connectivity?

A. A loopback is not set.
B. The IP address is incorrect.
C. The subnet mask is incorrect.
D. The serial line encapsulations are incompatible.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
You work as a network technician at P4S. Please study the exhibit carefully.
The router console screen is rapidly displaying line after line of output similar to what is shown in the
exhibit. The help desk has called to say that users are reporting a slowdown in the network. What will solve
this problem while not interrupting network operation?
A. Enter the no debug all command.
B. Save the configuration and reboot the router.
C. Press the CTRL+C keys.
D. Use the show processes command.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
According to the exhibit below. Information about P4S-RA, including platform and IP addresses, should not be accessible from the Internet due to security reasons. However, this information needs to be accessible to devices on the internal networks of P4S-RA. Which command or series of commands will achieve these goals?

A. P4S-RA(config)#no cdp enable
B. P4S-RA(config)#interface s0/0 P4S-RA(config-if)#no cdp run
C. P4S-RA(config)#no cdp run
D. P4S-RA(config)#interface s0/0 P4S-RA(config-if)#no cdp enable
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
Which will be the result of adding this command to a router already configured for dynamic routing? ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
A. It configures the router to block routing updates from being sent to IP address 192.168.1.2.
B. It configures the router to drop all packets for which the destination network is unknown.
C. It configures the router as a firewall, blocking all packets from IP address 192.168.1.2.
D. It configures the router to send all packets to IP address 192.168.1.2 if the packets match no other entry in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Look at the picture: A.

B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 57
Look at the following exhibit. You are a network administrator for certways. You need to install a network device in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. To meet the minimum requirements for this installation, which network device and interface configuration would you use?

A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
You are a network technician for certways Ltd. Study the graphic carefully, you are tasked to connect a Cisco router to a Catalyst switch as displayed and you are also working on a computer connected to the management console of the switch. In order to configure the default gateway for the switch, you should learn the IP address of the attached router interface. Which IOS command will provide this information in the absence of Layer 3 connectivity?

A. ping switch_ip_address
B. show ip rarp
C. ping router_ip_address
D. show cdp neighbors detail
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
Which command would configure a default route to any destination network not found in the routing table?
A. P4S-R(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 s0
B. P4S-R(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 s0
C. P4S-R(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 s0
D. P4S-R(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
According to the exhibit below. P4S-PC1 pings P4S-PC2. Which three things will P4S-CORE router do with the data received from P4S-PC1? (Choose three.)

A. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet0/1 of P4S-CORE router.
B. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of P4S-CORE router
C. P4S-CORE router will place the MAC address of P4S-PC2 in the destination MAC address of the frames.
D. P4S-CORE router will put the MAC address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source MAC address.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 61
According to the exhibit below. Configuring P4S-R1 and P4S-R3 with RIPv2. What are the minimum network commands required on P4S-R2 for all networks to converge?

A. (config-router)# network 192.168.0.0
B. (config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 (config-router)# network 192.168.1.0
C. config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 (config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 (config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
D. (config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 (config-router)# network 192.168.3.0 (config-router)# network 192.168.4.0
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 20 was performed on a router. No
routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router.
Which statement
best describes this command?

A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.190 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The number 20 indicates the number of hops to the destination network.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
What does the address 192.168.2.167 stand for on the basis of the following exhibit?

A. the router from which the file startup-config is being transferred
B. the TFTP server from which the file router-confg is being transferred
C. the TFTP server from which the file startup-config is being transferred
D. the TFTP server to which the file router-confg is being transferred
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
Tom is a network technician for the P4S company. Observe the exhibit carefully. He is trying to use
HyperTerminal to configure a new router by use of the settings presented.
Why Tom can’t
connect to the router?
A. The bits per second should be set to 9600.
B. Parity should be set to mark.
C. The stop bits should be set to 2.
D. The data bits should be set to 6.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
There are three locations in a school district of a large city: P4S-M, P4S-W and P4S-U. The network connection between two of these locations has already functioned. Configure the P4S-M router IP addresses on the E0 and S0 interfaces so that the E0 receives the first usable subnet while the S0 receives the second usable subnet from the network 192.168.160.0/28. Both interfaces would receive the last available IP address on the proper subnet.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 66
Look at the following exhibit. You are a technician for certways. The configurations in the exhibit are pasted into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. You cannot ping from P4S-Host1 to P4S-Host2, but you can ping the S0/0 interface of P4S-R2 from P4S-Host1. You have verified the configurations of the hosts and they are correct. What caused the problem?

A. The serial cable on P4S-R1 needs to be replaced.
B. P4S-R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
C. The interfaces on P4S-R2 are not configured properly.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
Topic – Explain and select the appropriate administrative tasks required for a WLAN.
Describe standards associated with wireless media (including: IEEE WI-FI Alliance, ITU/FCC)
Identify and describe the purpose of the components in a small wireless network. (including: SSID, BSS,
ESS)
Identify the basic parameters to configure on a wireless network to ensure that devices connect to the
correct access point
Compare and contrast wireless security features and capabilities of WPA security (including: open, WEP,
WPA-1/2)
Identify common issues with implementing wireless networks Answer & Explanation

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 68
The protocol that provides the information displayed by the show cdp neighbors command may operate at a layer of the OSI model. Which level is it?
A. network
B. physical
C. transport
D. data link
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 69
In an effort to increase security within the certways wireless network, WPA is being utilized. Which two statements shown below best describe the wireless security standard that is defined by WPA? (Choose two)
A. It specifies use of a static encryption key that must be changed frequently to enhance security.
B. It requires use of an open authentication method.
C. It specifies the use of dynamic encryption keys that change each time a client establishes a connection.
D. It includes authentication by PSK.
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 70
You work as a network technician for certways and are responsible for this network. And you have chosen WPA over WEP in their wireless network. What is one reason why WPA encryption is preferred over WEP in this network?
A. WPA key values remain the same until the client configuration is changed.
B. A WPA key is longer and requires more special characters than the WEP key.
C. The access point and the client are manually configured with different WPA key values.
D. The values of WPA keys can change dynamically while the system is used.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 71
While moving from one access point to another, which wireless LAN design ensures that a mobile wireless client would not lose connectivity?
A. configuring all access points to use the same channel
B. recommended overlap in cell coverage is 15 to 20%
C. utilizing MAC address filtering to allow the client MAC address to authenticate with the surrounding APs
D. using adapters and access points manufactured by the same company
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 72
The Wi-Fi logo is a registered mark of the Wi-Fi Alliance. When the Wi-Fi logo appears on a wireless access point or client adapter, which two of these does it signify? (Choose two.)
A. The Wi-Fi Alliance has tested this device and determined that it meets IEEE WLAN standards.
B. The access point or client adapter has been manufactured by the Wireless Fidelity company.
C. The manufacturer of the equipment has paid the Wi-Fi Alliance to market its products.
D. The Wi-Fi Alliance has verified that the device can interoperate with other devices using the same standards.
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 73
As the certways network administrator, you need to troubleshoot an interference issue with the certways wireless LAN. Which two devices can interfere with the operation of this network because they operate on similar frequencies? (choose two)
A. AM radio
B. microwave oven
C. toaster
D. cordless phone
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 74
Install and configure three access points to cover a small office. Which one of the following terms defines the wireless topology?
A. BSS
B. IBSS
C. ESS
D. SSID
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 75
You are a network technician. You have just installed a single 802.11g access point in the center of a square office. Some wireless users come across slow performance and drops when most users are operating at peak efficiency. Which three items most likely cause this problem? (Choose three.)
A. mismatched TKIP encryption
B. cordless phones
C. metal file cabinets
D. antenna type or direction
Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 76
Which encryption type will be used by WPA2?
A. AES-CCMP
B. PSK
C. TKIP/MIC
D. PPK via IV
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 77
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the WLAN diagram? (Choose two.)

A. The area of overlap of the two cells represents a basic service set (BSS).
B. The network diagram represents an extended service set (ESS).
C. Access points in each cell must be configured to use channel 1.
D. The two APs should be configured to operate on different channels.
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 78
Assuming that you are a network technician, can you tell me which two practices help secure the configuration utilities on wireless access points from unauthorized access? (Choose two.)
A. assigning a private IP address to the AP
B. changing the default SSID value
C. configuring a new administrator password
D. changing the mixed mode setting to single mode
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 79
Which protocol will be used by a network host to resolve a destination IPv4 address to a destination MAC address?
A. ARP
B. RARP
C. DHCP
D. DNS
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 80
Topic – Identify security threats to a network and describe general methods to mitigate those threats.
Explain today’s increasing network security threats and the need to implement a comprehensive security policy to mitigate the threats
Explain general methods to mitigate common security threats to network devices, hosts, and applications Describe the functions of common security appliances and applications Describe security recommended practices including initial steps to secure network devices
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 81
As a network administrator, you would configure port security on a switch. Why?
A. in order to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
B. in order to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
C. in order to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
D. in order to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
What objective does an IDS accomplish?
A. hide the private IP addressing structure from outside attackers
B. perform stateful firewall functions
C. detect malicious traffic and send alerts to a management station
D. block suspicious network activity from entering the network
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 83
The certways administrator is concerned with enhancing network security. To do this, what are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside security threats on the network?(Choose two.)
A. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 84
Choose from the following the effect of using the service password-encryption command.
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
C. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
D. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
To protect network device configuration files from outside network security threats, what should you do? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
D. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
Correct Answer: BC

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QUESTION 50
Part of the configuration of router TT 1 is shown below: Exhibit

What is the effect of the configuration shown above on router TT 1 ?
A. It configures SSH globally for all logins.
B. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSH connection first and if that fails to use Telnet.
C. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
D. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the virtual terminal ports.
E. It allows seven failed login aTT empts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.
F. None of the above.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
You need to make changes to a new Troytec router. By which prompt is the global configuration mode on this router identified?
A. Router(config-line)#
B. Router(config-router)#
C. Router#
D. Router(config)#
E. Router>
F. Router(config-if)#
G. None of the above

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
You need to configure a new Cisco router for remote access on the Troytec network. How many simultaneous telnet sessions does this Cisco router support by default?
A. 4
B. 2
C. 5
D. 1
E. 6
F. 0
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
The interface status of a Troytec router is shown below:
Exhibit The result of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command is displayed in the exhibit. What command should be executed to make this interface operational?

A. Troytec C(config-if)# enable
B. Troytec C(config-if)# no keepalive
C. Troytec C(config-if)# encapsulation pop
D. Troytec C(config-if)# no shutdown
E. Troytec C(config-if)# clock rate 56000
F. Troytec C(config-if)# line protocol up

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
Which of the following commands displays the configurable parameters and statistics of all interfaces on a router?
A. show interfaces
B. show processes
C. show running-config
D. show versions
E. show startup-config
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 55
The following was seen on a Troytec router in Huntsville:
Exhibit Refer to the router output shown in the graphic. What can be assumed about the network attached to this router interface?

A. The network hosts are attached to a hub.
B. The interface is being used at near maximum capacity.
C. There should never be any collisions in this network.
D. The network has an excessive number of errors.
E. The network is using an unusual Ethernet encapsulation.
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 56
Refer to the output of the three Troytec router commands shown in the exhibit. A new technician has been told to add a new LAN to the company router. Why has the technician received the error message that is shown following the last command?
Exhibit A. The command was entered from the wrong prompt.

B. The router does not support LAN interfaces that use Ethernet.
C. The interface was already configured.
D. The IOS software loaded on the router is outdated.
E. The interface type does not exist on this router platform.
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 57
: In the Troytec router below, serial0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet0/0 LAN.
Exhibit

Based on the information above, how can this problem be corrected?
A. Correct the IP address for interface Serial 0/0.
B. Change the encapsulation type on interface Serial 0/0.
C. Correct the IP address for interface FastEthernet 0/0.
D. Enable auto configuration on the Serial 0/0 interface.
E. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 58
An administrator issues the show ip interface s0/0 command and the output displays that interface Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is up What does “line protocol is up” specifically indicate about the interface?
A. The cable is attached properly.
B. CDP has discovered the connected device.
C. Keepalives are being received on the interface.
D. A carrier detect signal has been received from the connected device.
E. IP is correctly configured on the interface.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
You need to configure the interfaces on a new Troytec router, but first you need to enter the global configuration mode. Which command is used on router Troytec 3 to reach this mode?
A. Troytec 3# router
B. Troytec 3# setup
C. Troytec 3# interface
D. Troytec 3> enable
E. Troytec 3# configure terminal

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 60
In the network shown below, The Troytec technician is testing connection problems. What is the problem indicated by the output from HostA?
Exhibit A. The gateway address of HostA is incorrect or not configured.

B. An access list is applied to an interface of Troytec 3.
C. The routing on Troytec 2 is not functioning properly.
D. The Fa0/24 interface of Switch1 is down.
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
Regarding the extended ping command; which of the statements below are true? (Select all valid answer choices)
A. The extended ping command is supported from user EXEC mode.
B. The extended ping command is available from privileged EXEC mode.
C. With the extended ping command you can specify the TCP and UDP port to be pinged.
D. With the extended ping command you can specify the timeout value.
E. With the extended ping command you can specify the datagram size.

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 62
When you use the ping command to send ICMP messages across a network, what’s the most common request/reply pair you’ll see? (Select one answer choice)
A. Echo request and Echo reply
B. ICMP hold and ICMP send
C. ICMP request and ICMP reply
D. Echo off and Echo on
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 63
Part of the Troytec network is shown below: Exhibit

Ping exhibit: Exhibit

Tracert exhibit: Exhibit

You work as a network technician at Troytec .com. You are testing connection problems in the network and your PC (host Troytec A) has provided the output shown above. What is the problem indicated by this output?
A. The routing on Router Troytec 2 is not functioning properly.
B. The Fa0/24 interface of Switch Troytec 4 is down.
C. An access list is applied to an interface of Router Troytec 3.
D. The gateway address of Host Troytec A is incorrect or not configured.
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
Network Topology Exhibit:

Troytec 1 configuration exhibit: Exhibit

Troytec 2 configuration exhibit: Exhibit

You need to ensure connectivity between two new Troytec offices. You apply the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers Troytec 1 and Troytec 2. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host Troytec A to Host Troytec B fails, but you are able to ping the S0/0 interface of Troytec 2 from Host Troytec A. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What could be the cause of the problem?
A. The interfaces on Troytec 2 are not configured properly.
B. The serial cable on Troytec 1 needs to be replaced.
C. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
D. Router Troytec 1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
You need to configure a default route on a Troytec router. Which command will configure a default route on a router?
A. TT 1 (config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.0 10.1.1.1
B. TT 1 (config)# ip default-route 10.1.1.0
C. TT 1 (config)# ip default-gateway 10.1.1.0
D. TT 1 (config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
Static routing needs to be configured on router TT 1. In which situation would the use of a static route be appropriate?
A. To configure a route to the first Layer 3 device on the network segment.
B. To configure a route from an ISP router into a corporate network.
C. To configure a route when the administrative distance of the current routing protocol is too low.
D. To reach a network is more than 15 hops away.
E. To provide access to the Internet for enterprise hosts.
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
The Troytec network is shown below:
Exhibit Based on this information, which of the following will configure a static route on Router A to network 180.18.30.0/24 with an administrative distance of 90?

A. Router(config)# ip route 90 180.18.20.1 255.255.255.0 182.18.20.2
B. Router(config)# ip route 180.18.20.1 255.255.255.0 182.18.30.0 90
C. Router(config)# ip route 180.18.30.1 255.255.255.0 182.18.20.1 90
D. Router(config)# ip route 90 180.18.30.0 255.255.255.0 182.18.20.2
E. Router(config)# ip route 180.18.30.0 255.255.255.0 182.18.20.2 90

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 68
The network administrator of the Oregon router adds the following command to the router configuration: ip
route 192.168.12.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.12.1. What are the results of adding this command? (Choose
two.)
Exhibit:

Exhibit
A. Traffic for network 192.168.12.0 is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.
B. This route is automatically propagated throughout the entire network.
C. Traffic for all networks is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.
D. Traffic for network 172.16.12.0 is forwarded to the 192.168.12.0 network.
E. The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for 192.168.12.0.
F. The command establishes a static route.

Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 69
Which of the commands below can you use to configure a default route on router TT 1 ? (Select two answer choices)
A. TT 1 (config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 E0
B. TT 1 (config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 S0
C. TT 1 (config-interface)# ip route 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.21
D. TT 1 (config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.21
E. TT 1 (config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.21 255.255.255.255
F. TT 1 # ip default-network 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.21 255.255.255.255

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 70
Which of the following commands would you use to configure a default route to any destination NOT found in the routing table of router TT 1 ?
A. TT 1 (config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 s0
B. TT 1 (config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 s0
C. TT 1 (config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0
D. TT 1 (config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0
E. TT 1 (config)# ip route any any e0
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 71
The topology of the Troytec network is displayed below, along with the routing table of the Troytec 1 router:
Exhibit

172.17.22.0 172.31.5.0 Changes to the Troytec network were made, and now users on the Troytec 3 LAN are not able to connect to the Troytec 4 LAN. Based on the information above, what could be the reason for this?
A. The Fast Ethernet interface is disabled.
B. The neighbor relationship table is not updated.
C. A static route is configured incorrectly.
D. The routing table on Troytec 1 is not updated.
E. IP routing is not enabled.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 72
Some of the Troytec routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. The keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. The allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table.
E. They direct traffic from the Internet into corporate networks.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 73
You have just configured a static default route on router TT 1 . What is the purpose of a default route?
A. It is a route to be used when the routing protocol fails.
B. It is a route configured by an ISP that sends traffic into a corporate network.
C. It is a route used when a packet is destined for a remote network that is not listed in the routing table.
D. It is a route manually configured for a specific remote network for which a routing protocol is not configured.
E. It is used to send traffic to a stub network. F. None of the above

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 74
On router TT 1 the following configuration command was entered: ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 What is the result of adding this command to this router when it is already configured for dynamic routing?
A. It configures the router to block routing updates from being sent to IP address 192.168.1.2.
B. It configures the router to send all packets to IP address 192.168.1.2 if the packets match no other entry in the routing table.
C. It configures the router to drop all packets for which the destination network is unknown.
D. It configures the router to send all packets to IP address 192.168.1.2.
E. It configures the router as a firewall, blocking all packets from IP address 192.168.1.2.
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 75
If NVRAM in a Troytec router lacks boot system commands, where does this router look for the Cisco IOS by default?
A. ROM
B. RAM
C. Flash
D. Bootstrap
E. Startup-.config
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 76
When you power up a Troytec router; in what memory is the start-up configuration normally stored in?
A. RAM
B. ROM
C. FLASH
D. NVRAM
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 77
You are the administrator of the Troytec network and you have forgoTT en the password to one of your routers. After completing the password recovery procedure the router returned to its normal operation. The config-register was set back to the initial default value. What is this value?
A. 0x2112
B. 0x2104
C. 0x2102
D. 0x2142
E. 0x2100

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 78
You issued the following command on router Troytec 3: Exhibit

When upgrading the IOS image, you receive the exhibited error message shown above. Based on the information given, what could be the cause of this error?
A. The TFTP server is unreachable from the router.
B. The new IOS image is too large for the router flash memory.
C. The IOS image on the TFTP server is corrupt.
D. The new IOS image is not correct for this router platform.
E. There is not enough disk space on the TFTP server for the IOS image.
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 79
The relevant system information regarding a Troytec router is shown in the following display:
Exhibit

Refer to the partial Command output shown. Which two statements are correct regarding the router hardware? (Choose Two)
A. Total RAM Size is 32 KB.
B. Total RAM Size is 16384 KB (16 MB)
C. Total RAM Size is 65536 KB (64 MB)
D. FLASH Size is 32 KB.
E. FLASH Size is 16384 KB (16 MB)
F. FLASH Size is 65536 KB (64 MB)

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 80
Which is the correct fallback sequence for loading the Cisco IOS?
A. ROM, Flash, NVRAM
B. ROM, TFTP server, Flash
C. Flash, TFTP server, ROM
D. Flash, NVRAM, RAM

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 81
See the following exhibit below:
Exhibit

A router consistently loses its configuration each time it reboots. Given the output shown in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
A. The processor is overheating.
B. Configuration register is misconfigured.
C. There is no problem.
D. Cisco products are inferior compared to Nortel products. Migrate to Nortel instead.
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 82
A Cisco router has been configured, and the copy running-config startup-config command has been
issued. When the router is power cycled, the router prompts with:
“Would you like to enter the initial configuration dialog? [yes/no]” Why has this occurred?

