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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 300-070 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-21)
QUESTION 1
Which statement about the relationship between gateways and route groups is true?
A. Each gateway can belong to only one route group and can be listed only once within that route group.
B. Each gateway can belong to only one route group and can be listed multiple times within that route group.
C. Each gateway can belong to multiple route groups and can be listed only once within each route group.
D. Each gateway can belong to multiple route groups and can be listed multiple times within each route group.
300-070 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 2
Which dial plan function is used to restrict calls that are made by a lobby phone to internal extensions only?
A. Path selection.
B. Endpoint addressing.
C. Manipulation of dialed destination.
D. Calling privileges.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Which two are enterprise parameters? (Choose two.)
A. User search limit
B. T302 parameter
C. Enable Call Detail Records
D. Enable Dependency Records
E. codecs parameters for voice media-streaming applications 300-070 dumps Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
QUESTION 4
A user’s phone Call Forward No Answer setting has been configured to forward to a hunt pilot. If all call hunting options have been exhausted and the Forward Hunt No Answer feature has been configured to use Personal Preference settings, to which of these will calls to this phone be forwarded?
A. the default destination configured under Service Parameters
B. any destination configured under the user’s DN Personal Settings configuration
C. the destination specified under the user’s Call Forward No Coverage settings
D. voice mail
E. no other destination; each call will continue to ring until the caller hangs up
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can implement the personal preferences option. To do so, configure a user phone so that the Forward No Answer field redirects the call to a hunt pilot, which searches for someone else to answer the call. If call hunting fails because all the hunting options are exhausted or because a timeout period expires, the call can be sent to a personalized destination for the person who was originally called. For example, if you set the Forward No Coverage field in the Directory Number Configuration page to a voice-mail number, the call will be sent to the voice mailbox of that person if hunting fails.
QUESTION 5
Which three are functions of Cisco Unified Border Element? (Choose three.)
A. client registration
B. H.323 and SIP interworking
C. Lync interworking
D. transcoding
E. phone proxy
F. mobile and remote access
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation
QUESTION 6
Which configuration output indicates a properly configured T1 digital voice interface?
A. controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zspri-group timeslots 1-24!
B. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zs!
C. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zspri-group timeslots 1-24isdn switch-type primary-ni!
D. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zs!dial-peer voice 1 potsdestination-pattern 54….direction-inward.dialport 0/0/0:23
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
Which option is the most highly recommended option to install Cisco TelePresence Conductor on the virtual machine?
A. Thick Provision Eager Zeroed
B. Thick Provision Lazy Zeroed
C. Thick Provision
D. Thin Provision
300-070 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
QUESTION 8
Callers inform you that they hear a second dial tone after dialing the number 4085550123. Which dial-peer configuration command resolves this issue?
A. answer-address 408555….
B. destination-pattern 91[2-9]..[2-9]…..
C. forward digits all
D. direct-inward dial
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 9
An organization has built their video infrastructure to perform ad hoc video calls, but they also need to conduct managed video conference calls. Which hardware component is needed to conduct these calls?
A. VCS-E
B. IOS gateway
C. MCU
D. TelePresence server 300-070 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 10
Which command is used to enter the DSP farm profile configuration mode?
A. dspfarm-profile 100 transcode
B. dspfarmprofile 100 transcode
C. dspfarm profile 100 transcode
D. dspfarm 100 profile transcode
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Refer to Exhibit:
If the user at extension 1001 dials the user at extension 2002, which dial peer is used to route the call?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 12
You are a Network Engineer at ABC Company. You want to ensure that when the contact center agent for the company makes an external call, the extension 897 654 300 is displayed. How do you resolve this issue?
A. Configure a Line Text Label on the Directory Number configuration page.
B. Configure an external phone number mask on the Directory Number configuration page.
C. Configure a translation pattern with the pattern 897654300.
D. Configure an external phone number mask on the Device configuration page.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 13
Which three CLI commands allow you to verify the correct VoIP dial-peer matching? (Choose three.)
A. debug ccsip messages
B. debug voip ccapi inout
C. debug dialpeer match
D. debug voip dialpeer inout
E. show dialplan number
300-070 exam Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit and configuration output.
