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QUESTION 21
Which automation mode in the Audio Mixer window should you use if you want automation to start only when you begin to adjust a value, and the value to remain where it is when you stop adjusting it.
A. Latch
B. Touch
C. Read
D. Write

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 22
Which is a valid purpose for exporting video with sequence markers?
A. To mark important points in individual clips in the sequence.
B. To add subtitles to a sequence.
C. To create Web links or chapter links in an exported sequence.
D. To view a comment in the Program monitor when the CTI is cued to the marker.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23
You are working with a sequence that will be exported to a movie for streaming Web playback. Which three encoding formats should you choose? (Choose three)
A. RealMedia
B. MPEG2
C. Microsoft DV
D. QuickTime
E. MPEG1
F. Windows Media

Correct Answer: ADF QUESTION 24
Which is a valid use for a reference monitor?
A. Viewing multiple source clips at once.
B. Viewing the sequence in a secondary monitor, usually for the purpose of color correction or color matching.
C. Ganging the Source and Program views together.
D. Arranging the windows to simulate older versions of Premiere.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25
You are working on your sequence and realize that you chose the wrong preset when you started the project. The audio sample rate of your project is 32kHz, but the sample rate of your source media audio is 48kHz. You do NOT want to downsample your audio. What should you do?
A. Nest the sequence in a new sequence that uses the proper sample rate.
B. Continue working, but make sure to export the project at 48kHz.
C. Start a new project with the 48kHz setting and import the sequence you were working on into that project.
D. change the audio sample rate to 48kHz in the General panel of the Project Settings dialog box,

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 26
A still image has a duration of 2 seconds in a project that is set to 30 frames per second. Which procedure will create a 2-second clip instead of 60 frames at 1/30 of a second each?
A. Select Millions of Colors from the Color Depth menu in the Video Rendering submenu of the Project Settings dialog box.
B. Select Scale Clips to Project Dimensions when Adding to Sequence from the General menu of the Project Settings dialog box.
C. Select Optimize Stills in the Video Rendering submenu of the Project Settings dialog box.
D. Select an appropriate codec from the Compressor menu in the Video Rendering submenu of the Project Settings dialog box.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Your sequence has several clips on the Timeline. The edit points for the clips are timed to the beat of a music soundtrack. The edit point between the third and fourth clips are NOT in sync with the music. You want to drag the edit point between clips three and four to the correct location WITHOUT affecting any of the other edit points. Which tool should you use?
A. Pen
B. Rolling Edit
C. Ripple Edit
D. Slip

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Which action can be performed while using the Capture window and playing back a tape for viewing or capture?
A. Changing the folder where clips are logged.
B. Changing the scratch disk.
C. Entering information about the next clip.
D. Logging clips to a batch list.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29
You are working in the Adobe Title Designer. You want your title to begin off screen, roll from the bottom to the top, and finish off screen. What should you do?
A. Create your text. Right-click the text box and choose Roll From Bottom to Top, and check Start Off Screen and End Off Screen.
B. Create your text. Choose Title > Roll/Crawl Options and check Roll From Bottom to Top.
C. Select Roll from the Title Type pop up menu. Create your text. Choose Title > Roll/Crawl Options and check Start Off Screen and End Off Screen.
D. Create your text. Right-click the text box and choose Transform > Roll/Crawl Options and check Start Off Screen and End Off Screen.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
You want to add a new video clip to your timeline between two existing video clips. You do NOT want to lose any existing footage. Which editing technique should you use?
A. rolling edit
B. insert edit
C. overlay edit
D. razor edit
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
Which task can be accomplished from the Audio Mixer window?
A. adding a split edit between two audio clips
B. adding an audio effect
C. adding a clip from a bin
D. adding a cross-fade to two audio clips

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
You want to add an additional keyframe directly to a clip on the timeline. You select the clip and set it to Show Keyframes for the filter you want to add a keyframe to. Which tool should you use to add a new keyframe to the clip?
A. Ctrl+left click the clip with the Pen tool
B. Ctrl+left click the clip with the Selection tool
C. left click the clip with the Selection tool
D. left click the clip with the Pen tool

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Which options in the Export Movies dialog box will allow you to open and edit the original project from within another Adobe Premiere Pro project or from another application that supports the command.?
A. File Type set to Animated GIF and Embedding Options set to None
B. File Type set to Targa and Embedding Options set to Project
C. File Type set to QuickTime and Embedding Options set to None
D. File Type set to Microsoft AVI and Embedding Options set to Project

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
Which portion of the timeline is represented in the Effect Controls window?
A. The duration of the timeline
B. The duration of the selected clip on the timeline
C. The duration of the active sequence on the timeline
D. The duration of the work area set on the timeline

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
You want to import an Adobe Photoshop image that contains blending modes while preserving the appearance of the image. What should you do?
A. Import the Photoshop image as a single file, and choose the top layer in the Layer Options of the Import Layered File dialog box.
B. Import the Photoshop image as a single file, and select Merged Layers in the Layer Options section of the Import Layered File dialog box.
C. Import the Photoshop image as a sequence.
D. Import the Photoshop image as a series of stills.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
You want to insert a clip into a sequence without altering the soundtrack. Which method results in an insert edit that shifts subsequent clips only in the tracks to which you add the clip?
A. Alt-drag to a track in the Timeline.
B. Ctrl-drag to a track in the Timeline.
C. Ctrl+Alt-drag to a track in the Timeline.
D. Ctrl+Shift-drag to a track in the Timeline.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
Which equipment does Adobe Premiere Pro support natively and is necessary for device control of an external digital video device?
A. a source videotape without timecode
B. a IEEE 1394 cable that connects the device to the computer
C. a serial port connection on your computer
D. a software driver for Windows Media Player or Apple Quicktime

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38
You want to import CD audio into your project. What should you do?
A. Import the CDA file into your project and choose Clip > Audio > Conform to Project Settings.
B. Choose File > Capture > CD Audio, and select Current Project Settings in the Conform Audio dialog box.
C. Use a third party application to first convert the CD Audio to a supported format, and then import the audio clip
D. Choose File > Capture and select CD Audio Device from the Device Control pop up menu.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 39
You are editing the middle of three adjacent clips. You want to shift the In and Out points of the clip forward or backward by the same number of frames by using a single action.
You do NOT want to change the duration of the clip or affect the adjacent clips. Which tool should you use?
A. Slip Edit
B. Rolling Edit
C. Slide Edit
D. Ripple Edit

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40
Which statement about locking a video track in the timeline is true?
A. The locked track becomes the target track.
B. The associated audio track is also locked.
C. The locked track is not exported.
D. The locked track is not shifted when performing insert edits.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 41
Which set of options in the Transcode Settings dialog box of the Adobe Media Encoder will allow you to store information about the media?
A. Audience
B. Metadata
C. Multiplexer
D. Bitrate Encoding

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
You want a title to fade in over a clip. What should you do?
A. select the title in the timeline, then set opacity keyframes in the Effects Control window
B. select the clip in the timeline, then set opacity keyframes in the Effects Control window
C. select the clip in the timeline, then set opacity keyframes in the Effects window
D. select the title in the timeline, then set opacity keyframes in the Effects window

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
You want to resize the Work Area Bar over a contiguous range of clips. What should you do?
A. Alt-double click the Work Area Bar.
B. Double-click the Work Area Bar.
C. Context-click the Work Area Bar and select the appropriate option in the context menu.
D. Ctrl-click the Work Area Bar.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
Which automation mode in the Audio Mixer window should you use if you want automation to start only when you begin to adjust a value, and the value to remain where it is when you stop adjusting it.
A. Touch
B. Read
C. Latch
D. Write
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Which roll/crawl option specifies the number of frames that will play before the title begins?
A. Pre-Roll
B. Post-Roll
C. Ease-Out
D. Ease-In

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
Which three attributes can be adjusted when you use the Fixed Effects area of the Effects Control palette? (Choose three)
A. Scale
B. Anchor Point
C. Tilt
D. Transform
E. Swivel
F. Rotation

Correct Answer: ABF QUESTION 47
When is digital audio conformed to the project settings?
A. when the audio is edited in Premiere Pro
B. when the project is exported to its final format
C. when the project is completely previewed in Premiere Pro
D. when the audio is imported

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 48
You want to know where in your video frame you can display a title that will NOT be cut off when viewed on a video monitor. Which setting in the Monitor window should you use?
A. Set In and Out Points
B. Output
C. Set Unnumbered Marker
D. Safe Margins

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 49
You are looking at a timeline and CANNOT see the first frame of each video clip. You want to view the thumbnails of the video clips. What should you do?
A. expand the video track by clicking the triangle to the left of a track’s name
B. right-click the clips in the video track and select Frame Hold from the pop-up menu
C. right-click the clips in the video track and select Enable from the pop-up menu
D. click the Eye icon to the left of the video track

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 50
Which set of options in the Transcode Settings dialog box of the Adobe Media Encoder will allow you to store information about the media?
A. Multiplexer
B. Bitrate Encoding
C. Audience
D. Metadata

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 51
What happens if you position the cursor over the edit point of the transition graphic as shown in the exibit, and then drag the cursor left or right?

A. Change the transition duration
B. A ripple edit
C. Change the transition position
D. A rolling edit

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 52
You want to export only the audio from a sequence in the Timeline window that contains both video and audio. What should you do?
A. right-click each video clip in the timeline, deselect Reveal in Project, and then export
B. turn off the Show Frames selection in the Set Display Style area of the timeline, and then export
C. click the eye icon to the left of any video clip in the timeline to remove it, and then export
D. set the properties in each video clip in the timeline to the appropriate setting, and then export

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 53
Where does a saved static title created in the Adobe Title Designer automatically appear?
A. at the current time in the Timeline
B. at the end of the currently selected clip in the Timeline
C. in the active bin in the Project window
D. in a separate file that needs to be imported to the current project

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 54
Your timeline is set to display keyframes. You want to set a new keyframe for a property in the timeline. What should you do?
A. Position the Selection tool over the keyframe graph line where you want to add the keyframe, and then Control-click.
B. Position the Pen tool over the keyframe graph line where you want to add the keyframe, and then Control-click.
C. Position the Selection tool over the keyframe graph line where you want to add the keyframe, and then click.
D. Position the Pen tool over the keyframe graph line where you want to add the keyframe, and then click.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 55
What is the purpose of the Unlink Media command in the Project menu?
A. To take a single footage clip with audio and video and create two separate clips, one for audio and one for video.
B. To recapture the selected footage clip at the resolution of the project.
C. To convert the selected online file to an offline file.
D. To remove any unused files in the Project Window.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 56
Which setting in the Audio Mixer window should you choose if you want to alter automation settings for some properties while leaving other properties unchanged?
A. Pre-Fader
B. Switch to Touch After Write
C. Safe During Write
D. Show/Hide Tracks

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 57
Which options in the Export Movies dialog box will allow you to open and edit the original project from within another Adobe Premiere Pro project or from another application that supports the command.?
A. File Type set to QuickTime and Embedding Options set to None
B. File Type set to Animated GIF and Embedding Options set to None
C. File Type set to Targa and Embedding Options set to Project
D. File Type set to Microsoft AVI and Embedding Options set to Project

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 58
You are editing the middle of three adjacent clips. You want to shift the In and Out points of the clip forward or backward by the same number of frames by using a single action.
You do NOT want to change the duration of the clip or affect the adjacent clips. Which tool should you use?
A. Rolling Edit
B. Ripple Edit
C. Slide Edit
D. Slip Edit

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 59
You have copied a set of keyframes in the Effects Controls window. Where will the copied keyframes
initially appear when you paste them in a second clip?
A. In the corresponding property in the destination clip’s effect. The earliest keyframe appears at the current time, and the other keyframes follow in relative order.
B. In the corresponding property in the destination clip’s effect. The earliest keyframe appears at the beginning of the clip, and the other keyframes follow in relative order.
C. In the selected properties in the destination clip’s effect. The earliest keyframe appears at the current time, and the other keyframes follow in relative order
D. In the selected properties in the destination clip’s effect. The earliest keyframe appears at the beginning of the clip, and the other keyframes follow in relative order.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
When is the Apply Video Transition option in the Squence menu be available?
A. Anytime a clip is selected
B. Anytime the the current-time indicator is on the edit point between two clips on your target track
C. Anytime the Video Transitions Bin is selected
D. Anytime there is a clip on the timeline

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
Which edit is created by default when you drag a clip from a bin into the Timeline?
A. overlay edit
B. insert edit
C. razor edit
D. rolling edit

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
You want to add an additional keyframe directly to a clip on the timeline. You select the clip and set it to Show Keyframes for the filter you want to add a keyframe to. Which tool should you use to add a new keyframe to the clip?
A. left click the clip with the Selection tool
B. left click the clip with the Pen tool
C. Ctrl+left click the clip with the Selection tool
D. Ctrl+left click the clip with the Pen tool
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 63
Which statement about a static title created in the Adobe Title Designer is true?
A. If you are creating a static title in content for the Web or for a CD, the safe title and safe action zones do not apply since you can see the entire video.
B. The title is saved with a .ppj file extension.
C. You must apply transparency to a title before bringing it into the timeline.
D. Logos added to a static title cannot be resized.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 64
Your sequence has three clips. You want to move edit point 2 WITHOUT affecting any other edit points.
Which tool should you use?

A. Slide
B. Rolling Edit
C. Razor Edit
D. Slip

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 65
Which button in the Project window allows you to override the default thumbnail that is displayed?
A. Icon
B. Automate to Sequence
C. Play
D. Poster Frame

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 51
You have created the following expression on Layer A: thisComp.layer(“layer D”).scale.valueAtTime(time-2) Which is the global object of this expression?
A. scale
B. thisComp
C. layer(“layer D”)
D. valueAtTime(time-2)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 52
Which option or feature should you use to increase or decrease the transparency of an entire matte?
A. Alpha Levels
B. Matte Choker
C. Color Range Key
D. Color Difference Key

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 53
You have created an animated layer that will be used to create highlights on the layers below. You want the highlights to display when they are only over opaque pixels of the underlying layers. Which After Effects setting or feature should you use?
A. Alpha Matte
B. Luma Matte
C. Inverted Alpha Matte
D. Preserve Underlying Transparency

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 54
You have created a layer and applied a Track Matte. What happens when you choose Edit > Split Layer?
A. After Effects retains the order of Track Mattes above the layer.
B. After Effects warns you to remove the Track Matte and reapply it after the layer is split.
C. After Effects splits the layer and applies the Preserve Underlying Transparency option to the new layers.
D. After Effects creates a precomposition of the two new layers and applies the Track Matte in the current composition.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 55
Which keying effect in After Effects creates a binary key?
A. Color key
B. Inner Outer key
C. Linear Color key
D. Color Difference key

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 56
Click the Exhibit button.
Which icon should you select to allow your working view to match the pixel aspect ratio of your final output?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
F. F

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 57
Which setting for Resolution in the Composition Settings dialog box renders one-quarter of the pixels contained in the full resolution footage?
A. Half
B. Full
C. Custom
D. Quarter

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 58
What happens when you place 24 fps footage into a composition with a frame rate of 15 fps?
A. The 24 fps footage speeds up.
B. The 24 fps footage slows down.
C. The 24 fps footage skips frames.
D. The 24 fps footage repeats frames.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
Which After Effects command lets you isolate a video layer for editing by hiding other video layers in the Composition window?
A. Layer > Switches > Shy
B. Layer > Switches > Solo
C. Layer > Bring Layer to Front
D. Layer > Switches > Collapse

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 60
You want to expand the area previewed to the size of the composition. What should you do?
A. choose View > Resolution > Full
B. Shift-click on the RAM Preview button
C. double-click the center of the Work Area Bar
D. double-click on the Rulers in the Composition window

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 61
Which factor helps determine memory requirements for Adobe After Effects when rendering a composition?
A. the clock speed of the CPU
B. the resolution of the monitor
C. the resolution of the composition frame
D. the throughput rate of the computer’s bus

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 62
You applied a drop shadow to a layer, but when it is in motion, the shadow follows the layer and NOT the light source. What could be wrong?
A. The drop shadow is locked to the wrong layer.
B. The light source needs to be animated over time.
C. The motion was rendered before the drop shadow in the rendering pipeline.
D. The drop shadow was rendered before the motion in the rendering pipeline.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 63
You want to enable a playback device to choose an appropriate stream optimized to the users bandwidth. Which option should you select when exporting to Windows Media or Real Media?
A. Video
B. Metadata
C. Audiences
D. Video Content

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 64
Which field order is required when exporting field-rendered NTSC DV video?
A. lower field
B. upper field
C. upper or lower field
D. none, DV video uses progressive scan

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
A user has set the audio preview settings to 44.100 KHz, but after final rendering, the audio quality sounds worse than it did in the preview. What could be the problem?
A. The audio preview is set to 8-bit.
B. The audio preview is set to mono.
C. The output module is set for a lower sample rate.
D. The output module is set for a higher sample rate.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 66
Which statement about using the RotoBezier option when working with paths is true?
A. Only open paths can be converted to RotoBezier paths.
B. Only closed paths can be converted to RotoBezier paths.
C. RotoBezier paths can be edited by adjusting their direction points.
D. You can change RotoBezier smooth corners to sharp corners with the Convert Vertex tool.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 67
You have created a layer and applied a Track Matte. What happens when you choose Edit > Split Layer?
A. After Effects retains the order of Track Mattes above the layer.
B. After Effects warns you to remove the Track Matte and reapply it after the layer is split.
C. After Effects splits the layer and applies the Preserve Underlying Transparency option to the new layers.
D. After Effects creates a precomposition of the two new layers and applies the Track Matte in the current composition.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 68
Which keying effect divides an image into two mattes and then combines them into an alpha matte?
A. Extract Key
B. Linear Color Key
C. Color Difference Key
D. Difference Matte Key

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 69
Which option controls how closely the created path matches the shape of the alpha channel when you choose Layer > Auto Trace?
A. Blur
B. Threshold
C. Tolerance
D. Current Frame

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 70
Which light has a source constrained by a cone?
A. spot
B. point
C. parallel
D. ambient

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 71
Which three properties are added to a 2D layer when it is converted to a 3D layer? (Choose three.)
A. ability to accept lights
B. ability to cast shadows
C. ability to do 3D modeling
D. Z axis transform properties
E. ability to animate 3D objects in ElectricImage files
F. ability to modify 3D information from composited files

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 72
You are working with a 3D layer and choose Effect > Distort >Transform.
What happens first during rendering?
A. x, y, and z properties are applied in the Timeline window.
B. Orientation properties are applied in the Timeline window.
C. Orientation and x, y, and z properties are applied in the Timeline window.
D. Transformation properties are applied with the Effect > Distort >Transform command.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 73
Which statement about using After Effects OpenGL previewing is true?
A. Layers are limited to 2,000 by 2,000 pixels.
B. OpenGL supports all After Effects blending modes.
C. OpenGL previews are created by using Adaptive Resolution previewing.
D. OpenGL previews are limited only by the amount of installed RAM on the system.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 74
You want to slice an image that contains 3D channel information along its z depth values. Which 3D Channel effect should you use?
A. ID Matte
B. Depth Matte
C. Depth of Field
D. 3D Channel Extract

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 75
You want to crossfade between several cameras in a 3D scene while rendering final output. Which feature or command should you use?
A. precomposing
B. Effect > 3D Channel > Depth of Field
C. Timeline camera property Point of Interest
D. Timeline camera property Focus Distance

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
Which example represents an array for scale in an expression?
A. .scale
B. [xy,xy]
C. Scale = 3
D. xyscale = Math.sqrt

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 77
You have created an expression for the scale property of Layer B. You drag the pick whip to the x value for the position property of Layer A. Which expression is written for the scale property of Layer B?
A. thisComp.layer(“Layer A”).position[x]
B. thisComp.layer(“Layer A”).position[0]
C. thisComp.layer(“Layer A”).position[0], thisComp.layer(“Layer A”).position[0]
D. thisComp.layer(“Layer A”).position[0], thisComp.layer(“Layer A”).position[1]

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 78
You have created the following expression on Layer A: thisComp.layer(“layer D”).scale.valueAtTime(time-2) Which is the global object of this expression?
A. scale
B. thisComp
C. layer(“layer D”)
D. valueAtTime(time-2)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 79
Which After Effects feature enables you to create a relationship from the keyframes of one layer property and dynamically control different layer properties?
A. null objects
B. child layers
C. expressions
D. parent layers

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 80
For which option in the Project Settings dialog box can you enter a value for where to start numbering frames?
A. Frames
B. Color Depth
C. Drop-Frame
D. Non-Drop-Frame

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 81
Which is the default setting for levels in the Audio palette?
A. -96 dB
B. 0 dB
C. 100 dB
D. 120 dB

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 82
Which action restores the original settings of all palettes and command settings?
A. rebooting your computer
B. restarting Adobe After Effects
C. opening a new Adobe After Effects project
D. deleting the Adobe After Effects preferences file

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 83
Which option in the Smart Masks palette should you use to match the seventh vertex in the first keyframe to the seventh vertex in the second keyframe?
A. Quality
B. Keyframe Fields
C. Bending Resistance
D. Use Linear Vertex Paths

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 84
Which tool should you use to change the point around which a layer will rotate without changing the position of the layer in the Composition window?
A. Rotation tool
B. Selection tool
C. Pan Behind tool
D. Orbit Camera tool

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 85
Which is an example of a non-drop-frame timecode?
A. 00072
B. 0007+2
C. 4:15:14:07
D. 4;15;14;04

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 86
Which action will preview audio in the Work Area?
A. pressing the spacebar on the keyboard
B. pressing Shift + 0 on the numeric keypad
C. pressing the Enter key on the numeric keypad
D. pressing Alt + the period key (Windows) or Option + the period key (Mac OS) on the numeric keypad