A. There is an error in the router DRAM.
B. Te IOS image is corrupt.
C. The configuration register is set to 0x2142.
D. The TFTP server that contains the router configuration file is unreachable.
E. A boot system configuration command has placed the router into setup mode.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 83
What is the purpose of using the copy flash tftp command on a router?
A. To copy an IOS image to the router
B. To create a backup copy of the IOS
C. To move the IOS image from a server to the router
D. To backup the router configuration to a server

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 84
Refer to the following exhibit: Exhibit

The Troytec network administrator configures a new router and enters the copy startup- config running-config command on the router. He powers down the router and sets it up at a remote location. When the router starts, it enters the system configuration dialog as shown. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The network administrator failed to save the configuration.
B. The configuration register is set to 0x2100.
C. The boot system flash command is missing from the configuration.
D. The configuration register is set to 0x2102.
E. The router is configured with the boot system startup command.
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 85
Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two)
A. show running-config
B. show version
C. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router
D. the amount of available ROM
E. the amount of available flash and RAM memory
F. show processes

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 86
Drag and Drop You work as a network administrator at Troytec .com. Your boss, Mrs. Troytec , tells you to match the commands with the appropriate descriptions. One of the commands listed below will not be used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 87
Which of the commands below would you enter if you wanted to see the configuration register of your router?
A. show boot
B. show flash
C. show register
D. show version
E. show config
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 88
After logging into a router, you type in “enable” and then enter the correct password when prompted. What is the current router prompt symbol at this point?
A. >
B. #
C. ?
D. *
E. All of the above
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 89
In the Cisco IOS, what is the definition of a global command?
A. A command that can be entered in any configuration mode.
B. A command that supports all protocols.
C. A command that is implemented in all IOS versions.
D. A command that is set once and affects the entire router.
E. A command that is available in every release of IOS.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 90
Which of the following commands will display the name of the IOS image file being used in a Troytec router?
A. Router# show IOS
B. Router# show version
C. Router# show image
D. Router# show protocols
E. Router# show flash

Correct Answer: BE

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Exam A QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Drag the definition of the resource on the left to the media resource type on the right No1 all media resources are used.

Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations. Drag the definition of the resource on the left to the media resource type on the right No1 all media resources are useD.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

ActualTests.com
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 2 Cisco 642-446: Practice Exam Explanation: Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
QUESTION 2
Which three steps need to be performed on a third party SIP phone device when adding it to Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0? (Choose three.)
A. Select XML as the method to send the third party SIP phone its configuration file.
B. Add the MAC address of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server to the SIP phone ActualTests.com configuration.
C. Set the directory numbers to match the directory numbers configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. Set the digest user ID in the SIP device to match the digest user ID in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
E. Set the TLS user ID and password in the SIP phone to match the TLS user ID and password in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
F. Set the proxy address in the SIP phone to match the IP address or fully qualified domain name of Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 3 Cisco 642-446: Practice Exam

QUESTION 3
Which two gateway configuration statements are required in order to enable Cisco Unified Communications Manager to control a T1 PRI in an MGCP gateway? (Choose two.)
A. mgcp
B. ccm-manager config
C. pri-group configuration on the controller
D. mgcp call-agent pointing to tftp server
E. isdn 13-backhaulccm-manager on the serial interface
F. ccm-manager config server {TFTP ip_address}

Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
Click and drag the XML application service information field name on the left to its Answer: description on the right

ActualTests.com Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations. Click and drag the XML application service information field name on the left to its description on the right
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 4 Cisco 642-446: Practice Exam
QUESTION 5
If a service is currently deactivated, how can the service be reactivated from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability Control Center page?
A. by clicking on the radio button to the left of the service on the Control Center page
B. by selecting Cisco Unified CM Serviceability > Service Activation and then clicking on the radio button to the left of the service to activate it
C. by selecting Tools > Service Activation, selecting the Answer:server, and clicking on the radio button to the left of the service to activate it
D. by selecting Cisco Unified CM Serviceability > Tools, clicking on the radio button to the left of the service that needs to be activated, and then returning to the Control Center to activate the service

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 6
ActualTests.com
Which two of these media resources are available only in hardware? (Choose two.)

A. trans coding
B. audio conferencing
C. MTP
D. annunciator
E. MOH
F. voice termination

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 5 Cisco 642-446: Practice Exam

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Click and drag the MoH server parameter on the left to its description on the right. Not all parameters apply.

Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

ActualTests.com Explanation: “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 6 Cisco 642-446: Practice Exam
QUESTION 8
Which three steps are necessary in order to configure DHCP for phone support using the GUI in Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0? (Choose three.)
A. add the DHCP server IP address to the device pool
B. activate DHCP Monitor Service
C. add and configure the DHCP server
D. start the application on an external server
E. configure the DHCP subnet
F. download the DHCP server application from the plug-in page

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 9
Which two of these are characteristics of multicast music on hold? (Choose two.)
A. point-to-multipoint, two-way audio stream
B. separate audio stream for each connection
C. multiple audio streams that require multiple multicast IP addresses
D. support for allcodecs that are also supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers
E. conservation of system resources and bandwidth
F. the requirement that there always be a dedicated MOH server

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ActualTests.com

QUESTION 10
Which three determinations are possible when using the Presence feature in a Cisco Unified Communications network? (Choose three.)
A. Determine if an IP phone has been unplugged if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified
Communications cluster as the watcher.
B. Determine if an IP phone is on hook or off hook if the phone is outside the Cisco Unified Communications cluster of the watcher.
C. Determine if an IP phone is on hook or off hook if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
D. Determine if a set of IP phones is on hook or off hook if the phones are in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 7 Cisco 642-446: Practice Exam
E. Determine if an IP phone has been moved or the user has been changed if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
F. Determine if an IP phone has been off hook beyond a specified period of time if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Click and drag the function of the left to the type of barge that it indicates.

Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations. Click and drag the function of the left to the type of barge that it indicates.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

ActualTests.com Explanation: “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 8

Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
QUESTION 12
The Ajax Corporation is designing an IP telephony network using Cisco MCS 7845 Series servers, each one capable of supporting 7500 devices. The design must meet these requirements:
(1)
be cost-effective

(2)
support up to 7500 phones

(3)
provide a minimal level of redundancy
Which configuration will meet Ajax Corporation’s needs?
A. two Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers: ActualTests.com 1 publisher and TFTP server combined 1 primary subscriber
B. three Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers: 1 publisher and TFTP server combined 1 primary subscriber 1 backup subscriber
C. four Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers: 1 publisher 1 TFTP server 1 primary subscriber 1 backup subscriber
D. five Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers: 1 publisher “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 9 Cisco 642-446: Practice Exam 1 TFTP server 1 primary subscriber 2 backup subscribers

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Click and drag the hyperlink label on the left to the information it supplies on the right when a user browses to a Cisco Unified IP Phone 7970G. Not all labels will be used.

Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations. Click and drag the hyperlink label on the left to the information it supplies on the right when a user browses to a Cisco Unified IP Phone 7970G. Not all labels will be used.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation

ActualTests.com Explanation: “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 10

Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
QUESTION 14
What is one difference between Cisco inline power and 802.3af PoE?
A. Cisco inline power should only be activated for those ports that requirePoE to avoid oversubscription.
B. You must determine the total number of IP phones the switch can support with 802.3af to avoid oversubscription.
C. You must specify which set of pins the powered device is going to accept power on for 802.3af.
D. Cisco inline power provides a variable amount of power by using CDP.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 15
Which IP phone hardening technique will prevent call signaling and media stream tampering?
ActualTests.com
A. disable GARP
B. disable PC.to-voice VLAN access
C. use MIC firmware images signed by Cisco
D. store IP phone configuration files on the SFTP server
E. deploy authentication and encryption between IP phones and Cisco Unified Communications Manager

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 16
Which best describes the purpose of a Cisco Unity voice-mail profile?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 11 Cisco 642-446: Practice Exam
A. to determine whether to use the MWI on number and the MWI off number
B. to determine the number that is dialed when users press the Message button
C. to define voice-mail-related attributes
D. to assign a partition to any email-related number

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 17
A range of Meet-Me conference numbers is reserved for manager use. Which method can be used to restrict non-managers from accessing these Meet-Me numbers without limiting their ability to initiate ad hoc conferences?
A. Place the Meet-Me numbers in an MRGL that is only assigned to the managers’ phones.
B. Place the Meet-Me numbers in a partition that is only assigned to the CSS for the managers’ phones.
C. Place the conference bridge resource in an MRGL that is only assigned to the managers’ phones.
D. Place the conference bridge resource in a partition that is only assigned to the CSS for the managers’ phones.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 18
What is the minimum number of partitions that must be defined given the dial-plan rules listed below?
ActualTests.com All employees can call local and service numbers. Managers can call long-distance and international numbers. Executives can call all PSTN numbers including premium numbers. Only administrative assistants can call executives. Incoming calls can only be routed to phones, not to trunks.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7
F. 8

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 12 Cisco 642-446: Practice Exam
QUESTION 19
The Show menu in which navigation window will allow you to determine the model, type of processors, and total memory in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0 server?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability
C. Disaster Recovery System
D. Platform Administration
E. Cisco Unified Operating System Administration

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit. A call is placed from DN 5000 to DN 6999. The CSS for the call includes only the Branch 1 partition. After the translation pattern is applied, what are the called and calling numbers?

ActualTests.com
A. 6999, 5000
B. 14085556999, 5000
C. 6999, 19195555000
D. 5556999, 9195555000
E. 14085556999, 19195555000 “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 13 Cisco 642-446: Practice Exam

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 21
When using 802.3af inline power, what is the default power wattage that the Catalyst switch provides to an IP phone?
A. 0 watts
B. 4 watts
C. 7 watts
D. 15.4 watts

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 22
In reference to translation patterns, which three statements are Answer: ? (Choose three.)
A. Translation patterns can be used to change the CSS applied to a call.
B. Translation patterns can be used to modify the redirecting number.
C. Translation patterns can be used to modify the calling number.
D. After matching a translation pattern and performing digit transformations, the call is sent to the original called number.
E. Translation patterns cannot contain wildcards.
F. Translation patterns are always considered urgent priority.

Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ActualTests.com
QUESTION 23
Which three events describe the relationship of an IP phone to its secondary subscriber in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager system? (Choose three.)
A. The IP Phone sends a TCP connect message.
B. The IP Phone sends a TCP keep alive message every 30 seconds.
C. The IP Phone sends a TCP keep alive message every 60 seconds.
D. The IP Phone registers with the primary system when the secondary system is unavailable.
E. The IP Phone attempts to register with the secondary system when the primary system is unavailable.
F. The IP Phone registers with all the CiscoCisco Unified Communications Manager subscribers in the group simultaneously, including the secondary subscriber. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 14 Cisco 642-446: Practice Exam
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. You have six IP phones configured to use MRGL_CFB. Each phone is making a conference call. Which conference resource does the sixth conference use?

A. HW_CFB_1
B. HW_CFB_2
C. SW_CFB_1
D. SW_CFB_2
E. SW_CFB_3

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 25
DRAG DROP ActualTests.com Click and drag the type of access being controlled on the left to the account name on the right.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 15 Cisco 642-446: Practice Exam Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations. Click and drag the type of access being controlled on the left to the account name on the right.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

ActualTests.com Explanation: “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 16

Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. You have six IP phones making six conference calls. Which conference resource will Conference 4 use?

ActualTests.com
A. HW_CFB_1
B. HW_CFB_2
C. SW_CFB_1
D. SW_CFB_2
E. SW_CFB_3

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. You have six IP phones configured to use MRGL_CFB. There are currently five conferences in progress. What IP phone tries to initiate a conference?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 17 Cisco 642-446: Practice Exam

A. the conference will use SW_CFB_3 since it is the default and is not assigned to MRGL_CFB
B. the conference will be attempted until the MRGL timer expires
C. the first conference resource that becomes available will be used for conference 6
D. the conference will be rejected because there are no conference resources left

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 28
Which of these is a characteristic of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Bulk Administration Tool in Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Auto-Register Phone Tool is part of Bulk Administration.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager BAT needs to be installed from the plug-in page.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager BAT pages are available from the Serviceability page.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Auto-Register Phone Tool requires a Customer ActualTests.com Response System.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 29
You want to deploy a mixture of unicast and multicast MOH streams. You need to configure 12 multicast streams, each supporting two codecs. How many unicast streams can be configured, assuming 250 is the maximum number of MOH streams supported on your MOH server?
A. 204
B. 214 “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 18 Cisco 642-446: Practice Exam
C. 226
D. 250

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. What CSS should be assigned to a phone in the Phones partition to block calls to international numbers while allowing all other calls?
A. CSS B
B. CSS D
C. CSS C
D. CSS A

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 31
If a SIP phone has neither KPML nor a set of dial rules configured, how are digits sent to Cisco Unified Communications Manager for further processing?
A. the user must press the # key
B. the user must press the Dialsoftkey
C. the user must press theenbloc softkey
D. when the user finishes dialing, the digits will be sent automatically

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ActualTests.com
QUESTION 32
A single route pattern has been added to Cisco Unified Communications Manager to use the NANP. A route filter named Local_Only has been applied to limit calls to local and service numbers only. The Local_Only route filter includes the clause: (LOCAL-AREA. CODE EXISTS AND SERVICE EXISTS). After applying the Local_Only route filter, no calls to the PSTN can be completeD. What needs to be done to Answer: this issue?
A. Two separate route filters need to be applied to the route pattern, one for local calls and one for services.
B. The route pattern needs to be added twice, once with a route filter for local calls and once with a route filter for services. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 19 Cisco 642-446: Practice Exam
C. Route filters cannot be used to allow multiple call types. Specific route patterns for local calls and services need to be added.
D. The route filter clause should be changed to (LOCAL-AREA. CODE DOES-NOT-EXIST AND SERVICES DOES-NOT-EXIST) and the route pattern should be set to block calls. )
E. The route filter clause should be changed to (LOCAL-AREA. CODE EXISTS OR SERVICES EXISTS).

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 33
Which two of these accurately describe Cisco Unified Communications Manager users? (Choose two.)
A. associated with devices
B. cannot use LDAP
C. use interactive logins
D. not included in user directories
E. used to enable user features

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 34
Which two features are advantages of deploying a cluster over WAN? (Choose two.)
A. shared line appearances
B. centralized DSP resources
C. extension mobility within the cluster ActualTests.com
D. scalability up to 20 sites, if there is sufficient IP WAN bandwidth
E. failover to co-resident Cisco Unified Call Manager Express platforms

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 35
What is the process of digit matching?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager first performs a digit-by-digit analysis, looking for patterns that match the internal directory numbers. If no match is found, the dialed string is matched against the route patterns. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 20 Cisco 642-446: Practice Exam
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager collects all digits and compares them en bloc for patterns that match the internal directory numbers. If no match is found, the dialed string is matched against the route patterns.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager performs a digit-by-digit analysis, looking for patterns that match the internal directory numbers and ones that match the route patterns simultaneously.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager collects all digits and compares them en bloc for patterns that match the internal directory numbers and ones that match the route patterns simultaneously.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 36
Which two can be targets of a route pattern? (Choose two.)
A. gateway
B. gatekeeper “I
C. route group
D. route list
E. translation pattern
F. CTI Port

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit. What should be entered in the Name field when configuring Cisco Unified Communications Manager to control voice port T1 1/0/0 in BR2 GW? ActualTests.com
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 21 Cisco 642-446: Practice Exam

A. S0/[email protected]_GW
B. BR2_GW
C. 10.2.120.1
D. S0/[email protected]

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 38
What happens when you try to configure a fourth member of a Cisco Unified Communications Manager group?
A. The fourth member will be added to the sequential list.
B. The new member will replace the first member on the list. ActualTests.com
C. The new member will replace the last member on the list.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration will display an error message.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 39
Which three characteristics are used to determine which devices go into a device pool? (Choose three.)
A. Device type
B. Class of service “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 22 Cisco 642-446: Practice Exam
C. Geographic proximity
D. Extension mobility CSS
E. User hold MOH source
F. auto-registration CSS

Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 40
When a Cisco Unified Communications Manager group has its primary, secondary, and tertiary servers changed, how are those changes propagated to the IP phones registered to the group?
A. The IP phones will automatically register with the new primary server.
B. The IP phones will need to be reset so that a new configuration file can be downloaded from the TFTP server.
C. The primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager server automatically pushes a new configuration file to the IP phones in the affected device pool.
D. The device pools will need to be edited so that the new Cisco Unified Communications Manager group information is applied to the appropriate device pools.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 41
A dial peer is configured with an outgoing COR list. Which two conditions must be met for calls matching this outbound dial peer to be blocked? (Choose two.)
A. An incoming COR list must be configured on the matched inbound dial peer.
B. An incoming COR list must be configured on the matched outbound dial peer. ActualTests.com
C. The outgoing COR list must be a superset of the incoming COR list.
D. The incoming COR list and the outgoing COR list must contain the same members.
E. The outgoing COR list must be a subset of the incoming COR list.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 42
ABC Company has four locations total, all connected via an IP WAN. Each location has a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster, and the headquarters cluster is connected to all other clusters via inter cluster trunks. ABC wants to allow up to eight simultaneous calls across the IP WAN. To call between sites, an employee dials a 2-digit access code plus a 4-digit extension. If more than eight calls are made, or if the IP WAN is not available, calls should be sent to ABC “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” -www.actualtests.com 23 Cisco 642-446: Practice Exam
Company’s preferred long-distance carrier. If the trunk to the long-distance carrier is not available, the local provider should be used. The long-distance carrier requires 10 digits to complete a long- distance call. The local provider requires 11 digits to complete a long-distance call but only 7 digits for local calls.
What is the minimum number of route lists required at the headquarters location?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 43
Which three menu choices will open a window in which you can assign softkey templates? (Choose three.)
A. Device > Phone Configuration
B. Device > Device Settings > Device Profile
C. Service > Service Parameters
D. System > Device Defaults Configuration
E. System > Device Pool Configuration
F. System > Enterprise Parameters

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ActualTests.com
QUESTION 44
When an IP phone boots up, which mechanism provides the VLAN ID?
A. CDP
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. TFTP
E. Option 150

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 24 Cisco 642-446: Practice Exam
QUESTION 45
A Cisco Unified CM cluster is configured for LDAP Authentication. Which two statements regarding this integration are Answer: ? (Choose two.)
A. User passwords are configured and managed in LDAP.
B. User passwords are replicated to Cisco Unified Communications Manager database.
C. Users and their personal organization data must be configured in LDAP and are replicated to Cisco Unified Communications Manager database.
D. User authentication fails if the LDAP directory is not available.
E. LDAP synchronization is also configured, user authentication will be performed against the Cisco Unified Communications Manager database if the LDAP directory is not available.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which two steps are required to configure LDAP authentication? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the LDAP server type in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration.
B. Configure LDAP server addresses in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration.
C. Add a Cisco Unified Communications Manager directory user and assign administrator access rights to the user in the LDAP directory.
D. Configure a synchronization schedule.
E. Activate Cisco DirSync service.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which two statements regarding Cisco Unified Communications Manager user privileges are correct? (Choose two.)
A. A role can only be assigned to one user group.
B. An application can be referred to by only one role.
C. A resource is assigned one privilege per role.
D. A role refers to one or more applications.
E. A user can be a member of more than one user group.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
The Ajax Corporation is designing an IP telephony network using Cisco MCS 7845 Series servers, each one capable of supporting 7500 devices. The design must meet these requirements:
*
be cost-effective

*
support up to 7500 phones

*
provide a minimal level of redundancy Which configuration will meet Ajax Corporation’s needs?