A user in New York (5001) is trying to call a user in London (6001), but the call cannot be completed. Assuming that the WAN uplink is failing and the voice traffic has to go out toward the PSTN, which command do you need to add to dial peer to solve this issue?
dial-peer voice 3 pots
destination-pattern 6…
preference 1
port 0/0/0:23
dtmf-relay sip-notify
A. num-exp 512602 6001
B. prefix 757385
C. forward-digits 2
D. forward-digits 4
E. prefix 5126 300-070 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 15
Which two of these describe where phone services can appear on an IP phone and who can subscribe to phone services? (Choose two.)
A. end user
B. administrator
C. end user and administrator
D. Services button
E. Services and Directories buttons
F. Services, Directories, and Messages buttons
Correct Answer: CF
Explanation
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
A Cisco Unified Communications Manager group is configured with the subscriber (10.1.5.3) listed first and the publisher (10.1.5.2) listed second. Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager is used for incoming calls through an MGCP gateway?
A. the publisher
B. both the publisher and subscriber in a round-robin format
C. the first server listed in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager group list
D. the subscriber
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 17
Which two of the following DSPs can be used in heterogeneous conferencing to achieve the required trans-sizing and transcoding functionality? (Choose two.)
A. PVDM3-256
B. PVDM2-256
C. PVDM-192
D. PVDM3-32
E. PVDM3-192
F. PVDM2-128
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
QUESTION 18
Managers have asked to be able to have an extension call them back if it is busy when they try to call it. In what two places can this feature be assigned to the Managers phone? (Choose two.)
A. Device Settings > Softkey Template
B. Device Settings > Default Device Profile Configuration
C. Device Settings > Phone Button Template
D. Device Settings > Device Profile
E. Device Settings > Device Defaults
F. Device Settings > Firmware Load Information
300-070 exam Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
QUESTION 19
Which three elements are used to configure calling privileges? (Choose three)
A. Route pattern.
B. Calling search space.
C. Replica.
D. User.
E. Partition
F. Time schedule.
Correct Answer: BEF
Explanation
QUESTION 20
Which two statements describe the function of the off-net option in a route pattern? (Choose two.)
A. The off-net option indicates that if a call is not routed through this route pattern, it is considered off the local network, or “off-net”.
B. This option could be used to block an external call from transferring to an internal party.
C. This option could be used to block an external call from transferring to an external party.
D. The off-net option indicates that if a call is routed through this route pattern, it is considered off the local network, or “off-net.” 300-070 dumps Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
QUESTION 21
What are two characteristics that are associated with the End User and User account types? (Choose two.)
A. They cannot use LDAP.
B. They are used to authorize applications.
C. They can utilize LDAP.
D. The Application is associated with the End User and User account types.
E. They can be listed in a directory.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
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Exam Code: 300-070
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0
Q&As: 211
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Free Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-697 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-15)
QUESTION 1
You are configuring two Windows 10 Enterprise client computers: A desktop computer named COMPUTER1 and a portable computer named COMPUTER2. You have the following requirements: You need to configure the computers to meet the requirements. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. From COMPUER2, connect to COMPUTER1 and configure the Data folder to always be available offline.
B. From COMPUTER1, connect to COMPUTER2 and configure the Data folder to always be available offline.
C. In Sync Center, configure a schedule for offline files.
D. From COMPUTER2, map a network drive to the Data folder onCOMPUTER1.
E. In Sync Center, set up a new sync partnership.
70-697 exam Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
QUESTION 2
You are an IT professional for a bank. All of the user’s files on the external drives are encrypted by using EFS. You replace a user’s computer with a new Windows 10 Enterprise computer. The user needs to connect her external hard drive to the new computer. You have the original computer’s certificate and key. You need to import the certificate and key onto the new computer. Into which certificate store should you import the certificate and key?
A. Untrusted Certificates
B. Trusted Root Certification Authorities
C. Personal
D. Trusted Publishers
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 3
You support Windows 10 Enterprise computers in a workgroup. You have configured a local AppLocker policy to prevent users from running versions of app.exe previous to v9.4. Users are still able to run app.exe. You need to block users from running app.exe by using the minimum administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Change the Application Identity service startup mode to automatic and start the service.
