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[Free New Microsoft Version] The Best Microsoft 070-489 Dumps Exam Guide and Microsoft Developing Microsoft SharePoint for Microsoft Video Series with High Passing Rate (From Google Drive)

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Exam Code: 070-489
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Updated: Aug 19, 2017
Q&As: 97

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Free Pass4itsure Microsoft 070-489 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

Question: 1
Which of the following is an example of a taxable gift for federal gift tax purposes?
A – A father gives his 19-year-old daughter a note promising to give her his Rolls Royce when she
reaches the age of 21.
B – Instead of parents paying an outside executive $60,000, a son runs their business for 8
months without charging a fee.
C – The parents of a married son permit their son and his family to use a summer cottage that
rents for $3,000 per month on a rent-free basis.
D – A father cancels a $50,000 note his daughter gave him when he made a loan to her 2 years
ago.
070-489 exam 
Answer: D
Question: 2
The following are facts concerning a decedent’s estate:
Taxable estate $1.700, 000
Pre-1977 taxable gifts 200, 000
Post-1976 adjusted taxable gifts 50, 000
Post-1976 gifts made to a qualified charity 100, 000
The tentative tax base of this estate is
A – $1,700,000
B – $1,750,000
C – $1,850,000
D – $1,900,000
Answer: B
Question: 3
An executor elects to value the assets of the estate at the alternative valuation date 6 months
after death. Which of the following statements concerning the estate tax value of assets included
in this estate is correct?
A – An annuity included in the gross estate that diminishes with the mere passage of time is
includible at the date of death value.
B – Property sold before the alternate valuation date is valued at the alternate valuation date.
C – Property that has increased in value since the date of death may be valued at the date of
death if the executor so elects.
D – Property distributed under the will before the alternate valuation date is valued at the date of
death.
070-489 dumps 
Answer: A
Question: 4
A father and son have been farming land owned by the father for the past 12 years. Just prior to
his death, the father was offered $1200, 000 for his farm because of its possible use as a
shopping center. The son would like to continue to farm the land if it can be included in his
father’s estate at its current use value. Additional facts are:
1. Average annual gross rentals from nearby farms of similar acreage are $56,000.
2. Average annual state and local real estate taxes on the farm are $6,000.
3. The interest rate for loans from the Federal Land Sank is 8 percent.

For federal estate tax purposes, the farm method valuation formula would result in a current use
value for the farm of
A – $500,000
B – $600,000
C – $700,000
D – $820,000
Answer: B
Question: 5
Which of the following types of real properly ownership will be deemed to be a tenancy in
common?
A – Two brothers own equal amounts of all the common stock in a corporation, the only asset of
which is real property.
B – Two brothers own equal undivided interests in a piece of real properly, with each brother
being able to divest himself of his interest by sale, gift, or will.
C – Two brothers are equal partners in a general partnership that owns a piece of real property
used in the partnership business.
D – Two brothers own equal fractional interests in a piece of real property and at the death of one
of the brothers the survivor will own the entire piece of property.
070-489 pdf 
Answer: B
Question: 6
Which of the following statements concerning property ownership by a married couple residing in
a community-property state is correct?
A – All property owned by the couple is community property.
B – Community property loses its identity when a couple moves from a community-property state
to a common-law state.
C – Property inherited by one spouse during a marriage becomes community property
D – Income earned by one spouse becomes community property.
Answer: D
Question: 7
Which of the following statements concerning a simple trust is correct?
A – Income and principal may be distributed to a qualified charily.
B – It receives a special tax deduction for income distributed to its beneficiaries.
C – Income is accumulated at the discretion of the trustee.
D – It limits the number of permissible beneficiaries.
070-489 vce 
Answer: B
Question: 8
On the advice of their attorney and accountant, Betsy and John have decided to make substantial
transfers. They would like to pass most of their considerable wealth to their grandchildren. Which
of the following statements concerning gifts made to their grandchildren is correct?
A – The GSTT annual exclusion may be utilized by Betsy and John for each grandchild during
life time and at death.