A.
five Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers: 1 publisher 1 TFTP server 1 primary subscriber 2 backup subscribers

B.
four Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers: 1 publisher 1 TFTP server 1 primary subscriber 1 backup subscriber

C.
two Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers: 1 publisher and TFTP server combined 1 primary subscriber

D.
three Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers: 1 publisher and TFTP server combined 1 primary subscriber 1 backup subscriber
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Miss Certkiller, is interested in barge types. You are required to match the barge types with the appropriate functions.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 5
Network Topology Exhibit:

Exhibit:

You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully.
What should be entered in the Name field when configuring Cisco Unified Communications Manager to control voice port T1 1/0/0 in Certkiller 2?
A. 10.2.120.1
B. S0/[email protected]
C. S0/[email protected] Certkiller 2
D. Certkiller 2
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which two features are advantages of deploying a cluster over WAN? (Choose two.)
A. scalability up to 20 sites, if there is sufficient IP WAN bandwidth
B. failover to co-resident Cisco Unified CallManager Express platforms
C. extension mobility within the cluster
D. shared line appearances
E. centralized DSP resources
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which three steps must be completed in order to assign a service URL to an IP phone button? (Choose three.)
A. Assign the IP phone service partition to the CSS of the phone.
B. Subscribe the phone to the service.
C. Create a softkey template that includes a service URL and assign it to the phone.
D. Create a phone button template that includes a service URL and assign it to the phone.
E. Add an IP phone service.
F. Associate a valid user profile with the phone.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
A single route pattern has been added to Cisco Unified Communications Manager to use the NANP. A route filter named Local_Only has been applied to limit calls to local and service numbers only. The Local_Only route filter includes the clause: (LOCAL-AREA-CODE EXISTS AND SERVICE EXISTS). After applying the Local_Only route filter, no calls to the PSTN can be completed.
What needs to be done to correct this issue?
A. Two separate route filters need to be applied to the route pattern, one for local calls and one for services.
B. The route filter clause should be changed to (LOCAL-AREA-CODE DOES-NOT-EXIST AND SERVICES DOES-NOT-EXIST) and the route pattern should be set to block calls.
C. Route filters cannot be used to allow multiple call types. Specific route patterns for local calls and services need to be added.
D. The route pattern needs to be added twice, once with a route filter for local calls and once with a route filter for services.
E. The route filter clause should be changed to (LOCAL-AREA-CODE EXISTS OR SERVICES EXISTS).
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
What is one difference between Cisco inline power and 802.3af PoE?
A. You must determine the total number of IP phones the switch can support with 802.3af to avoid oversubscription.
B. Cisco inline power should only be activated for those ports that require PoE to avoid oversubscription.
C. Cisco inline power provides a variable amount of power by using CDP.
D. You must specify which set of pins the powered device is going to accept power on for 802.3af.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which three functions does the Master Agent perform? (Choose three.)
A. controls backup and restoration of the system
B. executes backup and restore tasks
C. interfaces with the DRS agent on the Administrator PC
D. stores DRS configuration
E. acts as a backup repository
F. communicates with archive devices
Correct Answer: ADF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
A range of Meet-Me conference numbers is reserved for manager use. Which method can be used to restrict non-managers from accessing these Meet-Me numbers without limiting their ability to initiate ad hoc conferences?
A. Place the conference bridge resource in a partition that is only assigned to the CSS for the managers’ phones.
B. Place the conference bridge resource in an MRGL that is only assigned to the managers’ phones.
C. Place the Meet-Me numbers in an MRGL that is only assigned to the managers’ phones.
D. Place the Meet-Me numbers in a partition that is only assigned to the CSS for the managers’ phones.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
A dial peer is configured with an outgoing COR list. Which two conditions must be met for calls matching this outbound dial peer to be blocked? (Choose two.)
A. The outgoing COR list must be a subset of the incoming COR list.
B. The outgoing COR list must be a superset of the incoming COR list.
C. The incoming COR list and the outgoing COR list must contain the same members.
D. An incoming COR list must be configured on the matched inbound dial peer.
E. An incoming COR list must be configured on the matched outbound dial peer.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
What is the correct procedure for implementing call coverage?
A. configure partitions, line groups, hunt lists, hunt pilot, directory numbers
B. configure partitions, directory numbers, hunt pilot, hunt list, line groups
C. configure directory numbers, partitions, hunt pilot, hunt list, line groups
D. configure partitions, directory numbers, line groups, hunt lists, hunt pilot
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
What is the process of digit matching?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager collects all digits and compares them en bloc for patterns that match the internal directory numbers and ones that match the route patterns simultaneously.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager collects all digits and compares them en bloc for patterns that match the internal directory numbers. If no match is found, the dialed string is matched against the route patterns.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager first performs a digit-by-digit analysis, looking for patterns that match the internal directory numbers. If no match is found, the dialed string is matched against the route patterns.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager performs a digit-by-digit analysis, looking for patterns that match the internal directory numbers and ones that match the route patterns simultaneously.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
DRAG DROP You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Miss Certkiller, is interested in Cisco Accounts. You are required to match the access types with the appropriate accounts.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which three steps must be completed in order to assign a service URL to an IP Phone button? (Choose three.)
A. Subscribe the phone to the service.
B. Associate a valid user profile with the phone.
C. Add an IP phone service.
D. Create a softkey template that includes a service URL and assign it to the phone.
E. Assign the IP phone service partition to the CSS of the phone.
F. Create a phone button template that includes a service URL and assign it to the phone.
Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
What is the minimum number of partitions that must be defined given the dial-plan rules listed below? All
employees can call local and service numbers.
Managers can call long-distance and international numbers.
Executives can call all PSTN numbers including premium numbers.
Only administrative assistants can call executives.
Incoming calls can only be routed to phones, not to trunks.

A. 6
B. 8
C. 7
D. 4
E. 3
F. 5

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which two of these media resources are available only in hardware? (Choose two.)
A. audio conferencing
B. MOH
C. annunciator
D. voice termination
E. MTP
F. transcoding

Correct Answer: DF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Exhibit:

You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully.
When Bob dials extension 5000, which phone will ring?
A. Phone C
B. Phone A
C. Phone D
D. Phone B

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which of these two route patterns will be matched if 99118855 is dialed with en bloc dialing enabled?
9.911 Urgent Priority Enabled 9.[2-9]XXXXXX
A. The 9.911 pattern will be dialed first and if the call is not successful, then the other potential match will be attempted.
B. 9.911 will always be matched because it is tagged as Urgent Priority.
C. 9.[2-9]XXXXXX will be matched first because en bloc dialing is being used. The Urgent Priority tag will be ignored in this case.
D. There will be a tie between the two route patterns, and a random selection will be made.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will not be able to determine which pattern to match. For this
reason, it will generate an annunciator message that the call cannot be completed as dialed.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Which three determinations are possible when using the Presence feature in a Cisco Unified Communications network? (Choose three.)
A. Determine if a set of IP phones is on hook or off hook if if the phones are in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
B. Determine if an IP phone is on hook or off hook if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
C. Determine if an IP phone is on hook or off hook if the phone is outside the Cisco Unified Communications cluster of the watcher.
D. Determine if an IP phone has been moved or the user has been changed if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
E. Determine if an IP phone has been unplugged if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
F. Determine if an IP phone has been off hook beyond a specified period of time if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
What are two reasons to use IP addresses instead of DNS in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster? (Choose two.)
A. makes IP address changes easier
B. reduces the number of potential sources of failure
C. improves IP address scalability
D. simplifies troubleshooting
E. simplifies management

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
Which two can be targets of a route pattern? (Choose two.)
A. gateway
B. gatekeeper
C. route list
D. translation pattern
E. route group
F. CTI Port

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
A user’s phone Call Forward No Answer setting has been configured to forward to a hunt pilot. If all call hunting options have been exhausted and the Forward Hunt No Answer feature has been configured to use Personal Preference settings, to which of these will calls to this phone be forwarded?
A. voice mail
B. any destination configured under the user’s DN Personal Settings configuration
C. the destination specified under the user’s Call Forward No Coverage settings
D. no other destination; each call will continue to ring until the caller hangs up
E. the default destination configured under Service Parameters

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
A Cisco Unified CM cluster is configured for LDAP Authentication. Which two statements regarding this integration are correct? (Choose two.)
A. If LDAP synchronization is also configured, user authentication will be performed against the Cisco Unified Communications Manager database if the LDAP directory is not available.
B. User passwords are replicated to Cisco Unified Communications Manager database.
C. User authentication fails if the LDAP directory is not available.
D. User passwords are configured and managed in LDAP.
E. Users and their personal organization data must be configured in LDAP and are replicated to Cisco Unified Communications Manager database.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
You want to deploy a mixture of unicast and multicast MOH streams. You need to configure 12 multicast streams, each supporting two codecs. How many unicast streams can be configured, assuming 250 is the maximum number of MOH streams supported on your MOH server?
A. 226
B. 250
C. 204
D. 214

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Which three steps are necessary in order to configure DHCP for phone support using the GUI in Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0? (Choose three.)
A. download the DHCP server application from the plug-in page
B. activate DHCP Monitor Service
C. configure the DHCP subnet
D. add and configure the DHCP server
E. start the application on an external server
F. add the DHCP server IP address to the device pool

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
When an IP phone boots up, which mechanism provides the VLAN ID?
A. CDP
B. DHCP
C. TFTP
D. Option 150
E. DNS

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
Which three menu choices will open a window in which you can assign softkey templates? (Choose three.)
A. System > Enterprise Parameters
B. System > Device Defaults Configuration
C. Service > Service Parameters
D. Device > Phone Configuration
E. System > Device Pool Configuration
F. Device > Device Settings > Device Profile

Correct Answer: DEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
Exhibit: You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully.

You have six IP phones configured to use MRGL_CFB. There are currently five conferences in progress. What will happen if the sixth IP phone tries to initiate a conference?
A. the conference will be rejected because there are no conference resources left
B. the conference will be attempted until the MRGL timer expires
C. the conference will use SW_CFB_3 since it is the default and is not assigned to MRGL_CFB
D. the first conference resource that becomes available will be used for conference 6

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Identify the VoIP network component that provides CAC, bandwidth control and management, and address translation.
A. MCU
B. Gatekeeper
C. Call agent
D. Gateway
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which two statements describe the purpose of the technology prefix? (Choose two.)
A. Technology prefixes are configured on gateways to indicate to the gatekeeper whether they support voice or video.
B. Technology prefixes must always be configured on gateways.
C. Technology prefixes are used to identify different types or classes of gateways.
D. Technology prefixes are prepended to the destination address by the gateway.
E. Technology prefixes have to be unique on each gateway.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which two of the following signaling protocols are peer-to-peer protocols? (Choose 2)
A. H.323
B. SCCP
C. SIP
D. MGCP
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which three headers are compressed by cRTP? (Choose 3)
A. TCP
B. IP
C. Data link
D. UDP
E. RTP
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
The partial configuration of a Cisco device of the PASSGUIDE company is shown as follows:
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-436

Which command will restore communication with gatekeeper functionality to this device on the basis of the example output?
A. h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr 1721622
B. gateway
C. h323-gateway voip h323-id GK1
D. h323-gateway voip GW1-zone2abc.com abc.com ipaddr 1721621
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which of the following best describes a function of RTCP?
A. RTCP uses even-numbered UDP ports in the range 16,384-32,767 to transport voice payloads.
B. RTCP caches an RTP packet’s Layer 3 and Layer 4 headers in the routers at each end of a link, resulting in lower bandwidth demand for subsequent RTP packets.
C. RTCP provides out-of-band control information for an RTP flow.
D. RTCP provides encryption, message authentication and integrity, and anti-replay service for voice streams.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions would be initiated by a UAS? (Choose two.)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-436

A. Contacts the user when a SIP invitation is received
B. Originates the REFER method to initiate call termination
C. Returns a response on behalf of the user to the invitation originator
D. Originates the INVITE method including a description of the session parameters
E. Originates the ACK method to indicate that it has received a response to an invitation
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which three of the following are appropriate solutions to address latency issues in a VoIP network? (Choose 3)
A. Use SRTP instead of RTP.
B. Increase bandwidth.
C. Use dejitter buffers.
D. Fragment data packets.
E. Prioritize voice packets.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
For the following options, which one is correct about the MGCP call agent?
A. monitors the quality of each call after setup
B. provides only call signaling and call setup
C. acts only as a recorder of call details
D. manages all aspects of the call and voice stream
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which two of the following VoIP gateway platforms are considered to be Integrated Services Routers (ISRs)? (Choose 2)
A. Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series
B. Cisco 2800 Series
C. Cisco 2600XM Series PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-436
D. Cisco 3800 Series
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
The Cisco Gatekeeper maintains a record of all active calls so that it can manage the bandwidth resources in its zone. Which statement is true about gatekeeper operation when the technology prefix is matched and the gatekeeper is using the technology prefix with hopoff?
A. The gatekeeper always forwards the call to the zone specified in the hopoff command.
B. The gatekeeper attempts to forward the call to the hopoff zone, but if this fails, it will forward the call to the zone specified in the zone prefix command.
C. The gatekeeper attempts to forward the call to the zone specified in the zone prefix command first, but if this fails, it will forward the call to the zone specified in the hopoff command.
D. The gatekeeper only forwards the call to the hopoff zone if the zone prefix does not match.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
In a Cisco UCM single-site deployment, what is the maximum number of IP phones that can register with a UCM cluster?
A. 10,000
B. 2500
C. 7500
D. 30,000
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
As a network technician for the PASSGUIDE Company, you are responsible for designing and maintaining VoIP network. The VoIP network topology of the PASSGUIDE company is displayed as follows:
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-436

On the basis of the exhibit presented. All IP phones are SCCP phones. Phone D makes an internal call to phone
A. Which call setup signaling statement is correct?
B. Phone D signals gateway A, which processes the call and signals phone G.
C. Phone D signals gateway B, which processes the call and signals phone G.
D. Phone D signals gatekeeper. The gatekeeper processes the call and signals phone G.
E. Phone D signals phone G directly. Call setup is handled by the phones.
F. Phone D signals the call agent. The call agent processes the call and signals phone G.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 14
In a Cisco UCM multisite WAN with centralized call-processing deployment model, what redundancy feature should be configured on remote site routers to provide basic IP telephony services in the event of a WAN outage?
A. CAC
B. SRST
C. V3PN
D. AAR
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
The VoIP network topology of the PASSGUIDE company is displayed as follows:
Refer to the exhibit. All IP phones use SCCP. Fax machine F calls fax machine J. Which call setup
signaling description is true?

PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams
PassGuide 642-436
A. Gateway A signals the gatekeeper. The gatekeeper processes the call and signals gateway B.
B. Gateway A signals the call agent. The call agent processes the call and signals gateway B.
C. Fax F signals Fax J directly. Call setup is handled by the fax machines.
D. Gateway A processes the call and signals gateway B. Gateway B processes the request.
E. Gateway A processes the call and signals gateway B. Gateway B processes the call. During the setup, the gateways query the gatekeeper for address resolution and call setup permission.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which four of the following are Cisco-supported IP telephony deployment models? (Choose 4)
A. Single site
B. Single site with distributed call processing
C. Multisite with centralized call processing
D. Clustering over the IP WAN
E. Multisite with distributed call processing
Correct Answer: ACDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
You are a network engineer at PASSGUIDE.com, study the exhibit carefully. Three PASSGUIDE department managers share the directory number 3000 The Marketing manager’s phone is attached to port 1/1 The Engineering manager’s phone is attached to port 1/2 The Shipping manager’s phone is attached to port 1/3 In which situation would an incoming call ring on the Shipping manager’s phone?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-436

A. The Marketing manager is on the phone.
B. None of the managers are on the phone.
C. The Engineering manager is on the phone.
D. The Shipping manager and Marketing manager are on the phone.
E. The Engineering manager and Marketing manager are on the phone.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Identify two gateway supplementary services. (Choose 2)
A. Hold
B. Transcoding
C. Transfer
D. DTMF relay
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
According to the G.114 recommendation, the maximum one-way delay for voice should ideally not exceed how much delay?
A. 200 ms
B. 150 ms
C. 250 ms
D. 100 ms PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-436
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
On the basis of the related knowledge, at which point does the MGCP call agent release the setup of the call path to the residential gateways?
A. Does not release call path setup
B. After the call agent has been notified that an event occurred at the source residential gateway
C. After the call agent has been notified of an event and has instructed the source residential gateway to create a connection
D. After the call agent has sent a connection request to both the source and destination and has relayed a modify-connection request to the source so that the source and destination can set up the call path
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Identify the preferred voice quality measurement approach for VoIP networks.
A. QRT
B. PESQ
C. PSQM
D. MOS
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Which method of fax relay uses a store-and-forward approach?
A. T.38
B. T.37
C. Cisco Fax Relay
D. T.30
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
When using CUBE, which two statements describe how media flow-through differs from media flow-
around? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. Media flow-around provides address hiding by terminating both signaling and RTP streams.
B. Media flow-through terminates the signaling channel and the RTP streams flow directly between endpoints.
C. Media flow-around and media flow-through function in a similar manner, but media flow-around supports NAT traversal.
D. Media flow-through terminates the RTP streams but allows signaling to flow directly between endpoints.
E. Media flow-around terminates the signaling stream and allows RTP streams to flow directly between endpoints. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-436
F. Media flow-through provides address hiding by terminating both signaling and RTP streams.
Correct Answer: EF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
What codec is required for fax pass-through and/or modem pass-through?
A. G.711
B. G.729ab
C. G.723
D. G.729

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Identify three quality issues that can result because of a lack of network bandwidth.(Choose 3)
A. Jitter
B. Impedance
C. Delay
D. Packet loss
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
What protocol is used to communicate between a DSP farm configured on an IOS router and a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server?
A. SIP
B. H.323
C. MGCP
D. SCCP
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Using Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, what four steps are necessary to implement COR? (Choose four.)

PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-436

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
What is the Layer 2 overhead (in bytes) for Frame Relay traffic?
A. 5 bytes
B. 18 bytes
C. 6 bytes
D. 3 bytes
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
As a PASSGUIDE network technician ,you are responsible for establishing and maintaining VoIP network. You have configured a gatekeeper and an IP-IP gateway on the same router. When you examine the output from the show gatekeeper endpoint command, the IP-IP gateway is not registered with the gatekeeper. What needs to be configured to resolve this issue?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-436

A. The h323-gateway voip id command has an incorrect IP address.
B. You need to add a VoIP dial peer to the configuration.
C. You need to stop and restart the gateway.
D. The h323-gateway voip id command has an incorrect gatekeeper ID and IP address.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
Which three factors must be considered when calculating the total bandwidth of a VoIP call? (Choose 3)
A. Codec size
B. CRC usage
C. Data-link overhead
D. Sample size
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Observe the following options, which process changes an internal extension into a fully qualified external PSTN number before matching to a dial peer?
A. forward digits
B. prefix extension
C. number expansion PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-436
D. digit masking
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
While examining the output of a show run command on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series, you notice that the
statement interface GigabitEthernet2/12 appears in the output. What does this mean?
Select the best response.