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 87
You are using the Motion Tracking feature of After Effects and are setting the search region to track the movement of a specific feature in the footage.
Which should you use to determine the size of the search region?
A. speed of movement in the entire shot
B. changes of direction throughout the entire shot
C. total movement of the feature throughout the entire shot
D. frame to frame movement of the feature throughout the shot

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 88
You have added additional track points to motion footage by using the New Track Point option in the Tracker Controls palette options menu. Which feature or command can make use of the additional Track Point data?
A. expressions
B. Track Type > Stabilize
C. Track Type > Perspective corner pin
D. position keyframes set by the Track Motion button

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 89
Which effects can you apply to a tracked location using the Motion Tracker?
A. keying effects
B. effects with rotation properties
C. effects with position properties
D. effects with text or number properties

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 90
Which defines the area in the footage to be tracked when using the Motion Tracking feature?
A. track point
B. attach point
C. search region
D. feature region

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 91
Which Vector Paint playback mode displays strokes painted at the current frame and surrounding few frames?
A. All Strokes
B. Onion Skin
C. Past Strokes
D. Hold Strokes

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 92
Which operation can be streamlined by using Favorite Effects?
A. applying a Motion Blur to each layer in a composition
B. applying time remapping to each layer in a composition
C. applying the same interpretation to each footage in the Project window
D. applying the same compression settings to each QuickTime movie in the render queue

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 93
Effects applied to an adjustment layer modify _____.
A. all layers in the composition
B. only the adjustment layer itself
C. all layers below the adjustment layer
D. all layers above the adjustment layer

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 94
Which After Effects feature or command moves pixels in one layer based on the brightness values of pixels in another layer?
A. Offset
B. Motion Tracking
C. Time Remapping
D. Displacement Map

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 95
Which statement about how Adobe After Effects uses RGB images as layer maps in the Particle Playground is true?
A. Adobe After Effects combines the RGB channels into a grayscale composite channel capable of changing only one particle property.
B. Adobe After Effects allows you to map each channel of an RGB image to a separate particle property. The image can change three particle properties.
C. Adobe After Effects allows you to choose one channel of the RGB image to map to one particle property. The image can change only one particle property.
D. Adobe After Effects can only use grayscale images as Layer Maps in Particle Playground NOT RGB images. The image can change NO particle properties.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 96
You want to create a custom brush. What should you do?
A. create the brush in the Paint palette
B. create the brush in the Brush Tips palette
C. Alt + click (Windows) or Option + click (Mac OS) with the brush tool
D. Alt + click (Windows) or Option + click (Mac OS) with the Clone Stamp tool

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 97
After enabling the keyframe stopwatch for rotation, you set several rotation keyframes with different values for a layer. When previewing the animation there is NO rotation occurring in the animation. What should you do?
A. build a RAM preview
B. enable Layer Keyframes from the Composition window menu
C. redo the keyframes moving the time marker for each change in rotation
D. redo the rotation using linear, bezier, auto bezier, or continuous bezier keyframes

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 98
You want to apply a filter on a layer that has a mask. You do NOT want the filter to affect the mask. What should you do?
A. precompose the layer and apply the filter and mask to the precomposed layer
B. precompose the layer with the filter and apply the mask to the precomposed layer
C. precompose the layer with the mask and apply the filter to the precomposed layer
D. precompose the layer with the filter and mask applied to the layer choosing the Leave All Attributes In option in the Pre-Compose dialog box

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 99
What happens to keyframes when a layer is time-stretched to 200%?
A. The keyframe values are doubled.
B. The keyframes are also time-stretched.
C. The keyframe values are reduced by half.
D. The keyframes maintain their original positions.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 100
Auto-orient rotation is used to _____.
A. constrain the rotation of a layer item to a specified angle
B. allow a layer item to rotate automatically along a motion path
C. make a layer item automatically rotate and point toward another moving item
D. automatically orient the rotation of a layer to a vertical position at all times while in motion

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 101
You want to assign the transformation properties of one layer to the transformation properties of other layers. What should you do?
A. use parenting
B. use null objects
C. choose Layer > Auto Trace
D. choose Animation > Keyframe Assistant > Sequence Layers

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 102
You want to change the default formatting of text layers. What should you do?
A. choose Edit > Preferences
B. make changes in the Character palette with no text selected
C. highlight text in another layer while making changes in the Character palette
D. select multiple text layers of text while entering changes in the Character palette

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 103
Which statement about creating masks for text layers is true?
A. They must be created in a pre-composition.
B. You can create them in the Composition window.
C. Only RotoBezier masks can be used with text layers.
D. You must use the command Layer > Create Outlines before masking.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 104
You want to animate the opacity of a text string gradually from the first character to the last character in the text string. Which Timeline window property should you keyframe?
A. End
B. Start
C. Offset
D. Opacity

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 105
You want to animate the space between lines in a text layer. For which text feature should you create keyframes?
A. Leading
B. Vertical Scale
C. Adobe Everyline Composer
D. Adobe Singleline Composer

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 106
Which text feature lets you control the spacing between a range of selected text characters?
A. Kerning
B. Leading
C. Tracking
D. Horizontal Scale Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 107
Which window should you use to analyze, trim, and insert footage into a composition?
A. Layer
B. Project
C. Footage
D. Timeline

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 108
Which statement about frame rates in After Effects is true?
A. Frame rates are set at the project level.
B. Composition frame rates override project frame rates.
C. Compositions in a project can contain different frame rates.
D. Frame rates are set for the project in the render module of the Render Queue.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 109
Which option describes how NTSC video displays fields?
A. 29.97 fps
B. interlaced
C. 3:2 pulldown
D. progressive scan

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 110
Which statement about using Adobe Illustrator or Adobe Photoshop paths as masks in an After Effects composition is true?
A. Paths can be open or closed.
B. Only a single path can be used.
C. Paths must have no fill applied in Illustrator or Photoshop.
D. The paths must be dragged and dropped from Illustrator or Photoshop.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 21
Click the Exhibit button.
You are exporting the timeline using the Adobe Media Encoder as shown in the exhibit. What effect will happen if you decrease the quality from 5 to 3 have?

A. Increase the quality of the exported file
B. Reduce the interlacing of the exported file
C. Reduce the time it takes to encode the file
D. Increase the time it takes to encode the file

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22
You want to export your sequence with an alpha channel for later import into an NTSC DV project. Which compression method should you choose in the Export Movie Settings dialog box?
A. Microsoft DV
B. QuickTime Cinepak
C. QuickTime Sorenson
D. Uncompressed Microsoft .AVI with millions of colors+

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 23
You want to export your sequence to an NTSC DV movie for use in future NTSC DV projects. Which video options should you choose in the Export Movie Settings dialog box?
A. 720 x 480 Frame Size; No Fields (Progressive Scan); 15 fps Non Drop-Frame Timecode; Square Pixels (1.0).
B. 320 x 240 Frame Size; No Fields (Progressive Scan); 15 fps Non Drop-Frame Timecode; Square Pixels (1.0).
C. 720 x 480 Frame Size; Lower Fields First; 29.97 fps Drop Frame Timecode; D1/DV NTSC (0.9) Pixel Aspect Ratio.
D. 720 x 486 Frame Size; Lower Fields First; 29.97 fps Drop Frame Timecode; D1/DV NTSC (0.9) Pixel Aspect Ratio.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Click the Exhibit button.
You are exporting the timeline using the Adobe Media Encoder as shown in the exhibit. What effect will decreasing the bitrate from 8.00 to 5.00 have?

A. Reduce the file size of the exported file
B. Reduce the frame rate of the exported file
C. Reduce the frame size of the exported file
D. Reduce the number of fields in the exported file

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25
Which media format is only available when exporting a timeline using the Adobe Media Encoder?
A. QuickTime
B. RealMedia
C. Microsoft AVI
D. Microsoft DV AVI

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26
In which situation should you deinterlace video footage?
A. You are exporting for PAL TV
B. You are exporting for the Web
C. You are exporting for NTSC TV
D. You are exporting for broadcast

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
Which statement about locking a video track in the timeline is true?
A. The locked track is not exported.
B. The associated audio track is also locked.
C. The locked track becomes the target track.
D. The locked track is not shifted when performing insert edits.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 28
Your sequence has several clips on the Timeline. The edit points for the clips are timed to the beat of a music soundtrack. The edit point between the third and fourth clips are NOT in sync with the music. You want to drag the edit point between clips three and four to the correct location WITHOUT affecting any of the other edit points. Which tool should you use?
A. Slip
B. Pen
C. Ripple Edit
D. Rolling Edit

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 29
You want to advance five frames by using the playback controls in the Monitor window. What should you do?
A. click the Step Forward button
B. Shift-click the Step Forward button
C. Alt-click the Step Forward button
D. Control-click the Step Forward button

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 30
Which is a valid purpose for exporting video with sequence markers?
A. To add subtitles to a sequence.
B. To mark important points in individual clips in the sequence.
C. To create Web links or chapter links in an exported sequence.
D. To view a comment in the Program monitor when the CTI is cued to the marker.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 31
Which edit is created by default when you drag a clip from a bin into the Timeline?
A. razor edit
B. insert edit
C. rolling edit
D. overlay edit

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
You are editing the middle of three adjacent clips. You want to shift the In and Out points of the clip forward or backward by the same number of frames by using a single action.
You do NOT want to change the duration of the clip or affect the adjacent clips. Which tool should you use?
A. Slip Edit
B. Slide Edit
C. Ripple Edit
D. Rolling Edit

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
You want to change the appearance of thumbnails in a sequence window. What should you do?
A. choose Sequence > Preferences and select an option
B. Alt-click the header area of the track to toggle between track display options
C. choose Timeline window options from the Timeline window menu and select an option for track display
D. click the triangle next to the name of the track to expand the track, click the Set Display Style button for the track and select an option

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
You want to adjust the edit point between two clips in your timeline. You do NOT want to adjust the total length of the sequence. Which editing tool or button should you use?
A. Extract button
B. Ripple Edit tool
C. Rolling Edit tool
D. Insert Edit button

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
You want to know where in your video frame you can display a title that will NOT be cut off when viewed on a video monitor. Which setting in the Monitor window should you use?
A. Output
B. Safe Margins
C. Set In and Out Points
D. Set Unnumbered Marker

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 36
When would you choose an option from the Audio Display Format pop-up box in the General submenu of the Project Settings dialog box?
A. to change the time division for the current project
B. to change how all sequences display time in the timeline
C. to change the time division for the audio track(s) in all sequences
D. to change how the currently selected sequence displays time in the timeline

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 37
You are dragging the shuttle slider in the Monitor window to the left. What happens as you move the slider further to the left?
A. The clip plays forward going faster as you drag further to the left.
B. The clip plays forward going slower as you drag further to the left.
C. The clip plays backwards going faster as you drag further to the left.
D. The clip plays backwards going slower as you drag further to the left.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 38
You want to insert a clip into a sequence without altering the soundtrack.
Which method results in an insert edit that shifts subsequent clips only in the tracks to which you add the clip?
A. Alt-drag to a track in the Timeline.
B. Ctrl-drag to a track in the Timeline.
C. Ctrl+Alt-drag to a track in the Timeline.
D. Ctrl+Shift-drag to a track in the Timeline.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 39
Which menu allows you to set the default transition?
A. The Preferences menu
B. The Effects window menu
C. The Effects Control window menu
D. The right click menu on the transition

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 40
Which portion of the timeline is represented in the Effect Controls window?
A. The duration of the timeline
B. The duration of the selected clip on the timeline
C. The duration of the work area set on the timeline
D. The duration of the active sequence on the timeline

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 41
Which three attributes can be adjusted when you use the Fixed Effects area of the Effects Control palette? (Choose three)
A. Tilt
B. Scale
C. Swivel
D. Rotation
E. Transform
F. Anchor Point

Correct Answer: BDF QUESTION 42
You want to copy a single effect from clip A to clip B. You do NOT want to copy all effects from clip A. What should you do?
A. select Clip A and choose Edit > Copy; then,select Clip B and choose Edit > Paste
B. select Clip A and choose Edit > Copy; then,select Clip B and choose Edit > Paste Attributes
C. Right click on clip A and choose Copy; then, right click on clip B and choose Paste Attributes
D. select Clip A, select the effect in the Effect Controls window and choose Edit > Copy; then, select Clip B and choose Edit > Paste in the Effect Controls window

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 43
Which transition setting for a wipe transition can be controlled from the Effects Control window?
A. adding a transition between two clips
B. deleting a transition between two clips
C. changing the type of wipe transition, such as from a clock wipe to a radial wipe
D. changing the color of the border between the two clips that forms the edge of the wipe

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 44
Click the Exhibit button.
What happens if you position the cursor over the edit point of the transition graphic as shown in the exibit, and then drag the cursor left or right?

A. A ripple edit
B. A rolling edit
C. Change the transition position
D. Change the transition duration

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
You have copied a set of keyframes in the Effects Controls window. Where will the copied keyframes initially appear when you paste them in a second clip?
A. In the selected properties in the destination clip’s effect. The earliest keyframe appears at the current time, and the other keyframes follow in relative order
B. In the corresponding property in the destination clip’s effect. The earliest keyframe appears at the current time, and the other keyframes follow in relative order.
C. In the selected properties in the destination clip’s effect. The earliest keyframe appears at the beginning of the clip, and the other keyframes follow in relative order.
D. In the corresponding property in the destination clip’s effect. The earliest keyframe appears at the beginning of the clip, and the other keyframes follow in relative order.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
You want a title to fade in over a clip. What should you do?
A. select the clip in the timeline, then set opacity keyframes in the Effects window
B. select the title in the timeline, then set opacity keyframes in the Effects window
C. select the clip in the timeline, then set opacity keyframes in the Effects Control window
D. select the title in the timeline, then set opacity keyframes in the Effects Control window
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 47
When is the Apply Video Transition option in the Squence menu be available?
A. Anytime a clip is selected
B. Anytime there is a clip on the timeline
C. Anytime the Video Transitions Bin is selected
D. Anytime the the current-time indicator is on the edit point between two clips on your target track

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 48
You want to move clip A from left to right across the screen with one full revolution. Which should you use?
A. One position keyframe and one rotation keyframe.
B. Two motion keyframes and one rotation keyframe.
C. Two position keyframes and one rotation keyframe.
D. Two position keyframes and two rotation keyframes.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 49
The source file of a clip does NOT contain an alpha channel. You want to manually apply transparency to individual clip instances. What should you do?
A. apply a keying effect to the areas you want to be transparent
B. convert the clip to a format that supports only the three RGB channels
C. add a bright solid color matte on a track where you want transparency
D. choose the File > Interpret Footage command to automatically add an alpha channel

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 50
You want to create transparency based on light or dark areas in your image. Which key should you use?
A. Luma Key
B. Multiply Key
C. Chroma Key
D. Difference Key

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 51
You want to add an additional keyframe directly to a clip on the timeline.
You select the clip and set it to Show Keyframes for the filter you want to add a keyframe to. Which tool should you use to add a new keyframe to the clip?
A. left click the clip with the Pen tool
B. left click the clip with the Selection tool
C. Ctrl+left click the clip with the Pen tool
D. Ctrl+left click the clip with the Selection tool

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 52
Click the Exhibit Button.
You want to use the alpha channel from Clip B on Video Track 2 to define the transparency of Clip A on
Video Track 1.
What should you do?
A. Add the Alpha Matte Key Video Effect to Clip B.
B. Right-click Clip A and select Define Alpha Channel; then, select Clip B.
C. Add the Image Matte Key Video Effect to Clip A and select Clip B as the Matte Image.
D. Add the Track Matte Key Video Effect to Clip A and choose Video Track 2 as your matte.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 53
Your timeline is set to display keyframes. You want to set a new keyframe for a property in the timeline. What should you do?
A. Position the Pen tool over the keyframe graph line where you want to add the keyframe, and then click.
B. Position the Selection tool over the keyframe graph line where you want to add the keyframe, and then click.
C. Position the Pen tool over the keyframe graph line where you want to add the keyframe, and then Control-click.
D. Position the Selection tool over the keyframe graph line where you want to add the keyframe, and then Control-click.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 54
An image has a particular color in it. You want all of the pixels with that color to be transparent. What is the term for this process?
A. Mask
B. Matte
C. Keying
D. Alpha Channel

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 55
Which term is an invisible channel that defines transparent areas for the clip that contains the channel?
A. alpha
B. matte
C. keying
D. luminance

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 56
Click the Exhibit button.
How many instances of the clip will be deleted if you delete the file that is selected?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
You are working with source footage that is NTSC DV captured via IEEE-1394. You plan to export your finished project for use on CD-ROM using the following settings: Windows .AVI file; 320 x 240 Frame Size; 15 Frames Per Second.
Which project settings should you choose?
A. DV Playback Editing Mode; 720 x 480 Frame Size; Lower Fields First; 29.97 fps Drop Frame Timecode; D1/DV NTSC (0.9) Pixel Aspect Ratio.
B. DV Playback Editing Mode; 720 x 486 Frame Size; Lower Fields First; 29.97 fps Drop Frame Timecode; D1/DV NTSC (0.9) Pixel Aspect Ratio.
C. DV Playback Editing Mode; 720 x 480 Frame Size; No Fields (Progressive Scan); 15 fps Non Drop-Frame Timecode; Square Pixels (1.0).
D. Video for Windows Editing Mode; 320 x 240 Frame Size; No Fields (Progressive Scan); 15 fps Non Drop-Frame Timecode; Square Pixels (1.0).

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 58
Which statement about audio sample rate in the Capture submenu of the Project Settings dialog box is true?
A. Resampling the audio will not affect the quality of the audio.
B. Higher rates generally provide better audio quality than lower rates.
C. Setting a different rate from the original audio will take less time for processing.
D. Audio should be captured at a lower rate than the final rate in the finished project.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 59
Which button in the Project window allows you to override the default thumbnail that is displayed?
A. Play
B. Icon
C. Poster Frame
D. Automate to Sequence

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 60
For which task should you choose Project > Automate to Sequence?
A. export clips from a bin to a DV camera
B. quickly assemble a rough cut of clips into a sequence
C. place parts of clips in a sequence without setting in and out points
D. automatically place different transitions between clips in a sequence

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 21
True or False: Inverse ARP is disabled by default on the 5000 Series Router.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 22
The PPP LCP protocol is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Transport
E. Presentation

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23
What is the IPCP state for an interface if PPP is working?
A. IPCP is opened
B. IPCP is closed
C. IPCP is not used with PPP
D. It doesnt matter

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 24
What is the default setting of the Frame Relay interface type?
A. null
B. DCE
C. DTE
D. The interface will sense physical connect and autoset the interface type

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
What is the primary purpose of the Designated Router (DR) when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)?
A. It backs up the Border Gateway Router when it fails
B. It calculates all Best Path Routes for all OSPF routers in its area
C. It updates all other routers within the same area with new or changed routes
D. It updates all other routers within all areas with new or changed routes

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
What do you see when you view a PPP non-broadcast interface on OSPF?
A. Designated Router only
B. Backup Router only
C. Both a designated Router and a Backup Designated Router
D. Neither a Designated Router nor a Backup Designated Router

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Which OSPF Neighbor states means that both routers have identical Link State Databases (LSDBs)?
A. Init
B. Full
C. 2-way
D. Synch
E. Exchange

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
When setting up a GRE tunnel, Which of the following commands defines the remote (partner) serial interface IP address?
A. [Router-tunnel0] source 10.10.10.10
B. [Router-tunnel0] destination 10.10.10.10
C. [Router-tunnel0] ip address 10.10.10.10 255.255.255.0
D. remote serial interface address is not needed
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
Which type of ACL does the number range of 2000-2999 refer to in 3Com routers?
A. A basic ACL
B. An advanced ACL
C. A VLAN-based ACL
D. A Mac-based ACL
E. An interface-based ACL

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 30
What must be identical on the 2 IKE peers when configuring IPSEC?
A. router id
B. group name
C. pre-shared key
D. IKE peer name

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 31
When IGMP and PIM DM work together, On which interfaces should you enable IGMP?
A. between all core routers
B. between multicast routers
C. between router and all host PCs
D. never on router edge interfaces

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 32
Which the following is NOT an operation performed by IP Multicasting?
A. Allow hosts to join and leave multicast groups
B. Allow Routers to communicate with lower switches through delivery trees
C. Allow Switch trees to forward all multicasting packets to network receivers
D. Reduce the load on each receiving station by sending a single packet multiple times

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
True or False: The command c-rp serial 0/0 would be used to configure PIM DM.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 34
3COM 5000/6000 routers support which two multicast routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. PIM-SM
B. PIM-DM
C. DVMRP
D. MOSPF
E. MBONE

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 35
When setting up QoS, how do you link the classifier and behavior together?
A. at the interface
B. by creating a policy
C. by creating an ACL
D. the classifier links itself to the behavior

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 21
What is the purpose of a Digital Signal Processor? (Choose One)
A. Regulates carrier line voltage
B. Generates tones recognizable to Local Exchange carriers
C. Prevents a caller from hearing their own voice
D. Coverts analog sound into digital data
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Which of the following is not an element of the Dial Plan?
A. Pretranslators
B. Delayed Ringing settings
C. Dial Plan Tables
D. Extension Lists
E. Routes
F. Settings for Extensions ranges

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 23
A Timed Router is a route that defines where calls are routed based on time of day and/or day of week using pre-selected business hours or specific time periods.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
What is the name of the 3com soft-phone application that enables a user computer to have the same features and functions as a NBX. What is the name of the 3com soft-phone application that enables a user? Computer to have the same features and functions as a NBX Telephone? (Choose One)
A. NetView
B. PcXset
C. pcSoftset
D. NetSet
E. Compliment Attendant Software