B – The value of Betsy and John’s GSTT exemption amounts are slightly increased when used at
death rather than during life time.
C – The GSTT annual exclusion is unavailable for years in which Betsy and John make tuition
gifts for the grandchildren.
D – Betsy and John may elect to split any GSTT transfers to the grandchildren.
Answer: D
Question: 9
The decedent, D, died this year. The facts concerning D estate are:
Gross estate $3,400,000
Marital deduction 0
Charitable deduction 600,000
Funeral & administration expenses 00,000
Gifts made after 1976 170,000
State death taxes payable 192,000
What is D taxable estate?
A – $2,138,000
B – $2,358,000
C – $2,528,000
D – $2,720,000
070-489 exam 
Answer: C
Question: 10
On January 1, 2004 a father gave his daughter a $200,000 straight (ordinary) life insurance policy
on his life. Premiums are paid annually. The pertinent facts about the policy are:
Date of issue: July 1, 1992
Premium paid on July 1, 2003 $3200
Terminal reserve on July 1, 2003 20,000
Terminal reserve on July 1, 2004 24,000
What is the value of the policy for federal gift tax purposes?
A – $ 21,600
B – $23,200
C – $23,600
D – $200,000
Answer: C
Question: 11
A married man has two adult sons. His entire estate is in excess of $1,500,000 and consists
entirely of probate assets. He wants to make certain that if he predeceases his wife she will
receive all estate income as long as she lives, and the assets remaining at her death will pass
equally to their two sons. He wants to pass all assets to this wife and sons as free of federal
estate taxes as possible. To best accomplish these objectives, the man should include which of
the following estate plans in his will?
A – Establish a QTIP trust for half his estate and bequeath the remainder to his wife
B – Establish a marital deduction trust with a general power of appointment for half his estate and

place the remainder in a QTIP trust
C – Establish a bypass trust equal to the applicable exclusion amount and place the remainder of
his estate in a QTIP trust
D – Establish a QTIP trust for his entire estate
070-489 dumps 
Answer: C
Question: 12
Among the assets in a decedent’s gross estate is stock in a closely held corporation that was left
to a nephew. The interest passing to the nephew is required to bear the burden of all estate taxes
and expenses. The relevant facts about this estate are:
Adjusted gross estate $1,200,000
Fair market value of stock in the
closely held corporation 500,000
Administration and funeral expenses 25,000
State inheritance taxes 40,000
Federal estate taxes 160,000
What amount of closely held corporate stock may be redeemed under IRC Section 303 so that
the redemption will be treated as a sale or exchange rather than a dividend distribution?
A – 0
B – $ 65,000
C – $225,000
D – $500,000
Answer: C
Question: 13
A married man died this year leaving a gross estate of $3,200,000. Additional facts concerning
his estate are:
Administration expenses and debts $ 250,000
Marital deduction 1,200,000
Applicable credit amount (2005) 555,800
Applicable exclusion amount (2005) 1,500,000
State death taxes payable 20,400
Under the Unified Rate Schedule for computing estate taxes if the amount with respect to which
the tentative tax to be computed is over$1,000,000 but not over $1,250,000, the tentative tax is
$345,800, plus 41 percent of the excess of such amount over $1,000,000. If the amount is over
$1,250,000 but not over $1,500,000, the tentative tax is then $448,300, plus 43 percent of the
excess of such amount over $1,250,000. If the amount is over $1,500,000 but not over
$2,000,000, the tentative tax is then $555,800 plus 45% of the excess of such amount over
$1,500,000. Based on these facts, the net federal estate tax payable is
A – 0
B – $103,320
C – $123,720
D – $128,280
070-489 pdf 
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 210-250
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Updated: Aug 19, 2017
Q&As: 80

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QUESTION 09
Consider a FileMaker Pro 11 database with the following tables and fields:
Assuming only the above relationships between table occurrences, using sorting if necessary, which two
actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. create a value list that shows all Invoices for a chosen Customer
B. create a value list on a Product layout which displays all Customers
C. find all of the Customers who have ever ordered a specific Product
D. create a portal to display each Product that has been ordered by a Customer
E. display all records from the Customer table in a portal on a layout for an Invoice Item record
210-250 exam Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 10
Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event ID has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID.
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records… nor the Delete
related records… settings to be enabled for the Event table.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
On the RSTP network as shown in the figure, what RSTP operations will occur after the E1 port of SWB
fails? (Select 3 Answers)
A. SWB deletes the MAC address entries with the E1 port as the destination interface.
B. The spanning tree is recalculated and the E2 port is elected as the new root port.
C. All the interfaces in forwarding state send topology change notifications (TCNs) to notify other switches
of the topology change.
D. All the non-edge ports in forwarding state send TCNs to notify other switches of the topology change.
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 12
Which is the port state defined in RSTP?
A. Discarding
B. Learning
C. Forwarding
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
RSTP has all functions that STP has and it is backward compatible with STP.
A. True