A. It refers to the second FCIP tunnel that is configured on port GigabitEthernet2/1
B. It refers to a VLAN subinterface on port GigabitEthernet2/1
C. It means that port GigabitEthernet2/1 is assigned to VSAN 2
D. It is a mistake in the interface configuration.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
The HBA on your storage server only supports the NL_Port mode. Which interface type on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series fabric switches can support this HBA? Select the best response.
A. F
B. TE
C. FL
D. N
E. E
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
For purposes of granting restricted access to statically configure iSCSI virtual targets, which three of these can be used to identify iSCSI initiators? (Choose three.) Select 3 response(s).
A. iSCSI node name
B. host name
C. IPv4 address and subnet PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359
D. MAC address
E. IPv6 address
F. iSCSI WWN
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
What is a benefit of enhanced zoning? Select the best response.
A. fabric locked during configuration changes
B. larger zoning database size
C. database rollback in case of failure
D. zones allowed to span VSANs
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
How many ports are addressable on a fabric arbitrated loop? Select the best response.
A. 126
B. 127
C. 255
D. 256
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which three of the following are possible reasons why a line card module does not come online? (Choose
three.)
Select 3 response(s).

A. Port indexes have been taken offline.
B. Available port indexes are noncontiguous.
C. Not enough power is available in the chassis.
D. An invalid interoperability mode has been configured.
E. Unsupported SFPs have been installed.
F. Not enough port indexes are available.
Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which of the following tools would you use to view SCSI error count statistics?
PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359
Select the best response.
A. Cisco Performance Manager
B. RMON
C. Cisco Traffic Analyzer
D. Cisco Fabric Analyzer
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Why would you use the fcanalyzer command? Select the best response.
A. to ensure that Fibre Channel configuration settings are synchronized across all switches in the fabric
B. to identify common configuration errors in the fabric
C. to nondisruptively capture and decode Fibre Channel control frames
D. to decode and analyze Fibre Channel frames and ordered sets on a link
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which two features help you verify connectivity between host and storage devices? (Choose two.) Select 2 response(s).
A. fcanalyzer
B. Cisco Traffic Analyzer
C. End-to-End Connectivity Analysis
D. Zone Merge Analysis
E. fcping
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which feature detects hardware faults and attempts recovery actions? Select the best response.
A. Switch Health Analysis
B. Fabric Configuration Analysis
C. Online Health Management System
D. End-to-End Connectivity Analysis
E. Cisco Fabric Services PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
A customer has reported performance degradation in the SAN. The system administrator would like to track read-write I/O and LUN use on several devices. The devices are directly connected to various switches and belong to different VSANs. The administrator wants to gather information for the last 72
hours.
Which of the following Cisco MDS 9000 Series tools is needed to track SCSI I/O and LUN statistics?
Select the best response.

A. Cisco Fabric Manager
B. Cisco Traffic Analyzer and PAA
C. Cisco Performance Manager
D. Cisco Fabric Analyzer
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which services are supported by a Cisco NX-OS AAA configuration? Select the best response.
A. Telnet, SSH, FM and DM logins
B. Console login, FC-SP authentication, FTP
C. FC-SP authentication, FM and DM logins, TFTP
D. iSCSI authentication, FTP, FC-SP authentication
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which two Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches are used in small- and medium-sized SAN topologies?
(Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. Cisco MDS 9124
B. Cisco MDS 9222i
C. Cisco MDS 9506
D. Cisco MDS 9509
E. Cisco MDS 9513
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which second-generation Fibre Channel module offers a full 4Gb/s line rate on all ports?
PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359
Select the best response.
A. 12-port 1/2/4 Gb/s Fibre Channel module
B. 24-port 1/2/4 Gb/s Fibre Channel module
C. 24-port 1/2/4/8 Gb/s Fibre Channel module D. 48-port 1/2/4 Gb/s Fibre Channel module

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch has non-field-replaceable fans? Select the best response.
A. Cisco MDS 9124
B. Cisco MDS 9134
C. Cisco MDS 9222i
D. Cisco MDS 9506

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
When using the Cisco MDS 9000 Switches, which protocol provides in-band management? Select the best response.
A. FCIP
B. IPFC
C. iSCSI
D. SNMP

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
What is a benefit of using the Cisco Fabric Manager Software Install Wizard instead of using the CLI-based software upgrade?
Select the best response.
A. can be used to upgrade multiple switches with a single procedure
B. shows the upgrade procedure progress
C. upgrades kickstart and system images in a single step
D. notifies when upgrade procedure has finished

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359 A junior SAN engineer is asked to prepare the configuration for the NPV edge switch. The NPV edge switch will be connected to the NPV core switch via the fc 1/24 interface. The end device will be connected to the fc 1/1 interface and should be placed in VSAN 10 Which configuration for the NPV edge switch accomplishes this request? Select the best response.

153373-15
153373-7
153373-3
153373-11 PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which two options can be used to enable flex-attach when automatic assignment is used? (Choose two.) Select 2 response(s).
A. global across all NPV switches
B. global across all NPIV-enabled switches
C. per interface or interface range
D. per server WWN
E. per server FC-ID

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit. When looking at the Cisco Fabric Manager, you notice that one of the switches has this symbol superimposed on it. What is the reason? Select the best response.

A. The device is manageable but there are operational problems.
B. The device is online but not working properly.
C. The device is not manageable.
D. The device is down.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
What type of information can the Cisco Fabric Analyzer capture and decode? Select the best response.
A. data traffic within a specific VSAN
B. data traffic within all VSANs PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359
C. control traffic within the supervisor module only
D. control traffic from anywhere on a switch

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
As which two options can an RMON event manifest itself? (Choose two.) Select 2 response(s).
A. log entry
B. email message
C. SNMP trap
D. script action
E. alarm

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. The customer connects two switches for which the E_port does not come up. Which command should the administrator use to resolve the problem?

Select the best response.
A. mds(config)# fcdomain domain 3 static vsan 1 mds(config)# fcdomain restart disruptive vsan 1
B. mds(config)# fcdomain domain 3 static vsan 1 mds(config)# fcdomain restart vsan 1
C. mds(config-vsan-db)# fcdomain domain 3 static vsan 1 mds(config-vsan-db)# fcdomain restart disruptive vsan 1
D. mds(config-vsan-db)# fcdomain domain 3 static vsan 1 mds(config-vsan-db)# fcdomain restart vsan 1

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. The customer wants to upgrade the Cisco MDS 9500 Switch. When they execute the install all command, this output is displayed. What will occur on the modules for which the upgrade’s impact was shown as disruptive? Select the best response.

A. The data flow through the switch will be corrupted and can disastrously affect data consistency.
B. The data flow will be interrupted, and the hosts should be shut down during the upgrade to prevent problems.
C. The data flow will be interrupted, and the applications should be put in the paused and consistent state during the upgrade.
D. The data flow will be paused. No intervention is necessary on the servers.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit. The customer network has blue and red VSANs redundantly connected, Path A having a 4-ISL port channel and Path B having a 2-ISL port channel. Changes to the physical topology are not allowed for the next six months. All the traffic now flows over Path A with congestion occurring on both VSANs at peak times. The blue VSAN is, on the average, generating four times the amount of data than that of the red VSAN. How can the blue and red VSAN traffic be separated over the two paths, while preserving redundancy?
PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359 Select the best response.

A. Make a zone in the blue VSAN with only ISL ports on Path B, and make another zone in the red VSAN with only ISL ports on Path A.
B. Make a zone in the blue VSAN with only ISL ports on Path A, and make another zone in the red VSAN with only ISL ports on Path B.
C. In the blue VSAN, give Path B a lower FSPF cost than Path A; in the red VSAN, give Path A a lower FSPF cost than Path B.
D. In the blue VSAN, give Path A a lower FSPF cost than Path B; in the red VSAN, give Path B a lower FSPF cost than Path A.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
Which command would you use to configure Cisco Fabric Analyzer to display only SCSI-level protocol
traffic for the whole switch? The display needs to be output on the console.
Select the best response.

A. switch(config)# fcanalyzer local display-filter fcp_cmd
B. switch(config)# fcanalyzer display-filter fc_cmd
C. switch(config)# fcanalyzer local display-filter scsi
D. switch(config)# fcanalyzer local display-filter scsi_cmd

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. The Cisco Device Manager screen shows multiple problems in a SAN environment. Which two problems are displayed? (Choose two.) Select 2 response(s).

A. The amount of RAM in the switch is running out.
B. The amount of NVRAM in the switch is running out.
C. Disk on port fc1/6 is at the limit of its receive bandwidth.
D. Port iscsi2/2 is misconfigured.
E. There is a problem with the CPU.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit. What alarm will be sent for this RMON event? 191837412jpg Select the best response.
A. FCIP link failure
B. Fibre Channel link down
C. Fibre Channel link failure
D. Fibre Channel link reestablishment

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
A customer has some performance problems in their SAN environment. They want to use a Cisco MDS
9000 Port Analyzer Adapter to connect to the Cisco MDS Switch to troubleshoot the performance
problems. Which two options need to be configured on the MDS Switch? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359

A. Put the port into the proper zone that will be monitored.
B. Set the port speed to the value corresponding with the PAA setting.
C. Put the port in SD port mode.
D. Configure any port channel necessary.
E. Turn off flow control.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. The customer’s ISL links are flapping and seem to go down every few days. While
troubleshooting the problem, they determine that the speed of failover to the redundant path is taking too
long. What is the recommended solution to the problem, involving turning on a feature?
Select the best response.
A. use port tracking
B. disable the flapping ISL
C. use port channel
D. adjust FSPF link costs

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Which configuration will enable remote access management using Telnet? Select the best response.
A. interface mgmt0 ip address 10001 2552552550 remote-access enable PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359
B. interface mgmt0 ip address 10001 2552552550 feature telnet enable
C. interface mgmt0 ip address 10001 2552552550 telnet enable
D. interface mgmt0 ip address 10001 2552552550 telnet server enable

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
When large Fibre Channel frames must be sent from an MSM 18/4 module at the central site to the remote
offices, what is the consequence of disabling the Path MTU Discovery and using the default Ethernet
MTU?
Select the best response.

A. Packet shaping becomes effective.
B. Minimum retransmission interval is prolonged.
C. Jumbo frames are enabled.
D. Large Fibre Channel frames are fragmented.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
With regards to FCIP encapsulation, which statement is true? Select the best response.
A. The Fibre Channel frame is encapsulated into an IP packet.
B. The Fibre Channel frame is encapsulated into an MPLS packet.
C. The Fibre Channel frame is encapsulated into an Ethernet frame.
D. The Fibre Channel frame is encapsulated into an iSCSI packet.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
Which command enables connectivity to a management VSAN via 100010 IP gateway when IPFC in-band
management is used?
Select the best response.

A. ip route 0000 0000 100010
B. route 0/0 100010
C. default-gateway 100010
D. route add default 100010

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Which command is used to configure VLAN 100 on the Gigabit Ethernet 2/1 interface through
PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359
which iSCSI-enabled servers should be connected to the Fibre Channel targets? Select the best response.
A. interface gigabitethernet 2/1100
B. interface gigabitethernet 2/1 vlan 100
C. interface gigabitethernet 2/1 encapsulation isl 100
D. interface gigabitethernet2/1 vlan 100

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
Which access control list configuration allows the IP traffic from the 10001 host to be moved to the
192168202 host only?
Select the best response.

A. ip access-list ACL1 permit ip 10001 0000 192168202 0000
B. access-list 10 permit host 10001 host 192168202
C. access-list ACL1 permit source host 10001 destination host 192168202
D. filter ACL permit host 10001 host 192168202

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if one of the power supplies failed? Select the best response.

A. There would be no disruption regarding MDS operation. PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359
B. The MDS would shut down the standby supervisor to compensate for the power loss.
C. The MDS would reset the failed power supply in an attempt to resolve the problem.
D. Due to insufficient power, the MDS would shut down some modules.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
The customer wants to create and use custom-based reports to monitor the operation of the deployed MDS switches and the overall health of the SAN. Which option is required in order to use custom reports? Select the best response.
A. standalone Cisco Fabric Manager
B. Cisco Device Manager with Enterprise license installed
C. Cisco Fabric Manager Server with Cisco Performance Manager
D. PAA, SPAN, and protocol analyzer

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
If you have a brand new Cisco MDS Switch and you are using the initial setup routine, what information
must be entered?
Select the best response.

A. Admin password
B. Default switch port interface state
C. Management IP address
D. Login account

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting, you clear the fc1/10 interface counters and reset the interface. What is the reason that interface fc1/10 is down?
PassGuide.com – Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-359 Select the best response.

A. The interface speed is misconfigured.
B. The SFP is missing.
C. The fiber-optic cable’s transmit and receive pins are not correctly connected.
D. The peer switch uses a different interoperability mode.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which command would you use to determine if device aliases in VSAN 5 are configured for fabriC.wide distribution?
A. show zoneset name alias vsan 5
B. show cfs application name device-alias
C. showfcalias distribution vsan 5
D. show vsan 5 device-alias status

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP

Drop
Drag the Cisco analysis tool on the left to its appropriate description on the right.
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
A. 1=3 , 2=2, 3=4, 4=3
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 2 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam

Explanation:
QUESTION 3
The MDS 9000 family switches use what three technologies to protect against unauthorized management access? (Choose three.)
A. SNMPV3
B. SSH
C. RBAC
D. RMON
E. ses
F. WEBM

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 3 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam

QUESTION 4
What is a benefit of enhanced zoning?
A. fabric locked during configuration changes
B. larger zoning database size
C. database rollback in case of failure
D. zones allowed to span VSANs

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which two of these environments suggest the use of FCIP Write Acceleration? (Choose two.)
A. remote tape backup
B. Port Channel links between sites
C. applications that support multiple outstanding l/Os
D. fast network with minimal delays
E. DWDM links

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which three of the following are possible reasons why a line card module does not come online? (Choose three.)
A. Port indexes have been taken offline.
B. Available port indexes are noncontiguous.
C. Not enough power is available in the chassis.
D. An invalid interoperability mode has been configured.
E. Unsupported SFPs have been installed.
F. Not enough port indexes are available.

Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 4 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam

Which two options from the Tools menu would you select to verify connectivity and latency to a Fibre Channel end device? (Choose two.)
A. Switch Health
B. Fabric Configuration
C. End to End Connectivity
D. Ping
E. Device Manager

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
During initial switch configuration, the administrator elects to enable full zoneset distribution. What is the impact of this choice during zoneset activation?
A. only the active zoneset is distributed to all switches in the fabric
B. both the full zone database and active zoneset are distributed to all switches in the fabric
C. both FCID and WWN information are distributed to all switches in the fabric
D. only the full zone database is distributed to all switches in the fabric

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
You are asked to review the running configuration of a switch that a junior administrator has prepared to be placed in a heterogeneous SAN environment. This environment includes three different brands of Fibre Channel switches. In this particular environment, only VSAN 1 is being used.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 5 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Which of these attributes suggests that the switch has been incorrectly configured?
A. Astatic domain ID has been set to 0x21.
B. The srC.dst-ox load balancing has been selected.
C. Interop mode 1 has been selected.
D. FCC has been enabled.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP

Drop
Drag the correct compression mode on the left to its appropriate bandwidth on the right.
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
A. mode1=2 , mode2=3 , mode3=1 , auto=4
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 6 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Explanation:

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Drop
Click and drag each item on the left to its correct security description on the right.
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
A. 1=6 , 2=2 , 3=3 , 4=5 , 5=4 , 6=1
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 7

QUESTION 12
When configuring FCIP, packet fragmentation should be avoided in order to achieve optimal throughput. Fragmentation can be avoided by knowing which of the following?
A. MTU of the source IP interface
B. largest MTU in the path
C. smallest MTU in the path
D. MTU of the destination IP interface

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
When configuring FCIP, packet fragmentation should be avoided in order to achieve optimal throughput. Fragmentation can be avoided by knowing which of the following?
A. MTU of the source IP interface
B. largest MTU in the path
C. smallest MTU in the path
D. MTU of the destination IP interface

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
For purposes of granting restricted access to statically configure iSCSI virtual targets, which three of these can be used to identify iSCSI initiators? (Choose three.)
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 8 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
A. iSCSI node name
B. hostname
C. IPv4 address and subnet
D. MAC address
E. IPv6 address
F. iSCSIWWN

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
You have been asked to convert three existing ISLs into a PortChannel as nondisruptively as possible.

Which approach will best accomplish this?
A. Place all three ISLs into a PortChannel, because PortChannel creation is a nondisruptive operation.
B. Convert the ISLs into an EISL and then place them into a PortChannel.
C. Place one link into a single-link PortChannel and then add the other two links to the PortChannel.
D. Ensure that the VSAN allowed lists on both ends of each link are identically configured, then create the three-link PortChannel.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 9 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Which three statements describe automatically supported, basic zone features (no additional configuration required) in the Cisco MDS 9000 Family of switches? (Choose three.)
A. A VSAN contains the zone sets.
B. Zone reactivation can disrupt existing traffic.
C. A zone or zone set with the same name can exist in each VSAN.
D. Hard zoning can be disabled.
E. Active zone sets are preserved across switch reboots
F. Default zoning behavior is to distribute the Full Zone Database.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which three options allow or enable nondisruptive upgrades? (Choose three.)
A. IPS module software upgrades
B. dual supervisor modules on a Cisco MDS 9500 Series switch
C. using the install-all command
D. upgrading the loader
E. installing a license F – using the reload command

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which services are supported by a Cisco SAN-OS AAA configuration?
A. Telnet, SSH, FM and DM logins
B. console login, FC.SP authentication, FTP
C. FC.SP authentication, FM and DM logins, TFTP
D. iSCSI authentication, FTP, FC.SP authentication

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
How many ports are addressable on a fabric arbitrated loop?
A. 126 “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 10 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
B. 127
C. 255
D. 256

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
A customer with multiple vendor switches establishes an ISL between a non-Cisco switch and an E_Port
on a Cisco MDS 9000 switch.
Which three statements are true about the interop behavior between the two switches? (Choose three.)

A. Exchange-based load balancing is supported in all interop modes.
B. Interop mode affects all VSANs.
C. Only E_Ports can be used to connect to non-Cisco MDS switches.
D. The non-Cisco switch must have matching FC timers with the VSAN containing the E_Port on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series switch.
E. Adding another ISL between the switches will allow a PortChannel to be configured for HA.
F. Interop mode 1 allows full featured communication between all combinations of MDS and non- MDS switches

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Which license is required on switches that are going to implement LUN zoning?
A. Storage Services Enabler
B. Enterprise license
C. Fabric Manager Server license
D. SAN Extension over IP license

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
DRAG DROP

Drop
Match the definition on the left with its appropriate word or phrase about switch interoperability on the right.