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25
Desktop Call Assistant requires NBXTSP (NBX TAPI Service Provider).
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 26
The Periodic Time-Stamp on console (PTOC) feature lets the NBX send a timestamp to a remote management console at an interval specified by the administrator.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
Changes to Hot Name, IP Address, Default Gateway and Subnet Mask require a reboot.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 28
Which of the following statements best characterizes NBX Silence Suppression ? ( Choose three.)
A. When enabled, a device that detects silence in conversation sends a small packet with a silence indicator, rather than a full packet of digitized silence
B. Receiving devices generate white noise for the time periods represented by silence indicator packets
C. Can only be enabled or disabled for the entire system
D. Enabling reduces network traffic
E. Can only be used with NBX 3102 phones

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 29
What is the name of the 3com soft-phone application that enables a user computer to have the same features and functions as a NBX. What is the name of the 3com soft-phone application that enables a user? Computer to have the same features and functions as a NBX Telephone? (Choose One)
A. NetSet
B. NetView
C. PcXset
D. Compliment Attendant Software
E. pcSoftset

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Which of the following NBX phones does not support button mappings? (Choose one.)
A. 3103
B. 3101
C. 3102
D. 3100

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
In North America ISDN-PRI uses four wire pairs to provide 23 channels and one 64 kbps D channel. This is referred to a s 3B+D?
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
Automatic Call Back Allows you to queue a transferred call on to a destination extension that is already in use (meaning one or more (but to all) of its system appearance lines are in use).
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
When is NBX Layer 3 (IP Enabled) operation required? (Choose One)
A. None of Above
B. Environment Where the NBX, Chassis and Phones and cards may be on different Ethernet LANs, VLANs and/or separated by WANs
C. Environment where the NBX, Chassis and cards are all on the same Ethernet VLAN
D. Environment where the NBX, Chassis phones and cards are all on the same Ethernet LAN

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 34
Which of the following best defines the term Hunt Group? ( Choose One.)
A. A collection of telephones where all phones will ring simultaneously allowing anyone that is part of the group to pick up the call
B. A collection of outside lines pooled and arbitrated by the call processor for outbound dialing
C. A collection of telephones that ring in a pre-determined pattern until the call is answered or forwarded to a call coverage path such as voicemail or covering extension
D. A collection of outside lines directly mapped to one or more phones

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
For MWI to Telephone Feature to function the target phone must have a MWI Retrieve Programmed button.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 36
When modifying the configuration for a user’s telephone in NetSet, selecting exclude from LCD Directory will invoke which function? (Choose one)
A. The user’s telephone extension will not display during a directory search from any NBX telephone LCD display
B. The user’s telephone extension will not display on other extensions LCDs when called
C. The user will not send Call ID information over the PSTN to telephones with LCD displays and caller ID capability
D. The user will not be able to search the NBX directory via their telephone’s LCD display

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 37
Which NBX Network Call Processors (NCPs) require a memory upgrade to reach top end device and capacity limits? ( Choose two.)
A. V3000
B. V3000 BRI-ST
C. V5000
D. V3001R
E. NBX 100

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 38
For WMI to Telephone Feature to function the target phone must have a MWI Retrieve programmed button.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 39
Convergence brings added value to the customer by reducing cabling and skills costs
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40
Account codes are numbers entered by users when dialing outbound for the purpose of associating a call with an account for billing purposes.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 41
System-wide and Personal Speed Dials can only be accessed via a feature code
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 42
Layer 3 operation is required for environments with multiple LANs where the NBX and phones may be on different Ethernet LANs, VLANs or across WANs.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 43
Which of the following statements best characterizes NBX Silence Suppression ? ( Choose three.)
A. Enabling reduces network traffic
B. Can only be enabled or disabled for the entire system
C. When enabled, a device that detects silence in conversation sends a small packet with a silence indicator, rather than a full packet of digitized silence
D. Can only be used with NBX 3102 phones
E. Receiving devices generate white noise for the time periods represented by silence indicator packets

Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 44
What is the transport mechanism used for VTLs?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. SIP
D. RTP

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 45
Before a user can access their voicemail messages or make changes to their voicemail configuration, they must first create a password, name announcement and personal greeting.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 46
Which of the following modes of operation are supported by the NBX? (Choose three.)
A. PBX Mode
B. Traditional Mode
C. Key Mode
D. Hybrid Mode
E. Simulated Mode

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 47
A device will not receive a page if actively engaged in a call.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48
Which NBX phone has 4 fixed feature buttons, large message waiting indicator, no LCD and supports 802.3af power over Ethernet? (Choose three.)
A. 3106
B. 3101
C. 3102
D. 3103
E. 3100

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 49
The Whisper Page Feature allows you to dial an NBX extension that is involved in a conversation with another person and speak to that person without the other party on the call being able to hear you.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 50
The Admin Log (Adminlog) tracks all activities performed in NetSet utility under the administrator login. It is never renamed or deleted it. It continues to grow over time, but it is unlikely that the size of the file will ever grow to be a problem.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 51

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QUESTION 21
Desktop Call Assistant requires NBXTSP (NBX TAPI Service Provider).
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 22
Click the Task button.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 23
Configurable Operators gives a caller who is directed to voicemail the option of transferring to another destination, one of two different operators that a user has provisioned.
What are these two operators called? (Choose two)
A. Personal Operator
B. User Operator
C. System Operator
D. Destination Operator

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 24
For MWI to Telephone Feature to function the target phone must have a MWI Retrieve programmed button.
A. True

B. False Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25
What are the four Time of Day System Modes which can impact the automated attendants a caller hears and/or other call coverage options (destinations).
A. Open
B. Closed
C. Holiday
D. Lunch
E. Other
F. After-hours
G. Emergency Close

Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 26
A device will not receive a page if actively engaged in a call.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
Which of the following is not an element of the Dial Plan? (Choose one)
A. Settings for Extension ranges
B. Extension Lists
C. Dial Plan Tables
D. Routes
E. Delayed Ringing Settings
F. Pretranslators
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 28
Click the Task button.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 29
The Dial Plan entries shown below are representative of which type of operation? (Choose one)

A. Timed Route
B. Phantom Extension
C. Alternate Carrier
D. Phantom Mailbox

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 30
The Dial Plan entries shown below are representative of which type of operation? (Choose one)

A. Timed Route
B. Phantom Extension
C. Alternate Carrier
D. Phantom Mailbox

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 31
A Timed Route is a route that defines where calls are routed based on time of day and/or day of week using pre-selected business hours or specific time periods.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 32
A pretranslator is a portion of the dial plan responsible for mapping incoming calls to internal extensions and providing Calling Line Identification Presentation (CLIP) for outgoing calls.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
Which of the following best defines the term Hunt Group? (Choose one)
A. A collection of outside lines directly mapped to one or more phones.
B. A collection of telephones where all phones will ring simultaneously allowing anyone that is part of the group to pick up the call.
C. A collection of telephones that ring in a pre-determined pattern until the call is answered or forwarded to a call coverage path such as voicemail or covering extension.
D. A collection of outside lines pooled and arbitrated by the Call Processor for outbound dialing.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 34
Which of the following best describes ACD Linear Call Distribution Method?
A. When you employ this call distribution option, the NBX system distributes calls to the first extension in the group unless that extension is busy and then the call will go to the next extension in the group. Incoming calls will progress in sequence always starting with the first extension.
B. When you employ this call distribution option, the NBX system distributes calls to the first extension in the group. The second call will go to the second extension in the group. The third call will go to the third extension in the group and so on. If an extension is busy, the call will go to the next available phone in the group. This method is sometimes referred to as round-robin.
C. When you employ this call distribution option, the NBX system distributes calls to the agent that has been waiting for a call the longest period of time.
D. When you employ this call distribution option, the NBX system distributes calls to members of an ACD Group according to the number of calls handled by each agent. The agent who has handled the fewest calls, gets the next call.
E. When you employ this call distribution option, a single call rings on all phones of the ACD Group until a member answers the call or the call times out and is routed to the group’s call coverage. This option sends only a single call at a time from the ACD queue to the group.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which of the following are accurate statements concerning Call Privacy Feature? (Choose three)
A. Configured via a Feature Code
B. Configured via Button Mappings
C. Allows a user to prevent a call from being monitored on a per call basis.
D. Allows the administrator to prevent all calls from being monitored by logging users in and out of feature.
E. Activated before or during a call
F. Can only be activated before a call

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 36
The Whisper Page feature allows you to dial an NBX extension that is involved in a conversation with another person and speak to that person without the other party on the call being able to hear you.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
Camp On allows you to queue a transferred call on to a destination extension that is already in use (meaning one or more (but not all) of its system appearance lines are in use).
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
Automatic Call Back allows you to queue a transferred call on to a destination extension that is already in use (meaning one or more (but not all) of its system appearance lines are in use).
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Account Codes are numbers entered by users when dialing outbound for the purpose of associating a call with an account for billing purposes.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40
When is NBX Layer 3 (IP enabled) operation required? (Choose one)
A. Environments where the NBX, Chassis, phones, and cards are all on the same Ethernet LAN
B. Environments where the NBX, Chassis, phones, and cards are all on the same Ethernet VLAN
C. Environments where the NBX, Chassis, phones, and cards may be on different Ethernet LANs, VLANs and/or separated by WANs

Correct Answer: C

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true? PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. Router RAR1 will accept only route 10.10.0.0/19 from its BGP neighbor.
B. Router RAR1 will send only route 10.10.0.0/19 to its BGP neighbor.
C. Only traffic with a destination from 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
D. Only traffic going to 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the 6.6.6.0/24 prefix?

A. If another path advertises the 6.6.6.0/24 path and has the default local preference, that path is more preferred.
B. The command neighbor send-community is configured on BGP neighbor 10.10.23.3.
C. The route 10.10.23.3 is not being advertised to other BGP neighbors.
D. Route 6.6.6.0/24 is learned by an IBGP peer.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Into which two types of areas would an area border router (ABR) inject a default route? (Choose two.)
A. the autonomous system of a different interior gateway protocol (IGP)
B. area 0
C. totally stubby
D. NSSA
E. stub
F. the autonomous system of an exterior gateway protocol (EGP)
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.)
A. No virtual links are allowed.
B. The area cannot be a backbone area.
C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D. The area has no more than 10 routers. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F. Interarea routes are suppressed.
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What are the two reasons for the appearance of 0.0.0.0 as the next hop for a network in the show ip bgp command output? (Choose two.)
A. The network was originated via redistribution of an interior gateway protocol into BGP.
B. The network was defined by a static route.
C. The network was originated via a network or aggregate command.
D. The network was learned via EBGP.
E. The network was learned via IBGP.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the partial configuration that is provided. (Choose two.)

A. All the configured neighbors are in autonomous system 100.
B. The peer group shortens the IBGP configuration.
C. The peer group shortens the EBGP configuration.
D. Only the outgoing filters are applied to BGP updates.
E. Three AS-path filters are applied to each BGP neighbor.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. All six routes will be installed in the routing table.
B. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.
C. Four routes will be installed in the routing table.
D. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.
E. All the routes were originated by BGP with the network command.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which three IP multicast related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.1.0 through 238.255.255.255 are called globally scoped addresses. They are used to multicast data between organizations and across the Internet.
B. The multicast address 224.0.0.1 is a globally scoped address that has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
C. Multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are called limited scope addresses. They are constrained to a local group or organization.
D. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 are limited scoped addresses that have been reserved for OSPF.
E. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are used for network protocols on local LAN segments. Because they are always transmitted with a Time to Live (TTL) of 1, they are never forwarded by a router.
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which three IP multicast address related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are always forwarded because they are transmitted with Time to Live (TTL) greater than 1.
B. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 are source multicast addresses for OSPF routers.
C. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.13 and 224.0.0.22 are reserved link-local addresses used by PIMv2 and IGMPv3.
D. Because they would map to overlapping IP multicast MAC addresses, multicast addresses 224.0.1.1 and 238.1.1.1 could not be used together.
E. Multicast address 224.0.1.1 has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
F. The administratively scoped multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are similar in purpose to RFC 1918 private unicast addresses.
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which three IP multicast group concepts are true? (Choose three.)
A. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, all members of the multicast group will receive it.
B. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, the multicast frame contains the source multicast address.
C. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
D. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
E. A router must be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
F. A router must be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which two multicast protocol statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Dense mode multicast requires explicit join messages from their members.
B. Dense mode multicast uses a push model to flood traffic throughout the network and then prunes the unwanted traffic.
C. Sparse mode multicast uses a pull model to send multicast traffic to where it is requested.
D. Sparse mode uses reverse path forwarding (RPF) to prune off redundant flows.
E. The primary use of sparse mode multicast is for test labs and router performance testing.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which command enables OSPF for IPv6?
A. router ospf process-id PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
B. ipv6 ospf process-id
C. ipv6 router ospf process-id
D. router ospf ipv6 process-id
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the output. What IOS command produces this output?

A. show ip ospf
B. show ip ospf interface
C. show ipv6 ospf interface
D. show ipv6 ospf

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about a voice VLAN?

A. Physically the voice network and the data network are separate.
B. The voice traffic will normally be on a different IP subnet than will the data traffic.
C. End user intervention is necessary to place the phone into the proper VLAN.
D. The same security policy should be implemented for both voice and data traffic.
E. The data VLAN must be configured as the native VLAN.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect on the trust boundary of configuring the command mls qos trust cos on the switch port that is connected to the IP phone?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892

A. Effectively the trust boundary has been moved to the IP phone.
B. The host is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The switch is rewriting packets it receives from the IP phone and determining the CoS value.
D. The switch will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will trust the distribution layer switch to set the CoS.
E. RTP will be used to negotiate a CoS value based upon bandwidth utilization on the link.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect when the switchport priority extend cos 3 command is configured on the switch port interface connected to the IP phone?

A. Effectively, the trust boundary has been moved to the PC attached to the IP phone.
B. The computer is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The IP phone is enabled to override with a CoS value of 3 the existing CoS marking of the PC attached to the IP phone.
D. The switch will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will extend the trust boundary to the distribution layer switch.
E. RTP will be used to negotiate a CoS value based upon bandwidth utilization on the link.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which three WLAN statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. A lightweight AP receives control and configuration from a WLAN controller to which it is associated.
B. A WLAN client that is operating in half-duplex mode will delay all clients in that WLAN.
C. Ad hoc mode allows mobile clients to connect directly without an intermediate AP. D. Another term for infrastructure mode is independent service set (IBSS).
D. The Aironet 1230 access point is an example of an access point that operates solely as a lightweight access point.
E. WLANs are designed to share the medium and can easily handle an increased demand of channel contention.
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which statement is true about IP telephony calls?
A. A Voice over IP (VoIP) packet consists of the voice payload, IP header, TCP header, RTP header, and Layer 2 link header.
B. The voice carrier stream uses H.323 to set up, maintain, and tear down call endpoints.
C. Call control signaling uses Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) packets that contain actual voice samples.
D. The sum of bandwidth necessary for each major application, including voice, video, and data, should not exceed 75 percent of the total available bandwidth for each link.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which three statements are true about the voice VLAN feature on a Catalyst 2950 switch? (Choose three.)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-892
A. The CoS value is trusted for 802.1p or 802.1q tagged traffic.
B. The voice VLAN feature is disabled by default.
C. The IP phone accepts the priority of all tagged and untagged traffic and sets the CoS value to 4.
D. When the voice VLAN feature is enabled, all untagged traffic is sent according to the default CoS priority of the port.
E. PortFast is automatically disabled when a voice VLAN is configured. F. The default CoS value for incoming traffic is set to 0.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
In what three ways is QoS applied in the campus network? (Choose three.)
A. No traffic marking occurs at the core layer. Layer 2/3 QoS tags are trusted from distribution layer switches and used to prioritize and queue the traffic as it traverses the core.
B. IP precedence, DSCP, QoS group, IP address, and ingress interface are Layer 2 characteristics that are set by the access layer as it passes traffic to the distribution layer. The distribution layer, once it has made a switching decision to the core layer, strips these off.
C. MAC address, Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS), the ATM cell loss priority (CLP) bit, the Frame Relay discard eligible (DE) bit, and ingress interface are established by the voice submodule (distribution layer) as traffic passes to the core layer.
D. The distribution layer inspects a frame to see if it has exceeded a predefined rate of traffic within a certain time frame, which is typically a fixed number internal to the switch. If a frame is determined to be in excess of the predefined rate limit, the CoS value can be marked up in a way that results in the packet being dropped.
E. The access layer is the initial point at which traffic enters the network. Traffic is marked (or remarked) at Layers 2 and 3 by the access switch as it enters the network, or is “trusted” that it is entering the network with the appropriate tag.
F. Traffic inbound from the access layer to the distribution layer can be trusted or reset depending upon the ability of the access layer switches. Priority access into the core is provided based on Layer 3 QoS tags.
Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A QUESTION 1
Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.)
A. No virtual links are allowed.
B. The area cannot be a backbone area.
C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D. The area has no more than 10 routers.
E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F. Interarea routes are suppressed.

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
What does the command clear ipv6 ospf process accomplish?
A. The OSPF adjacencies are cleared and initiated again.
B. The route table is cleared. Then the OSPF neighbors are reformed.
C. The shortest path first (SPF) algorithm is performed on the LSA database.
D. The OSPF database is repopulated. Then the shortest path first (SPF) algorithm is performed.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which statement is true about the Forward Information Base (FIB) table?
A. The FIB is derived from the IP routing table and is optimized for maximum lookup throughput.
B. The FIB table is derived from the Address Resolution Protocol table, and it contains Layer 2 rewrite (MAC) information for the next hop.
C. The FIB lookup is based on the Layer 2 destination MAC address.
D. When the FIB table is full, a wildcard entry redirects traffic to the Layer 3 engine.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?

A. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplex mismatch with another switch
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What does the Catalyst switch interface configuration command switchport trunk native vlan 7 accomplish?
A. configures the interface to be a trunking port and causes traffic on VLAN 7 to be 802.1q tagged
B. causes the interface to apply ISL framing for traffic on VLAN 7
C. configures the trunking interface to send traffic from VLAN 7 untagged
D. configures the trunking interface to forward traffic from VLAN 7
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output generated by the show commands, which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. All interfaces on the switch have been configured as access ports.
B. Because it has not been assigned to any VLAN, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
C. Because it is configured as a trunk interface, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
D. There are no native VLANs configured on the trunk.
E. VLAN 1 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.
F. VLAN 2 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Host A and Host B are connected to the Catalyst 3550 switch and have been
assigned to their respective VLANs. The rest of the 3550 configuration is the default configuration. Host A is
able to ping its default gateway, 10.10.10.1, but is unable to ping Host B. Given the output displayed in the
exhibit, which statement is true?

A. HSRP must be configured on SW1.
B. A separate router is required to support interVLAN routing.
C. Interface VLAN 10 must be configured on the SW1 switch.
D. The global config command ip routing must be configured on the SW1 switch.
E. VLANs 10 and 15 must be created in the VLAN database mode.
F. VTP must be configured to support interVLAN routing.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN2, VLAN3, and VLAN10 are configured on the switch D-SW1. Host computers are on VLAN 2 (10.1.2.0), servers are on VLAN 3 (10.1.3.0), and the management VLAN is on VLAN10 (10.1.10.0). Hosts are able to ping each other but are unable to reach the servers. On the basis of the exhibited output, which configuration solution could rectify the problem?

A. Enable IP routing on the switch D-SW1.
B. Configure a default route that points toward network 200.1.1.0/24.
C. Assign an IP address of 10.1.3.1/24 to VLAN3.
D. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.2.1 on each host.
E. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.10.1 on each host.
F. Configure default gateways to IP address 200.1.1.2 on each host.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. For what purpose is the command show ip cef used?

A. to display rewritten IP unicast packets
B. to display ARP resolution packets
C. to display ARP throttling
D. to display TCAM matches
E. to display CEF-based MLS lookups
F. to display entries in the Forwarding Information Base (FIB)

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. The switchport output in Figure 1 displays the default settings of interface
FastEthernet 0/13 on switch SW1. Figure 2 displays the desired interface settings. Which command
sequence would configure interface FastEthernet 0/13 as displayed in Figure 2?

A. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
B. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic auto SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan add 1,10,20
C. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan DATA SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
D. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10 SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
E. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
An administrator types in the command router ospf 1 and receives the error message: “OSPF process
1 cannot start.” (Output is omitted.) What should be done to correctly set up OSPF?
A. Ensure that an interface has been configured with an IP address.
B. Ensure that an interface has been configured with an IP address and is up.
C. Ensure that IP classless is enabled.
D. Ensure that the interfaces can ping their directly connected neighbors.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
E. SVI is another name for a routed port.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is verifying that a CEF FIB entry exists to destination network
192.168.150.0. Given the output generated by the show ip cef and show adjacency detail commands,
which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. entry for the destination network 192.168.150.0.
B. The “valid cached adjacency” entry indicates that CEF will put all packets going to such an adjacency to the next best switching mode.
C. The counters (0 packets, 0 bytes) indicate a problem with the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
D. There is an adjacency for the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
E. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
F. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the source IP address.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

A. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 7 LSAs. RTB will translate the type 7 LSAs into type 5 LSAs and flood them throughout the OSPF backbone.
B. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 7 LSAs. RTB will flood the type 7 LSAs throughout the backbone.
C. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 5 LSAs. RTB will flood the type 5 LSAs throughout the backbone.
D. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 5 LSAs. RTB will translate the type 5 LSAs into type 7 LSAs and flood them throughout the OSPF backbone.
E. RTA will not redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
What are two Cisco IOS commands that can be used to view neighbor adjacencies? (Choose two.)
A. show ip ospf database
B. show ip ospf neighbors
C. show ip ospf protocols
D. show ip ospf interfaces
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 16
Which enhancement was added to IGMP version 3?
A. membership query message
B. membership report message
C. leave group message
D. source filtering
E. destination filtering
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which two tasks are required to configure PIM for IP multicast routing? (Choose two.)
A. Join a multicast group.
B. Enable CGMP.
C. Enable IP multicast routing.
D. Configure the TTL threshold.
E. Enable PIM on an interface.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
What is the default metric used on IS-IS routers for each interface?
A. The cost is set to 10 for all interfaces.
B. The cost is set to 10 for LAN interfaces and 20 for WAN interfaces.
C. The cost is based on the speed of the interface.
D. The cost is based on a composite of bandwidth and delay of the interface.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
What does IS-IS use to establish and maintain neighbor relationships between IS’s?
A. IIH
B. LSP
C. CLNS
D. CLNP
E. ISH
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
What is periodically sent by a DIS on a LAN to ensure that all adjacent neighbors’ IS-IS link-state databases are synchronized?
A. complete SNP (CSNP)
B. partial SNP (PSNP)
C. database query
D. database description packet (DDP)
E. link-state summary
F. hello
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

This volume is part of the Exam Certification Guide Series from Cisco 642-892.Cisco 642-892 in this series provide officially developed exam preparation materials that offer assessment, review, and practice to help Cisco 642-892 Certification candidates identify weaknesses,concentrate their study efforts,and enhance their confidence as Cisco 642-892 exam day nears.