B. Configure enforcement for Windows Installed rules.
C. Configure a Software Restriction Policy publisher rule.
D. Run the GPupdate /force command in a relevant command prompt. 70-697 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft Intune subscription. You need to uninstall the Intune agent from a computer. What should you do?
A. From the Groups node in the Microsoft Intune administration portal, click Delete.
B. From the computer, run the provisioningutil.exe command.
C. From the computer, run the cltui.exe command.
D. From the computer, use Programs and Features in Control Panel.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer A is close but incorrect. You would need to select Retire/Wipe, not Delete.
QUESTION 5
You administer Windows 10 Enterprise tablets that are members of an Active Directory domain. Your company policy allows users to download and install only certain few Windows Store apps. You have created a new AppLocker Packaged Apps policy to help enforce the company policy. You need to test the new AppLocker Packaged Apps policy before you implement it for the entire company. What should you do?
A. Open PowerShell and run the Get–AppLockerPolicy –Effective cmdlet to retrieve the AppLocker effective policy.
B. Open Group Policy Management console and enforce the new AppLocker policy in Audit Only mode.
C. Open Group Policy Management console and run the Group Policy Modeling Wizard.
D. Open Group Policy Management console and run the Group Policy Results Wizard.
70-697 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All client computers run Windows 10 Enterprise and are joined to the domain. Corporate police prohibits homegroups on the corporate network.
You need to ensure that client computer network adapter settings do not support joining a homegroup.
What should you do?
A. Disable IPv6.
B. Disable IPv4.
C. Enable IPv6.
D. Enable IPv4.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
You have an unsecured wireless network for users to connect to from their personal Windows 10 devices. You need to prevent Wi-Fi Sense from sharing information about the unsecured wireless network. What should you do?
A. Configure the SSID of the unsecured wireless to contain _optout.
B. Instruct the users to disable Internet Protocol Version 6 (TCP/IPv6) on their wireless network adapters.
C. Configure the SSID of the guest wireless to be hidden.
D. Instruct the users to turn off Network Discovery on their devices.
70-697 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have an application named App1 installed on a computer named Computer1. Computer1 runs Windows 10. App1 saves data to %UserProfile%\App1\Data. You need to ensure that you can recover the App1 data if Computer1 fails. What should you configure?
A. share permissions
B. application control policies
C. Encrypting File System (EFS) settings
D. NTFS permissions
E. HomeGroup settings
F. Microsoft OneDrive
G. software restriction policies
H. account policies
Correct Answer: F
Explanation
QUESTION 9
You have a computer named Client1. Client1 is joined to an Active Directory domain. You need to join Client1 to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. What should you do first?
A. From the Local Group Policy Editor, modify the Add workstations to domain policy.
B. From the network adapter properties, modify the DNS suffix.
C. From System Control Panel, configure the computer to be a member of a workgroup.
D. From the System in the Settings app, modify the sign-in options.
70-697 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computers run Windows 10 Enterprise and Microsoft Office 2013. All of the computers are joined to the domain. Your company purchases a subscription to Office 365. An administrator creates an Office 365 account for each user and deploys a federated solution for Office 365. You need to prevent the users from being prompted for a user account and a password each time they access services from Office 365. Which account should you instruct the users to use when they sign in to their computer?
A. a Microsoft account
B. a local user account
C. an Office 365 account
D. a contoso.com account
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 11
You administer computers that run Windows 10 Enterprise and are members of an Active Directory domain. The computers are encrypted with BitLocker and are configured to store BitLocker encryption passwords in Active Directory. A user reports that he has forgotten the BitLocker encryption password for volume E on his computer. You need to provide the user a BitLocker recovery key to unlock the protected volume. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Ask the user for his computer name.
B. Ask the user to run the manage–bde –unlock E: –pw command.
C. Ask the user for his logon name.
D. Ask the user for a recovery key ID for the protected volume. 70-697 dumps Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: To view the recovery passwords fora computer you would need the computer name: In Active Directory Users and Computers, locate and then click the container in which the computer is located. Right-click the computer object, and then click Properties. In the Properties dialog box, click the BitLocker Recovery tab to view the BitLocker recovery passwords that are associated with the particular computer.
QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have a computer that runs Windows 10 and is used by 10 users. The computer is joined to an Active Directory domain. All of the users are members of the Administrators group. Each user has an Active Directory account. You have a Microsoft Word document that contains confidential information. You need to ensure that you are the only user who can open the document. What should you configure?
A. account policies
B. application control policies
C. HomeGroup settings
D. software restriction policies
E. NTFS permissions
F. Microsoft OneDrive
G. share permissions
H. Encrypting File System (EFS) settings
Correct Answer: H
Explanation
QUESTION 13
A company has 100 Windows 10 Enterprise client computers. The client computers are members of a workgroup.
A custom application requires a Windows Firewall exception on each client computer. You need to configure the exception on the client computers without affecting existing firewall settings. Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run on each client computer?
A. Set–NetetFirewallRule
B. New–NetetFirewallRule
C. New–NetetIPSecMairModeRule
D. Set–NetetFirewallProfile
E. Set–NetetFirewallSetting
70-697 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
You administer Windows 10 Enterprise. Your network includes an Active Directory domain and a standalone server in a perimeter network that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. Your company purchases five new tablets that run Windows 8. The tablets will be used to access domain resources and shared folders located on the standalone server. You need to implement single sign-on (SSO) authentication for tablet users. You also need to ensure that you can audit personnel access to the shared folder. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create a new Microsoft account for each user.
B. Ensure that the local account for each user on the stand-alone server uses the same password as the corresponding Microsoft account.
C. Join the tablets to a domain.
D. Join the tablets to the same workgroup as the stand-alone server.
E. Enable a guest account on the stand-alone server.
F. On the stand-alone server, create user accounts that have the same logon names and passwords as the user domain accounts.
Correct Answer: CF
Explanation
QUESTION 15
You support Windows 10 Enterprise computers. Your company protects all laptops by using the BitLocker Network Unlock feature. Some employees work from home. You need to ensure that employees can log on to their laptops when they work from home. What should you do?
A. Have users run the Manage–bde.exe –unlock command before they disconnect from the company network.
B. Ensure that the Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chips in the laptops are version 1.2 or greater.
C. Enable BitLocker to Go.
D. Provide employees with their BitLocker PINs. 70-697 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Exam Code: 70-697
Exam Name: Configuring Windows Devices
Q&As: 186
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Awesome:
“This is my first time to sit a Microsoft exam, so you will know how nervous I was! Thanks for your help, Kingexam! I passed. I think 95% questions are more or less the same as your guidance. Some questions with the answer are in the different sequence, and, sorry to point out that one answer of your questions is incorrect, I’ll email you to let you know, you guys need to revise it. Well, I think your kingexam’s guidance is still more accurate than others. The most important thing is I got passed 🙂 Paul Hussler”
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Free Pass4itsure 210-255 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-20)
1. Given: John Smith often telecommutes from a coffee shop near his home. The coffee shop has an 802.11g access point with a captive portal for authentication. At this hotspot, John is susceptible to what types of WLAN attacks?
A. UDP port redirection
B. Wi-Fi phishing
C. Peer-to-peer
D. 802.11 reverse ARP
E. Eavesdropping/packet reassembly
F. Happy AP
210-255 exam Answer: BCE
2. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) allows a WLAN administrator to perform what network function?
A. Provide wireless network access to users through specific access points, based on their 802.11e priority level.
B. Allow access to specific files and applications based on the user’s IP subnet.
C. Allow specific user groups more bandwidth than others.
D. Allow simultaneous support of multiple EAP types on a single access point.
Answer: C
3. RFC 3748 specifies that the EAP-response/identity frame must comply with what criteria?
A. The EAP-response/identity frame must contain the user identity.
B. When TLS-tunneling mode is active, the EAP-response frame must have a blank user identity.
C. The EAP-response/identity frame must not contain a null identity value.
D. The user identity value must be hashed prior to insertion into the EAP-response identity frame. 210-255 dumps Answer: C
4. What option specifies how the 802.11i Group Handshake differs from the 4-Way Handshake?
A. The Group Handshake has four messages like the 4-Way Handshake, except when it is performed after a reauthentication when it exhibits only three messages.