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 11
Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
A. 1=2, 2=1, 3=4, 4=5, 5=3
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 12 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
QUESTION 23
Which two of these logging statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Call Home message level 0 is most urgent and level 7 is least urgent, whereas the syslog level 9 is most urgent and level 0 is least urgent.
B. Syslog message level 0 is most urgent and level 7 is least urgent, whereas the Call Home message level 9 is most urgent and level 0 is least urgent,
C. Syslog message level 7 is most urgent and level 0 is least urgent, whereas the Call Home message level 9 is most urgent and level 0 is least urgent.
D. Accounting logs can be stored locally and sent to remote AAA servers.
E. Go to logs > syslog > setup in Device Manager to view the local accounting log.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Which of these Cisco Fabric Manager debugging tools can compare the current configuration with a previously saved configuration file?
A. Switch Health Analysis
B. Fabric Configuration Analysis
C. EnD.to-End Connectivity Analysis
D. Zone Merge Analysis

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Choose the correct list of tasks to configure Remote Spanning.
A. Create a VSAN interface. Enable a Fibre Channel tunnel. Initiate the Fibre Channel tunnel. Configure the ST_Port in the source switch. Configure the SD_Port in the destination switch. Configure a SPAN session in the source switch.
B. Create a VSAN interface. Enable a Fibre Channel tunnel. Initiate the Fibre Channel tunnel. Configure the ST_Port in the source switch. Configure the SD_Port in the destination switch. Configure an RSPAN session in the source switch.
C. Create an RSPAN interface. Enable a Fibre Channel tunnel. Initiate the Fibre Channel tunnel. Configure the SD_Port in the destination switch. Configure the ST_Port in the source switch. Configure an RSPAN session in the source switch.
D. Create a VSAN interface. Enable a Fibre Channel tunnel. Initiate the Fibre Channel tunnel. Configure the ST_Port in the destination switch. Configure the SD_Port in the source switch. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 13 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam Configure an RSPAN session in the source switch.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
When creating an Inter-VSAN routing topology, which type of World Wide Name (WWN) must be used?
A. Port WWN
B. Switch WWN
C. Fabric Port WWN
D. VSAN WWN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Your company has a multiswitch fabric including Switch A and Switch B. An administrator of Switch A creates the following zone set and successfully activates it: zoneset name ZoneSetl vsan 1 zone name Zonel vsan 1 pwwn 21:01:00:e0:8b:3c:03:b6 pwwn 21:01:00:e0:8b:3c:55:bb Later in the day, a second administrator creates the following zone set on Switch B: zoneset name ZoneSet2 vsan 1 zone name Zonel vsan 1 pwwn 21:01:00:e0:8b:3c:03:b6 pwwn 21:01:00:e0:8b:3c:55:aa What happens when the administrator of Switch B attempts to activate ZoneSet2?
A. ZoneSet2 becomes the active zone set for both Switches A and
B.
C. The fabric segments and ZoneSet2 become the active zone set for Switch B only.
D. The fabric segments and ZoneSet2 become the active zone set for Switch A only.
E. The fabric segments and ZoneSetl remain the active zone set for Switch B, while ZoneSet2 becomes the active zone set for Switch A.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 14 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
You have been asked to configure a port on your Cisco MDS switch so that a host can join your fabric. Which of these switch port types should the port be set to?
A. N_Port
B. NL_Port
C. F_Port
D. E_Port
E. TE_Port
F. SD Port

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
DRAG DROP
Drop The IT director wants to standardize the process that the SAN team follows when troubleshooting the SAN. IT director wants to leverage the tools that are provided by Cisco Fabric Manager so that each member of the team executes the samesteps when faced with a problem in the SAN. Click and drag the Cisco Fabric Manager troubleshooting tool to the purpose it serves in the repair strategy.

Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
A. 1=2, 2=4, 3=3, 4=1
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 15 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam

Explanation:

QUESTION 30
Which of the following tools would you use to view SCSI error count statistics?
A. Cisco Performance Manager
B. RMON
C. Cisco Traffic Analyzer
D. Cisco Fabric Analyzer

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
A customer would like to implement a low-cost traffic engineering solution that provides a primary data path, and a secondary data path that will only be used in the event of a failure in the primary path. Which of these solutions best meets the customer needs?
A. VSAN allowed list pruning
B. FCC
C. QoS “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 16 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
D. FSPF link costs
E. VOQ

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
The output from the switch show interface command indicates that the link from a host comes up as an FL_Port. The switch port is configured as auto. Which three of these HBA configurations could cause this scenario? (Choose three.)
A. the HBA is configured as an N_Port
B. the HBA is configured as an NL_Port
C. the HBA supports only NL mode
D. the HBA is configured as a TE_Port
E. the HBA supports only FC.AL technology
F. the HBA is configured as an TL_Port

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit. Which of the following statements is true?

A. All users belonging to the sangroup role are allowed to perform all configuration commands except fspf commands because the deny config feature fspf is listed first.
B. All users are allowed to perform all configuration commands because the permit config command is listed last and that will globally override all other rules.
C. All users belonging to the sangroup role to perform all configuration commands except fspf commands because it does not matter what order the rules are entered.
D. The configuration is not valid because rules are entered at the switch (config-role-vsan)# level.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
Which three types of network statistics can be captured with the Cisco Traffic Analyzer? (Choose three.)
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 17 Cisco 642-359: Practice Exam
A. historical reporting
B. total bandwidth used
C. Tx/Rx bandwidth per VSAN
D. Tx/Rx bandwidth per N_Port
E. class-based traffic breakdown

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Which two security protocols are supported in the Cisco iSCSI implementation? (Choose two.)
A. IPSec
B. FC.SP
C. SLAP
D. CHAP
E. PAP

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Issuing the show role command to check a defined role in an MDS 9000 Series switch will produce the following output: Role: Manage VSAN Description: Vsanpolicy: deny Permitted vsans: 2-4 Rule Type Command-type Feature 1- permit config * 2- deny config fspf 3- permit debug zone 4- permit exec fcping
Which of the following two functions can a user with role Manage undertake? (Choose two.)
A. check connectivity for VSAN 2
B. issue a debug command for a port
C. configure FC port parameters for VSAN 3
D. changefspf parameters

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which two options can be used to enable flex-attach when automatic assignment is used?
(Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. global across all NPV switches
B. per server WWN
C. per server FC-ID
D. per interface or interface range
E. global across all NPIV-enabled switches

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Match the definition on the left with its appropriate word or phrase about switch interoperability on the right.

A. 1,2,3,4,5
B. 2,1,3,4,5
C. 3,1,2,4,5
D. 2,3,4,5,1

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
When using the Cisco MDS 9000 Switches, which protocol provides in-band management? Select the best response.
A. SNMP
B. IPFC
C. FCIP
D. iSCSI

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What information does the command showflogi database provide?
A. verifies connectivity for attached devices
B. displays fabric login errors
C. displays a list of the host ports that have logged into each storage port
D. verifies that attached devices are in the correct zone

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You have set up a session to the SD_Portto enable the investigation of a problem on a particular Fibre Channel port. You need to check whether this has been correctly set up for the desired port. Which command should you use?
A. showfcanalyzer
B. show span session
C. showfcflow
D. showtlport

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
A host is unable to access the storage network after its HBA is replaced. Which of these switch configurations could be preventing access?
A. port-mode security
B. port VSAN membership
C. port-based zoning
D. port security

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which command would you use to determine if device aliases in VSAN 5 are configured for fabriC.wide distribution?
A. showcfs application name device-alias
B. showvsan 5 device-alias status
C. showzoneset name alias vsan 5
D. showfcalias distribution vsan 5

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which feature requires the Cisco MDS 9000 Series Enterprise license?
A. centralized AAA services
B. port security
C. virtual output queues
D. PortChannels

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
What is the recommended minimum clearance between chassis when installing the Cisco MDS 9500 Series in a standard telco rack?
A. 2.5 inches
B. 9 inches
C. 3 inches
D. 6 inches

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
You work as a network administrator for Company.com. You study the exhibit carefully. When
looking at the Cisco Fabric Manager, you notice that one of the switches has this symbol
superimposed on it. What is the reason?
Exhibit:
Select the best response.
A. The device is down.
B. The device is manageable but there are operational problems.
C. The device is not manageable.
D. The device is online but not working properly.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
You work as a network administrator for Company.com. You study the exhibit carefully. Which of
the following statements is true?
Exhibit:
A. All users belonging to thesangroup role to perform all configuration commands except fspf commands because it does not matter what order the rules are entered.
B. All users belonging to thesangroup role are allowed to perform all configuration commands except fspf commands because the deny config feature fspf is listed first.
C. All users are allowed to perform all configuration commands because the permitconfig command is listed last and that will globally override all other rules.
D. The configuration is not valid because rules are entered at the switch (config-role-vsan)# level.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which of the following tools would you use to view SCSI error count statistics?
A. RMON
B. Cisco Fabric Analyzer
C. Cisco Traffic Analyzer
D. Cisco Performance Manager

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which two security protocols are supported in the Cisco iSCSI implementation? (Choose two.)
A. SLAP
B. CHAP
C. IPSec
D. PAP
E. FC.SP

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
While examining the output of a show run command on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series, you notice that the statement interface GigabitEthernet2/2 appears in the output. What does this mean?
A. It refers to the second FCIP tunnel that is configured on port GigabitEthernet2/1.
B. It refers to a VLAN subinterface on port GigabitEthernet2/1.
C. It means that port GigabitEthernet2/1 is assigned to VSAN 2.
D. It is a mistake in the interface configuration.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
What is a benefit of enhanced zoning?
A. fabric locked during configuration changes
B. larger zoning database size
C. database rollback in case of failure
D. zones allowed to span VSANs

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
While examining the output of a show run command on the CiscoMDS9000Series, you notice that the statement interface GigabitEthernet2/1.2 appears in the output. What does this mean?
A. It refers to these condFCIP tunnel that is configured on port GigabitEthernet2/1.
B. It refers to a VLAN subinterface on port GigabitEthernet2/1.
C. It means that port GigabitEthernet2/1is assigned to VSAN2.
D. It is a mistake in the interface configuration.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
The HBA on your storage server only supports the NL_Port mode. Which interface type on the Cisco MDS9000Series fabrics witches can support this HBA?
A. F
B. TE
C. FL
D. N E. E

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
For purposes of granting restricted access to statically configure iSCSI virtual targets, which three of these can be used to identify iSCSI initiators?(Choose three.)
A. iSCS Inodename
B. hostname
C. IPv4 address and subnet
D. MAC address
E. IPv6 address
F. iSCSI WWN

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
What is a benefit of enhanced zoning?
A. fabriclockedduringconfigurationchanges
B. largerzoningdatabasesize
C. databaserollbackincaseoffailure
D. zonesallowedtospanVSANs

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A QUESTION 1
Exhibit:

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. Which three of these are accurate description of values that you will find in the verified column for different types of products? ( Choose three.)
A. If the solution is configured and orderable, a check mark will be displayed.
B. If the configuration is incomplete, the words “Not Configured” will be displayed
C. If the part is a non-configurable part, the words “Not configurable” will be displayed
D. If the solution is not orderable, a check mark will be displayed
E. If the configuration is complete, the word Done will be displayed
F. If the solution is not configured, a check mark will be displayed

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which routing method is used to determine the forwarding paths for IP traffic in a Secure Cisco Single-Site Network foundation solution with remote teleworkers?
A. RIP
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. Static and default routes

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Exhibit:
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. In a Cisco Single-
Site Secure Network foundation implementation, which factors affect the router configuration you select?
Exhibit: image027.jpg

A. Maximum number of supported IP Phones per platform
B. Type of security scheme that is to be implemented
C. Maximum Amount of packet latency acceptable
D. Type of QoS scheme hat is being used

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in WAN
Services.
Match the appropriate WAN Services with the correct service type.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 5

The recommended WAN Access method for a simplified and cost effective Cisco Single-site Secure Network Foundation Deployment provides which type of Service?
A. Low Latency
B. Best-Effort
C. Guaranteed Quality
D. Guaranteed Bandwidth

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You are designing a solution that needs to support 30 IP phone users. Which switch model and how many switches does the Cisco Single-Site Secure Network Foundation1.1 Desing and Implementation Guide suggest for the solution?
A. 1 Catalyst Express 500G-12TC,1 Catalyst 3750G-12S-S
B. 1 Catalyst 3750G-12S-S, 1 Catalyst Express 500-24PC
C. 2 Catalyst Express 500G-12TC
D. 1 Catalyst 3750G-12S-S, 1 Catalyst Express 500-24PC
E. 2 Catalyst Express 500-24PC
F. 2 Catalyst 3750G-12S-S

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Exhibit: You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. All of the computing devices shown are on the same logical network, as if they were all connected to the same switch. Which two features make this possible? ( Choose two.)

A. PAT
B. 802.1Q
C. Spanning-tree
D. VLANs
E. QoS

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
If voice and data traffic will be sent and received via a WAN links, what must be configured to provide a certain amount of dedicated bandwidth and to prioritize the voice traffic over other types of network traffic?
A. IPSec VPN
B. QoS mechanism
C. Firewall
D. NAT
E. EIGRP routing protocol
F. Static routing

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco 642-176 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1) exam is the exam associated with the Cisco Certified Entry Network Technician (CCENT) certification and is a tangible first step in achieving an Associate-level certification Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1) course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small branch office network. The exam includes topics on the operation of IP data networks, LAN switching technologies, IPv6, IP routing technologies, IP services (DHCP, NAT, ACLs), network device security, and basic troubleshooting
QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in UTP
categories.
Match the appropriate environments with the correct UTP category.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 10

You are designing a solution that needs to support a full-rate T3 connection. Which router model does the Cisco Single-Site Secure Network Foundation 1.1 Design and Implementation Guide suggest for this solution?
A. Cisco 2821
B. Cisco 2811
C. Cisco 3845
D. Cisco 2801
E. Cisco 2851
F. Cisco 3825

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
When resetting a Catalyst Express switch to factory default settings, which three options are available from the Software Recovery window? (Choose three.)
A. Boot to a password recovery window
B. Boot with the factory default image
C. Erase the system configuration and boot with the factory default IOS image
D. Erase the system configuration and boot from a TFTP-supplied IOS image
E. Erase the System Configuration

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 12
Which statement correctly describes network security settings in Cisco Network Assistant for the Catalyst Express 500 Switch?
A. The LOW setting enables broadcast storm control, but has no effect on the number of devices that can connect to a switch port
B. The LOW setting enables broadcast storm control and limits the number of devices that can connect to a switch port.
C. The LOW setting disables broadcast storm control but limits the number of devices that can connect to a switch port
D. The default network setting is “HIGH”

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
In an environment in which multiple VLANs have been defined on Catalyst Express 500 switches, which two statements are correct for ports that have been configured with the Smartport role of “IP Phone + Desktop”? (Choose two.)
A. The names of the VLANs used by the SmartPorts are case insensitive
B. The ports may belong to a configurable data VLAN
C. The names of the VLANs used by the Smartports are not relevant
D. The ports may belong to many VLANs, depending on how many PCs are connected to each port.
E. The names of the VLANs used by the Smartports are case sensitive

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
DRAG DROP You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in SMB wireless solutions. You are required to produce the correct order for performing a Technology Strategy Development. Choose only steps that apply.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
Exhibit: You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. Which Cisco SDM Configuration task would you use to enable access and inspection rules on the WAN interface, preventing any external traffic from entering the network unless that traffic is a reply to a session that originated in the internal network?

A. Additional Task
B. Interface and Connections
C. Routing
D. NAT
E. Firewall and ACL
F. VPN

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
When enabling IPS on an ISR using the Cisco SDM IPS Wizard, in what location can the SDF be placed?
A. On the RAM of the ISR
B. On the USB memory stick of the ISR
C. On the NVRAM of the ISR
D. On the IPS Module of the ISR E. On the Flash memory of the ISR

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
During which phase of the Steps to Success methodology for Cisco SMB Security Solutions would the Security Technology Requirements document be used to determine a customer’s security requirements?
A. Perform
B. Position
C. Develop
D. Prepare
E. Plan
F. Design

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Exhibit:

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. The exhibit is an example of which technology being implemented?
A. Spanning-tree
B. 802.1Q
C. VLANs
D. PAT
E. QoS

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 19
Exhibit:

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. Which two statements correctly identify the reasons why there is only one static route and there are no dynamic protocols for the configuration shown?(Choose two.)
A. The configuration has not been completed yet on the router
B. There is only one entry and exit path to the service provider, so one static route is sufficient
C. The LAN functions at L3, so dynamic routing does not need to be enabled
D. Switch Agg 1 and R1 have not achieved L3 adjacency yet, thus whatever routing protocol has been configuration on R1 is not completely up
E. There is only one L3 device, thus dynamic routing is not needed

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
During which phase of the steps to success methodology for Cisco SMB security solutions would the Network Readiness Assessment be used to assess the readiness of an existing network infrastructure and determine which, if any, modification should be made prior to implementation?
A. Position
B. Prepare
C. Design
D. Perform
E. Plan

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
When determining a customer’s security requirements using the security site survey from the steps for success methodology, which three of theses should be included in the customer’s security policy and procedures? (Choose three.)
A. Third-party due diligence policy review
B. Remote Access Policy
C. Encryption Policy
D. Application change control policy
E. Security Personnel policy

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
DRAG DROP You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested network security mechanisms. You are required to match the correct mechanism with the proper description.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 23

DRAG DROP You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested Success Methodology phases steps. You are required to produce the correct in which the appropriate phases takes place Use only steps that apply.

A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
When using the steps to success methodology, where does Quote Builder fit into the deal process flow?
A. It encompasses the validate and solve steps
B. It encompasses the Discovery, Validate and Solve steps
C. It encompasses the Discover, Validate, Solve and Present Steps
D. It encompasses the Discovery, Solve and Close steps
E. It encompasses the Discovery, Validate and Present Steps

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Which three of these pre-requisite for resetting a Catalyst Express 500 switch when Cisco Network Assistant is unavailable? (Choose three.)
A. At Least one enabled switch port that is unconnected to any device
B. A PC pre-configured with a specific IP Address and Mask
C. A PC or laptop with Windows 2000 or Windows XP installed and a web browser that has Java Script enabled
D. Physical Access to Switch
E. A Switch with no connected devices

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
To protect the network from external and internal threats, where should Cisco IPS be enabled on an ISR?
A. Globally on the ISR
B. On the Console and Auxiliary Ports of the ISR
C. On the untrusted (Outside) interface of the ISR
D. On the trusted (Inside) interface of the ISR
E. On the WAN and LAN interfaces of the ISR

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Which two WAN access methods are specified for a simplified and cost-effective Cisco Single-Site Secure Network Foundation Deployment Design? (Choose two.)
A. Frame-Relay
B. Leased Line
C. MPLS
D. DSL
E. Cable
F. Wireless

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
DRAG DROP
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in WAN
devices.
Match the appropriate WAN device with the correct description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
DRAG DROP
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in port types.

Match the appropriate port type with the correct function.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 30

During which phase of the steps to success methodology for Cisco SMB Security Solutions would the Network Readiness Assessment be used to assess the readiness of an existing network infrastructure and determine which, if any modification should be prior to implementation?
A. Prepare
B. Design
C. Position
D. Develop
E. Plan
F. Perform

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Exhibit.

Please study the exhibit.
Which Cisco SDM configuration task is used to enable the translation of the inside network private IP
address to the public IP address?

A. Firewall and ACL
B. NAT
C. Routing
D. Interface and connections
E. VPN
F. Security Audit

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
Please study the exhibit.

What are two options available when using the Security Audit Configuration task in Cisco SDM? ( Choose two.)
A. Perform a One-step lockdown on the Router
B. Perform a Virus Scan
C. Perform a Secure audit on the Router
D. Perform a Denial Of Service attack on the Router to verify that it is protected
E. Perform a real-time inspection of incoming traffic destined for the router

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
When determining a customer’s technical requirements for a Cisco Unified Communications solution, which important tool can be used to determine the bandwidth used by different codecs with various protocols over different media?
A. Network Codec Aggregator Tool
B. Bandwidth Estimator Tool
C. Unified Communication Bandwidth Tool
D. Voice Bandwidth Calculator
E. Voice Codec Bandwidth Calculator

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
Exhibit:

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. What does “locking Down” the router entail?
A. Disabling HTTPS access to Cisco SDM
B. Prohibiting console access to Router
C. Preventing any alterations to the router’s running configuration
D. Disabling all vulnerable Services on the Router
E. Shutting down all the router’s interfaces

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Your Customer has 21 users, each requiring both PC and IP Phone connectivity. Which is the correct configuration for this customer?
A. 1 Cisco 2811 ISR, 1 Catalyst Express 500G-12TC, 2 Catalyst Express 500-24PC
B. 1 Cisco 2851 ISR, Catalyst Express 500G-12TC, 3 catalyst Express 500-24PC
C. 1 Cisco 2821 ISR, Catalyst Express 500G-12TC, 2 Catalyst Express 500-24PC
D. 1 Cisco 2801 ISR, 1 Catalyst Express 500-24PC

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 36
When using Cisco Network Assistant to configure a WS-CE500-24LC switch, which three are available choices in the port settings window? (Choose three.)
A. Duplex mode selections
B. Auto MDIX selections
C. Status Selections
D. Group mode selections
E. Port security selections

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
Which statements describes the remote sites in a Cisco Single-Site Secure Network Foundation solution with remote teleworkers?
A. They are separate from the central site and use NAT to route through the Internet to the Central Site
B. They are part of the VLANs at the Central Site; they are in the same subnets
C. They use public IP Addresses that are routable through the Internet
D. They are in separate subnets but are part of the private address space of the network

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
Which two statements about 802.1Q trunking in Secure Network Foundation Design Guide for Single Site Deployments are correct?
A. The Cisco Control VLAN carries only Layer 2 control traffic
B. 802.1Q trunking is used between the access switch and the router
C. There is no 802.1Q trunking used in these designs
D. When 802.1Q trunks are configured, they are also called Native VLANs
E. Trunking Ensures that traffic from only one VLAN is carried on that trunk

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
Exhibit: You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. Which Cisco SDM configuration task would you select to configure a static route to the Service Provider?