B. False
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
RSTP adopts fast convergence mechanism. So, there is no Forward Delay interval in RSTP.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Two switches are directly connected to each other and they are working in full duplex mode. By default,
RSTP will consider the link between the switches as point-to-point link.
A. True
B. False
210-250 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
In RSTP network environment, a port can be set as edge port when it is directly connected with terminal.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements about RSTP and STP is true?
A. STP has more port states than RSTP.
B. The port roles used in RSTP is less than the port roles used in STP.
C. Since RSTP adopts fast convergence mechanism, it does not have Learning state which is available in
STP.
D. Same as STP, the ports will enter into Listening state once the RSTP has been enabled. Then, the
ports can receive BPDU and calculate the spanning tree.
210-250 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
In a switching network that runs RSTP, the topology change notification message will not be sent when the
switch detects that the Alternate Port is failed.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
When the topology of a network running RSTP changes, what happens after the change?
A. Flooding on the entire network.
B. The aging time of MAC address entries is changed.
C. Some MAC address entries are deleted.
D. All of the above
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which ports defined by RSTP cannot work in Forwarding state? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Root Port
B. Designated Port
C. Backup Port
D. Alternate Port
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 21
On an RSTP network, when an edge port is in protected state, what operation is performed after the edge
port receives BPDUs?
A. The edge port forwards BPDUs.
B. The edge port discards BPDUs.
C. The edge port is shut down.
D. The edge port obtains required information from BPDUs.
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
In RSTP, the port status can be discarding and learning. Which statements about the port status are true?
(Select 2 Answers)
A. The port in discarding or learning state does not forward data frames.
B. The port in discarding state does not learn MAC addresses.
C. The port in learning state does not learn MAC addresses.
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 23
On the RSTP network as shown in the figure, what is the port role of SWC E0/1 according to the
configuration? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Designated port
B. Root port
C. Alternate port

D. Edge port
210-250 vce Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 24
As shown in the figure, when the link between SWC and LAND is faulty, through which path are TCA
BPDUs sent?
A. From SWA to SWB
B. From SWB to SWC
C. From SWB to SWA
D. From SWC to SWB
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
As shown in the figure, when the STP network runs properly, which device does the designated port of
LANC reside?
A. SWA
B. SWB
C. SWC
D. None of the above
210-250 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
In STP configuration, which statement about BPDUs is true?
A. BPDUs cannot be sent from the designated port.
B. BPDUs can be sent only from the designated port.
C. BPDUs can be sent from any port.
D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
On an STP network, after the network topology changes, which BPDUs are sent during flooding of
topology change information on the entire network?
A. BPDUs with the TCN flag
B. BPDUs with the TCA flag
C. BPDUs with the TC flag
D. All of the above
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
After an STP switch starts, it considers itself as the root switch. Which statements about BDPU parameter
setting are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The switch is the designated root.
B. The designated cost is 0.

C. The switch is the designated bridge.
D. The designated port is 0.
Correct Answer: ABC

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Exam Code: 70-357
Exam Name: Developing Mobile Apps
Updated: Aug 08, 2017
Q&As: 66

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QUESTION 1. Which of the following device communication methods is used by MIB Tools?
A. SNMPv1
B. SNMPv3 Credential
C. SNMPv3 Profile
D. Max Access/Super User
E. All of the above
F.A and C only
70-357 exam Answer: E
QUESTION 2. Which of the following definition(s) best describes the difference between managers and agents in
SNMPv1 and SNMPv3?
A. In SNMPv1, the manager and agent were distinctly different but performed overlapping functions.
Managers resided on workstations; agents on remote devices.
B. In SNMPv3, a distributed interacting collection of SNMP entities can reside on both management
workstations and remote devices. Because each entity implements a portion of SNMP capability, an entity
can act as an agent, a manager, or a combination of the two.
C. In SNMPv1, the manager and agent were distinctly different and performed discrete functions: the
manager ran applications; the agent provided functionality. Managers resided on workstations; agents on
remote devices.
D.Aand B
E.B and C
F.All of the above
Answer: E
QUESTION 3. A MIB not supported on all devices should be assigned to which SNMP Request Group, when defining
a FlexView?
A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4