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
If no metric is specified for the routes being redistributed into IS-IS, what metric value is assigned to the routes?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 20
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
2. Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.)
A. No virtual links are allowed.
B. The area cannot be a backbone area.
C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D. The area has no more than 10 routers.
E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F. Interarea routes are suppressed.
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
3. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the partial configuration that is provided. (Choose two.)

A. All the configured neighbors are in autonomous system 100.
B. The peer group shortens the IBGP configuration.
C. The peer group shortens the EBGP configuration.
D. Only the outgoing filters are applied to BGP updates.
E. Three AS-path filters are applied to each BGP neighbor.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. All six routes will be installed in the routing table.
B. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.
C. Four routes will be installed in the routing table.
D. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.
E. All the routes were originated by BGP with the network command.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which three IP multicast related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.1.0 through 238.255.255.255 are called globally scoped addresses. They are used to multicast data between organizations and across the Internet.
B. The multicast address 224.0.0.1 is a globally scoped address that has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
C. Multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are called limited scope addresses. They are constrained to a local group or organization.
D. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 are limited scoped addresses that have been reserved for OSPF .
E. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are used for network protocols on local LAN segments. Because they are always transmitted with a Time to Live (TTL) of 1, they are never forwarded by a router.
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which three IP multicast address related statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are always forwarded because they are transmitted with Time to Live (TTL) greater than 1.
B. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 are source multicast addresses for OSPF routers.
C. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.13 and 224.0.0.22 are reserved link-local addresses used by PIMv2 and IGMPv3.
D. Because they would map to overlapping IP multicast MAC addresses, multicast addresses 224.0.1.1 and 238.1.1.1 could not be used together.
E. Multicast address 224.0.1.1 has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
F. The administratively scoped multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are similar in purpose to RFC 1918 private unicast addresses.
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which three IP multicast group concepts are true? (Choose three.)
A. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, all members of the multicast group will receive it.
B. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, the multicast frame contains the source multicast address.
C. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
D. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
E. A router must be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
F. A router must be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which two multicast protocol statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Dense mode multicast requires explicit join messages from their members.
B. Dense mode multicast uses a push model to flood traffic throughout the network and then prunes the unwanted traffic.
C. Sparse mode multicast uses a pull model to send multicast traffic to where it is requested.
D. Sparse mode uses reverse path forwarding (RPF) to prune off redundant flows.
E. The primary use of sparse mode multicast is for test labs and router performance testing.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about a voice VLAN?

A. Physically the voice network and the data network are separate.
B. The voice traffic will normally be on a different IP subnet than will the data traffic.
C. End user intervention is necessary to place the phone into the proper VLAN.
D. The same security policy should be implemented for both voice and data traffic.
E. The data VLAN must be configured as the native VLAN.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect on the trust boundary of configuring the command mls qos trust cos

A. Effectively the trust boundary has been moved to the IP phone.
B. The host is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The switch is rewriting packets it receives from the IP phone and determining the CoS value.
D. The switch will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will trust the distribution layer switch to set the CoS.
E. RTP will be used to negotiate a CoS value based upon bandwidth utilization on the link.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which three WLAN statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. A lightweight AP receives control and configuration from a WLAN controller to which it is associated.
B. A WLAN client that is operating in half-duplex mode will delay all clients in that WLAN.
C. Ad hoc mode allows mobile clients to connect directly without an intermediate AP.
D. Another term for infrastructure mode is independent service set (IBSS).
E. The Aironet 1230 access point is an example of an access point that operates solely as a lightweight access point.
F. WLANs are designed to share the medium and can easily handle an increased demand of channel contention.
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which statement is true about IP telephony calls?
A. A Voice over IP (VoIP) packet consists of the voice payload, IP header, TCP header, RTP header, and Layer 2 link header.
B. The voice carrier stream uses H.323 to set up, maintain, and tear down call endpoints.
C. Call control signaling uses Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) packets that contain actual voice samples.
D. The sum of bandwidth necessary for each major application, including voice, video, and data, should not exceed 75 percent of the total available bandwidth for each link.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which three statements are true about the voice VLAN feature on a Catalyst 2950 switch? (Choose three.)
A. The CoS value is trusted for 802.1p or 802.1q tagged traffic.
B. The voice VLAN feature is disabled by default.
C. The IP phone accepts the priority of all tagged and untagged traffic and sets the CoS value to 4.
D. When the voice VLAN feature is enabled, all untagged traffic is sent according to the default CoS priority of the port.
E. PortFast is automatically disabled when a voice VLAN is configured.
F. The default CoS value for incoming traffic is set to 0.
Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which two Aironet enterprise solution statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A Cisco Aironet AP handles the transmission of beacon frames and also handles responses to probe-request frames from clients.
B. A Cisco Aironet solution includes intelligent Cisco Aironet access points (APs) and Cisco Catalyst switches.
C. In the Cisco Aironet solution, each AP is locally configured by the use of either a web interface or the command line interface.
D. The Cisco Aironet AP handles real-time portions of the LWAPP protocol, and the WLAN controller handles those items which are not time sensitive.
E. Virtual MAC architecture allows the splitting of the 802.11 protocol between the Cisco Aironet AP and a LAN switch.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which statement about the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP)is true?
A. LWAPPencrypts control traffic between the AP and the controller.
B. LWAPPencrypts user traffic with a x.509 certificate using AES-CCMP .
C. LWAPPencrypts both control traffic and user data.
D. When set to Layer 3, LWAPPuses a proprietary protocol to communicate with the Cisco Aironet APs.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements accurately describe this GLBP topology? (Choose three.)

A. RouterA is responsible for answering ARP requests sent to the virtual IP address.
B. If Router A becomes unavailable, Router B will forward packets sent to the virtual MAC address of Router A.
C. If another router were added to this GLBP group, there would be two backup AVGs.
D. Router B is in GLBP listen state.
E. Router A alternately responds to ARP requests with different virtual MAC addresses.
F. Router B will transition from blocking state to forwarding state when it becomes the AVG.
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit. Which Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) statement is true about the roles of the master virtual router and the backup virtual router?

A. RouterA is the master virtual router, and Router B is the backup virtual router. When Router A fails, Router B will become the master virtual router. When Router A recovers, Router B will maintain the role of master virtual router.
B. Router A is the master virtual router, and Router B is the backup virtual router. When Router A fails, Router B will become the master virtual router. When Router A recovers, it will regain the master virtual router role.
C. Router B is the master virtual router, and Router A is the backup virtual router. When Router B fails, Router A will become the master virtual router. When Router B recovers, Router A will maintain the role of master virtual router.
D. Router B is the master virtual router, and Router A is the backup virtual router. When Router B fails, Router A will become the master virtual router. When Router B recovers, it will regain the master virtual router role.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which issue or set of issues does the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP)address?
A. reduction of processing in wireless controllers
B. distributed approach to authentication, encryption, and policy enforcement
C. provides security by blocking communication between access points and wireless clients
D. access point discovery,information exchange, and configuration
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. When a profile is configured in the Aironet Desktop Utility, which security option permits the configuration of host-based Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)?

A. WPA/WPA2/CCKM
B. WPA/WPA2Passphrase
C. 802.1x
D. Pre-Shared Key (Static WEP)
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about where trust boundaries should be established in a network?

A. Endpoint 1 is the only acceptable place to establish a trust boundary.
B. Endpoint 1 is the optimal place to establish a trust boundary.Endpoints 2 and 3 are acceptable places to establish a trust boundary.
C. Endpoint 2 is the only acceptable place to establish a trust boundary.
D. Endpoint 2 is the optimal place to establish a trust boundary.Endpoints 1 and 3 are acceptable places to establish a trust boundary.
E. Endpoints 1 and 2 are optimal places to establish a trust boundary. Endpoint 3 is an acceptable place to establish a trust boundary.
F. Endpoints 2 and 3 are optimal places to establish a trust boundary. Endpoint 1 is an acceptable place to establish a trust boundary.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Cisco 642-892 Exam Certification Guide presents you with an organized test preparation routine through the use of proven series elements and techniques.“Do I Know This Already?”quizzes open each chapter and allow you to decide how much time you need to spend on each section.Cisco 642-892 lists and Foundation Summary tables make referencing easy and give you a quick refresher whenever you need it.Challenging Cisco 642-892 review questions help you assess your knowledge and reinforce key concepts.Cisco 642-892 exercises help you think about exam objectives in real-world situations, thus increasing recall during exam time.

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
You enabled CDP on two Cisco Routers are connected to each other. The Line and Protocol status for the interfaces on both routers show as UP but the routers do not see each other a CDP neighbors. Which layer of the OSI model does the problem most likely exist?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Application
D. Data-Link
E. Network
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
You have the following commands on your Cisco Router:
ip ftp username admin ip ftp password backup
You have been asked to switch from FTP to HTTP. Which two commands will you use to replace the existing commands?
A. ip http username admin
B. ip http client username admin
C. ip http password backup
D. ip http client password backup
E. ip http server username admin
F. ip http server password backup
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3

Refer to the graphic shown above. What statement is correct regarding the errors but just information messages.
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level. They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging consol warning command had been issued.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
FCAPS is a network maintenance model defined by ISO. It stands for which of the following?
A. Fault Management
B. Action Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Protocol Management
E. Security Management
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Match the items on the left to their purpose on the right
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
EEM -> CLI based Management and Monitoring SDM -> Provides a GUI for Administration FTP -> Used for Backup and Restore
QUESTION 6
FCAPS is a network maintenance model defined by ISO. FCAPS stands for:

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
F -> Fault Management C -> Configuration Management A -> Accounting Management

Exam B
QUESTION 1
Client is able to ping 10.1.1.2 but 10.1.1.1. Initial troubleshooting shows that R1 does not have any OSPF neighbors or any OSPF routes.
Configuration on R1:
router ospf 1 log-adjacency-changes network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 12 default-information originate always ! interface Serial0/0/0/0.12 point-to-point ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252 ip nat inside ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 TSHOOT

Configuration on R2:
router ospf 1 log-adjacency-changes network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 12 ! interface Serial0/0/0/0.12 point-to-point ip address 10.1.1.2 255.255.255.252 ip ospf authentication message-digest ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 TSHOOT

1.On which device is the fault condition located?
2.
What is the solution of the fault condition?

3.
Fault Condition is related to which technology?
Exhibit:

A. R1
B. R2
C. DSW1
D. Client1
E. ip ospf authentication message-digest command has to be added on S0/0/0/0.12
F. ip ospf authentication message-digest command has to be added under the OSPF routing process
G. A static route to 10.1.1.4 must be added on R1
H. ip nat outside must be added on S0/0/0/0.12
I. NAT J. OSPF
K. Statis Routing
L. Switch to Switch Connectivity
Correct Answer: AEJ Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Client 1 is able to ping 209.65.200.226 but not the Web Server at 209.65.200.241. Initial troubleshooting
shows and R1 does not have any BGP routes. R1 also does not show any active BGP neighbor.

In the above ticket R1 and all others are able to ping 209.65.200.226 but not the Web Server only. This is
because R1 is directly connected to 209.65.200.226 and BGP is not required in order to ping directly
connected network and as soon as R1 knows about 209.65.200.224 network all other devices are also
able to ping 209.65.200.226, since they are coming to R1 for any unknown route, because of default route
propagate through R1′s OSPF (using ‘default-information originate always’ command). However Web
Server is not accessible until BGP configured properly between R1 and ISP(209.65.200.226) because only
then R1 will receive the information about Web Server’s network.

Following are the symptoms of above ticket:

1- No one is able to ping Web Server.
2- Client 1 and all others can ping upto 209.65.200.226.
3- ‘sh ip route BGP’, you will not see any BGP route.
4- ‘sh ip bgp neighbor’ on R1, you will not see any active BGP neighbor.

Configuration on R1:
router bgp 65001 no synchronization bgp log-neighbor-changes network 209.65.200.224 mask 255.255.255.252 neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 no auto-summary
1.
Fault Condition is related to which technology?

2.
What is the solution of the fault condition?

3.
On which device is the fault condition located?
Exhibit:

A. EIGRP
B. HSRP
C. BGP
D. OSPF
E. R1
F. DSW1
G. R4
H. R2
I. Enable BGP synchronization
J. Change neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 statement to neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65001
K. Change neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 statement to neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002
L. Change neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 statement to neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65001
Correct Answer: CEK Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In this scenario you need to check bgp neighbotship “show ip bgp sum”.
The neighbor`s address in the neighbor command is wrong under router BGP (use ipv4 Layer 3).
You need to delete the wrong neighbor statement and enter the correct neighbor address in the neighbor
command (change 209.56.200.226 to 209.65.200.226).

QUESTION 3
Client 1 is not able to reach the WebServer. Initial troubleshooting shows that DSW1 can ping the Fa0/1 interface of R4 but not the s0/0/0/0.34 interface.
Configuration on DSW1:
router eigrp 10 network 10.1.4.4 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.1.1 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.4.13 0.0.0.0 no auto-summary
Configuration on DSW2:
router eigrp 10 network 10.1.4.8 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.2.1 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.4.14 0.0.0.0 no auto-summary
Configuration on R4:
router eigrp 10 network 10.1.4.5 0.0.0.0 no auto-summary redistribute ospf 1 metric 100 10 255 1 1500 route-map EIGRP_to_OSPF ! router ospf 1 network 10.1.1.8 0.0.0.0 area 34 redistribute eigrp 10 subnets ! route-map EIGRP->OSPF match ip address 1 ! access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 access-list 1 permit 209.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
1.
On which device is the fault condition located?

2.
Fault Condition is related to which technology?

3.
What is the solution of the fault condition?
Exhibit:

A. DSW1
B. DSW2
C. Client 1
D. R4
E. EIGRP
F. Route Redistribution
G. OSPF
H. IP Addressing
I. Remove the redistribute command from OSPF process on R4
J. Change the route-map name in the redistribute command under OSPF process to EIGRP->OSPF on R4
K. Change EIGRP AS to 1 on R4
L. Advertise 10.1.1.8/30 network in EIGRP on R4
Correct Answer: DFJ Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
DSW1 and R4 cannot ping R2`s loopback or R2`s s0/0/0/0.12 IPv6 address. Initial troubleshooting shows that R2 is not on OSPFv3 neighbor on R3.
Configuration of R2:
ipv6 router ospf 6 router-id 2.2.2.2 ! interface s0/0/0/0.23 ipv6 address 2026::1:1/122
Configuration of R3:
ipv6 router ospf 6 router-id 3.3.3.3 ! interface s0/0/0/0.23 ipv6 address 2026::1:2/122 ipv6 ospf 6 area 0
1.
What is the solution of the fault condition?

2.
Fault Condition is related to which technology?

3.
On which device is the fault condition located?
Exhibit:

A. Add ipv6 ospf area 0 under S0/0/0/0.23 on R2
B. Add ipv6 ospf area 6 under S0/0/0/0.23 on R2
C. Remove ipv6 ospf area 6 from S0/0/0/0.23 on R2
D. Enable IPv6 routing on S0/0/0/0.23 on R2
E. IPv6 Addressing
F. Route Redistribution
G. OSPFv3
H. RIPng
I. DSW1
J. DSW2
K. R2
L. R3
Correct Answer: AGK Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
The network setup for this trouble ticket is shown in Figure 3.
Trouble Ticket Statement
DSW1 and R4 cannot ping R2’s loopback or R2’s s0/0/0/0.12 IPv6 address. Initial troubleshooting shows and R2 is not an OSPFv3 neighbor on R3.
Configurationon R2
ipv6 unicast-routing ! ipv6 router ospf 6 router-id 2.2.2.2 ! interface s0/0/0/0.23 ipv6 address 2026::1:1/122
ConfigurationR3
ipv6 unicast-routing ! ipv6 router ospf 6 router-id 3.3.3.3 ! interface s0/0/0/0.23 ipv6 address 2026::1:2/122 ipv6 ospf 6 area 0

Figure 3
On Which device is the fault condition located?

A. DSW1
B. DSW2
C. R2
D. R3
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
The network setup for this trouble ticket is shown in Figure 3. Trouble Ticket Statement DSW1 and R4 cannot ping R2’s loopback or R2’s s0/0/0/0.12 IPv6 address. Initial troubleshooting shows
and R2 is not an OSPFv3 neighbor on R3.
Configurationon R2
ipv6 unicast-routing ! ipv6 router ospf 6 router-id 2.2.2.2 ! interface s0/0/0/0.23 ipv6 address 2026::1:1/122
ConfigurationR3
ipv6 unicast-routing ! ipv6 router ospf 6 router-id 3.3.3.3 ! interface s0/0/0/0.23 ipv6 address 2026::1:2/122 ipv6 ospf 6 area 0

Figure 3
The Fault Condition is related to which technology?

A. IPv6 Addressing
B. Route Redistribution
C. OSPFv3
D. RIPng
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
The network setup for this trouble ticket is shown in Figure 3.
Trouble Ticket Statement
DSW1 and R4 cannot ping R2’s loopback or R2’s s0/0/0/0.12 IPv6 address. Initial troubleshooting shows and R2 is not an OSPFv3 neighbor on R3.
Configurationon R2
ipv6 unicast-routing ! ipv6 router ospf 6 router-id 2.2.2.2 ! interface s0/0/0/0.23 ipv6 address 2026::1:1/122
ConfigurationR3
ipv6 unicast-routing ! ipv6 router ospf 6 router-id 3.3.3.3 ! interface s0/0/0/0.23 ipv6 address 2026::1:2/122 ipv6 ospf 6 area 0

Figure 3
What is the solution of the fault condition?

A. Add ipv6 ospf 6 area 0 under S0/0/0/0.23 on R2
B. Add ipv6 ospf 6 area 6 under s0/0/0/0.23 on R2
C. Remove IPv6 address from s0/0/0/0.23 on R2
D. Enable IPv6 routing on s0/0/0/0.23 on R2
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam B
QUESTION 1
You enabled CDP on two Cisco Routers which are connected to each other. The Line and Protocol status for the interfaces on both routers show as UP but the routers do not see each other a CDP neighbors. Which layer of the OSI model does the problem most likely exist?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Application
D. Data-Link
E. Network
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
The following command is issued on a Cisco Router:
Router(configuration)#logging console warnings
Which alerts will be seen on the console?
A. Warnings only
B. debugging, informational, notifications, warnings
C. warnings, errors, critical, alerts, emergencies
D. notifications, warnings, errors
E. warnings, errors, critical, alerts
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2. You want to configurationure a Cisco router to use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to 10.1.1.1. Which commands will you use to configurationure the router?
A. ntp server 10.1.1.1 ntp server 10.1.1.2
B. ntp server 10.1.1.1 ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C. ntp server 10.1.1.1 ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D. ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback ntp server 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 4
The following commands are issued on a Cisco Router:
Router(configuration)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 host 172.16.1.1 Router(configuration) #access-list 199 permit tcp host 172.16.1.1 host 10.1.1.1 Router(configuration)#exit Router#debugip packet 199
What will the debug output on the console show?
A. All IP packets passing through the router
B. Only IP packets with the source address of 10.1.1.1
C. All IP packets from 10.1.1.1 to 172.16.1.1
D. All IP Packets between 10.1.1.1 and 172.16.1.1
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam C QUESTION 1
Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1 Figure 2

Trouble Ticket Statement:
Client 1 is able to ping 10.1.1.2 but not 10.1.1.1. Initial troubleshooting shows that R1 does not have any OSPF neighbors or any OSPF routes
Configuration on R1:
router ospf 1
log-adjacency-changes network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 12 default-information originate always ! interfaceSerial0/0/0/0.12 point-to-point ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252 ip nat inside ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 TSHOOT
Configuration on R2:
router ospf 1 log-adjacency-changes network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 12 ! interfaceSerial0/0/0/0.12 point-to-point ip address 10.1.1.2 255.255.255.252 ip ospf authentication message-digest ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 TSHOOT
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. R2
C. DSW1
D. Client1
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

CertKiller.com Figure 1 Figure 2

Trouble Ticket Statement:
Client 1 is able to ping 10.1.1.2 but not 10.1.1.1. Initial troubleshooting shows that R1 does not have any OSPF neighbors or any OSPF routes
Configuration on R1:
router ospf 1
log-adjacency-changes network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 12 default-information originate always ! interface Serial0/0/0/0.12 point-to-point ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252 ip nat inside ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 TSHOOT
Configuration on R2:
router ospf 1 log-adjacency-changes network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 12 ! interfaceSerial0/0/0/0.12 point-to-point ip address 10.1.1.2 255.255.255.252 ip ospf authentication message-digest ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 TSHOOT
Fault Condition is related to which technology?
A. NAT
B. OSPF
C. Static Routing
D. Switch to Switch Connectivity