B. The Group Handshake is a 4-Way Handshake, but does not contain EAPoL Key frames.
C. The Group Handshake requires 6 exchanges, including the TCP 3-Way handshake traffic.
D. The Group Handshake has only two messages instead of four.
E. The Group Temporal Key (GTK) is always part of the Group Handshake, but never part of the 4-Way Handshake.
Answer: D
5. Once strong authentication and encryption mechanisms are implemented and tested in a WLAN, what options are needed to maintain a secure WLAN?
A. VPN
B. Internet firewall
C. WIPS
D. Personal firewalls
E. LDAP
210-255 pdf Answer: CD
6. What protocols allow an administrator to securely transfer a new operating system image to a WLAN switch/controller?
A. SNMPv2c
B. HTTPS
C. SCP
D. TFTP
E.FTP
Answer: BC
7. Given: You manage a wireless network that services 100 wireless users. Your facility requires 7 access points, and you have installed an 802.11i-compliant implementation of 802.1X/LEAP (TKIP) as an authentication and encryption solution. In this configuration, the wireless network is susceptible to what type of attack?
A. Man-in-the-middle
B. Password dictionary
C. Layer 3 peer-to-peer
D. WEP cracking
E. Session hijacking
F. Eavesdropping
210-255 vce Answer: B
8. Given: Most of today’s lightweight (thin) access points support 802.3af and can be placed anywhere in the network infrastructure instead of directly connected to a WLAN switch/controller port. A lightweight access point can make what logical connection to its controller?
A. LLC port connection
B. GRE tunnel
C. RSVP protocol connection
D. HTTPS tunnel
E. Mobile IP connection
Answer: B
9. Given: ABC Company wants to install an 802.11g WLAN that supports fast roaming for 802.11b IP phones. A requirement is the ability to troubleshoot reassociations that are delayed or dropped during roaming. What is the most cost-effective system ABC Company can implement to meet the troubleshooting requirement?
A. WLAN protocol analyzer software on laptop computers
B. WLAN switch with integrated WIPS
C. WLAN switch with dual lightweight 802.11a/b/g radios
D. Autonomous (thick) access points with a WIDS overlay system
E. Hybrid WLAN switch with integrated RF planning tool
210-255 exam Answer: B
10. Given: This network diagram implements an 802.1X/EAP-based wireless security solution. What device functions as the EAP Authenticator?
A. LDAP database
B. Client computer
C. Access point
D. RADIUS server
E. Ethernet switch
Answer: C
11. For WIPS to describe the location of a rogue WLAN device, what requirement must be part of the WIPS installation?
A. The predictive site survey results must be imported into the WIPS.
B. A GPS system must be installed including the coordinates of the building’s corners.
C. All authorized AP radios must be placed in RF monitor mode so that the WIPS knows where the authorized APs are in relation to the WIPS sensors.
D. A graphical floor plan diagram must be imported into the WIPS. 210-255 dumps Answer: D
12. Given: XYZ Company has recently installed a WLAN switch and RADIUS server and needs to move authenticated wireless users from various departments onto their designated network segments. How should this be accomplished?
A. The RADIUS server coordinates with an authenticated DHCP server.
B. Manually map each wireless user’s MAC address to a VLAN number in the Ethernet switch.
C. Implement multiple 802.1Q VLANs in both the WLAN and Ethernet switches.
D. RADIUS will send a return list attribute with the GRE tunnel number to the WLAN switch.
E. The WLAN user must contact the network administrator at step 4 of the 802.1X/EAP authentication process to receive a network number.
Answer: C
13. Given: The Wi-Fi Alliance implemented TKIP as an upgrade to WEP as part of WPA. The illustration shows an expanded TKIP MPDU. What features were included in TKIP to enhance the security of WEP?
A. FCS
B. ICV
C. MIC
D. Extended IV
E. Encrypted PDU
210-255 pdf Answer: CD
14. Given: A new access point is connected to an authorized network segment and is detected by a WIPS. What does the WIPS apply to the new access point?
A. Default security policy
B. FIPS values
C. Site survey template
D. User property profile
E. Updated firmware
F. SNMP MIB
Answer: A
15. Given: Your company has just completed installation of a WLAN switch/controller with 10 lightweight (thin) access points. The Chief Security Officer has specified 802.11i compliant PEAPv0/EAP-MSCHAPv2 as the only authorized WLAN authentication and encryption scheme. Where must the x.509 server certificate reside in this network?