A. NAC
B. Routing
C. Intrusion Protection
D. Quality Of Service
E. NAT

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
Which WAN connection requires a different interface than the standard interface provided in the Cisco Single-Site Secure Network Foundation deployment design?
A. Metro Ethernet
B. DSL
C. VPN
D. Cable
E. Frame-Relay

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. What could be possible causes for the “Serial0/0 is down” interface status? (Choose two.)

A. A Layer 1 problem exists.
B. The bandwidth is set too low.
C. A protocol mismatch exists
D. An incorrect cable is being used.
E. There is an incorrect IP address on the Serial 0/0 interface.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 2
Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two.)
A. the amount of available ROM
B. the amount of available flash and RAM memory
C. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router
D. show version
E. show processes
F. show running-config
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
“Everything is under control” – www.pass4sure.com 3

A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 5
If you are a network administrator, how will you explain VTP configuration to a new technician? (Choose three.)
A. In the VTP client mode, a switch is unable to update its local VLAN database.
B. Configure a trunk link between the switches to forward VTP updates.
C. In the VTP server mode, a switch is able to update a switch in the VTP transparent mode.
D. In the VTP transparent mode, a switch will forward the received updates to other switches.
E. A switch in the VTP server mode only updates switches in the VTP client mode that have a higher VTP revision number.
F. A switch in the VTP server mode will update switches in the VTP client mode regardless of the configured VTP domain membership.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 6
Cisco IOS (originally Internetwork Operating System) is the software used on the vast majority of Cisco Systems routers and all current Cisco network switches. Which two of the following devices could you configure as a source for the IOS image in the boot system command? (Choose two.)
A. RAM
B. NVRAM
C. flash memory
D. HTTP server
E. TFTP server
F. Telnet server
Correct Answer: CE

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QUESTION 7
What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.)
A. to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches
B. to determine the status of network services on a remote device
C. to determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers
D. to verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices
E. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails “Everything is under control” -www.pass4sure.com 5
F. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device
Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are using a default configuration. Which two destination addresses will host 4 use to send data to host 1? (Choose two.)
“Everything is under control” – www.pass4sure.com 6

A. the IP address of host 1
B. the IP address of host 4
C. the MAC address of host 1
D. the MAC address of host 4
E. the MAC address of the Fa0/0 interface of the R1 router
F. the MAC address of the Fa0/1 interface of the R1 router
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 9
Exhibit:
“Everything is under control” – www.pass4sure.com 7
Refer to the exhibit. The router has been configured with these commands:

What are the two results of this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. The default route should have a next hop address of 64.100.0.3.
B. Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 are using public IP addressing.
C. The address of the subnet segment with the WWW server will support seven more servers.
D. The addressing scheme allows users on the Internet to access the WWW server.
E. Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 will not be able to access the Internet “Everything is under control” – www.pass4sure.com 8 without address translation.
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 10
Your Company has installed IP phones. Both the phones and the office computers connect to the same device. The phone traffic and the office computer data traffic must be on different networks to ensure maximum throughput for the phone data. Which network device can be best connected to the phones and computers, and which technology will be performed on this device? (Choose two.)
A. hub
B. router
C. switch
D. stp
E. subinterfaces
F. VLAN
Correct Answer: CF

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
You are designing a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express system with four requirements:
250 configured agents

150 agents maximum logged in at any given time

30 agents able to make outbound calls

20 agents able to answer emails
How many premium seats should be purchased?
A. 150 seats
B. 180 seats
C. 200 seats
D. 250 seats

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
In Cisco Unified Contact Center Express, where is wrap-up data enabled?
A. in the Cisco Supervisor Desktop
B. in CSQ configuration on Application Administration
C. in workflow groups on Cisco Desktop Work Flow Administrator
D. in resource configuration on Application Administration

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 3
Which criterion can be used to control supervisor workflows?
A. length of time an agent is in the NotReady state
B. number of agents logged in
C. number of calls abandoned
D. duration of oldest call in queue

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 4
In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express deployment with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, which feature is disabled on the Cisco Agent Desktop?
A. recording
B. monitoring
C. embedded browser
D. call-control buttons

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 4 Cisco 642-165 Exam

QUESTION 5
Where are Cisco Unified CCX users managed and their data stored when deployed with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express?
A. in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express database
B. in Application Administration with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express database
C. in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express database
D. in Application Administration with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express database

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 6
How is the default eMail address in the eMail Subsystem Configuration page used?
A. It receives all mail sent in the Send eMail step as a bcc.
B. It is the From address for emails sent by agents using Agent E-mail.
C. It is used if no email contact is specified in the Create eMail step.
D. It becomes the From address in the Send eMail step if no address is specified.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 7
Which configuration object can have skills assigned to it in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. Contact Service Queue
B. Skill Groups
C. Resource Groups
D. competence levels

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 8
Which three fields are used in defining a CSQ in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Enhanced? (Choose three.)
A. Agent Name
B. WrapUp Time
C. Service Level
D. Overflow CSQ
E. Automatic Work
F. CCX Application

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 5 Cisco 642-165 Exam
QUESTION 9
Which type of information is available from the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Control Center?
A. database replication status
B. system parameters configuration
C. date and time of most recent failure
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster status

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 10
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express platform set supports the use of an embedded Internet browser within the Cisco Agent Desktop?
A. Premium only
B. Enhanced and Premium only
C. Standard, Enhanced, and Premium
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express does not support an embedded Internet browser

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 11
Which deployment option is invalid for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. a two-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster
B. a one-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to two Cisco Unified Communications Manager clusters
C. a one-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router
D. two Cisco Unified Contact Center Express clusters, each with two nodes, connected to the same Cisco Unified Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 12
Which three features are included in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Supervisor Desktop? (Choose three.)
A. graphical reports
B. dockable windows
C. access to chat logs
D. URL push to agents
E. send an email to an agent
F. send a call in queue to a specific agent

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 6 Cisco 642-165 Exam
QUESTION 13
Which three Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Application Administration tasks may be performed by a supervisor who does not have administrative privilege? (Choose three.)
A. Delete a resource group.
B. Remove a skill from a CSQ.
C. Enable automatic work on a CSQ.
D. Modify the skill competence level of an agent.
E. Create a resource.
F. Delete a skill.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 14
Which three statements describe the importing of contacts into a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express campaign? (Choose three.)
A. Phone1 is the only mandatory field.
B. Up to three custom fields can be added.
C. List filtering for “Do Not Call” is unsupported.
D. When records have matching phone numbers, only one record is created.
E. Imports can be automatically executed on a weekly basis.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 15
In Cisco Unified CCX Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Telephony group?
A. CTI Ports
B. CTI Route Point
C. Cisco Unified CCX Call Control Group
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Call Control Group
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which codec should be selected when a Cisco Unified CCX cluster uses ASR?
A. G.711
B. G.723
C. G.729
D. Any codec works fine with ASR.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 17
Select a statement about the Call Subflow step that is not true.
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 7 Cisco 642-165 Exam
A. A subflow can access all variables in the calling script.
B. When the Call Subflow step executes, you can transfer values of variables from the calling flow to the subflow.
C. After the Call Subflow step executes, you can transfer values of variables from the subflow to the calling flow.
D. The same subflow can be invoked from different scripts.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 18
Which three of the following tasks can be performed using Cisco Unified Real-Time Monitoring Tool? (Choose three.)
A. collect trace files
B. stop and start Cisco Unified CCX services
C. view syslog messages
D. perform backup and restore functions
E. monitor the health of the Cisco Unified CCX system

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 19
Which tool is used to size Cisco Unified CCX?
A. Analysis Manager
B. Cisco Unified Communications Sizing Tool
C. Expert Advisor
D. Cisco Unified Real-Time Monitoring Tool
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which two releases require physical media to be ordered and received prior to patching or upgrading Cisco Unified Contact Center Express? (Choose two.)
A. minor release
B. major release
C. service update
D. engineering special

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 21
Which step library is included in the license for Cisco Unified CCX Standard?
A. ICM steps
B. email steps
C. document steps “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 8 Cisco 642-165 Exam
D. database steps

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 22
Which three tasks can an agent perform on the Cisco Agent Desktop? (Choose three.)
A. chat with an SME
B. send an email to an SME
C. send enterprise data to an SME
D. transfer a call to an SME
E. start a Cisco WebEx session with an SME

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 23
Which three tasks can an agent perform using email? (Choose three.)
A. save the response as a draft
B. send the response to the supervisor for review
C. transfer the email to another CSQ
D. transfer the email to another agent
E. mark the email as urgent
F. mark the email as junk
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 24
Where are CTI route points added or configured for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Media Subsystem
B. Cisco Unified CallManager Device Configuration
C. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Directory Management
D. Cisco Supervisor Desktop
E. Cisco CRS Administration, JTAPI Trigger Creation

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 25
Which three components are installed from the Cisco CRS Installer media? (Choose three.)
A. iPlanet Web Server
B. Cisco CRS Engine
C. Cisco Recording
D. Cisco IP Telephony Windows 2000 Server OS
E. Cisco Unified CallManager
F. MS SQL Server “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 9 Cisco 642-165 Exam

Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 26
What is the maximum number of CTI ports that can be supported by a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 8.0 Standard deployment?
A. 150
B. 200
C. 300
D. 400

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 27
Which two items are automatically installed on the Cisco Unified CCX server by the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Installer? (Choose two.)
A. IVR System Prompts
B. Cisco Supervisor Desktop
C. Unified Communications Operating System
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. Workforce Management

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 28
Where can you start, stop, and restart Cisco Unified Contact Center Express services?
A. Control Center on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Serviceability
B. System page on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Administration
C. Cisco Desktop Administrator
D. Cisco Unified Communications Operating System Administration

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 29
Which tool is used to estimate the hardware server resources that are required for a Cisco Unified CCX deployment?
A. IPC Resource Calculator
B. CTI Port Calculator
C. Cisco Unified Communications Sizing Tool
D. Cisco Unified CCX Applications Administration

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 30
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 10 Cisco 642-165 Exam
How many languages can be installed for the Cisco Agent Desktop (CAD) and the Cisco Supervisor Desktop (CSD)?
A. one language for both the CAD and the CSD
B. one language for the CAD and a different language for the CSD
C. two languages for the CAD and one language for the CSD
D. two languages for both the CAD and the CSD

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 31
Which statement is true about the default script field when adding an application?
A. When a caller does not enter a choice in a Menu step, it will execute the default script.
B. Any problems running the configured script will cause the default script to be executed.
C. When the caller enters a digit in the Menu step that is not defined, the default script will be executed.
D. When the caller enters a digit that is not checked in the filter of the Get Digit String step, the default script will be executed.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 32
Which step can be used to trap runtime script errors and recover gracefully?
A. Set
B. Call Subflow
C. On Exception Goto
D. Get Reporting Statistic

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 33
Which two steps check out a database connection from the connection pool? (Choose two.)
A. DB Get
B. DB Read
C. DB Write
D. DB Release

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 34
If the Call Redirect step sends a caller to a device that does not exist in the CallManager, which branch of the step is executed?
A. Busy
B. Invalid
C. Successful “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 11 Cisco 642-165 Exam
D. Unsuccessful

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 35
Which step is designed to prompt a user to press or say a single-digit number to perform a specific function?
A. Menu
B. Get Digit String
C. Get Call Contact Info
D. Extended Get Digit String

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 36
Which step would you use to get information about the number of contacts currently in queue?
A. Get Contact Info
B. Get Session Info
C. Get Call Contact Info
D. Get Reporting Statistics

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 37
How can you configure the Prompt step to play different prompts following subsequent timeouts or retries?
A. Configure it as a Generated Prompt.
B. Configure it as a Random Container Prompt.
C. Configure it as an Escalating Container Prompt.
D. Configure it as a Concatenated Container Prompt.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 38
What formula do you use to calculate the number of agents in a Call Center?
A. Erlang B
B. Erlang C
C. AHT * BHCA
D. VG ports + IVR ports

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 39
What formula do you use to calculate the number of Voice Gateway ports?
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 12 Cisco 642-165 Exam
A. Erlang A
B. Erlang B
C. Erlang C
D. IVR ports + agent phones

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Cisco 642-165 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 642-165 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification
QUESTION 40
What does it mean for a variable in the Application Editor to be defined as a parameter?
A. The variable can be used to pass data to and from subflows.
B. The value for that variable can be supplied via Application Configuration in Application Administration.
C. The value for that variable is defined by the calling application.
D. The variable can be used in conditional steps.
E. The variable can be used to pass data to and from VoiceXML applications.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 41
What can help expose problems with script logic or validity by simulating the execution of a script?
A. Alarm and Trace Configuration
B. debug session
C. script validation
D. script refresh

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 42
What is the maximum number of agents supported on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express deployment?
A. 10 agents
B. 50 agents
C. 100 agents
D. 300 agents

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 43
Which configuration enables a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express server to fail over to a secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager server when the primary server fails?
A. No special configuration is needed.
B. Configure LDAP with a secondary profile. “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 13 Cisco 642-165 Exam
C. Configure a second Cisco Unified Communications Manager telephony user with an alternate range of CTI ports.
D. Configure the telephony provider with a primary and secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager IP address.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 44
Presence integration is a Cisco Unified CCX feature available in which of these packages?
A. Premium, Enhanced, and Standard
B. Premium only
C. Premium with high availability only
D. Premium and Enhanced

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 45
Which two tasks must an administrator perform on Cisco Desktop Administrator to support presence integration? (Choose two.)
A. Assign a contact list to a CSQ.
B. Assign a contact list to a workflow group.
C. Assign an SME to a contact list.
D. Assign a contact list to a skill.
E. Assign an SME to a CSQ.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation

Cisco 642-035 Vce Exams With VCE And PDF For Groundbreaking Results Download

Exam Description
The Cisco 642-035 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) is the exam associated with the Cisco Certified Network Associate certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) v1.0 course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The exam covers topics on VLSM and IPv6 addressing; extending switched networks with VLANs; configuring, verifying and troubleshooting VLANs; the VTP, RSTP, OSPF and EIGRP protocols; determining IP routes; managing IP traffic with access lists; NAT and DHCP; establishing point-to- point connections; and establishing Frame Relay connections.
Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Topic 1 – Configure, verify and troubleshoot a switch with VLANs and interswitch communications. (63 Questions) Describe enhanced switching technologies (including: VTP, RSTP, VLAN, PVSTP, 802.1q) Describe how VLANs create logically separate networks and the need for routing between them Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VLANs Configure, verify, and troubleshoot trunking on Cisco switches Configure, verify, and troubleshoot interVLAN routing Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VTP Configure, verify, and troubleshoot RSTP operation Interpret the output of various show and debug commands to verify the operational status of a Cisco switched network Implement basic switch security (including: port security, unassigned ports, trunk access, etc.)
Topic 2 – Implement IP addressing and Services(18 Questions) Calculate and apply a VLSM IP addressing design to a network Determine the appropriate classless addressing scheme using VLSM and summarization to satisfy addressing requirements in a LAN/WAN environment Describe the technological requirements for running IPv6 (including: protocols, dual stack, tunneling, etc) Describe IPv6 addresses Identify and correct common problems associated with IP addressing and host configurations
Topic 3 – Configure and troubleshoot basic operation and routing on Cisco devices. (69 Questions) Compare and contrast methods of routing and routing protocols Configure, verify and troubleshoot OSPF Configure, verify and troubleshoot EIGRP Verify configuration and connectivity using ping, traceroute, and telnet or SSH Troubleshoot routing implementation issues Verify router hardware and software operation using SHOW DEBUG commands Implement basic router security
Topic 4 – Implement, verify, and troubleshoot NAT and ACLs in a medium-size Enterprise branch office network. (20 Questions) Describe the purpose and types of access control lists Configure and apply access control lists based on network filtering requirements Configure and apply an access control list to limit telnet and SSH access to the router Verify and monitor ACL’s in a network environment Troubleshoot ACL implementation issues Explain the basic operation of NAT Configure Network Address Translation for given network requirements using CLI Troubleshoot NAT implementation issues
Topic 5 – Implement and verify WAN links. (24 Questions) Configure and verify Frame Relay on Cisco routers Troubleshoot WAN implementation issues Describe VPN technology (including: importance, benefits, role, impact, components) Configure and vary PPP connection between Cisco routers

 

Exam A
QUESTION 1
A customer is trying to boot an operating system that is installed on the eUSB on a Cisco UCS B- Series blade server; however, the boot fails. What is the cause of this failure?
A. The local disk must be the first device in the boot order.
B. eUSB is not a supported boot device.
C. eUSB support is available only on the Cisco UCS C-Series rack server.
D. eUSB is not the first device in the boot order for the server.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
A customer is troubleshooting degraded DIMM errors on a Cisco UCS blade server and would like to reset the BMC. What is the correct command sequence to reset the BMC?
A. UCS1-A# server x/y UCS1-A /chassis/server # scope bmc UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc # reset UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc* # commit-buffer
B. UCS1-A# server scope UCS1-A /chassis/server # scope bmc UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc # reset UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc* # commit-buffer
C. UCS1-A# scope server x/y UCS1-A /chassis/server # scope bmc UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc # reset UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc* # commit-buffer
D. UCS1-A# scope server x/y UCS1-A /chassis/server # scope bmc UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc* # commit-buffer

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which commands can you enter to see if a component in the Cisco UCS domain generated a core file?
A. 6100-A# scope monitoring 6100-A /monitoring # scope sysdebug 6100-A /monitoring/sysdebug # show cores Core Files: Name Fabric ID
B. 6100-A# scope sysdebug 6100-A /sysdebug # scope monitoring 6100-A /sysdebug/monitoring # show cores Core Files: Name Fabric ID
C. 6100-A# scope system 6100-A /system # scope monitoring 6100-A /system/monitoring # show cores Core Files: Name Fabric ID
D. 6100-A# scope cores 6100-A /cores # show cores Core Files: Name Fabric ID
E. 6100-A# scope logging 6100-A /logging # scope monitoring 6100-A /logging/monitoring # show cores Core Files: Name Fabric ID

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which four tech support files can you create with the Cisco UCS Manager that you can submit to Cisco TAC for support?
A. UCSM
B. disk LUNs
C. fabric extender
D. memory
E. rack server
F. chassis
G. server cache

Correct Answer: ACEF
QUESTION 5
Which protocols can be used to send to Cisco TAC (Technical Assistance Center) the show tech- support command output information about the Cisco UCS domain?
A. TFTP
B. FTP
C. SCP
D. Telnet
E. SecureTelnet