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1 Figure 2

Trouble Ticket Statement:
Client 1 is able to ping 10.1.1.2 but not 10.1.1.1. Initial troubleshooting shows that R1 does not have any OSPF neighbors or any OSPF routes
Configuration on R1:
router ospf 1
log-adjacency-changes network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 12 default-information originate always ! interfaceSerial0/0/0/0.12 point-to-point ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252 ip nat inside ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 TSHOOT
Configuration on R2:
router ospf 1 log-adjacency-changes network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 12 ! interfaceSerial0/0/0/0.12 point-to-point ip address 10.1.1.2 255.255.255.252 ip ospf authentication message-digest ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 TSHOOT
What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. ip ospf authentication message-digest command has to be added on S0/0/0/0.12
B. ip ospf authentication message-digest command has to be added under the OSPF routing process
C. A static route to 10.1.1.4 must be added on R1
D. ipnat outside must be added on S0/0/0/0.12

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam D QUESTION 1

Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1 Figure 2

Trouble Ticket Statement
HSRP has been configurationured between DSW1 and DSW2. DSW1 is configurationured to be active router but it never becomes active even though the HSRP communication between DSW1 and DSW2 is working.
Configuration on DSW1
track 1 ip route 10.1.21.128 255.255.0.0 metric threshold threshold metric up 1 down 2 ! track 10 ip route 10.2.21.128 255.255.255.0 metric threshold threshold metric up 63 down 64 ! interface Vlan10 ip address 10.2.1.1 255.255.255.0 standby 10 ip 10.2.1.254 standby 10 priority 200 standby 10 preempt standby 10 track 1 decrement 60
Configuration on R4
interface loopback0 ip address 10.2.21.128 255.255.255.0
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. R4
B. DSW2
C. DSW1 D. R3

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1 Figure 2

Trouble Ticket Statement
HSRP has been configurationured between DSW1 and DSW2. DSW1 is configurationured to be active router but it never becomes active even though the HSRP communication between DSW1 and DSW2 is working.
Configuration on DSW1
track 1 ip route 10.1.21.128 255.255.0.0 metric threshold threshold metric up 1 down 2 ! track 10 ip route 10.2.21.128 255.255.255.0 metric threshold threshold metric up 63 down 64 ! interface Vlan10 ip address 10.2.1.1 255.255.255.0 standby 10 ip 10.2.1.254 standby 10 priority 200 standby 10 preempt standby 10 track 1 decrement 60
Configuration on R4
interface loopback0 ip address 10.2.21.128 255.255.255.0
What is the solution of fault condition?
A. Change standby priority to 140
B. Change standby priority to 260
C. Change standby 10 track 1 decrement 60 to standby 10 track 10 decrement 60 D. Change standby 10 track 1 decrement 60 to standby 10 track 1 decrement 100

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam E QUESTION 1
Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1 Figure 2

Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 is able to ping 209.65.200.226 but not the Web Server at 209.65.200.241. Initial troubleshooting shows and R1 does not have any BGP routes. R1 also does not show any active BGP neighbor
Configuration on R1
router bgp 65001 no synchronization bgp log-neighbor-changes network 209.65.200.224 mask 255.255.255.252 neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 no auto-summary
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. DSW1
C. R4
D. R2

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 2
Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1

Figure 2
Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 is able to ping 209.65.200.226 but not the Web Server at 209.65.200.241. Initial troubleshooting shows and R1 does not have any BGP routes. R1 also does not show any active BGP neighbor
Configuration on R1
router bgp 65001 no synchronization bgp log-neighbor-changes network 209.65.200.224 mask 255.255.255.252 neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 no auto-summary
The Fault Condition is related to which technology?
A. EIGRP
B. HSRP
C. BGP
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1

Figure 2
Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 is able to ping 209.65.200.226 but not the Web Server at 209.65.200.241. Initial troubleshooting shows and R1 does not have any BGP routes. R1 also does not show any active
BGP neighbor
Configuration on R1
router bgp 65001 no synchronization bgp log-neighbor-changes network 209.65.200.224 mask 255.255.255.252 neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 no auto-summary
What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. Enable BGP synchronization
B. Change neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 statement to neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65001
C. Change neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 statement to neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002
D. Change neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 statement to neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65001

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Exam F QUESTION 1
Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1 Figure 2

Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 and Client 2 are not able to reach the WebServer at 209.65.200.241. Initial troubleshooting shows that DSW1, DSW2 and all the routers are able to reach the WebServer
Configuration on R1
ip nat inside source list nat_pool interface Serial0/0/0/1 overload ! ip access-list standard nat_pool permit 10.1.0.0 ! interface Serial0/0/0/1 ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252 ip nat outside ! interfaceSerial0/0/0/0.12 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252 ip nat inside ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 TSHOOT ip ospd authentication message-digest
On Which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. DSW1
C. R4
D. R2
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1 Figure 2

Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 and Client 2 are not able to reach the WebServer at 209.65.200.241. Initial troubleshooting shows that DSW1, DSW2 and all the routers are able to reach the WebServer
Configuration on R1
ip nat inside source list nat_pool interface Serial0/0/0/1 overload ! ip access-list standard nat_pool permit 10.1.0.0 ! interface Serial0/0/0/1 ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252 ip nat outside ! interfaceSerial0/0/0/0.12 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252 ip nat inside ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 TSHOOT ip ospd authentication message-digest
What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. Add permit 10.2.0.0 statement in nat_pool access-list
B. Remove permit 10.1.0.0 statement from nat_pool access-list
C. Change ip nat inside source list nat_pool interface Serial0/0/0/1 overload to ip nat inside source list nat_pool interface Serial0/0/0/0.12 overload
D. Change ip nat outside statement under Serial0/0/0/1 configuration to ip nat inside
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam G QUESTION 1

Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1 Figure 2

Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 is not able to reach the WebServer at 209.65.200.241. Initial troubleshooting shows that R1 is also not able to reach the WebServer. R1 also does not have any active BGP neighbor.
Configon R1
router bgp 65001 no synchronization bgp log-neighbor-changes network 209.65.200.224 mask 255.255.255.252 neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002 no auto-summary ! access-list 30 permit host 209.65.200.241 access-list 30 deny 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 access-list 30 deny 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 ! interface Serial0/0/0/1 ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252 ip nat outside ip access-group 30 in
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. DSW1
C. R4
D. R2

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1 Figure 2

Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 is not able to reach the WebServer at 209.65.200.241. Initial troubleshooting shows that R1 is also not able to reach the WebServer. R1 also does not have any active BGP neighbor.
Configon R1
router bgp 65001 no synchronization bgp log-neighbor-changes network 209.65.200.224 mask 255.255.255.252 neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002 no auto-summary ! access-list 30 permit host 209.65.200.241 access-list 30 deny 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 access-list 30 deny 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 ! interface Serial0/0/0/1 ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252 ip nat outside ip access-group 30 in
The Fault Condition is related to which technology?
A. IP Access
B. IP NAT
C. BGP
D. IP Access List

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 is not able to reach the WebServer at 209.65.200.241. Initial troubleshooting shows that R1 is also not able to reach the WebServer. R1 also does not have any active BGP neighbor.
Configuration on R1
router bgp 65001 no synchronization bgp log-neighbor-changes network 209.65.200.224 mask 255.255.255.252 neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002 no auto-summary ! access-list 30 permit host 209.65.200.241 access-list 30 deny 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 access-list 30 deny 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 ! interface Serial0/0/0/1 ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252 ip nat outside ip access-group 30 in
What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. Add permit statement for 209.65.200.224/30 network in access list 30
B. Remove Deny Statements from access-list 30
C. Change neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002 statement to neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65001
D. Use extended access-list instead of standard access-list
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam H QUESTION 1

Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1 Figure 2

Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 is getting an IP address from the DHCP server but is not able to ping DSW1 or the FTP Server
Configurationon DSW1
vlan access-map test1 10 drop match ip address 10 ! vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 ! ip access-list standard 10 permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 ! Interface VLAN10 ip address 10.2.1.1 255.255.255.0 !
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. R4
B. DSW1
C. Client 1
D. FTP Server

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 2
Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1 Figure 2

Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 is getting an IP address from the DHCP server but is not able to ping DSW1 or the FTP Server
Configuration on DSW1
vlan access-map test1 10 drop match ip address 10 ! vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 ! ip access-list standard 10 permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 ! Interface VLAN10 ip address 10.2.1.1 255.255.255.0 !
The Fault Condition is related to which technology?
A. VLAN Access Map
B. InterVLAN communication
C. DHCP
D. IP Access List

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 3
Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1 Figure 2

Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 is getting an IP address from the DHCP server but is not able to ping DSW1 or the FTP Server
Configurationon DSW1
vlan access-map test1 10 drop match ip address 10 ! vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 ! ip access-list standard 10 permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 ! Interface VLAN10 ip address 10.2.1.1 255.255.255.0 !
What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. Configurationure Static IP Address on Client 1
B. Change the IP Address of VLAN 10 on DSW1
C. Add Permit any statement to access-list 10
D. Remove VLAN filter test1 from DSW1

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Exam I QUESTION 1
Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1 Figure 2 Trouble Ticket Statement Client one is getting a 169.x.x.x IP address and is not able to ping Client 2 or DSW1. Inital troubleshooting

shows that port Fa1/0/1 on ASW1 is in errdisable state. Configurationon ASW1 Interface FastEthernet1/0/1
switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security mac-address 0000.0000.0001
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. DSW1
B. ASW1
C. Client 1
D. FTP Server

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1

Figure 2 Trouble Ticket Statement Client one is getting a 169.x.x.x IP address and is not able to ping Client 2 or DSW1. Inital troubleshooting
shows that port Fa1/0/1 on ASW1 is in errdisable state. Configurationon ASW1 Interface FastEthernet1/0/1
switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security mac-address 0000.0000.0001
The Fault Condition is related to which technology?
A. VLAN Access Map
B. InterVLAN communication
C. DHCP
D. Port Security

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1

Figure 2 Trouble Ticket Statement Client one is getting a 169.x.x.x IP address and is not able to ping Client 2 or DSW1. Inital troubleshooting
shows that port Fa1/0/1 on ASW1 is in errdisable state. Configurationon ASW1 Interface FastEthernet1/0/1
switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security mac-address 0000.0000.0001
What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. Configurationure Static IP Address on Client 1
B. Change the IP Address of VLAN 10 on DSW1
C. Issue shutdown command followed by no shutdown command on port fa1/0/1 on ASW1
D. Issue no switchport port-security mac-address 0000.0000.0001 command followed by shutdown and no shutdown command on port fa1/0/1 on ASW1
E. Issue no switchport port-security mac-address 0000.0000.0001 command on port fa1/0/1 on ASW1

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam J QUESTION 1
Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1 Figure 2

Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 and Client 2 are getting a 169.x.x.x IP address and are not able to ping DSW1 or the FTP Server. They are able to ping each other.
Configuration on ASW1
Interface FastEthernet1/0/1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 1 ! Interface FastEthernet1/0/2 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 1
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. DSW1
B. ASW1
C. Client 1
D. FTP Server

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 2
Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1

Figure 2
Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 and Client 2 are getting a 169.x.x.x IP address and are not able to ping DSW1 or the FTP Server. They are able to ping each other.
Configurationon ASW1
Interface FastEthernet1/0/1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 1 ! Interface FastEthernet1/0/2 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 1
What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. Given an IP address to VLAN 1 on DSW1
B. Change the IP Address of VLAN 10 on DSW1
C. Issue switchport access vlan 10 command on interfaces fa1/0/1 and fa1/0/2 on ASW1
D. Give static IP addresses to Client 1 and Client 2
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam K QUESTION 1

Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1 Figure 2

Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 and Client 2 are getting a 169.x.x.x IP address and are not able to ping DSW1 or the FTP Server. They are able to ping each other.
Configurationon ASW1
Interface PortChannel13 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-9 ! Interface PortChannel23 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-9 ! Interface FastEthernet1/0/1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 10 ! Interface FastEthernet1/0/2 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 10 !
On Which device is the fault condition located?
A. ASW1
B. DSW1
C. Client 1 D. FTP Server

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1 Figure 2

Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 and Client 2 are getting a 169.x.x.x IP address and are not able to ping DSW1 or the FTP Server. They are able to ping each other.
Configurationon ASW1
Interface PortChannel13 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-9 ! Interface PortChannel23 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-9 ! Interface FastEthernet1/0/1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 10 ! Interface FastEthernet1/0/2 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 10 !
What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. Change the VLAN assignment on fa1/0/1 and fa1/0/2 on ASW1 to VLAN 1
B. Change the IP Address of VLAN 10 on DSW1
C. Issue switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,200 on interface portchannel13 and portchannel23 on ASW1 D. Issue switchport trunk allowed vlan none on interface portchannel13 and portchanngel23 on ASW1

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam L QUESTION 1
Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1 Figure 2

Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 is not able to reach the WebServer. Initial troubleshooting shows that DSW1 can ping the Fa0/1 interface of R4 but not the s0/0/0/0.34 interface.
Configurationon DSW1
router eigrp 10 network 10.1.4.4 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.1.1 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.4.13 0.0.0.0 no auto-summary
Configurationon DSW2
router eigrp 10 network 10.1.4.8 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.2.1 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.4.14 0.0.0.0 no auto-summary
Configurationon R4
router eigrp 1 network 10.1.4.5 0.0.0.0 no auto-summary redistribute ospf 1
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. DSW1
B. DSW2
C. Client 1
D. R4

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1 Figure 2

Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 is not able to reach the WebServer. Initial troubleshooting shows that DSW1 can ping the Fa0/1 interface of R4 but not the s0/0/0/0.34 interface.
Configurationon DSW1
router eigrp 10 network 10.1.4.4 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.1.1 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.4.13 0.0.0.0 no auto-summary
Configurationon DSW2
router eigrp 10 network 10.1.4.8 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.2.1 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.4.14 0.0.0.0 no auto-summary
Configurationon R4
router eigrp 1 network 10.1.4.5 0.0.0.0 no auto-summary redistribute ospf 1
What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. Change the EIGRP AS to 1 on DSW1
B. Change the routing protocol on DSW1 and DSW2 to OSPF
C. Change the EIGRP AS to 10 on R4
D. Advertise 10.1.1.8/30 network in EIGRP on R4

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam M QUESTION 1

Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1 Figure 2

Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 is not able to reach the WebServer. Initial troubleshooting shows that DSW1 can ping the Fa0/1 interface of R4 but not the s0/0/0/0.34 interface.
Configurationon DSW1
router eigrp 10 network 10.1.4.4 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.1.1 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.4.13 0.0.0.0 no auto-summary
Configurationon DSW2
router eigrp 10 network 10.1.4.8 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.2.1 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.4.14 0.0.0.0 no auto-summary
Configurationon R4
router eigrp 10 network 10.1.4.5 0.0.0.0 no auto-summary redistribute ospf 1 metric 100 10 255 1 1500 route-map EIGRP_to_OSPF ! router ospf 1 network 10.1.1.8 0.0.0.0 area 34 redistribute eigrp 10 subnets ! route-map EIGRP->OSPF
match ip address 1 ! access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 access-list 1 permit 209.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
The Fault Condition is related to which technology?
A. EIGRP
B. Route Redistribution
C. OSPF
D. IP Addressing

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Following ticket consists of a problem description and existing configuration on the device.

Figure 1 Figure 2

Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 is not able to reach the WebServer. Initial troubleshooting shows that DSW1 can ping the Fa0/1 interface of R4 but not the s0/0/0/0.34 interface.
Configurationon DSW1
router eigrp 10 network 10.1.4.4 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.1.1 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.4.13 0.0.0.0 no auto-summary
Configurationon DSW2
router eigrp 10 network 10.1.4.8 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.2.1 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.4.14 0.0.0.0 no auto-summary
Configurationon R4
router eigrp 10 network 10.1.4.5 0.0.0.0 no auto-summary redistribute ospf 1 metric 100 10 255 1 1500 route-map EIGRP_to_OSPF ! router ospf 1
network 10.1.1.8 0.0.0.0 area 34 redistribute eigrp 10 subnets ! route-map EIGRP->OSPF match ip address 1 ! access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 access-list 1 permit 209.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. Remove the redistribute command from OSPF process on R4
B. Change the route-map name in the redistribute command under OSPF process to EIGRP- >OSPF on R4
C. Change EIGRP AS to 1 on R4
D. Advertise 10.1.1.8/30 network in EIGRP on R4

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam N
QUESTION 1
Trouble Ticket Statement
DSW1 and R4 cannot ping R2’s loopback or R2’s s0/0/0/0.12 IPv6 address. Initial troubleshooting shows and R2 is not an OSPFv3 neighbor on R3.
Configurationon R2
ipv6 unicast-routing ! ipv6 router ospf 6 router-id 2.2.2.2 ! interface s0/0/0/0.23 ipv6 address 2026::1:1/122
ConfigurationR3
ipv6 unicast-routing ! ipv6 router ospf 6 router-id 3.3.3.3 ! interface s0/0/0/0.23 ipv6 address 2026::1:2/122 ipv6 ospf 6 area 0
What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. Add ipv6 ospf 6 area 0 under S0/0/0/0.23 on R2
B. Add ipv6 ospf 6 area 6 under s0/0/0/0.23 on R2
C. Remove IPv6 address from s0/0/0/0.23 on R2
D. Enable IPv6 routing on s0/0/0/0.23 on R2
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Trouble Ticket Statement:
Client 1 is able to ping 10.1.1.2 but not 10.1.1.1. Initial troubleshooting shows that R1 does not have any OSPF neighbors or any OSPF routes
Configuration on R1:
router ospf 1
log-adjacency-changes network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 12 default-information originate always ! interfaceSerial0/0/0/0.12 point-to-point ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252 ip nat inside ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 TSHOOT
Configuration on R2: router ospf 1 log-adjacency-changes network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 12 ! interfaceSerial0/0/0/0.12 point-to-point ip address 10.1.1.2 255.255.255.252 ip ospf authentication message-digest ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 TSHOOT
What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. ip ospf authentication message-digest command has to be added on S0/0/0/0.12
B. ip ospf authentication message-digest command has to be added under the OSPF routing process
C. A static route to 10.1.1.4 must be added on R1
D. ipnat outside must be added on S0/0/0/0.12
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Trouble Ticket Statement
HSRP has been configurationured between DSW1 and DSW2. DSW1 is configurationured to be active router but it never becomes active even though the HSRP communication between DSW1 and DSW2 is working.
Configuration on DSW1
track 1 ip route 10.1.21.128 255.255.0.0 metric threshold threshold metric up 1 down 2 ! track 10 ip route 10.2.21.128 255.255.255.0 metric threshold threshold metric up 63 down 64 ! interface Vlan10 ip address 10.2.1.1 255.255.255.0 standby 10 ip 10.2.1.254 standby 10 priority 200 standby 10 preempt standby 10 track 1 decrement 60
Configuration on R4
interface loopback0 ip address 10.2.21.128 255.255.255.0
What is the solution of fault condition?
A. Change standby priority to 140
B. Change standby priority to 260
C. Change standby 10 track 1 decrement 60 to standby 10 track 10 decrement 60
D. Change standby 10 track 1 decrement 60 to standby 10 track 1 decrement 100
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 4
Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 is able to ping 209.65.200.226 but not the Web Server at 209.65.200.241. Initial troubleshooting shows and R1 does not have any BGP routes. R1 also does not show any active BGP neighbor
Configuration on R1
router bgp 65001 no synchronization bgp log-neighbor-changes network 209.65.200.224 mask 255.255.255.252 neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 no auto-summary
What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. Enable BGP synchronization
B. Change neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 statement to neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65001
C. Change neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 statement to neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002
D. Change neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 statement to neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65001
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 and Client 2 are not able to reach the WebServer at 209.65.200.241. Initial troubleshooting shows that DSW1, DSW2 and all the routers are able to reach the WebServer
Configuration on R1
ip nat inside source list nat_pool interface Serial0/0/0/1 overload ! ip access-list standard nat_pool permit 10.1.0.0 ! interface Serial0/0/0/1 ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252 ip nat outside ! interfaceSerial0/0/0/0.12 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252 ip nat inside ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 TSHOOT ip ospd authentication message-digest
What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. Add permit 10.2.0.0 statement in nat_pool access-list
B. Remove permit 10.1.0.0 statement from nat_pool access-list
C. Change ip nat inside source list nat_pool interface Serial0/0/0/1 overload to ip nat inside source list nat_pool interface Serial0/0/0/0.12 overload D. Change ip nat outside statement under Serial0/0/0/1 configuration to ip nat inside
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 is getting an IP address from the DHCP server but is not able to ping DSW1 or the FTP Server
Configurationon DSW1
vlan access-map test1 10 drop match ip address 10 ! vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 ! ip access-list standard 10 permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 ! Interface VLAN10 ip address 10.2.1.1 255.255.255.0 !
What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. Configurationure Static IP Address on Client 1
B. Change the IP Address of VLAN 10 on DSW1
C. Add Permit any statement to access-list 10
D. Remove VLAN filter test1 from DSW1
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 is not able to reach the WebServer. Initial troubleshooting shows that DSW1 can ping the Fa0/1 interface of R4 but not the s0/0/0/0.34 interface.
Configurationon DSW1
router eigrp 10 network 10.1.4.4 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.1.1 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.4.13 0.0.0.0 no auto-summary
Configurationon DSW2
router eigrp 10 network 10.1.4.8 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.2.1 0.0.0.0
network 10.2.4.14 0.0.0.0 no auto-summary
Configurationon R4
router eigrp 1 network 10.1.4.5 0.0.0.0 no auto-summary redistribute ospf 1
What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. Change the EIGRP AS to 1 on DSW1
B. Change the routing protocol on DSW1 and DSW2 to OSPF
C. Change the EIGRP AS to 10 on R4
D. Advertise 10.1.1.8/30 network in EIGRP on R4

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 is not able to reach the WebServer. Initial troubleshooting shows that DSW1 can ping the Fa0/1 interface of R4 but not the s0/0/0/0.34 interface.
Configurationon DSW1
router eigrp 10 network 10.1.4.4 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.1.1 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.4.13 0.0.0.0 no auto-summary
Configurationon DSW2
router eigrp 10 network 10.1.4.8 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.2.1 0.0.0.0 network 10.2.4.14 0.0.0.0 no auto-summary
Configurationon R4
router eigrp 10 network 10.1.4.5 0.0.0.0 no auto-summary redistribute ospf 1 metric 100 10 255 1 1500 route-map EIGRP_to_OSPF ! router ospf 1
network 10.1.1.8 0.0.0.0 area 34 redistribute eigrp 10 subnets ! route-map EIGRP->OSPF match ip address 1 ! access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 access-list 1 permit 209.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. Remove the redistribute command from OSPF process on R4
B. Change the route-map name in the redistribute command under OSPF process to EIGRP- >OSPF on R4
C. Change EIGRP AS to 1 on R4
D. Advertise 10.1.1.8/30 network in EIGRP on R4

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Trouble Ticket Statement
Client 1 is not able to reach the WebServer at 209.65.200.241. Initial troubleshooting shows that R1 is also not able to reach the WebServer. R1 also does not have any active BGP neighbor.
Configuration on R1
router bgp 65001 no synchronization bgp log-neighbor-changes network 209.65.200.224 mask 255.255.255.252 neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002 no auto-summary ! access-list 30 permit host 209.65.200.241 access-list 30 deny 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 access-list 30 deny 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 ! interface Serial0/0/0/1 ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252 ip nat outside ip access-group 30 in
What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. Add permit statement for 209.65.200.224/30 network in access list 30
B. Remove Deny Statements from access-list 30
C. Change neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002 statement to neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65001
D. Use extended access-list instead of standard access-list

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Client 1 is able to ping 10.1.1.2 but not 10.1.1.1. Initial troubleshooting shows that R1 does not have any OSPF neighbors or any OSPF routes What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. ip ospf authentication message-digest command has to be added on S0/0/0/0.12
B. ip ospf authentication message-digest command has to be added under the OSPF routing process
C. A static route to 10.1.1.4 must be added on R1
D. ipnat outside must be added on S0/0/0/0.12

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
HSRP has been configurationured between DSW1 and DSW2. DSW1 is configurationured to be active
router but it never becomes active even though the HSRP communication between DSW1 and DSW2 is
working.
Fault Condition is related to which technology?