E. All of the above F. B or C only
70-357 dumps Answer: F
QUESTION 4. What are the three predefined groups in Inventory Manager Network Elements?
A. Chassis, Device Type and IP
B. Chassis, Matrix and X-Pedition
C. Matrix, SmartSwitch and X-Pedition
D. Matrix, X-Pedition and IP
Answer:A
QUESTION 5. How can network masks be displayed in CIDR notation in Router Services Manager?
A. By selecting CIDR in the Network Mask option of Tools > Options
B. By selecting CIDR in the device properties window
C. By selecting Dot Delimited in the Display option of Tools > Options
D. It is not possible to have network masks displayed in CIDR notation
70-357 pdf Answer:A
QUESTION 6. The MIB Tools Utility allows you to do all of the following, EXCEPT
A. View object definitions
B. Set object values
C. Change IP addresses on devices
D. Search for objects
E. Browse the MIB database
Answer: C
QUESTION 7. Which of the following statements are true about FlexViews?
A. You can use the FlexView editor to define as many FlexViews as you want.
B. You can create custom tabs to display desired MIB information.
C. The FlexView Wizard is not available with Atlas Lite.
D. All of the ab
ove

E. A and C only
70-357 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 8. What is the name of the file that defines the absolute path to your NetSight Plug-In applications?
A. PlugIn.details
B. common
C. NetSight.properties
D. Atlas.config
Answer: C
QUESTION 9. The relationship among remote devices in each map is automatically generated by Console when you
click the Retrieve button.
A. True
B. False
70-357 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 10. What are the three tabs in the left panel of Inventory Manager?
A. Devices, Traps, Archives
B. Network Elements, Firmware Management, Configuration Management
C. Details View, Archives, Chassis
D. Properties, VLAN, Compass
Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following password cracking techniques is used when the attacker has some information
about the password?
A. Hybrid Attack
B. Dictionary Attack
C. Syllable Attack
D. Rule-based Attack
70-357 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is an application alert returned by a web application that helps an attacker guess a
valid username?
A. Invalid username or password
B. Account username was not found
C. Incorrect password
D. Username or password incorrect
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
A pen tester has extracted a database name by using a blind SQL injection. Now he begins to test the
table inside the database using the below query and finds the table:
http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (LEN(SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=’U’)=3)
WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′–
http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects
where xtype=char(85)),1,1)))=101) WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′– http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF
(ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=char(85)),2,1)))=109)
WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′– http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT
TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=char(85)),3,1)))=112) WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′–
What is the table name?
A. CTS
B. QRT
C. EMP
D. ABC
70-357  pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
When you are running a vulnerability scan on a network and the IDS cuts off your connection, what type of
IDS is being used?
A. Passive IDS
B. Active IDS
C. Progressive IDS
D. NIPS
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
HTTP protocol specifies that arbitrary binary characters can be passed within the URL by using %xx
notation, where ‘xx’ is the

A. ASCII value of the character
B. Binary value of the character
C. Decimal value of the character
D. Hex value of the character
70-357  vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which of the following appendices gives detailed lists of all the technical terms used in the report?
A. Required Work Efforts
B. References
C. Research
D. Glossary
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
An external intrusion test and analysis identify security weaknesses and strengths of the client’s systems
and networks as they appear from outside the client’s security perimeter, usually from the Internet. The
goal of an external intrusion test and analysis is to demonstrate the existence of known vulnerabilities that
could be exploited by an external attacker.
During external penetration testing, which of the following scanning techniques allow you to determine a
port’s state without making a full connection to the host?
A. XMAS Scan
B. SYN scan
C. FIN Scan
D. NULL Scan
70-357  exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Passwords protect computer resources and files from unauthorized access by malicious users. Using
passwords is the most capable and effective way to protect information and to increase the security level
of a company.

Password cracking is the process of recovering passwords from data that have been stored in or
transmitted by a computer system to gain unauthorized access to a system.

Which of the following password cracking attacks tries every combination of characters until the password
is broken?
A. Brute-force attack
B. Rule-based attack
C. Hybrid attack
D. Dictionary attack
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Rules of Engagement (ROE) document provides certain rights and restriction to the test team for
performing the test and helps testers to overcome legal, federal, and policy-related restrictions to use
different penetration testing tools and techniques.