A. Supplicant devices
B. LDAP server
C. RADIUS server
D. WLAN switch/controller
E. Lightweight access points
210-255 vce Answer: AC
16. What wireless authentication technologies build a TLS-encrypted tunnel between the supplicant and the authentication server before passing client authentication credentials to the authentication server?
A. MS-CHAPv2
B. EAP-FAST
C. LEAP
D. PEAPv1/EAP-GTC
E. EAP-MD5
F. EAP-TTLS
Answer: DF
17. How does a wireless network management system (WNMS) discover WLAN usernames?
A. The WNMS finds the MAC address of the wireless client device in the authentication database and parses the username from the entry.
B. The WNMS polls access points using SNMP.
C. The client device sends the username to the WNMS on port 113 (ident service) after successful authentication.
D. The RADIUS server sends the username to the WNMS after the wireless device successfully authenticates.
E. The WNMS captures the username by sniffing the wireless network during the authentication process.
210-255 exam Answer: B
18. What is illustrated by this Wireless Intrusion Prevention System (WIPS)
A. 802.11a access points on channels 34, 38, 42, and 46
B. Wideband RF jamming attack
C. Only channels 9, 10, and 11 are enabled on the access point
D. An access point on channel 6
E. Use of channels 12-14 is not allowed
Answer: B
19. Given: A university is installing a WLAN switch/controller and one thousand 802.11a/g lightweight access points. In this environment, how should the WLAN switch/controller connect to the Ethernet network?
A. The WLAN switch/controller should connect between every Layer 3 distribution Ethernet switch and every Layer 2 access Ethernet switch by having one port in each VLAN.
B. The WLAN switch/controller should connect to the core Layer 3 switch via a gigabit (or faster) Ethernet segment.
C. The WLAN switch/controller should be connected between the Layer 3 core Ethernet switch/controller and the corporate Internet firewall using a 100 Mbps connection.
D. The WLAN switch/controller should connect to a Layer 3 distribution switch in a wireless VLAN using a gigabit (or faster) connection. 210-255 dumps Answer: B
20. What type of WLAN attack is illustrated on the 802.11 protocol analyzer screenshot?
A. Man-in-the-middle
B. Frame injection
C. RF jamming
D. Authentication flood
E. Hijacking
Answer: C
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Can you pass the Cisco 810-403 dumps test by watching some videos? The Selling Business Outcomes (810-403 OUTCOMES) exam is a 90 minutes (60 – 70 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the Cisco Business Value Analyst Specialist, Cisco Business Value Specialist certification. Pass the most important Cisco 810-403 dumps OUTCOMES exam questions video training with accurate answers. “Selling Business Outcomes” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 810-403 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 810-403 exam. You will find them quite helpful and precise in the subject matter since all the exam content is regularly updated and has been checked for its accuracy. These easy to understand https://www.pass4itsure.com/810-403.html dumps questions and answers are available in downloadable PDF format to make it simpler to utilize, guaranteeing 100% success.
QUESTION 1 According to Cisco and related to customers, which is the one and only outstanding reason and justification for business outcome-based sales approach?
A. Executives are interested in satisfying customers’ needs and requirements.
B. Managers and supervisors are committed to close the quality of service gap.
C. Stakeholders are interested in being considered when developing and assessing business outcomes.
D. Customers are interested in solutions and services that result in measurable outcomes. 810-403 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 RACI model aids can be used to understand specific aspects of stakeholders’ involvement in businesses. What does RACI stand for?
A. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
B. Reconciler, Accountable, Consulted, Independent
C. Responsible, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
D. Reconciler, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
E. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Influenced Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. Which is the goal of business outcomes?
A. To enable CXOs or Line of Business leaders to grow revenues, lower operating costs and achieve strategic business objectives
B. To help customers establish new technology or evolve current functionality
C. To help customers operate, manage and optimize technology environment more effectively
D. To take advantage of new technology to increase business relevance 810-403 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 5 Which two options are part of customer relationship management? (Choose two.)
A. Developing market research.
B. Moving the customer towards positive decisions about IT investments and initiatives
C. Classifying customer segments.
D. Identifying key stakeholders. 810-403 pdf Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6 While troubleshooting a Sugar dashlet error in your web browser, you notice you are consistently receiving a 500 error in response to a particular REST API call. Which three actions would you perform to gain more insightinto the source of the problem?(Choose three.)