A. GLBP
B. HSRP
C. OSPF
D. Switch to Switch Connectivity

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Client 1 and Client 2 are not able to reach the WebServer at 209.65.200.241. Initial troubleshooting shows that DSW1, DSW2 and all the routers are able to reach the WebServer The Fault Condition is related to which technology?
A. EIGRP
B. HSRP
C. BGP
D. NAT

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Client 1 is getting an IP address from the DHCP server but is not able to ping DSW1 or the FTP The Fault Condition is related to which technology?
A. VLAN Access Map
B. InterVLAN communication
C. DHCP
D. IP Access List

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 14
Client one is getting a 169.x.x.x IP address and is not able to ping Client 2 or DSW1. Inital troubleshooting
shows that port Fa1/0/1 on ASW1 is in errdisable state.
What is the solution of the fault condition?

A. Configurationure Static IP Address on Client 1
B. Change the IP Address of VLAN 10 on DSW1
C. Issue shutdown command followed by no shutdown command on port fa1/0/1 on ASW1
D. Issue no switchport port-security mac-address 0000.0000.0001 command followed by shutdown and no shutdown command on port fa1/0/1 on ASW1
E. Issue no switchport port-security mac-address 0000.0000.0001 command on port fa1/0/1 on ASW1

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Client 1 and Client 2 are getting a 169.x.x.x IP address and are not able to ping DSW1 or the FTP Server.
They are able to ping each other.
What is the solution of the fault condition?

A. Given an IP address to VLAN 1 on DSW1
B. Change the IP Address of VLAN 10 on DSW1
C. Issue switchport access vlan 10 command on interfaces fa1/0/1 and fa1/0/2 on ASW1
D. Give static IP addresses to Client 1 and Client 2

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Client 1 and Client 2 are getting a 169.x.x.x IP address and are not able to ping DSW1 or the FTP Server.
They are able to ping each other.
On Which device is the fault condition located?

A. ASW1
B. DSW1
C. Client 1
D. FTP Server

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Client 1 is not able to reach the WebServer. Initial troubleshooting shows that DSW1 can ping the Fa0/1
interface of R4 but not the s0/0/0/0.34 interface.
What is the solution of the fault condition?

A. Change the EIGRP AS to 1 on DSW1
B. Change the routing protocol on DSW1 and DSW2 to OSPF
C. Change the EIGRP AS to 10 on R4
D. Advertise 10.1.1.8/30 network in EIGRP on R4

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Client 1 is not able to reach the WebServer. Initial troubleshooting shows that DSW1 can ping the Fa0/1
interface of R4 but not the s0/0/0/0.34 interface.
The Fault Condition is related to which technology?

A. EIGRP
B. Route Redistribution
C. OSPF
D. IP Addressing

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
DSW1 and R4 cannot ping R2’s loopback or R2’s s0/0/0/0.12 IPv6 address. Initial troubleshooting shows
and R2 is not an OSPFv3 neighbor on R3.
On Which device is the fault condition located?

A. DSW1
B. DSW2
C. R2
D. R3

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which three of the following are benefits of a structured approach to network maintenance?
A. Maintenance processes are better aligned to business needs.
B. Hardware discounts can be negotiated with the reseller.
C. The overall security of the network will be higher.
D. The total unplanned network downtime will be lower.
E. Users will never have to wait to get support.
F. Network maintenance can be outsourced to lower the cost.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which three of the following is a methodology that can be applied to network maintenance?
A. Fault management, Configuration management, Accounting management, Performance management, and Security management (FCAPS)
B. IT Infrastructure Library (ITIL)
C. Optimization and Maintenance (OaM)
D. Telecommunications Management Network (TMN)
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which two of the following are common network maintenance processes?
A. Disaster recovery
B. Network design
C. Budget approval
D. Documentation
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which two of the following are benefits of scheduled maintenance?
A. Network engineers will not have to work outside regular work hours.
B. Lead times for change requests will be more predictable.
C. Disruptive maintenance tasks can be scheduled during assigned maintenance windows.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none)
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which factors should be considered during the implementation of change procedures?
A. Risk, impact, and resources should be balanced against urgency, necessity, and business needs
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Risk, impact, and resources should be balanced against urgency, necessity, and business needs
QUESTION 6
Which three of the following items do you need to have to replace a failed device?
A. Replacement hardware for the failed device
B. Proof of purchase of the failed device
C. TAC support for the failed device
D. The current configuration of the failed device
E. The current software version of the failed device
F. The original box that the failed device was shipped in
Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Network monitoring is a fundamental aspect of a proactive network management strategy. True or False?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which five of the following protocols can be used to transfer a configuration file from a router to a server to create a configuration backup?
A. HTTPS
B. HTTP
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. TFTP
F. SCP Correct Answer: ABCEF
Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which of the following commands is the correct command to copy the running configuration of a router to a file named test.cfg residing on an FTP server with IP address 10.1.1.1, using the username admin and password cisco?
A. copy running-config ftp://10.1.1.1/test.cfg user admin password cisco
B. copy running-config ftp://10.1.1.1/test.cfg /user:admin /password:cisco
C. copy running-config ftp://admin:[email protected]/test.cfg
D. archive running-config ftp://10.1.1.1/test.cfg user admin password cisco
E. None of these are correct; FTP does not require authentication.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
What command enables you to manually create an archive copy of the running configuration?
A. archieve config
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which of the following commands is the correct command to restore the current configuration to the archived configuration file RO1-archive-config-5 residing in flash?
A. archive rollback flash:/RO1-archive-config-5
B. configure replace flash:/RO1-archive-config-5
C. copy flash:/RO1-archive-config-5 running-config
D. archive restore flash:/RO1-archive-config-5
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
What command enables you to configure a switch to log system messages to a syslog server at IP address 10.1.1.1?
A. logging 10.1.1.1
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
What is the functionality delivered by the online Dynamic Configuration Tool?
A. It interprets router configurations and recommends changes based on a set of best current practices.
B. It converts Cisco IOS firewall configurations to PIX or ASA configurations and vice versa.
C. It converts CatOS switch configurations to Cisco IOS configurations.
D. It validates hardware configurations and creates a bill of materials from it.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which two of the following are processes that benefit from the implementation of a network performance measurement system?
A. Disaster recovery
B. Change management
C. Capacity planning
D. SLA compliance
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which three of the following processes are subprocesses or phases of a troubleshooting process? (Choose three.)
A. Elimination
B. Testing
C. Termination
D. Problem definition
E. Calculation
F. Compilation
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which four of the following approaches are valid troubleshooting methods? (Choose four.)
A. Top down
B. Bottom up
C. Follow the path
D. Seek-and-destroy
E. Divide and conquer
Correct Answer: ABCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which three of the following troubleshooting approaches use the OSI reference model as a guiding principle? (Choose three.)
A. Top down
B. Bottom up
C. Follow the path
D. Spot the differences
E. Move the problem
F. Divide and conquer
Correct Answer: ABF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which of the following troubleshooting methods is most appropriate to find a bad cable?
A. Top down
B. Bottom up
C. Follow the path
D. Spot the differences
E. Move the problem
F. Divide and conquer
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which conditions make troubleshooting by spotting the differences more effective?
A. Existence of consistent templates for configurations and a baseline of network behavior under normal circumstances
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 20
Which of the following has a clear problem definition?
A. I cannot order printer cartridges because the Internet is down.
B. My e-mail does not work.
C. I cannot log on to the network because the server is down.
D. When I try to access http://www.cisco.com, my Internet Explorer says that it cannot display the web page.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
hostname Switch1 interface Vlan10 ip address 172.16.10.32 255.255.255.0 no ip redirects standby 1 ip 172.16.10.110 standby 1 timers msec 200 msec 700 standby 1 preempt
hostname Switch2 interface Vlan10 ip address 172.16.10.33 255.255.255.0 no ip redirects standby 1 ip 172.16.10.110 standby 1 timers msec 200 msec 750 standby 1 priority 110 standby 1 preempt
hostname Switch3 interface Vlan10 ip address 172.16.10.34 255.255.255.0 no ip redirects standby 1 ip 172.16.10.110 standby 1 timers msec 200 msec 750 standby 1 priority 150 standby 1 preempt
Refer to the above. Three switches are configured for HSRP.
Switch1 remains in the HSRP listen state. What is the most likely cause of this status?
A. This is normal operation.
B. The standby group number does not match the VLAN number.
C. IP addressing is incorrect.
D. Priority commands are incorrect.
E. Standby timers are incorrect.
Correct Answer: A Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 2
Three Cisco Catalyst switches have been configured with a first-hop redundancy protocol. While reviewing some show commands, debug output, and the syslog, you discover the following information:
Jan 9 08:00:42.623: %STANDBY-6-STATECHANGF. Standby: 49:Vlan149 state Standby -> Active Jan 9 08:00:56.011: %STANDBY-6-STATECHANGF. Standby: 49:Vlan149 state Active -> Speak Jan 9 08:01:03.011: %STANDBY-6-STATECHANGF. Standby: 49:Vlan149 state Speak -> Standby Jan 9 08:01:29.427: %STANDBY-6-STATECHANGF. Standby: 49:Vlan149 state Standby -> Active Jan 9 08:01:36.808: %STANDBY-6-STATECHANGF. Standby: 49:Vlan149 state Active -> Speak Jan 9 08:01:43.808: %STANDBY-6-STATECHANGF. Standby: 49:Vlan149 state Speak -> Standby
What conclusion can you infer from this information?
A. VRRP is initializing and operating correctly.
B. HSRP is initializing and operating correctly.
C. GLBP is initializing and operating correctly.
D. VRRP is not exchanging three hello messages properly.
E. HSRP is not exchanging three hello messages properly.
F. GLBP is not exchanging three hello messages properly.
Correct Answer: E Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 3
By itself, what does the command “aaa new-model” enable?
A. It globally enables AAA on the switch, with default lists applied to the VTYs.
B. Nothing; you must also specify which protocol (RADIUS or TACACS) will be used for AAA.
C. It enables AAA on all dot1x ports.
D. Nothing; you must also specify where (console, TTY, VTY, dot1x) AAA is being applied.
Correct Answer: A Section: Access Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 4
What are three results of issuing the “switchport host” command? (Choose three.)
A. disables EtherChannel
B. enables port security
C. disables Cisco Discovery Protocol
D. enables PortFast
E. disables trunking
F. enables loopguard
Correct Answer: ADE Section: VLANs Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 5
When configuring private VLANs, which configuration task must you do first?
A. Configure the private VLAN port parameters.
B. Configure and map the secondary VLAN to the primary VLAN.
C. Disable IGMP snooping.
D. Set the VTP mode to transparent.
Correct Answer: D Section: VLANs Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 6
Which statement about the configuration and application of port access control lists is true?
A. PACLs can be applied in the inbound or outbound direction of a Layer 2 physical interface.
B. At Layer 2, a MAC address PACL takes precedence over any existing Layer 3 PACL.
C. When you apply a port ACL to a trunk port, the ACL filters traffic on all VLANs present on the trunk port.
D. PACLs are not supported on EtherChannel interfaces.
Correct Answer: C Section: Access Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the command output is true?
A. If the number of devices attempting to access the port exceeds 11, the port shuts down for 20 minutes, as configured.
B. The port has security enabled and has shut down due to a security violation.
C. The port is operational and has reached its configured maximum allowed number of MAC addresses.
D. The port allows access for 11 MAC addresses in addition to the three configured MAC addresses.
Correct Answer: C Section: Access Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement best describes first-hop redundancy protocol status?
A. The first-hop redundancy protocol is not configured for this interface.
B. HSRP is configured for group 10.
C. HSRP is configured for group 11.
D. VRRP is configured for group 10.
E. VRRP is configured for group 11.
F. GLBP is configured with a single AVF.
Correct Answer: C Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 9
Which statement best describes implementing a Layer 3 EtherChannel?
A. EtherChannel is a Layer 2 feature and not a Layer 3 feature.
B. Implementation requires switchport mode trunk and matching parameters between switches.
C. Implementation requires disabling switchport mode.
D. A Layer 3 address is assigned to the physical interface.
Correct Answer: C Section: EtherChannels Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 10
Which statement about when standard access control lists are applied to an interface to control inbound or outbound traffic is true?
A. The best match of the ACL entries is used for granularity of control.
B. They use source IP information for matching operations.
C. They use source and destination IP information for matching operations.
D. They use source IP information along with protocol-type information for finer granularity of control.
Correct Answer: B Section: Access Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

You have configured an interface to be an SVI for Layer 3 routing capabilities. Assuming that all VLANs have been correctly configured, what can be determined?
A. Interface gigabitethernet0/2 will be excluded from Layer 2 switching and enabled for Layer 3 routing.
B. The command switchport autostate exclude should be entered in global configuration mode, not subinterface mode, to enable a Layer 2 port to be configured for Layer 3 routing.
C. The configured port is excluded in the calculation of the status of the SVI.
D. The interface is missing IP configuration parameters; therefore, it will only function at Layer 2.
Correct Answer: C Section: MultiLayer Switching Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about this Layer 3 security configuration example are true? (Choose two.)
A. Static IP source binding can be configured only on a routed port.
B. Source IP and MAC filtering on VLANs 10 and 11 will occur.
C. DHCP snooping will be enabled automatically on the access VLANs.
D. IP Source Guard is enabled.
E. The switch will drop the configured MAC and IP address source bindings and forward all other traffic.
Correct Answer: BD Section: Access Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding load balancing has been disabled.
B. SVI VLAN 30 connects directly to the 10.1.30.0/24 network due to a valid glean adjacency.
C. VLAN 30 is not operational because no packet or byte counts are indicated.
D. The IP Cisco Express Forwarding configuration is capable of supporting IPv6.
Correct Answer: B Section: MultiLayer Switching Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 14
Which statement about the EIGRP routing being performed by the switch is true?

A. The EIGRP neighbor table contains 20 neighbors.
B. EIGRP is running normally and receiving IPv4 routing updates.
C. EIGRP status cannot be determined. The command show ip eigrp topology would determine the routing protocol status.
D. The switch has not established any neighbor relationships. Further network testing and troubleshooting must be performed to determine the cause of the problem.
Correct Answer: D Section: MultiLayer Switching Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 15
What is the result of entering the command “spanning-tree loopguard default” ?
A. The command enables loop guard and root guard.
B. The command changes the status of loop guard from the default of disabled to enabled.
C. The command activates loop guard on point-to-multipoint links in the switched network.
D. The command disables EtherChannel guard.
Correct Answer: B Section: STP Protection Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 16
What does the interface subcommand “switchport voice vlan 222” indicate?
A. The port is configured for data and voice traffic.
B. The port is fully dedicated to forwarding voice traffic.
C. The port operates as an FXS telephony port.
D. Voice traffic is directed to VLAN 222.
Correct Answer: A Section: IP Telephony Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 17
Which statement is a characteristic of multi-VLAN access ports?
A. The port has to support STP PortFast.
B. The auxiliary VLAN is for data service and is identified by the PVID.
C. The port hardware is set as an 802.1Q trunk.
D. The voice service and data service use the same trust boundary.
Correct Answer: C Section: IP Telephony Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 18
Which two statements are true about recommended practices that are to be used in a local VLAN solution design where layer 2 traffic is to be kept to a minimum? (Choose two.)
A. Routing should occur at the access layer if voice VLANs are utilized. Otherwise, routing should occur at the distribution layer.
B. Routing may be performed at all layers but is most commonly done at the core and distribution layers.
C. Routing should not be performed between VLANs located on separate switches.
D. VLANs should be local to a switch.
E. VLANs should be localized to a single switch unless voice VLANs are being utilized.
Correct Answer: BD Section: VLANs, Trunks Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 19
Which statement about the Port Aggregation Protocol is true?
A. Configuration changes made on the port-channel interface apply to all physical ports assigned to the port-channel interface.
B. Configuration changes made on a physical port that is a member of a port-channel interface apply to the port-channel interface.
C. Configuration changes are not permitted with Port Aggregation Protocol. Instead, the standardized Link Aggregation Control Protocol should be used if configuration changes are required.
D. The physical port must first be disassociated from the port-channel interface before any configuration changes can be made.
Correct Answer: A Section: EtherChannels Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 20
In which three HSRP states do routers send hello messages? (Choose three.)
A. standby
B. learn
C. listen
D. speak
E. active
Correct Answer: ADE Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Exam B QUESTION 1
Which statement about 802.1Q trunking is true?
A. Both switches must be in the same VTP domain.
B. The encapsulation type on both ends of the trunk does not have to match.
C. The native VLAN on both ends of the trunk must be VLAN 1.
D. In 802.1Q trunking, all VLAN packets are tagged on the trunk link, except the native VLAN.

Correct Answer: D Section: VLANs, Trunks Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. A trunk link will be formed.
B. Only VLANs 1-1001 will travel across the trunk link.
C. The native VLAN for switch B is VLAN 1.
D. DTP is not running on switch A.
E. DTP packets are sent from switch B.
Correct Answer: ACE Section: VLANs, Trunks Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You can manually configure trunk links on Catalyst switches for either ISL or 802.1Q mode. In addition,
Cisco has implemented a proprietary, point-to-point protocol called Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) that
negotiates a common trunking mode between two switches. The negotiation covers the encapsulation (ISL
or 802.1Q) as well as whether the link becomes a trunk at all. You can configure the trunk encapsulation
with the switchport trunk encapsulation command, as one of the following:

· isl–VLANs are tagged by encapsulating each frame using the Cisco ISL protocol. · dot1q–VLANs are
tagged in each frame using the IEEE 802.1Q standard protocol. The only exception is the native VLAN,
which is sent normally and not tagged at all. · negotiate (the default)–The encapsulation is negotiated to
select either ISL or IEEE 802.1Q, whichever is supported by both ends of the trunk. If both ends support
both types, ISL is favored. (The Catalyst 2950 switch does not support ISL encapsulation.) In the
switchport mode command, you can set the trunking mode to any of the following:
· trunk–This setting places the port in permanent trunking mode. The corresponding switch port at the
other end of the trunk should be similarly configured because negotiation is not allowed. You should also
manually configure the encapsulation mode. · dynamic desirable (the default)–The port actively attempts to
convert the link into trunking mode. If the far-end switch port is configured to trunk, dynamic desirable, or
dynamic auto mode, trunking is successfully negotiated.
· dynamic auto–The port converts the link into trunking mode. If the far-end switch port is configured to
trunk or dynamic desirable, trunking is negotiated. Because of the passive negotiation behavior, the link
never becomes a trunk if both ends of the link are left to the dynamic auto default.

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

Host A and Host B are connected to the Cisco Catalyst 3550 switch and have been assigned to their respective VLANs. The rest of the 3550 configuration is the default configuration. Host A is able to ping its default gateway, 10.10.10.1, but is unable to ping Host B. Given the output in the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. HSRP must be configured on SW1.
B. A separate router is needed to support inter-VLAN routing.
C. Interface VLAN 10 must be configured on the SW1 switch.
D. The global configuration command ip routing must be configured on the SW1 switch.
E. VLANs 10 and 15 must be created in the VLAN database mode.
F. VTP must be configured to support inter-VLAN routing.