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6
The Cisco UCS Manager displays FSM information for which four of these?
A. which FSM task is being executed
B. the current state of an FSM task
C. the status of the previous FSM task
D. any error codes returned while processing
E. all completed FSM tasks
F. multiple FSM tasks that completed over multiple tries
G. multiple FSM tasks that failed
Correct Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 7
How will the Cisco UCS Manager react when all of the FSM tasks fail?
A. retries for 60 seconds
B. raises faults and alarms
C. restarts from the previous known good task
D. sends an NOC SNMP trap email

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
What should you do when you see faults during the initial setup and discovery process?
A. Take note and address the faults.
B. You can safely ignore these faults.
C. Log them and try to address the first one.
D. Reboot until the error messages go away.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
When using the Cisco UCS Manager GUI to troubleshoot a suspected bad memory, which logs contain data that are related to the faulty DIMM?
A. the System Event log and Faults log that are located under the Admin tab
B. the Events log and Faults log that are located under the Admin tab
C. the System Event log that is located under the Server tab in the Navigation panel and the Faults log that is located under the Admin tab
D. the System Event log that is located under the Equipment tab and the Faults log that is located under the Admin tab

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which three are valid tech support bundles to collect in the local management shell? (Choose three.)
A. UCSM
B. UCSM-MGMT
C. Port-Channel
D. Adapter
E. SAN
F. FEX

Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 11
The Core File Exporter automatically exports cores to a remote server as they are generated. Which protocol does it use for this action?
A. FTP
B. SCP
C. SFTP
D. TFTP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which log file in Cisco UCS Manager contains information about which user took a specific action?
A. user access log
B. system change log
C. audit log
D. access control log
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
Which statement is true about system event logs?
A. By default, they require manual clearing.
B. They report operating system crashes and errors.
C. They are also referred to as system error logs.
D. They can only be accessed from Cisco UCS Manager.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
Which piece of information does the FSM provide?
A. the current task and status
B. a collection of blade statistics
C. the last user to access the resource
D. a list of faults currently suppressed by the Cisco UCS Manager

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Which of these does not have an FSM associated with it?
A. vCenter connection
B. service profile
C. server hardware
D. service profile templates

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

Which tab would be the most useful for troubleshooting a blade discovery problem?
A. Faults
B. Events
C. FSM
D. Servers

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
RBAC is a method of restricting access for a particular user on which two of these? (Choose two.)
A. roles
B. realm
C. locales
D. RADIUS
E. LDAP

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 18
Which two types of ports does end host mode switching have? (Choose two.)
A. VSS
B. border
C. router
D. server
E. STP
F. client

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 19
In a Cisco UCS environment, what are the three power types in a power policy? (Choose three.)
A. backup
B. grid
C. redund
D. n-plus-1
E. non-redund
F. plus-1

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 20
When a service profile is disassociated from a server, what happens to the identity and connectivity information for the server?
A. It is cleared and set to the default that was setup initially by the first configuration.
B. It is maintained and can be reused.
C. It is reset to factory defaults.
D. It uses master service profile parameters.
E. It takes parameters of other servers in the service profile.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
At any given time, each server can be associated with how many service profiles?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
E. unlimited
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
In new Cisco UCS release 2.0 installations, what are the default VLAN IDs?
A. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 4048, FCOE default VLAN ID 4048
B. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 1, FCOE default VLAN ID is 3968
C. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 1, FCOE default VLAN ID is 2
D. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 2, FCOE default VLAN ID is 4047
E. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 1, FCOE default VLAN ID is 4048

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 23
If a server is not associated with a service profile, the activated firmware remains pending. Which two steps should you take? (Choose two.)
A. Manually reboot the server.
B. Reset the server to a new profile.
C. Reset the unassociated server to activate the firmware.
D. Reinitialize the firmware process with Cisco UCS Manager.
E. Download the firmware and start over.
F. Shut down gracefully and start over.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 24
After migrating a server that is configured with dynamic vNICs, Cisco UCS Manager assigns new dynamic vNICs to the server. If you had been monitoring traffic on an original dynamic vNIC, what must you do when the server comes back up?”
A. Reassign the dynamic vNIC back to the old configuration.
B. Nothing; Cisco UCS Manager will take over.
C. Reassign the service profile back to the master one.
D. Remove and reconfigure the dynamic vNIC.
E. Reassign the monitoring source.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.

Using RBAC for security in a Cisco UCS environment, what is seen in the exhibit?
A. custom role
B. default role
C. LDAP group map
D. external service profile

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.

Which of these is an extension of the virtual machine abstraction that is applied to physical servers?
A. service profile
B. compute profile
C. organization profile
D. locale profile
E. role profile

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 27
Which two Cisco Nexus 2000-Series Fabric Extenders support connections to both Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 2248TP
B. Cisco Nexus 2248TP-E
C. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
D. Cisco Nexus 2232TM

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 28
UCS-A# scope eth-uplink UCS-A /eth-uplink # scope fabric a UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric # scope interface 2 3 UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric/interface # create mon-src Monitor23 UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric/interface/mon-src* # set direction receive UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric/interface/mon-src* # commit-buffer What does the command scope interface 2 3 in the above CLI command sequence do on a Cisco UCS
blade server?
A. enters the interface command mode for the specified uplink port
B. enters the interface command mode for the specified Fabric A
C. enters the interface command mode for the specified Fabric B
D. enters slot 3 port 2 specified uplink port

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 29
A customer is configuring SAN pin groups in a Cisco UCS domain. The customer notices that pinning is not working and traffic from the vHBA is not passing over the Fibre Channel uplink port. Which of these must be done for pinning to work correctly?
A. Include the SAN pin group in a vHBA policy and then include the vHBA policy in the service profile that is assigned to that server.
B. Include the SAN policy in the Cisco UCS Manager to match with pin groups on the fabric interconnect.
C. The customer must have Cisco UCS Manager version 2.0 or above.
D. Fibre Channel switch mode needs to be configured first.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 30
A customer is configuring LAN pin groups in a Cisco UCS domain. The customer has two fabric interconnects and would like to associate the pin group with only one interconnect. Which statement about this configuration is true?
A. In a system with two fabric interconnects, you can associate the pin group with only one fabric interconnect, and the other fabric interconnect will not be usable.
B. In a system with two fabric interconnects, you can only associate the pin group with both fabric interconnects; you cannot associate the pin group with only one fabric interconnect.
C. In a system with two fabric interconnects, you can associate the pin group with only one fabric interconnect or with both fabric interconnect. This is a supported configuration.
D. This configuration is not supported in a Cisco UCS domain.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 31
A customer is configuring an upstream disjoint Layer 2 network in a Cisco UCS domain. So far they have
configured the following:
Fabric Interconnects are in switching mode.
There is symmetrical configuration for high availability.
There are no overlapping VLANs.
Each vNIC is communicating with one disjoint Layer 2 network.
After validating the above, the customer is still having issues with network connectivity. What is the issue?

A. Overlapping VLANs are allowed in a disjoint Layer 2 network.
B. The vNIC configuration is incorrect and must communicate with two or more disjoint layer 2 networks.
C. The fabric interconnect must be in end-host mode for a disjoint Layer 2 network.
D. Asymmetrical configuration for high availability needs to be configured.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
A customer is configuring a network control policy in a Cisco UCS domain. The network control policy configures the network control settings for the Cisco UCS domain, including which three of these? (Choose three.)
A. how the VIF behaves if no uplink port is available in end-host mode
B. the action that the Cisco UCS Manager takes on the remote Ethernet interface, vEthernet interface, or vFibreChannel interface when the associated border port fails
C. Layer 2 switching on the fabric interconnect
D. whether MAC registration occurs on a per-vNIC basis or for all VLANs
E. the end-host mode setting on the I/O module

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 33
A customer is troubleshooting QoS in a Cisco UCS domain due to high packet drops in the network. The customer has configured the vNIC and associated QoS policy, and changed the MTU from 1000 to 1200. Packet drops still exist. What is the cause of this issue?
A. The MTU specified here must be greater than the MTU specified in the associated QoS system class. If this MTU value is less than the MTU value in the QoS system class, packets may be dropped during data transmission.
B. The MTU specified here must be equal to or less than the MTU specified in the associated QoS system class. If this MTU value exceeds the MTU value in the QoS system class, packets may be dropped during data transmission.
C. The MTU specified here must be less than the MTU specified in the associated QoS system policy. If this MTU value exceeds the MTU value in the QoS system policy, packets may be not be dropped during data transmission.
D. The MTU must be optimized and should be changed to fc with the CLI command set mtu fc.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
A customer is configuring the dynamic vNIC connection policy in a Cisco UCS domain. Why is the dynamic vNIC policy required?
A. It is only required if you are configuring VM-FEX.
B. It is only required if you are configuring Adapter-FEX.
C. It is mainly for the Cisco UCS Manager to communicate with the fabric interconnect.
D. It is required for Cisco UCS instances that include servers with VIC adapters on which you have installed VMs and configured dynamic vNICs.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
What is the default number of dynamic vNICs that is specified by the Cisco UCS Manager when creating a dynamic vNIC connection policy?
A. 54
B. 128
C. 256
D. 257

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
Looking at the Equipment > Chassis > Servers > Server X view from the Cisco UCS Manager GUI, which tab would you select to identify the fabric interconnect uplink associated with a given virtual circuit?
A. Paths
B. vNIC Paths
C. Virtual Circuit Paths
D. VIF Paths

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
While attempting to boot a Cisco UCS server from SAN, you are unable to see the LUN. Which of these are causing the problem? (Choose three.)
A. VHBA template
B. RAID policy
C. zoning
D. LUN ID
E. vACLs
F. disjoint fabrics

Correct Answer: ACD

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QUESTION 1
What are two features of a bridge? (Choose two.)
A. reliable transmission
B. operate at OSI Layer 2
C. operate at OSI Layer 3
D. create multiple broadcast domains
E. create multiple collision domains
F. flood input packets to all ports
G. drop IP packets with invalid destination ports
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 2
What are three reasons that switches supersede bridges? (Choose three.)
A. Smaller frame buffers decrease latency.
B. Forward, filter, or flood frames.
C. Multiple simultaneous communications between ports.
D. Larger inspection engine allows for higher throughput.
E. Switches have many ports.
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 3
Which statement describes the purpose of the MAC address forwarding table of a switch?
A. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the best route to a destination.
B. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the output port.
C. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if the packet is routable.
D. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if access control permits the packet.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
What are two attributes of a VLAN? (Choose two.)
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 4 Cisco 640-911 Exam
A. A VLAN defines a collision domain.
B. A VLAN defines a broadcast domain.
C. Broadcasts are flooded to all VLANs.
D. Collisions are flooded to all VLANs.
E. A Layer 3 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
F. A Layer 2 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
Which four statements indicate unique properties of VLAN 1 on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose four.)
A. VLAN 1 is used to flood multicast traffic.
B. VLAN 1 cannot be deleted.
C. VLAN 1 is used for Cisco Discovery Protocol.
D. VLAN 1 is used for VTP advertisements.
E. VLAN 1 defines a collision domain.
F. VLAN 1 defines a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: BCDF
QUESTION 6
Which VTP mode disallows the creation of local VLANs?
A. transparent
B. tunneling
C. server
D. client
E. off
F. native

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which three statements are true concerning RFC 1918 IP addresses? (Choose three.)
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 5 Cisco 640-911 Exam
A. They are globally routable.
B. They are not globally routable.
C. They must not be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
D. They should be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
E. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/16, and 192.168.1.0/24.
F. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/21, and 192.168.0.0/16.

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 8
What are three reasons to migrate from IPv4 to IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. IPv6 eliminates the requirement for NAT.
B. IPv6 includes enough IP addresses to allocate more than four billion IP addresses to every person on earth.
C. IPv6 eliminates the need for VLANs.
D. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DHCP.
E. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DNS.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 9
Which two options describe services that are provided by TCP? (Choose two.)
A. session multiplexing
B. EtherTypes identify destination services
C. connection-oriented
D. best-effort packet delivery
E. binary translation
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10
Which two options represent a subnet mask that allows for a maximum of 14 available host addresses on a subnet? (Choose two.)
A. 255.255.255.240
B. 255.255.255.192
C. 255.255.240.0
D. 255.255.192.0
E. /14
F. /21
G. /26
H. /28
Correct Answer: AH
QUESTION 11
What is the binary value of the hexadecimal number 0x511?
A. 10100011001
B. 10101010101
C. 10110010001
D. 10100010001
E. 10100110011
Correct Answer: D

Cisco 640-911 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 640-911 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification
QUESTION 12
What are three modular Layer 2 processes in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose three.)
A. UDLD
B. PIM “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 7 Cisco 640-911 Exam

C. HSRP
D. STP
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol

F. OSPF
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 13
What are three modular Layer 3 processes in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose three.)
A. UDLD
B. PIM
C. HSRP
D. STP

E. OSPF
F. Cisco Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 14
On most keyboards, the Up arrow and Down arrow keys move through the command history. Which two key sequences can be used as alternatives? (Choose two.)
A. Alt-A
B. Alt-F
C. Alt-N
D. Alt-E
E. Alt-P

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 15
Where does Cisco Nexus Operating System store the running configuration file?
A. RAM
B. flash
C. bootflash
D. volatile

E. NVRAM
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Where does Cisco Nexus Operating System store the startup configuration file?
A. RAM
B. flash
C. bootflash
D. volatile

E. NVRAM
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 17
What is the minimum required command to enter global configuration mode on a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. nexus# con “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 9 Cisco 640-911 Exam
B. nexus# configure
C. nexus# configure global
D. nexus# configure terminal

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which option would you use to exit the Cisco Nexus Operating System interface configuration mode and return to the exec prompt?
A. nexus(config-if)#Ctrl-C nexus#
B. nexus(config-if)#Ctrl-Z nexus#
C. nexus(config-if)#Ctrl-E nexus#
D. nexus(config-if)#exit nexus#
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
What is the correct format of an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny FTP traffic from any source to destination host 10.10.1.110?
A. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq ftp
B. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq ftp
C. N5K-A(config)#access-list 101deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq ftp N5K-A(config)#access-list 101denyip any any
D. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# denyudp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
E. N5K-A(config)# ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110 eq 21 “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 10 Cisco 640-911 Exam N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any

Correct Answer: E
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Exam A QUESTION 1
1
Which two networking devices operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub

Correct Answer: AE QUESTION 2
2
Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address? (Choose two.)

A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 3
3
Which two network topologies are the most popular in switching? (Choose two.)

A. bus
B. token passing bus
C. star
D. extended star
E. ring

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 4
4
Which device would you select to partition a network into VLANs?

A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
5
At which layer of the OSI model does TCP operate?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
6
Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet forwarding based on destination IP address? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
7
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams?
A. datagram
B. routing
C. network
D. data link
E. transport
F. transmission
G. session
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8
8
Which three terms are used to describe data at Layers 1, 2, and 4 of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
A. PDUs
B. bits
C. sequences
D. segments
E. packets
F. frames
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 9
9
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite application layer? (Choose two.)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 10
10
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite network access layer? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
11
In an IEEE 802.3 Ethernet frame, what is the significance of the DSAP field?
A. The DSAP field specifies the TCP or UDP port that is associated with the transport protocol.
B. The DSAP field is only used on United States Department of Defense networks to indicate the information classification level.
C. The DSAP field is only used in Ethernet II frames.
D. The DSAP field indicates the network layer protocol.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
12
Which field in an Ethernet II frame performs the same function as the DSAP field in an 802.3 Ethernet frame?
A. start of frame
B. EtherType
C. frame check sequence
D. Subnetwork Access Protocol
E. Logical Link Control
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
13
What are two features of a bridge? (Choose two.)
A. reliable transmission
B. operate at OSI Layer 2
C. operate at OSI Layer 3
D. create multiple broadcast domains
E. create multiple collision domains
F. flood input packets to all ports
G. drop IP packets with invalid destination ports

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 14
14
What are three reasons that switches supersede bridges? (Choose three.)
A. Smaller frame buffers decrease latency.
B. Forward, filter, or flood frames.
C. Multiple simultaneous communications between ports.
D. Larger inspection engine allows for higher throughput.
E. Switches have many ports.

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 15
15
What action does a switch take if the destination MAC address is unknown?
A. discard frame
B. send ICMP unreachable message to source
C. flood packet on all ports
D. compare destination IP address against an ACL to determine if it is permitted
E. send gratuitous ARP on all ports and wait for reply before forwarding

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
16
Which statement describes the purpose of the MAC address forwarding table of a switch?
A. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the best route to a destination.
B. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the output port.
C. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if the packet is routable.
D. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if access control permits the packet.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
17
What are two attributes of a VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. A VLAN defines a collision domain.
B. A VLAN defines a broadcast domain.
C. Broadcasts are flooded to all VLANs.
D. Collisions are flooded to all VLANs.
E. A Layer 3 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
F. A Layer 2 device is required to route packets between VLANs.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 18
18
Which four statements indicate unique properties of VLAN 1 on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose four.)
A. VLAN 1 is used to flood multicast traffic.
B. VLAN 1 cannot be deleted.
C. VLAN 1 is used for Cisco Discovery Protocol.
D. VLAN 1 is used for VTP advertisements.
E. VLAN 1 defines a collision domain.
F. VLAN 1 defines a broadcast domain.

Correct Answer: BCDF
QUESTION 19
19
Which command displays the Trunking Native Mode VLAN on port Ethernet 1/18?
A. show running-config switchport e1/18
B. show running-config e1/18 switchport
C. show interface e1/18
D. show interface e1/18 switchport
E. show interface e1/18 native

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
20
Which VTP mode disallows the creation of local VLANs?
A. transparent
B. tunneling
C. server
D. client
E. off
F. native
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
21
Which three statements are true concerning RFC 1918 IP addresses? (Choose three.)
A. They are globally routable.
B. They are not globally routable.
C. They must not be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
D. They should be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
E. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/16, and 192.168.1.0/24.
F. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/21, and 192.168.0.0/16.

Correct Answer: BDF QUESTION 22
22
Which two statements describe the purpose of RFC 1918? (Choose two.)

A. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to the growing use of multicast video.
B. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to the growing use of peer-to-peer file-sharing applications.
C. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to use on internal networks.
D. Establish a range of IP addresses to address the shrinking pool of globally routable addresses.
E. Delay the transition to IPv6.

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 23
23
What are three reasons to migrate from IPv4 to IPv6? (Choose three.)

A. IPv6 eliminates the requirement for NAT.
B. IPv6 includes enough IP addresses to allocate more than four billion IP addresses to every person on earth.
C. IPv6 eliminates the need for VLANs.
D. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DHCP.
E. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DNS.

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 24
24
Which two options describe services that are provided by TCP? (Choose two.)

A. session multiplexing
B. EtherTypes identify destination services
C. connection-oriented
D. best-effort packet delivery
E. binary translation

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 25
25
Which two options describe services that are provided by UDP? (Choose two.)

A. session multiplexing
B. segmentation
C. connection-oriented
D. reliable packet delivery
E. best-effort packet delivery Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 26
26
Which two options represent a subnet mask that allows for a maximum of 14 available host addresses on a subnet? (Choose two.)
A. 255.255.255.240
B. 255.255.255.192
C. 255.255.240.0
D. 255.255.192.0
E. /14
F. /21
G. /26
H. /28
Correct Answer: AH
QUESTION 27
27
What is the binary value of the hexadecimal number 0x511?
A. 10100011001
B. 10101010101
C. 10110010001
D. 10100010001
E. 10100110011
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
28
What is the binary value of the decimal number 1263?
A. 11011101101
B. 10011101111
C. 10011101011
D. 11010001111
E. 10111101111
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
29
Which option is an example of a distance vector routing protocol?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. ARP
D. IS-IS
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Which option is an example of an advanced distance vector routing protocol?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF

D. ARP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
31
Which option is an example of a link-state routing protocol?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. ARP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
32
What is the maximum allowable hop count for RIPv1?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 15
E. 16
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
33
What is the default periodic interval at which RIPv1 sends routing updates?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
E. 90 seconds
F. RIPv1 only sends routing updates when the topology changes.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
34
What does RIPv1 send to its neighbors?
A. information about changed routes
B. information about new routes
C. the entire routing table
D. information about deleted routes

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
35
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 36
36
Which statement correctly describes an SVI?