A. View the full list of browser cache contents.
B. View the Sugar log.
C. Visit status.sugarcrm.com to confirm there are no service outages.
D. Consult the Web server PHP error log.
E. Consult the JavaScript console in the Web browser. Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 7 You are experiencing poor performance with your Sugar installation and want to install and configure Alternative PHP Cache (APC) and ensure it is enabled. Which two actions would help you achieve these goals? (Choose two.)
A. Install APC using the Sugar module loader and configure it from the Administration panel.
B. File a ticket with SugarCRM support requesting that APC be enabled for your instance.
C. Install the APC module from the PHP Extension Community Library (PECL) and configure it using the command line.
D. Verify the presence of the APC settings in the output of phpinfo(). 810-403 vce Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 8 You examine a Sugar database and discover some table names that end with the moniker ~_c~. What do the database tables with these names represent?
A. custom field data for custom fields
B. custom field metadata for custom fields
C. relationship data for custom relationships
D. relationship metadata for stock and custom relationships Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 View the Exhibit.
A customization requires a developer to add a new profile action link to the MegaMenu shown in the exhibit.According to the Sugar Developer Guide, which directory should contain the customizations?
A. ~./custom/clients/base/views/profileactions/~
B. ~./custom/Extenslon/application/Ext/clients/base/views/profileactions/~
C. ~./custom/Extension/modules/Ext/clients/base/views/profileactions/~
D. ~./application/clients/base/views/profileactions/~ 810-403 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 According to the Sugar Developer Guide, which class should be used to store and retrieve system settings stored at the database level?
A. SugarAutoLoader
B. Administration
C. Configurator
D. SugarApplication Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 You are attempting to load a large custom package using Module Loader andit is failing. Which three configuration values should you verify? (Choose three.)
A. PHP upload_max_filesize setting
B. Sugar import_max_records_total_limit setting
C. Sugar upload_maxsize setting
D. PHP memory_limit setting
E. PHP post_max_size setting 810-403 dumpsCorrect Answer: ADE
QUESTION 12 You need to execute a call to the Sugar REST v10API from within a customized controller. According to the Sugar Developer Guide, what would be the recommended method toaccomplish this task?
A. ~app.api.getRequest( )~
B. ~callback( )~
C. ~app.api.call( )~
D. ~$.ajax( )~ Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 You are working on the RecordView for a given module. You examine the data values contained in this.model and notice a discrepancy between those values and the list of fields contained in record.php. Which statement pertaining to this.model is correct?
A. Only values from stock fields listed in record.php are available.
B. Only values from any of the fields listed in record.php are available.
C. Only values from custom fields listed in record.php are available.
D. Only values from link fields listed in record.php are available. 810-403 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14 You are creating an Initial one-to-one relationship from the Accounts module to a custom module using studio, which database schema change will occur?
A. Table accounts_cstm is created or modified.
B. Table [custom_module]_cstm is created or modified.
C. Table accounts is modified.
D. A new relate table is created. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15 While troubleshooting a customization, you initiate a debugger session and examine the Sidecar metadata. Which two components would you expect it to contain? (Choose two.)
A. layouts
B. global variables
C. views
D. event handler 810-403 vce Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 16 Which Sidecar component is nested within components of the same type?
A. field
B. layout
C. view
D. model Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17 In which two directories do Sidecar enabled modules read theirsubpanel layouts? (Choose two.)
A. ~./modules/[module]/metadata/subpanels/default.php~
B. ~./custom/modules/[module]/Ext/Layoutdefs/layoutdefs.ext.php~
C. ~./modules/[module]/clients/base/layouts/subpanels/subpanels.php~
D. ~./custom/modules/[module]/Ext/clients/base/layouts/subpanels/subpanels.ext.php~ 810-403 exam Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 18 Which Handlebars helper allows you to iterate over an array of objects?
A. models
B. for
C. foreach
D. each Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19 In the process of public key cryptography, which of the following is true?