Correct Answer: D Section: MultiLayer Switching Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: To transport packets between VLANs, you must use a Layer 3 device. Traditionally, this has been a router’s function. The router must have a physical or logical connection to each VLAN so that it can forward packets between them. This is known as interVLAN routing. Multilayer switches can perform both Layer 2 switching and interVLAN routing, as appropriate. Layer 2 switching occurs between interfaces that are assigned to Layer 2 VLANs or Layer 2 trunks. Layer 3 switching can occur between any type of interface, as long as the interface can have a Layer 3 address assigned to it. Switch(config)#ip routing command enables the routing on Layer 3 Swtich
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

What happens when one more user is connected to interface FastEthernet 5/1?
A. All secure addresses age out and are removed from the secure address list. The security violation counter increments.
B. The first address learned on the port is removed from the secure address list and is replaced with the new address.
C. The interface is placed into the error-disabled state immediately, and an SNMP trap notification is sent.
D. The packets with the new source addresses are dropped until a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses are removed from the secure address list.
Correct Answer: C Section: Access Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Port security is a feature supported on Cisco Catalyst switches that restricts a switch port to a specific set or number of MAC addresses. Those addresses can be learned dynamically or configured statically. The port will then provide access to frames from only those addresses. If, however, the number of addresses is limited to four but no specific MAC addresses are configured, the port will allow any four MAC addresses to be learned dynamically, and port access will be limited to those four dynamically learned addresses. Port Security Implementation: When Switch port security rules violate different action can be applied:

1.
Protect: Frames from the nonallowed address are dropped, but there is no log of the violation.

2.
Restrict: Frames from the nonallowed address are dropped, a log message is created, and a Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) trap is sent.

3.
Shutdown: If any frames are seen from a nonallowed address, the interface is errdisabled, a log entry is made, an SNMP trap is sent, and manual intervention or errdisable recovery must be used to make the interface usable.
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

What happens to traffic within VLAN 14 with a source address of 172.16.10.5?
A. The traffic is forwarded to the TCAM for further processing.
B. The traffic is forwarded to the router processor for further processing.
C. The traffic is dropped.
D. The traffic is forwarded without further processing.

Correct Answer: C Section: VLANs Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: VLAN maps, also known as VLAN ACLs or VACLs, can filter all traffic traversing a switch. VLAN maps can be configured on the switch to filter all packets that are routed into or out of a VLAN, or are bridged within a VLAN. VLAN maps are used strictly for security packet filtering. Unlike router ACLs, VLAN maps are not defined by direction (input or output).
To create a VLAN map and apply it to one or more VLANs, perform these steps: · Create the standard or extended IP ACLs or named MAC extended ACLs to be applied to the VLAN. This access-list will select the traffic that will be either forwarded or dropped by the access- map. Only traffic matching the `permit’ condition in an access-list will be passed to the access-map for further processing. · Enter the vlan access-map access-map-name [sequence] global configuration command to create a VLAN ACL map entry. Each access-map can have multiple entries. The order of these entries is determined by the sequence. If no sequence number is entered, access-map entries are added with sequence numbers in increments of 10. · In access map configuration mode, optionally enter an action forward or action drop. The default is to forward traffic. Also enter the match command to specify an IP packet or a non-IP packet (with only a known MAC address), and to match the packet against one or more ACLs (standard or extended). · Use the vlan filter access-map-name vlan-list vlan-list global configuration command to apply a VLAN map to one or more VLANs. A single access-map can be used on multiple VLANs.
QUESTION 6
Which protocol allows for the automatic selection and simultaneous use of multiple available gateways as well as automatic failover between those gateways?
A. IRDP
B. HSRP
C. GLBP D. VRRP
Correct Answer: C Section: GLBP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: To provide a virtual router, multiple switches (routers) are assigned to a common GLBP group. Rather than having just one active router performing forwarding for the virtual router address, all routers in the group can participate and offer load balancing by forwarding a portion of the overall traffic. The advantage is that none of the clients have to be pointed toward a specific gateway address–they can all have the same default gateway set to the virtual router IP address. The load balancing is provided completely through the use of virtual router MAC addresses in ARP replies returned to the clients. As a client sends an ARP request looking for the virtual router address, GLBP sends back an ARP reply with the virtual MAC address of a selected router in the group. The result is that all clients use the same gateway address but have differing MAC addresses for it.
QUESTION 7
When you create a network implementation for a VLAN solution, what is one procedure that you should include in your plan?
A. Perform an incremental implementation of components.
B. Implement the entire solution and then test end-to-end to make sure that it is performing as designed.
C. Implement trunking of all VLANs to ensure that traffic is crossing the network as needed before performing any pruning of VLANs.
D. Test the solution on the production network in off hours.
Correct Answer: A Section: VLANs, Trunks Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 8
You have just created a new VLAN on your network. What is one step that you should include in your VLAN-based implementation and verification plan?
A. Verify that different native VLANs exist between two switches for security purposes.
B. Verify that the VLAN was added on all switches with the use of the show vlan command.
C. Verify that the switch is configured to allow for trunking on the switch ports.
D. Verify that each switch port has the correct IP address space assigned to it for the new VLAN.
Correct Answer: B Section: VLANs, Trunks Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 9
Which two statements describe a routed switch port on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 switching and Layer 3 routing are mutually supported.
B. The port is not associated with any VLAN.
C. The routed switch port supports VLAN subinterfaces.
D. The routed switch port is used when a switch has only one port per VLAN or subnet.
E. The routed switch port ensures that STP remains in the forwarding state.
Correct Answer: BD Section: MultiLayer Switching Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 10
Which two statements correctly describe VTP? (Choose two.)
A. Transparent mode always has a configuration revision number of 0.
B. Transparent mode cannot modify a VLAN database.
C. Client mode cannot forward received VTP advertisements.
D. Client mode synchronizes its VLAN database from VTP advertisements.
E. Server mode can synchronize across VTP domains.
Correct Answer: AD Section: VTP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 11
Which two DTP modes permit trunking between directly connected switches? (Choose two.)
A. dynamic desirable (VTP domain A) to dynamic desirable (VTP domain A)
B. dynamic desirable (VTP domain A) to dynamic desirable (VTP domain B)
C. dynamic auto (VTP domain A) to dynamic auto (VTP domain A)
D. dynamic auto (VTP domain A) to dynamic auto (VTP domain B)
E. dynamic auto (VTP domain A) to nonegotiate (VTP domain A)
F. nonegotiate (VTP domain A) to nonegotiate (VTP domain B)
Correct Answer: AF Section: VLANs, Trunks Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 12
Which two RSTP port roles include the port as part of the active topology? (Choose two.)
A. root
B. designated
C. alternate
D. backup
E. forwarding
F. learning
Correct Answer: AB Section: RSTP, MST Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 13
Which two statements correctly describe characteristics of the PortFast feature? (Choose two.)
A. STP is disabled on the port.
B. PortFast can also be configured on trunk ports.
C. PortFast is needed to enable port-based BPDU guard.
D. PortFast is used for STP and RSTP host ports.
E. PortFast is used for STP-only host ports.

Correct Answer: BD Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 14
Which statement correctly describes the Cisco implementation of RSTP?
A. PortFast, UplinkFast, and BackboneFast specific configurations are ignored in Rapid PVST mode.
B. RSTP is enabled globally and uses existing STP configuration.
C. Root and alternative ports transition immediately to the forwarding state.
D. Convergence is improved by using subsecond timers for the blocking, listening, learning, and forwarding port states.
Correct Answer: B Section: RSTP, MST Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 15
What is the effect of applying the “switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q” command to a port on a Cisco Catalyst switch?
A. By default, native VLAN packets going out this port are tagged.
B. Without an encapsulation command, 802.1Q is the default encapsulation if DTP fails to negotiate a trunking protocol.
C. The interface supports the reception of tagged and untagged traffic.
D. If the device connected to this port is not 802.1Q-enabled, it is unable to handle 802.1Q packets.
Correct Answer: C Section: VLANs, Trunks Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 16
You are the administrator of a switch and currently all host-connected ports are configured with the portfast command. You have received a new directive from your manager that states that, in the future, any host-connected port that receives a BPDU should automatically disable PortFast and begin transmitting BPDUs. Which command will support this new requirement?
A. Switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default
B. Switch(config-if)#spanning-tree bpduguard enable
C. Switch(config-if)#spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
D. Switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default
Correct Answer: D Section: STP Protection Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 17
A port in a redundant topology is currently in the blocking state and is not receiving BPDUs. To ensure that this port does not erroneously transition to the forwarding state, which command should be configured?
A. Switch(config)#spanning-tree loopguard default
B. Switch(config-if)#spanning-tree bdpufilter
C. Switch(config)#udld aggressive
D. Switch(config-if)#spanning-tree bpduguard
Correct Answer: A Section: STP Protection Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 18
Which command can be issued without interfering with the operation of loop guard?
A. Switch(config-if)#spanning-tree guard root
B. Switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
D. Switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
Correct Answer: C Section: STP Protection Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information provided in the exhibit, which two sets of procedures are best practices for Layer 2 and 3 failover alignment? (Choose two.)

A. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for all VLANs. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the standby HSRP router and backup STP root for all VLANs.
B. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the standby HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 11 and 110. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the standby HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 12 and 120.
C. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 11 and 110. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 12 and 120.
D. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for all VLANs. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the standby HSRP router and backup STP root for all VLANs.
E. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the active HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 11 and
110. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the active HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 12 and 120.
F. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the standby HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 12 and
120. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the standby HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 11 and 110.
Correct Answer: CF Section: HSRP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Basically, each of the routers that provides redundancy for a given gateway address is assigned to a common HSRP group. One router is elected as the primary, or active, HSRP router, another is elected as the standby HSRP router, and all the others remain in the listen HSRP state. The routers exchange HSRP hello messages at regular intervals, so they can remain aware of each other’s existence, as well as that of the active router.
HSRP election is based on a priority value (0 to 255) that is configured on each router in the group. By default, the priority is 100. The router with the highest priority value (255 is highest) becomes the active router for the group. If all router priorities are equal or set to the default value, the router with the highest IP address on the HSRP interface becomes the active router. To set the priority, use the following interface configuration command: Switch(config-if)# standby group priority priority
When HSRP is configured on an interface, the router progresses through a series of states before becoming active. This forces a router to listen for others in a group and see where it fits into the pecking order. The HSRP state sequence is Disabled, Init, Listen, Speak, Standby, and, finally, Active.
You can configure a router to preempt or immediately take over the active role if its priority is the highest at
any time. Use the following interface configuration command to allow preemption:
Switch(config-if)# standby group preempt [delay seconds]

QUESTION 20
Which statement correctly describes enabling BPDU guard on an access port that is also enabled for PortFast?
A. Upon startup, the port transmits 10 BPDUs. If the port receives a BPDU, PortFast and BPDU guard are disabled on that port and it assumes normal STP operation.
B. The access port ignores any received BPDU.
C. If the port receives a BPDU, it is placed into the error-disable state.
D. BPDU guard is configured only globally and the BPDU filter is required for port-level configuration.
Correct Answer: C Section: STP Protection Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Exam C QUESTION 1
Match the Attributes on the left with the types of VLAN designs on right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer: Section: VLANs, Trunks Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Place the local and distributed VLAN functions on the left into the associated boxes on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: VLANs, Trunks Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
You have been tasked with planning a VLAN solution that will connect a server in one buliding to several hosts in another building. The solution should be built using the local vlan model and layer 3 switching at the distribution layer. Identify the questions related to this vlan solution that would ask the network administrator before you start the planning by dragging them into the target zone one the right. Not all questions will be used.

Select and Place: Correct Answer:
Section: VLANs, Trunks Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In local vlan solition common VTP mode is transparent
CREATE A VLAN BASED IMPLEMENTATION PLAN Foundation Learning Guide Chapter 2 pg. 58-59 Subnets and associated VLANs VLAN Number VLAN Name VLAN Purpose VLAN to IP Address Scheme Physical location of VLANs (determine which switch has which VLANs) Assignment method (dot1x etc.) Placement of trunks, native VLAN for trunks, and allowed VLANs on trunks VTP configuration Quick Reference Guide Chapter 2 pg. 14 VLAN numbering, naming, and IP addressing scheme VLAN placement (local or multiple switches) Trunk requirements VTP parameters Test and verification plan From Foundation Learning Guide The following steps outline the considerations you need to make with regards to using an SVI: 1) On your L3 switch identify the VLANs that require a default gateway. 2) For any SVI’s not already present on your L3 switch you will need to create then. As such you will need to decide on suitable numbering for the SVI (should be the VLAN ID number) plus an IP address to associate with it. Don’t forget to No Shutdown the interface. 3) To perform L3 routing functions you need to set the L3 switch to be able to perform the routing. To achieve this use the global command – #ip routing – this will enable to switch to route between your VLANs 4) Define any appropriate dynamic routing protocols. Typically required if you are configuring a larger enterprise network that may be subject to change. You can deploy RIP, EIGRP, OSPF which ever you feel is appropriate. 5) Finally with the information above gathered consider if you require any given SVI to be excluded from contributing to the SVI state Up-Down calculation. Do this using the ‘Autostate’ feature
QUESTION 4
You have a VLAN implementation that requires inter-vlan routing using layer 3 switches. Drag the steps on

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: VLANs, Trunks

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Categorize the high availability network resource or feature with the management level, network level, or

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: Supervisor and Route Processor Redundancy Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Place the DTP mode with its correct description.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: VLANs, Trunks Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
1.
trunk: This setting places the port in permanent trunking mode. The corresponding switch port at the other end of the trunk should be similarly configured because negotiation is not allowed. You should also manually configure the encapsulation mode.

2.
dynamic desirable: The port actively attempts to convert the link into trunking mode. If the far-end switch port is configured to trunk, dynamic desirable, or dynamic auto mode, trunking is successfully negotiated.

3.
dynamic auto: The port converts the link into trunking mode. If the far-end switch port is configured to trunk or dynamic desirable, trunking is negotiated. Because of the passive negotiation behavior, the link never becomes a trunk if both ends of the link are left to the dynamic auto default.

4.
Negotiate: The encapsulation is negotiated to select either ISL or IEEE 802.1Q, whichever is supported by both ends of the trunk. If both ends support both types, ISL is favored.

5.
Access: Puts the interface into access mode that mean interface is in non-trunking mode.

6.
Nonegotiate: Forces the port to permanently trunk but not send DTP frames. For use when the DTP frames confuse the neighboring (non-Cisco) 802.1q switch. You must manually set the neighboring switch to trunking.
QUESTION 7
Drag the port states on the left, to their correct description on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: STP Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
After the bridges have determined which ports are Root Ports, Designated Ports, and non-Designated Ports, STP is ready to create a loop-free topology. To do this, STP configures Root Ports and Designated Ports to forward traffic. STP sets non-Designated Ports to block traffic. Although Forwarding and Blocking are the only two states commonly seen in a stable network, there are actually five STP states. This list can be viewed hierarchically in that bridge ports start at the Blocking state and work their way up to the Forwarding state. The Disabled state is the administratively shutdown STP state. It is not part of the normal STP port processing. After the switch is initialized, ports start in the Blocking state. The Blocking state is the STP state in which a bridge listens for BPDUs.
A port in the Blocking state does the following:
1.
Discards frames received from the attached segment or internally forwarded through switching

2.
Receives BPDUs and directs them to the system module

3.
Has no address database

4.
Does not transmit BPDUs received from the system module

5.
Receives and responds to network management messages but does not transmit them If a bridge thinks it is the Root Bridge immediately after booting or in the absence of BPDUs for a certain period of time, the port transitions into the Listening state. The Listening state is the STP state in which no user data is being passed, but the port is sending and receiving BPDUs in an effort to determine the active topology.
A port in the Listening state does the following:
1.
Discards frames received from the attached segment or frames switched from another port

2.
Has no address database

3.
Receives BPDUs and directs them to the system module

4.
Processes BPDUs received from the system module (Processing BPDUs is a separate action from receiving or transmitting BPDUs)

5.
Receives and responds to network management messages
It is during the Listening state that the three initial convergence steps take place – elect a Root Bridge, elect Root Ports, and elect Designated Ports. Ports that lose the Designated Port election become non-Designated Ports and drop back to the Blocking state. Ports that remain Designated Ports or Root Ports after 15 seconds – the default Forward Delay STP timer value – progress into the Learning state. The lifetime of the Learning state is also governed by the Forward Delay timer of 15 seconds, the default setting. The Learning state is the STP state in which the bridge is not passing user data frames but is building the bridging table and gathering information, such as the source VLANs of data frames. As the bridge receives a frame, it places the source MAC address and port into the bridging table. The Learning state reduces the amount of flooding required when data forwarding begins.
A port in the Learning state does the following:
1.
Discards frames received from the attached segment

2.
Discards frames switched from another port for forwarding

3.
Incorporates station location into its address database

4.
Receives BPDUs and directs them to the system module

5.
Receives, processes, and transmits BPDUs received from the system module

6.
Receives and responds to network management messages
If a port is still a Designated Port or Root Port after the Forward Delay timer expires for the Learning state, the port transitions into the Forwarding state. The Forwarding state is the STP state in which data traffic is both sent and received on a port. It is the “last” STP state. At this stage, it finally starts forwarding user data frames.
A port in the Forwarding state does the following:
1.
Forwards frames received from the attached segment

2.
Forwards frames switched from another port for forwarding

3.
Incorporates station location information into its address database

4.
Receives BPDUs and directs them to the system module

5.
Processes BPDUs received from the system module

6.
Receives and responds to network management messages
QUESTION 8
Specifies the kind of messages, by severity level, to be sent to the syslog server.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: Network Monitoring Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=426638&seqNum=3
QUESTION 9
Drag the choices on the left to the boxes on the right that should be included when creating a VLAN-based
implementation plan.
Not all choices will be used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: VLANs, Trunks Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Drag snmp versions and associated features
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: Network Monitoring Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Drag HSRP states
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: HSRP
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
HSRP defines six states in which an HSRP-enabled router can exist:
1.
Initial – This is the state from which the routers begin the HSRP process. This state indicates that HSRP is not running. It is entered via a configuration change or when an interface first comes up.

2.
Learn – The router has not determined the virtual IP address, and has not yet seen an authenticated hello message from the active router. In this state the router is still waiting to hear from the active router.

3.
Listen – The router knows the virtual IP address, but is neither the active router nor the standby router. It listens for hello messages from those routers. Routers other than the active and standby router remain in the listen state.

4.
Speak – The router sends periodic hello messages and is actively participating in the election of the active or standby router. A router cannot enter Speak state unless it has the virtual IP address.

5.
Standby – The router is a candidate to become the next active router and sends periodic hello messages. Excluding transient conditions, there must be at most one router in the group in Standby state.

6.
Active – The router is currently forwarding packets that are sent to the group virtual MAC address. The router sends periodic hello messages. Excluding transient conditions, there must be at most one router in Active state in the HSRP group.
QUESTION 12
Drag and Drop Local VLAN’s vs End-To-END VLANS
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: VLANs, Trunks Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Drag & Drop

Select and Place: Correct Answer:

Section: IP Telephony Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14

Select and Place: Correct Answer:
Section: VTP Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15

Select and Place: Correct Answer:
Section: VLANs, Trunks Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: WLANs Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Wireless LWAPP Association and Discovery Process Drag & Drop
Note not all options are used

Select and Place: Correct Answer:
Section: WLANs Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This is the correct answer: (1. The IP address is statically configured on the lightweigh AP.)
2.
The lightweight AP requests an IP address via DHCP

3.
The lightweight AP searches for a wireless LAN controller using LWAPP in Layer 2 mode.

4.
The lightweight AP sends a LWAPP Discovery Request to the management IP address of the wireless LAN controller via broadcast

5.
The wireless LAN controller responds with a Discovery Response from the Manager IP address.

6.
The lightweight AP chooses the AP Manager with the least number of associated access points and sends the join request.
==========================================================================
From Cisco:
Register the LAP with the WLC:
This sequence of events must occur in order for an LAP to register to a WLC:
1.The LAPs issue a DHCP discovery request to get an IP address, unless it has previously had a static IP address configured.
2.The LAP sends LWAPP discovery request messages to the WLCs.
3.Any WLC that receives the LWAPP discovery request responds with an LWAPP discovery response message.
4.From the LWAPP discovery responses that the LAP receives, the LAP selects a WLC to join.
5.The LAP then sends an LWAPP join request to the WLC and expects an LWAPP join response.
6.The WLC validates the LAP and then sends an LWAPP join response to the LAP.
7.The LAP validates the WLC, which completes the discovery and join process. The LWAPP join process includes mutual authentication and encryption key derivation, which is used to secure the join process and future LWAPP control messages.
8.The LAP registers with the controller.
The first problem that the LAP faces is how to determine where to send the LWAPP discovery requests (step 2). The LAP uses a hunting procedure and a discovery algorithm in order to determine the list of WLCs to which the LAP can send the discovery request messages.
This procedure describes the hunting process:
1.The LAP issues a DHCP request to a DHCP server in order to get an IP address, unless an assignment was made previously with a static IP address.
2.If Layer 2 LWAPP mode is supported on the LAP, the LAP broadcasts an LWAPP discovery message in a Layer 2 LWAPP frame. Any WLC that is connected to the network and that is configured for Layer 2 LWAPP mode responds with a Layer 2 discovery response. If the LAP does not support Layer 2 mode, or if the WLC or the LAP fails to receive an LWAPP discovery response to the Layer 2 LWAPP discovery message broadcast, the LAP proceeds to step 3.
3.If step 1 fails, or if the LAP or the WLC does not support Layer 2 LWAPP mode, the LAP attempts a Layer 3 LWAPP WLC discovery.
See the Layer 3 LWAPP WLC Discovery Algorithm section of this document.
4.If step 3 fails, the LAP resets and returns to step 1.
Note: If you want to specify an IP address for an access point instead of having one assigned automatically by a DHCP server, you can use the controller GUI or CLI to configure a static IP address for the access point. Refer to the Configuring a Static IP Address on a Lightweight Access Point section of the WLC Configuration guide for more information. If the LAP is assigned a static IP address and can not reach the WLC, it falls back to DHCP.
Source: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk722/tk809/technologies_tech_note09186a00806c9e51.shtml
QUESTION 18
What is the result of entering the command “port-channel load-balance src-dst-ip” on an EtherChannel link?
A. Packets are distributed across the ports in the channel based on the source and destination MAC addresses.
B. Packets are distributed across the ports in the channel based on the source and destination IP addresses.
C. Packets are balanced across the ports in the channel based first on the source MAC address, then on the destination MAC address, then on the IP address.
D. Packets are distributed across the access ports in the channel based first on the source IP address and then on the destination IP addresses.
Correct Answer: B Section: EtherChannels Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 19
Which Cisco IOS command globally enables port-based authentication on a switch?
A. aaa port-auth enable
B. radius port-control enable
C. dot1x system-auth-control
D. switchport aaa-control enable
Correct Answer: C Section: Access Security Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 20
Which two steps are necessary to configure inter-VLAN routing between multilayer switches? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a dynamic routing protocol.
B. Configure SVI interfaces with IP addresses and subnet masks.
C. Configure access ports with network addresses.
D. Configure switch ports with the autostate exclude command.
E. Document the MAC addresses of the switch ports.
Correct Answer: AB Section: MultiLayer Switching Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
The network operations center has received a call stating that Users in VLAN 107 are unable to access resources through R1. From the information contained in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?