A. An SVI is a Layer 2 interface and uses a dynamic MAC address.
B. An SVI cannot have an IP address assigned to it.
C. An SVI provides Layer 3 routing between VLANs.
D. Each switch port requires an SVI assignment.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
37
What is the Cisco Nexus Operating System command to define a port as a Layer 3 port?

A. port routed
B. no switchport
C. l3 switchport
D. port switching off

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38
38
Which statement is correct regarding a routed port on a multilayer switch?

A. A routed port requires an SVI definition.
B. Routed ports cannot be configured on a multilayer switch that uses SVIs.
C. A maximum of 32 routed ports can be provisioned on a given multilayer switch.
D. A routed port is a physical port that supports Layer 3 routing.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
39
On a new Cisco Nexus switch, you receive an error message when you attempt to create an SVI. What is the first command you must use to create the SVI?
A. interface vlan (vlan_id)
B. vlan (vlan_id)
C. feature svi
D. interface routed

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
40
Which command should you use to configure a Cisco Nexus switch port for Layer 2 operation?
A. nexus(config-if)#switchport
B. nexus(config-if)#layer-2
C. nexus(config-if)#routed
D. nexus(config)#interface vlan 10 nexus(config-if)#switchport

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
41
Which version of Cisco Nexus Operating System became a common operating system for Cisco Nexus switches and Cisco MDS storage switches?
A. 2.7
B. 3.3
C. 3.9
D. 4.1
E. 5.01GD
F. 6.2
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
42
What are two core features of Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose two.)
A. SNMPv3
B. RMON
C. System Manager

D. PSS
E. VRF
F. TRILL
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 43
43
What is the acronym expansion of the UDLD feature of Cisco Nexus Operating System?
A. UniDirectional Link Detection
B. Unified Data Link Distribution
C. Unified Data Loss Detection
D. Unified Directional Link Distribution
E. Unidirectional Data Loss Detection
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
44
What are four security features that are included in Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco TrustSec
B. IEEE 802.1Qau
C. CoPP
D. port security
E. PIM
F. SSL VPN
G. IPsec VPN
H. ACLs
Correct Answer: ACDH

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. The junior network support staff provided the diagram as a recommended configuration for the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project. The entire network expansion will have over 1000 users on 14 network segments and has been allocated this IP address space:
192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255
192.168.100.1 through 198.168.100.255
What are three problems with this design? (Choose three.)
A. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
B. The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
C. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space.
D. The network address space that is provided requires a single network-wide mask.
E. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.
F. The broadcast domain in AREA 1 is too large for IP to function.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 2
A network administrator is connecting PC hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet interfaces as shown in the graphic. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts? (Choose two.)
A. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
B. A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable
C. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192.
D. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
E. The hosts must be reconfigured to use private IP addresses for direct connections of this type.
F. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 3
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
C. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
D. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
E. to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which two statements best describe the wireless security standard that is defined by WPA? (Choose two.)
A. It specifies use of a static encryption key that must be changed frequently to enhance security.
B. It requires use of an open authentication method.
C. It specifies the use of dynamic encryption keys that change each time a client establishes a connection.
D. It requires that all access points and wireless devices use the same encryption key.
E. It includes authentication by PSK.
Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 5

Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Host A needs to send data to Host B. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will be used to send the data from Host A to Host B?
A. 192.168.60.5 and 0011.43da.2c98
B. 192.168.60.5 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
C. 192.168.24.1 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
D. 192.168.24.2 and 0007.0e84.acef
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. The IP address space of 128.107.7.0/24 has been allocated for all devices on this network. All devices must use the same subnet mask and all subnets are usable.
Which subnet mask is required to apply the allocated address space to the configuration that is shown?
A. 255.255.254.0
B. 255.255.255.0
C. 255.255.255.128
D. 255.255.255.192
E. 255.255.255.224
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the WLAN diagram? (Choose two.)
A. The area of overlap of the two cells represents a basic service set (BSS).
B. The network diagram represents an extended service set (ESS).
C. Access points in each cell must be configured to use channel 1.
D. The area of overlap must be less than 10% of the area to ensure connectivity.
E. The two APs should be configured to operate on different channels.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 10
Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, which three addresses are valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.8.0
B. 172.16.9.0
C. 172.16.16.0
D. 172.16.20.0
E. 172.16.24.0
F. 172.16.31.0
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What could be the cause of the problem?
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
A single 802.11g access point has been configured and installed in the center of a square office. A few wireless users are experiencing slow performance and drops while most users are operating at peak efficiency. What are three likely causes of this problem? (Choose three.)
A. mismatched TKIP encryption
B. null SSID
C. cordless phones
D. mismatched SSID
E. metal file cabinets
F. antenna type or direction

Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 15
What two actions must a router take in order to route incoming packets? (Choose two.)
A. Identify the destination network address of each packet.
B. Identify the source network address of each packet.
C. Validate sources of routing information.
D. Inspect the routing table to select the best path to the destination network address.
E. Verify the receipt of routed packets by the next hop router.
F. Inspect the ARP table to verify a legitimate source MAC address for each packet.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?
A. It configures SSH globally for all logins.
B. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that fails to use Telnet.
C. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
D. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the virtual terminal ports.
E. It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 18
Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E. The network is not subnetted.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 19
After the router interfaces shown in the diagram have been configured, it is discovered that hosts in the Branch LAN cannot access the Internet. Further testing reveals additional connectivity issues. What will fix this problem?
A. Change the address of the Branch router LAN interface.
B. Change the address of the Branch router WAN interface.
C. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router LAN interface.
D. Change the address of the HQ router LAN interface.
E. Change the address of the HQ router interface to the Internet.
F. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router interface to the Internet.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit. Serial0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet0/0 LAN. How can this problem be corrected?
A. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.
B. Correct the IP address for Serial 0/0.
C. Correct the IP address for FastEthernet 0/0.
D. Change the encapsulation type on Serial 0/0.
E. Enable autoconfiguration on the Serial 0/0 interface.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?
A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface

Cisco 640-822 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 640-822 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification

 

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is configuring RTA to connect to a non-Cisco network. Which two commands would be applied to the S0/0 WAN interface, but not to the Fa0/0 LAN interface? (Choose two.)
A. speed
B. no shutdown
C. ip address
D. authentication pap
E. encapsulation ppp
Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 23
At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
E. application

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the exhibit is running the RIPv2 routing protocol. The network has converged, and the routers in this network are functioning properly.
The FastEthernet0/0 interface on R1 goes down. In which two ways will the routers in this network respond to this change? (Choose two.)
A. All routers will reference their topology database to determine if any backup routes to the 192.168.1.0 network are known.
B. Routers R2 and R3 mark the route as inaccessible and will not accept any further routing updates from R1 until their hold-down timers expire.
C. Because of the split-horizon rule, router R2 will be prevented from sending erroneous information to R1 about connectivity to the 192.168.1.0 network.
D. When router R2 learns from R1 that the link to the 192.168.1.0 network has been lost, R2 will respond by sending a route back to R1 with an infinite metric to the 192.168.1.0 network.
E. R1 will send LSAs to R2 and R3 informing them of this change, and then all routers will send periodic updates at an increased rate until the network again converges.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 25
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are four collision domains in the network.
E. There are five collision domains in the network.
F. There are seven collision domains in the network.

Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 26
The administrator is unable to establish connectivity between two Cisco routers. Upon reviewing the command output of both routers, what is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. Authentication needs to be changed to PAP for both routers.
B. Serial ip addresses of routers are not on the same subnet.
C. Username/password is incorrectly configured.
D. Router names are incorrectly configured.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. Workstation A must be able to telnet to switch SW-A through router RTA for
management purposes. What must be configured for this connection to be successful?
A. VLAN 1 on RTA
B. default gateway on SW-A
C. IP routing on SW-A
D. cross-over cable connecting SW-A and RTA

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
This graphic shows some common router ports. Which port can be used for a WAN T1 connection?
A. AUI
B. BRI
C. Console
D. Serial 0
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit. The goal of this network design is to provide the most efficient use of IP address space in a network expansion. Each circle defines a network segment and the number of users required on that segment. An IP subnetwork number and default gateway address are shown for each segment.
What are three problems with the network design as shown? (Choose three.)
A. Interface fa0/3 has an IP address that overlaps with network 10.1.1.0/30.
B. Interface fa0/1 has an invalid IP address for the subnet on which it resides.
C. Interface fa0/2 has an invalid IP address for the subnet on which it resides.
D. Network 10.1.2.0/25 requires more user address space.
E. Network 10.1.3.128/25 requires more user address space.
F. The IP subnet 10.1.1.0/30 is invalid for a segment with a single server.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown?
A. 1 – Ethernet crossover cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – fiber optic cable 4 – rollover cable
B. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
C. 1 – Ethernet rollover cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – null modem cable
D. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
E. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – Ethernet straight-through cable

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. For security reasons, information about RTA, including platform and IP addresses, should not be accessible from the Internet. This information should, however, be accessible to devices on the internal networks of RTA. Which command or series of commands will accomplish these objectives?
A. RTA(config)#no cdp run
B. RTA(config)#no cdp enable
C. RTA(config)#interface s0/0 RTA(config-if)#no cdp run
D. RTA(config)#interface s0/0 RTA(config-if)#no cdp enable

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
Which of the following describe private IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the Internet
B. addresses that cannot be routed through the public Internet
C. addresses that can be routed through the public Internet
D. a scheme to conserve public addresses
E. addresses licensed to enterprises or ISPs by an Internet registry organization

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 33
WAN data link encapsulation types include which of the following? (Choose two.)
A. T1
B. Frame Relay

C. DSL
D. PPP
E. ISDN
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit. A technician is testing connection problems in the internetwork. What is the problem indicated by the output from HostA?
A. The routing on Router2 is not functioning properly.
B. An access list is applied to an interface of Router3.
C. The Fa0/24 interface of Switch1 is down.
D. The gateway address of HostA is incorrect or not configured.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
Which of the following are found in a TCP header, but not in a UDP header? (Choose three.)
A. sequence number
B. acknowledgment number
C. source port
D. destination port
E. window size
F. checksum

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 36
The Hub and Spoke routers are directly connected through their serial interfaces for purposes of testing. Based on the output shown in the exhibit, what must be done to make the serial line operational?
A. Start the clock on the Hub router.
B. Change the IP address on the Spoke router.
C. Configure the serial 0/0 interface on the Spoke router with a clockrate.
D. Replace the broken cable between the two devices.
E. Use the no shutdown command on the Hub router.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?
A. 172.16.0.0
B. 172.16.128.0
C. 172.16.156.0
D. 172.16.159.0
E. 172.16.159.128
F. 172.16.192.0
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
What are two advantages of Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs? (Choose two.)
A. decreasing the number of collision domains
B. filtering frames based on MAC addresses
C. allowing simultaneous frame transmissions
D. increasing the size of broadcast domains
E. increasing the maximum length of UTP cabling between devices

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 39
When files are transferred between a host and an FTP server, the data is divided into smaller pieces for transmission. As these pieces arrive at the destination host, they must be reassembled to reconstruct the original file. What provides for the reassembly of these pieces into the correct order?
A. the TTL in the IP header
B. the frame check sequence in the Ethernet frame trailer
C. the sequence number in the TCP header
D. the Start Frame Delimiter in the 802.3 Preamble
E. the acknowledgement number in the segment header
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three.)
A. buffering
B. cut-through
C. windowing
D. congestion avoidance
E. load balancing

Correct Answer: ACD

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Refer to the exhibit. The junior network support staff provided the diagram as a recommended configuration for the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project. The entire network expansion will have over 1000 users on 14 network segments and has been allocated this IP address space:
192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255
192.168.100.1 through 198.168.100.255
What are three problems with this design? (Choose three.)
A. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
B. The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
C. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space.
D. The network address space that is provided requires a single network-wide mask.
E. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.
F. The broadcast domain in AREA 1 is too large for IP to function.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 4
A network administrator is connecting PC hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet interfaces as shown in the graphic. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts? (Choose two.)

A. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
B. A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable
C. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192.
D. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
E. The hosts must be reconfigured to use private IP addresses for direct connections of this type.
F. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.

Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 5
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
C. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
D. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
E. to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which two statements best describe the wireless security standard that is defined by WPA? (Choose two.)
A. It specifies use of a static encryption key that must be changed frequently to enhance security.
B. It requires use of an open authentication method.
C. It specifies the use of dynamic encryption keys that change each time a client establishes a connection.
D. It requires that all access points and wireless devices use the same encryption key.
E. It includes authentication by PSK.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Host A needs to send data to Host B. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will be used to send the data from Host A to Host B?

A. 192.168.60.5 and 0011.43da.2c98
B. 192.168.60.5 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
C. 192.168.24.1 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
D. 192.168.24.2 and 0007.0e84.acef

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. The IP address space of 128.107.7.0/24 has been allocated for all devices on this network. All devices must use the same subnet mask and all subnets are usable. Which subnet mask is required to apply the allocated address space to the configuration that is shown?

A. 255.255.254.0
B. 255.255.255.0
C. 255.255.255.128
D. 255.255.255.192
E. 255.255.255.224

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Correct Answer: BE

Cisco 640-822 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 640-822 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the WLAN diagram? (Choose two.)

A. The area of overlap of the two cells represents a basic service set (BSS).
B. The network diagram represents an extended service set (ESS).
C. Access points in each cell must be configured to use channel 1.
D. The area of overlap must be less than 10% of the area to ensure connectivity.
E. The two APs should be configured to operate on different channels.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 12
Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, which three addresses are valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.8.0
B. 172.16.9.0
C. 172.16.16.0
D. 172.16.20.0
E. 172.16.24.0
F. 172.16.31.0
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 13
Drop A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What could be the cause of the problem?

A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
A single 802.11g access point has been configured and installed in the center of a square office. A few wireless users are experiencing slow performance and drops while most users are operating at peak efficiency. What are three likely causes of this problem? (Choose three.)
A. mismatched TKIP encryption
B. null SSID
C. cordless phones
D. mismatched SSID
E. metal file cabinets
F. antenna type or direction

Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 18
What two actions must a router take in order to route incoming packets? (Choose two.)
A. Identify the destination network address of each packet.
B. Identify the source network address of each packet.
C. Validate sources of routing information.
D. Inspect the routing table to select the best path to the destination network address.
E. Verify the receipt of routed packets by the next hop router.
F. Inspect the ARP table to verify a legitimate source MAC address for each packet.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?

A. It configures SSH globally for all logins.
B. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that fails to use Telnet.
C. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
D. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the virtual terminal ports.
E. It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 21
Hotspot

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 22
Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E. The network is not subnetted.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 23
After the router interfaces shown in the diagram have been configured, it is discovered that hosts in the Branch LAN cannot access the Internet. Further testing reveals additional connectivity issues. What will fix this problem?

A. Change the address of the Branch router LAN interface.
B. Change the address of the Branch router WAN interface.
C. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router LAN interface.
D. Change the address of the HQ router LAN interface.
E. Change the address of the HQ router interface to the Internet.
F. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router interface to the Internet.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. Serial0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet0/0 LAN. How can this problem be corrected?

A. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.
B. Correct the IP address for Serial 0/0.
C. Correct the IP address for FastEthernet 0/0.
D. Change the encapsulation type on Serial 0/0.
E. Enable autoconfiguration on the Serial 0/0 interface.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit. A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?

A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is configuring RTA to connect to a non-Cisco network. Which two commands would be applied to the S0/0 WAN interface, but not to the Fa0/0 LAN interface? (Choose two.)

A. speed
B. no shutdown
C. ip address
D. authentication pap
E. encapsulation ppp

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 27
At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
E. application

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the exhibit is running the RIPv2 routing protocol. The network has converged, and the routers in this network are functioning properly. The FastEthernet0/0 interface on R1 goes down. In which two ways will the routers in this network respond to this change? (Choose two.)

A. All routers will reference their topology database to determine if any backup routes to the 192.168.1.0 network are known.
B. Routers R2 and R3 mark the route as inaccessible and will not accept any further routing updates from R1 until their hold-down timers expire.
C. Because of the split-horizon rule, router R2 will be prevented from sending erroneous information to R1 about connectivity to the 192.168.1.0 network.
D. When router R2 learns from R1 that the link to the 192.168.1.0 network has been lost, R2 will respond by sending a route back to R1 with an infinite metric to the 192.168.1.0 network.
E. R1 will send LSAs to R2 and R3 informing them of this change, and then all routers will send periodic updates at an increased rate until the network again converges.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 29
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are four collision domains in the network.
E. There are five collision domains in the network.
F. There are seven collision domains in the network.

Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 30
The administrator is unable to establish connectivity between two Cisco routers. Upon reviewing the
command output of both routers, what is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. Authentication needs to be changed to PAP for both routers.
B. Serial ip addresses of routers are not on the same subnet.
C. Username/password is incorrectly configured.
D. Router names are incorrectly configured.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. Workstation A must be able to telnet to switch SW-A through router RTA for management purposes. What must be configured for this connection to be successful?

A. VLAN 1 on RTA
B. default gateway on SW-A
C. IP routing on SW-A
D. cross-over cable connecting SW-A and RTA

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
Hotspot
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 33
This graphic shows some common router ports. Which port can be used for a WAN T1 connection?

A. AUI
B. BRI
C. Console
D. Serial 0

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit. The goal of this network design is to provide the most efficient use of IP address space in a network expansion. Each circle defines a network segment and the number of users required on that segment. An IP subnetwork number and default gateway address are shown for each segment.
What are three problems with the network design as shown? (Choose three.)

A. Interface fa0/3 has an IP address that overlaps with network 10.1.1.0/30.
B. Interface fa0/1 has an invalid IP address for the subnet on which it resides.
C. Interface fa0/2 has an invalid IP address for the subnet on which it resides.
D. Network 10.1.2.0/25 requires more user address space.
E. Network 10.1.3.128/25 requires more user address space.
F. The IP subnet 10.1.1.0/30 is invalid for a segment with a single server.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown?

A. 1 – Ethernet crossover cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – fiber optic cable 4 – rollover cable
B. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
C. 1 – Ethernet rollover cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – null modem cable
D. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
E. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – Ethernet straight-through cable

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit. For security reasons, information about RTA, including platform and IP addresses, should not be accessible from the Internet. This information should, however, be accessible to devices on the internal networks of RTA. Which command or series of commands will accomplish these objectives?

A. RTA(config)#no cdp run
B. RTA(config)#no cdp enable
C. RTA(config)#interface s0/0 RTA(config-if)#no cdp run
D. RTA(config)#interface s0/0 RTA(config-if)#no cdp enable

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Which of the following describe private IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the Internet
B. addresses that cannot be routed through the public Internet
C. addresses that can be routed through the public Internet
D. a scheme to conserve public addresses
E. addresses licensed to enterprises or ISPs by an Internet registry organization

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 38
WAN data link encapsulation types include which of the following? (Choose two.)
A. T1
B. Frame Relay
C. DSL
D. PPP
E. ISDN
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit. A technician is testing connection problems in the internetwork. What is the problem indicated by the output from HostA?

A. The routing on Router2 is not functioning properly.
B. An access list is applied to an interface of Router3.
C. The Fa0/24 interface of Switch1 is down.
D. The gateway address of HostA is incorrect or not configured.

Correct Answer: D

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