What is the last step in preparing a Rules of Engagement (ROE) document?
A. Conduct a brainstorming session with top management and technical teams

B. Decide the desired depth for penetration testing
C. Conduct a brainstorming session with top management and technical teams
D. Have pre-contract discussions with different pen-testers
70-357  dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Which of the following is a framework of open standards developed by the Internet Engineering Task
Force (IETF) that provides secure transmission of the sensitive data over an unprotected medium, such as
the Internet?
A. DNSSEC
B. Netsec
C. IKE
D. IPsec
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
Mason is footprinting an organization to gather competitive intelligence. He visits the company’s website
for contact information and telephone numbers but does not find any. He knows the entire staff directory
was listed on their website 12 months. How can he find the directory?
A. Visit Google’s search engine and view the cached copy
B. Crawl and download the entire website using the Surfoffline tool and save them to his computer
C. Visit the company’s partners’ and customers’ website for this information
D. Use WayBackMachine in Archive.org web site to retrieve the Internet archive
70-357  pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Application security assessment is one of the activity that a pen tester performs in the attack phase. It is
designed to identify and assess threats to the organization through bespoke, proprietary applications or
systems. It checks the application so that a malicious user cannot access, modify, or destroy data or
services within the system.

Identify the type of application security assessment which analyzes the application-based code to confirm
that it does not contain any sensitive information that an attacker might use to exploit an application.
A. Web Penetration Testing
B. Functionality Testing

C. Authorization Testing
D. Source Code Review
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a firewall?
A. Manages public access to private networked resources
B. Routes packets between the networks
C. Examines all traffic routed between the two networks to see if it meets certain criteria
D. Filters only inbound traffic but not outbound traffic
70-357 vce Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Updated: Aug 02, 2017
Q&As: 275

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QUESTION NO: 16
A text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 12 is set to auto-enter the following formula:
FirstName & ” ” & LastNarne
FirstName and LastNarne are text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all
referenced fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any
is checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field
(Choose two.)
A. a record is first created
B. each time the value of the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified
C. a user selects the menu item Records > Relookup Field Contents
D. any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
210-260 exam Answer: A,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
Consider a FileMaker Pro 12 database with the following tables:
210-260 dumps