A. Only the public key is used to encrypt and decrypt
B. Only the private key can encrypt and only the public key can decrypt
C. Only the public key can encrypt and only the private key can decrypt
D. The private key is used to encrypt and decrypt
E. If the public key encrypts, then only the private key can decrypt 810-403 dumpsAnswer: E
QUESTION 20. As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on Physical and Environmental Security?
A. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory, regulatory or contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance of systems with organizational security policies and standards.
B. The objectives of this section are to prevent unauthorized access, damage and interference to business premises and information; to prevent loss, damage or compromise of assets and interruption to business activities; to prevent compromise or theft of information and information processing facilities.
C. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for information security.
D. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to ensure that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized access to information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent unauthorized computer access. Answer: B
QUESTION 21 During a one week investigation into the security of your network you work on identifying the information that is leaked to the Internet, either directly or indirectly. One thing you decide to evaluate is the information stored in the Whois lookup of your organizational website. Of the following, what pieces of information can be identified via this method?
A. Registrar B. Mailing Address
C. Contact Name
D. Record Update
E. Network Addresses (Private) 810-403 pdf Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 22 You are aware of the significance and security risk that Social Engineering plays on your company. Of the following Scenarios, select those that, just as described, represent potentially dangerous Social Engineering:
A. A writer from a local college newspapers calls and speaks to a network administrator. On the call the writer requests an interview about the current trends in technology and offers to invite the administrator to speak at a seminar.
B. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the receptionist. On the call the caller asks the receptionist the normal business hours that the organization is open to the public.
C. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the purchaser of IT hardware and software. On the call the caller lists several new products that the purchaser may be interested in evaluating. The caller asks for a time to come and visit to demonstrate the new products.
D. An email, sent by the Vice President of Sales and Marketing, is received by the Help Desk asking to reset the password of the VP of Sales and Marketing.
E. An email is received by the Chief Security Officer (CSO) about a possible upgrade coming from the ISP to a different brand of router. The CSO is asked for the current network’s configuration data and the emailer discusses the method, plan, and expected dates for the rollover to the new equipment. Answer: DE
QUESTION 23 During the review of the security logs you notice some unusual traffic. It seems that a user has connected to your Web site ten times in the last week, and each time has visited every single page on the site. You are concerned this may be leading up to some sort of attack. What is this user most likely getting ready to do?
A. Mirror the entire web site.
B. Download entire DNS entries. C. Scan all ports on a web server.
D. Perform a Distributed Denial of Service attack through the Web server.
E. Allow users to log on to the Internet without an ISP. 810-403 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 24 What type of cipher is used by an algorithm that encrypts data one bit at a time?
A. 64-bit encryption Cipher
B. Block Cipher
C. Stream Cipher
D. Diffuse Cipher
E. Split Cipher Answer: C
QUESTION 25 What encryption algorithm was selected to replace DES?
A. RC5
B. IDEA
C. AES
D. Blowfish
E. RSA 810-403 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 26 Which one of the following is an incorrect mod equation?
A. 9 mod 3 = 0
B. 40 mod 10 = 0
C. 40 mod 9 = 4
D. (6-1) mod 3 = 0
E. (2+4) mod 5 = 1 Answer: D
QUESTION 27 If you wish to change the permissions of a parent directory in your Linux system, and want thepermissions to be changed on the files and subdirectories in the parent directory to be the same, what switch must you use?
A. -G
B. -R
C. -P
D. -S
E. -F 810-403 dumpsAnswer: B
QUESTION 28 You are working with some new RPM files on your Linux system. You know there are several options when dealing with RPM files. Which of the following answers lists proper RPM commands, with the correct description of the command?
A. rpm -q <package name> This command performs software verification.
B. rpm -e <package name> This command removes the software.
C. rpm -v <package name> This command performs software verification.
D. rpm -r <package name> This command removes the software.
E. rpm -i <package name> This command installs the software.
F. rpm -in <package name> This command installs the software. Answer: ABE
These 810-403 dumps Selling Business Outcomes dumps are prepared by our experienced Cisco Specialists based on the recommended syllabus covering all the exam objectives. “Selling Business Outcomes”, also known as 810-403 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 810-403 dumps exam questions answers are updated (166 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of https://www.pass4itsure.com/810-403.html dumps is Cisco Business Value Analyst Specialist, Cisco Business Value Specialist.