And the relationship is configured as follows:
210-260 dumps

Which two statements are true about this situation? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible to create new Salesperson records by importing data into the Order table.
B. Users may create new Order records by entering data into a portal on a Salesperson Detail
layout.
C. A merge field can be used on layouts based on the Salesperson table occurrence to show a list
of all of a salesperson’s orders.
D. Removing the sort from the Order side of the relationship will not change the way that Order
records are displayed in a portal on a Salesperson Detail layout.
E. List (Salesperson:: Salesperson ID) calculated from the context of the Order table returns a list
containing the Salesperson ID for the current order.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event id has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records … nor the
Delete related records … settings to be enabled for the Event table.
210-260 dumps Answer:: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an
External ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation
B. These fields may be indexed unless they are of type Summary.
C. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL when the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
D. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button
in the FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
A FileMaker Pro 12 database has two tables called Company and Customer. Both tables have a
number field called CompanyID. The two tables have a relationship between them formed by the
condition Company:: CompanyID = Customer:: CompanyID. Each table also has a text field called
CompanyName. The CompanyName field in the Customer table is defined to Auto-enter
calculated value, with the formula: Company:: CompanyName and the option Do not replace
existing value of field unchecked.
Under which circumstances will the value of the CompanyName field on a Customer record be
refreshed with data from the related Company record?
A. any time the Customer record is modified
B. any time the index of the Company:: CompanyID field is rebuilt
C. any time the related Company:: CompanyName field is modified
D. any time the CompanyID field on the Customer record is modified
E. any time a user chooses Refresh Window from the Records menu while viewing the Customer
record
210-260 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
Which statement is true about container fields in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. If one container field in a given database file is set to Store container data externally, all
container fields in that file must store their data externally
B. If a file larger than a database’s Maximum container file size value is inserted into a container
field. FileMaker Pro 12 will automatically compress the inserted file.
C. If a container field is set to Store container data externally, then the Store only a reference to
the file option is automatically selected for any file inserted into that field.
D. If the setting Generate and store thumbnails for images is chosen in the Manage Containers
dialog for a given database file, all container fields in that file will have thumbnails generated.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
Which two are directly selectable options in the Validation tab of the field options dialog in
FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two.)
A. Existing value
B. Strict data type: Integer
C. Strict data type: Time of Day
D. Strict datatype: Alphanumeric
E. Minimum number of characters
210-260 vce Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
Which two statements are true about fields using global storage in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose
two.)
A. Globally stored fields are always empty at the start of a user’s session.
B. Fields using global storage can be used as match fields in a relationship.
C. A container field using global storage may not be configured to store its data externally.
D. Globally stored fields can only be accessed from within the file in which they are defined.
E. Changes to data in globally stored fields in a shared file are stored when the server cache is
flushed.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
What is possible when working with shadow fields from an External ODBC Data Source?
A. creating a two-column value list
B. saving formatted text (bold, italic, etc.)
C. checking the Auto-complete using previously entered values checkbox in the Field/Control
Setup dialog
D. inserting binary data such as a PDF file, provided the field options are set to Store container
data externally
210-260 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
Which three field options may be set for a shadow field from an External ODBC Data Source?
(Choose three.)
A. Validation: not empty
B. Validation: unique value
C. Validation: existing value
D. Auto-enter creation timestamp
E. Auto-enter serial number, on creation
F. Storage: automatically create indexes as needed
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 26
A table in a FileMaker Pro 12 database has a text field CompanyName. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
– Validate data in this field only during data entry
– Allow user to override during data entry
– Require not empty
– Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName
field. What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides
the error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see the specified
custom message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog
from the FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors,
along with a count of those records.
210-260 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
Given a text field Full Name, Auto-Enter by Calculated value has been selected in the field
options, using the following formula:
Name First &.” “& Name Last
The developer then disables (unchecks) the option Do not replace existing value of field (if any).
For which two cases will the results of the specified formula be inserted into the field Full Name?
(Choose two.)
A. When the record is first created
B. When the field Full Name itself is modified
C. Only when the field Full Name was previously empty
D. When either of the fields Name First or Name Last is modified
E. When the field Full Name itself is modified and the record is committed
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28
A new database is created with two tables, Client and Contracts. The only modification made on
the Relationships Graph is to establish a relationship between them which is set to delete related
records in Contracts when a record in Client is deleted.

What happens when the Client table occurrence is deleted from the Relationships Graph?
A. Since it is the only occurrence of the Client table on the graph, it can not be deleted.
B. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records are deleted.
C. The formula in the calculation field Name Full (defined as Name First & ” ” & Name Last) will be
broken.
D. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records will have values
in the client id field deleted.
210-260 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
Consider two FileMaker files, Collection and Item, where tables from Item are included in the
Relationships Graph of Collection.
Which method will preserve all functionality in the Relationships Graph of Collection after
renaming the Item file to Artifact?

A. Choose File > Manage > External Data Sources… for Collection and reset the file path
B. Click the Repair Reference button in the Relationships Graph for Collection and reset the file
path
C. Delete referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and
recreate them for Artifact
D. Select referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and right
click to choose Rename File Source…
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30
Which two FileMaker Pro 12 objects will display data contents even when unrelated to the current
layout’s table occurrence? (Choose two.)
A. Merge variable
B. Indexed tirnestarnp field
C. A text field from a shadow table
D. Globally stored number field placed in a portal
E. A container field defined with the Store as reference only option enabled
Answer: A,D
210-260 vce Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what is known about this database?
A. The Event table occurrence references a table from an external ODBC Data Source
B. There can be zero or one, but no more than one, Event record related to any Task record.
C. The corner arrows indicate all three table occurrences reference tables from external data
sources.
D. From a layout based on the Event table occurrence, a portal could be drawn showing both
related Task and Volunteer data.
210-260 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:

The Pass4itsure 210-260 dumps IINS is the required exams associated with the Cisco CCNA Security certification. This exam tests the candidate’s knowledge of secure network infrastructure, understanding core security concepts, managing secure access, VPN encryption, firewalls, intrusion prevention, web and email content security, and endpoint security. This Pass4itsure https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-260.html dumps exam validates skills for installation, troubleshooting, and monitoring of a secure network to maintain integrity, confidentiality, and availability of data and devices, according to the Cisco website.

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