A. spanning tree is not enabled on VLAN 107
B. VTP is pruning VLAN 107
C. VLAN 107 does not exist on switch SA
D. VLAN 107 is not configured on the trunk
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
“VLAN allowed on trunk” Each trunk allows all VLANs by default. However, administrator can remove or add to the list by using the “switchport trunk allowed” command.
“VLANs allowed and active in management” To be active, a VLAN must be in this list.
“VLANs in spanning tree forwarding state and not pruned” This list is a subset of the “allowed and active” list but with any VTP-pruned VLANs removed.
All VLANs were configured except VLAN 101 so D is not correct. VLAN 107 exists in the “allowed and active” section so A and C are not correct, too. In the “forwarding state and not pruned” we dont see VLAN 107 so the administrator had wrongly configured this VLAN as pruned.
QUESTION 2
Study the diagram below carefully, which three statements are true? (Choose three)

A. DTP packets are sent from Switch SB.
B. DTP is not running on Switch SA.
C. A trunk link will be formed.
D. The native VLAN for Switch SB is VLAN 1.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) is the Cisco-proprietary that actively attempts to negotiate a trunk link between two switches. If an interface is set to switchport mode dynamic desirable, it will actively attempt to convert the link into trunking mode. If the peer port is configured as switchport mode trunk, dynamic desirable, or dynamic auto mode, trunking is negotiated successfully -> C is correct.
SB is in “dynamic desirable” mode so it will send DTP packets to SA to negotiate a trunk link -> A is correct.
On an 802.1Q trunk, DTP packets are sent on the native VLAN. By default, it is VLAN 1 (notice that SAs native VLAN is 5) -> D is correct.
(Note: an 802.1Q trunks native VLAN is the only VLAN that has untagged frames)
Below is the switchport modes for easy reference:
Mode Function
Dynamic Auto Creates the trunk based on the DTP request from the neighboring switch.
Communicates to the neighboring switch via DTP that the interface would Dynamic like Desirable to become a trunk if the neighboring switch interface is able to become a trunk.
Automatically enables trunking regardless of the state of the neighboring Trunk switch and regardless of any DTP requests sent from the neighboring switch.
Trunking is not allowed on this port regardless of the state of the neighboring switch interface and regardless of any DTP requests sent from the Access neighboring switch.
Prevents the interface from generating DTP frames. This command can be used only when the interface switchport mode is access or trunk. You must Nonegotiate manually configure the neighboring interface as a trunk interface to establish a trunk link.
QUESTION 3
Regarding the exhibit and the partial configuration of switch SA and SB. STP is configured on all switches in the network. SB receives this error message on the console port:
00:06:34:
%CDP-4-DUPLEX_MISMATCH: duplex mismatch discovered on FastEthernet0/5 (not half duplex), with SA FastEthernet0/4 (half duplex), with TBA05071417(Cat6K-B) 0/4 (half duplex).

A.
The root port on switch P4S-SB will fall back to full-duplex mode.

B.
The interfaces between switches P4S-SA and P4S-SB will transition to a blocking state

C.
The root port on switch P4S-SA will automatically transition to full-duplex mode.

D.
Interface Fa0/6 on switch SB will transit to a forwarding state and create a bridging loop.
What would be the possible outcome of the problem?

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
From the output, we learned that the interfaces on two switches are operating in different duplex modes: Fa0/4 of SA in half-duplex mode & Fa0/5 of SB in full-duplex mode. In this case, because SB is operating in full duplex mode, it does not check the carrier sense before sending frames (CSMA/CD is not used in full-duplex mode). Therefore, SB can start to send frames even if SA is using the link and a collision will occur. The result of this is SA will wait a random time before attempting to transmit another frame. If B sends enough frames to A to make every frame sent from A (which includes the BPDUs) get dropped then SB can think it has lost root bridge (B does not receive BPDUs from A anymore). Therefore SB will unblock its Fa0/6 interface for transmitting and cause a bridging loop.
QUESTION 4
What is a characteristic of multi-VLAN access ports?
A. The port has to support STP PortFast.
B. The auxiliary VLAN is for data service and is identified by the PVID.
C. The port hardware is set as an 802.1Q trunk.
D. Both the voice service and data service use the same trust boundary.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
The multi-VLAN port feature on the Catalyst 2900 XL/3500 XL switches allows for configuring a single port
in two or more VLANs. This feature allows users from different VLANs to access a server or router without
implementing InterVLAN routing capability. A multi-VLAN port performs normal switching functions in all its
assigned VLANs. VLAN traffic on the multi- VLAN port is not encapsulated as it is in trunking -> The port is
set as an 802.1Q trunk -> C is correct.

Note: The limitations of implementing multi-VLAN port features are listed below.

1) You cannot configure a multi-VLAN port when a trunk is configured on the switch. You must connect the
multi-VLAN port only to a router or server. The switch automatically transitions to VTP transparent mode
when the multi-VLAN port feature is enabled, making the VTP disabled.

2) The multi-VLAN port feature is supported only on the Catalyst 2900 XL/3500 XL series switches. This
feature is not supported on the Catalyst 4000/5000/6000 series or any other Cisco Catalyst switches.

The following example shows how to configure a port for multi-VLAN mode:
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode multi
The following example shows how to assign a multi-VLAN port already in multi mode to a range of VLANs:
Switch(config-if)# switchport multi vlan 5-10

QUESTION 5
The Company LAN switches are being configured to support the use of Dynamic VLANs. Which of the following are true of dynamic VLAN membership? (Choose two)
A. VLAN membership of a user always remains the same even when he/she is moved to another location.
B. VLAN membership of a user always changes when he/she is moved to another location.
C. Membership can be static or dynamic.
D. Membership can be static only.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
Please read the explanation of
QUESTION 6
Static VLANs are being used on the Company network. What is true about static VLANs?
A. Devices use DHCP to request their VLAN.
B. Attached devices are unaware of any VLANs.
C. Devices are assigned to VLANs based on their MAC addresses,
D. Devices are in the same VLAN regardless of which port they attach to.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
The VLAN tags are only added/removed at the switches. Attached devices are unaware of the existence of VLAN in the network.
QUESTION 7
The Company LAN is becoming saturated with broadcasts and multicast traffic. What could you do to help a network with many multicasts and broadcasts?
A. Creating smaller broadcast domains by implementing VLANs.
B. Separate nodes into different hubs.
C. Creating larger broadcast domains by implementing VLANs.
D. Separate nodes into different switches.
E. All of the above.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
By default, switches flood multicasts out all ports (same as broadcasts). However, many switches and routers can be configured to support multicast traffic, and that support is based on the network addresses uses by multicasts. By implementing VLANs, broadcasts and multicast traffic are only sent to ports in the same VLAN of the sending device.
QUESTION 8
You have configured a Cisco Catalyst switch to perform Layer 3 routing via an SVI and have assigned that interface to VLAN 20. To check the status of the SVI, you issue the show interfaces vlan 20 command at the CLI prompt. You see from the output display that the interface is in an “up/up” state. What must be true in an SVI configuration to bring the VLAN and line protocol up?
A. The port must be physically connected to another Layer 3 device.
B. At least one port in VLAN 20 must be active.
C. The Layer 3 routing protocol must be operational and receiving routing updates from neighboring peer devices.
D. Because this is a virtual interface, the operational status will always be in an “up/up” state.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
To be “up/up,” a router VLAN interface must fulfill the following general conditions:
*
The VLAN exists and is “active” on the VLAN database of the switch.

*
The VLAN interface exists on the router and is not administratively down.

*
At least one Layer 2 (access port or trunk) port exists, has a link “up” on this VLAN and is in spanning-tree forwarding state on the VLAN.
(Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12.2/37sg/configuration/guides/l3_i nt.html)
Lets see an example of configuring Switch Virtual Interface (SVI) to perform interVLAN routing between PC0 & PC1:

Configuration //Create two VLANs L3Switch(config)#vlan 10
L3Switch(config-vlan)#vlan 20
L3Switch(config-vlan)#exit L3Switch(config)#interface fa0/1 L3Switch(config-if)#switchport mode access L3Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 10
L3Switch(config)#interface fa0/2 L3Switch(config-if)#switchport mode access L3Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20 L3Switch(config-if)#exit
//Enable IP routing on this Layer 3 Switch L3Switch(config)#ip routing //Create two SVIs for interVLAN routing: L3Switch(config)#interface vlan 10
L3Switch(config-if)#ip address 10.0.0.1 255.255.255.0
L3Switch(config)#interface vlan 20 L3Switch(config-if)#ip address 20.0.0.1 255.255.255.0 On PC0, assign the IP address 10.0.0.2 255.255.255.0 and the default gateway: 10.0.0.1 On PC1, assign
the IP address 20.0.0.2 255.255.255.0 and the default gateway: 20.0.0.1 Now we can ping from PC0 to PC1: PC0>ping 20.0.0.2 Pinging 20.0.0.2 with 32 bytes of data: Reply from 20.0.0.2: bytes=32 time=40ms TTL=127
Reply from 20.0.0.2: bytes=32 time=40ms TTL=127 Reply from 20.0.0.2: bytes=32 time=40ms TTL=127 Reply from 20.0.0.2: bytes=32 time=40ms TTL=127
QUESTION 9
What two pieces of information will the show vlan id 5 command display? (Choose two)
A. Ports in VLAN 5
B. Utilization
C. VLAN information on port 0/5
D. Filters
E. MTU and type
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
The show vlan id vlan-id command display information about a particular VLAN. But notice that this command will also list trunk ports that allow this VLAN to run on. An example of the “show vlan id” command is shown below:

QUESTION 10
What are some virtues of implementing end-to-end VLANs? (Choose two)
A. End-to-end VLANs are easy to manage.
B. Users are grouped into VLANs independent of a physical location.
C. Each VLAN has a common set of security and resource requirements for all members.
D. Resources are restricted to a single location.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
There are two kinds of VLANs:

*
End-to-end VLANs: also called campuswide VLANs, span the entire switch fabric of a network. They are positioned to support maximum flexibility and mobility of end devices. Users can be assigned to VLANs regardless of their physical location. As a user moves around the campus, that users VLAN membership stays the same. End-to-end VLANs should group users according to common requirements. All users in a VLAN should have roughly the same traffic flow patterns

*
Local VLANs: based on geographic locations by demarcation at a hierarchical boundary (core, distribution, access)
(Reference: CCNP SWITCH 642-813 Official Certification Guide)
QUESTION 11
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is normally created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
E. SVI is another name for a routed port.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
Catalyst L2 fixed configuration switches that run Cisco IOS Software have only one configurable IP management interface, which by default is interface VLAN 1. Pure layer 2 switches can have only one interface VLAN up at the time. This is called the management VLAN (in IOS) or the sc0 interface (in CatOS). The main purpose of this interface is management (telnet, SNMP, etc). If the switch is a Layer 3 switch, you can configure multiple VLANs and route between them. An L3 switch can handle multiple IPs, so there is no specific management VLAN on the switch.
(Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps708/products_tech_note09186a008010e9c a.shtml)
QUESTION 12
Two switches SA and SB are connected as shown below. Given the below partial configuration, which two statements are true about VLAN traffic? (Choose two)

A. VLANs 1-5 will be blocked if fa0/10 goes down.
B. VLANs 6-10 have a port priority of 128 on fa0/10.
C. VLANs 6-10 will use fa0/10 as a backup only.
D. VLANs 1-10 are configured to load share between fa0/10 and fa0/12.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Lets assume that SA is the root bridge for all VLANs, it will make the explanation a bit clearer…
First we should understand what will happen if nothing is configured (use default values). Because we assumed that SA is the root bridge so all of its ports will forward. SB will need to block one of its ports to avoid a bridging loop between the two switches. But how does SB select its blocked port? Well, the answer is based on the BPDUs it receives from SA. A BPDU is superior than another if it has:
1.
A lower Root Bridge ID

2.
A lower path cost to the Root

3.
A lower Sending Bridge ID

4.
A lower Sending Port ID
These four parameters are examined in order. In this specific case, all the BPDUs sent by SA have the same Root Bridge ID, the same path cost to the Root and the same Sending Bridge ID. The only parameter left to select the best one is the Sending Port ID (Port ID = port priority + port index). If using default values, the default port prioritys value is 32 or 128 (128 is much more popular today but 32 is also a default port prioritys value), so SB will compare port index values, which are unique to each port on the switch, and because Fa0/12 is inferior to Fa0/10, SB will select the port connected with Fa0/10 (of SA) as its root port and block the other port.

To change the default decision of selecting root port, we can change the port priority of each interface. The above picture is true for VLAN 1-5 because port Fa0/10 has a lower port-priority so the peer port will be chosen as the root port. For VLAN 6-10, port Fa0/12 has higher priority ID (lower port priority value) so SB will block its upper port.
For answer A “VLANs 1-5 will be blocked if fa0/10 goes down” is not correct because if Fa0/10 goes down, SB will unblock its lower port therefore VLANs 1-5 will still operate.
For answer B “VLANs 6-10 have a port priority of 128 on fa0/10 is not always correct because VLAN 6-10 can have a different port priority (of 32) according to the Ciscos link below.
Answer C is correct because VLAN 6-10 uses Fa0/12 link as it main path. Fa0/10 is the backup path and is only opened when port Fa0/12 fails.
Answer D is correct because this configuration provide load-balance traffic based on VLAN basis. VLANs 1-5 use Fa0/10 and VLANs 6-10 use Fa0/12 as their main paths.
Note: We can not assure the answer B is always correct so we should choose C and D if the question asks us to give only 2 choices).
Reference (and good resource, too):
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a00800ae96a.shtml
QUESTION 13
You have just created a new VLAN on your network. What is one step that you should include in your VLAN based implementation and verification plan?
A. Verify that trunked links are configured to allow the VLAN traffic.
B. Verify that the switch is configured to allow for trunking on the switch ports.
C. Verify that each switch port has the correct IP address space assigned to it for the new VLAN.
D. Verify that different native VLANs exist between two switches for security purposes.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
A VLAN-based implementation and verification plan should include:
*
Verification that trunked links are configured to allow the newly created VLANs.

*
Verification that the SVI has already been created and that it shows up on all required switches using the show vlan command.
QUESTION 14
The network administrator needs to enable VTP pruning within the network. What action should a network administrator take to enable VTP pruning on an entire management domain?
A. enable VTP pruning on every switch in the domain
B. enable VTP pruning on any client switch in the domain
C. Enable VTP pruning on any switch in the management domain
D. enable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
You have just created a new VLAN on your network for inter-VLAN routing. What is one step that you should include in your VLAN-based implementation and verification plan?
A. Verify that different native VLANs exist between two switches for security purposes.
B. Verify that the switch is configured to allow for trunking on the switch ports.
C. Verify that each switch port has the proper IP address space assigned to it for the new VLAN.
D. Verify that the VLAN virtual interface has been correctly created and enabled.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Under what circumstances should an administrator prefer local VLANs over end-to-end VLANs?
A. Eighty percent of traffic on the network is destined for Internet sites.
B. There are common sets of traffic filtering requirements for workgroups located in multiple buildings.
C. Eighty percent of a workgroups traffic is to the workgroups own local server.
D. Users are grouped into VLANs independent of physical location.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation End-to-end VLAN follows the 80/20 rule in which 80 percent of user traffic stays within the local workgroup, whereas 20 percent is destined for a remote resource in the campus network (like Internet…).
In contrast to end-to-end-VLAN, local VLAN follows the 20/80 rule: only 20 percent of traffic is local, whereas 80 percent is destined to a remote re-source across the core layer -> A is correct.
(Reference: CCNP SWITCH 642-813 Official Certification Guide)
QUESTION 17
You are assigning VLANs to the ports of switch R1. What VLAN number value is an assigned to the default VLAN?
A VLAN 1003
A. VLAN 1
B. VLAN ON
C. VLAN A
D. VLAN 0
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
What is a characteristic of a static VLAN membership assignment?
A. VMPS server lookup is required
B. Easy to configure
C. Ease of adds, moves, and changes
D. Based on MAC address of the connected device
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
There are two types of VLAN membership assignment:
*
Static VLAN: switch ports are assigned to specific VLANs manually

*
Dynamic VLAN: switch automatically assigns the port to a VLAN using information from the user device like MAC address, IP address etc. When a device is connected to a switch port, the switch must, in effect, query a database to establish VLAN membership.
Static VLAN assignment provides a simple way to assign VLAN to a port while Dynamic VLANs allow a great deal of flexibility and mobility for end users but require more administrative overhead.
QUESTION 19
Which two statements are true about best practices in VLAN design? (Choose two.)
A. Routing should occur at the access layer if voice VLANs are utilized. Otherwise, routing should occur at the distribution layer.
B. Routing may be performed at all layers but is most commonly done at the core and distribution layers.
C. Routing should not be performed between VLANs located on separate switches.
D. VLANs should be local to a switch.
E. VLANs should be localized to a single switch unless voice VLANs are being utilized.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
First lets review main characteristics of three layers in a campus network:
* Access layer:

+
Low cost per switch port
+
High port density
+
Scalable uplinks to higher layers
+
User access functions such as VLAN membership, traffic and protocol filtering, and quality of service
(QoS)
+
Resiliency through multiple uplinks

* Distribution Layer:

+
Aggregation of multiple access-layer devices
+
High Layer 3 throughput for packet handling
+
Security and policy-based connectivity functions through access lists or packet filters + QoS features
+
Scalable and resilient high-speed links to the core and access layers

* Core layer:

+
Very high throughput at Layer 3
+
No costly or unnecessary packet manipulations (access lists, packet filtering) + Redundancy and
resilience for high availability
+
Advanced QoS functions
We can see at Distribution and Core layers, Layer 3 throughput (routing) is very high -> B is correct.

Nowadays, end-to-end VLANs are not recommended in an enterprise network, unless there is a good reason. In an end-to-end VLAN, broadcast traffic is carried over from one end of the network to the other, creating the possibility for a broadcast storm or Layer 2 bridging loop to spread across the whole extent of a VLAN. This can exhaust the bandwidth of distribution and core-layer links, as well as switch CPU resources. Now the storm or loop has disrupted users on the end-to-end VLAN, in addition to users on other VLANs that might be crossing the core.
When such a problem occurs, troubleshooting becomes more difficult. In other words, the risks of end-to-end VLANs outweigh the convenience and benefits.
From that we can infer VLAN traffic should be local to the switch -> D is correct.
(Reference: CCNP SWITCH 642-813 Official Certification Guide)
QUESTION 20

Refer to the exhibit. The user who is connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1 is on VLAN 10 and cannot access network resources. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which command sequence would correct the problem?
A. SW1(config)# vlan 10 SW1(config-vlan)# no shut
B. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access SW1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 10
C. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access
D. SW1(config)# vlan 10 SW1(config-vlan)# state active
E. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# no shut

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Cisco 642-813 Exam Certification Guide presents you with an organized test preparation routine through the use of proven series elements and techniques.“Do I Know This Already?”quizzes open each chapter and allow you to decide how much time you need to spend on each section.Cisco 642-813 lists and Foundation Summary tables make referencing easy and give you a quick refresher whenever you need it.Challenging Cisco 642-813 review questions help you assess your knowledge and reinforce key concepts.Cisco 642-813 exercises help you think about exam objectives in real-world situations, thus increasing recall during exam time.

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which optional feature of an Ethernet switch disables a port on a point-to-point link if the port does not receive traffic while Layer 1 status is up?
A. BackboneFast
B. UplinkFast
C. Loop Guard
D. UDLD aggressive mode
E. Fast Link Pulse bursts
F. Link Control Word
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 2
Which three statements about routed ports on a multilayer switch are true? (Choose three.)
A. A routed port can support VLAN subinterfaces.
B. A routed port takes an IP address assignment.
C. A routed port can be configured with routing protocols.
D. A routed port is a virtual interface on the multilayer switch.
E. A routed port is associated only with one VLAN.
F. A routed port is a physical interface on the multilayer switch.
Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 3
Which three statements about Dynamic ARP Inspection are true? (Choose three.)
A. It determines the validity of an ARP packet based on the valid MAC address-to-IP address bindings stored in the DHCP snooping database.
B. It forwards all ARP packets received on a trusted interface without any checks.
C. It determines the validity of an ARP packet based on the valid MAC address-to-IP address bindings stored in the CAM table.
D. It forwards all ARP packets received on a trusted interface after verifying and inspecting the packet against the Dynamic ARP Inspection table.
E. It intercepts all ARP packets on untrusted ports.
F. It is used to prevent against a DHCP snooping attack.
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 4
A network administrator wants to configure 802.1x port-based authentication, however, the client workstation is not 802.1x compliant. What is the only supported authentication server that can be used?
A. TACACS with LEAP extensions
B. TACACS+
C. RADIUS with EAP extensions
D. LDAP “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 4 Cisco 642-813 Exam
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Why are users from VLAN 100 unable to ping users on VLAN 200?

A. Encapsulation on the switch is wrong.
B. Trunking needs to be enabled on Fa0/1.
C. The native VLAN is wrong.
D. VLAN 1 needs the no shutdown command.
E. IP routing needs to be enabled on the switch.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 6
The following command was issued on a router that is being configured as the active HSRP router.
standby ip 10.2.1.1
Which statement about this command is true?
A. This command will not work because the HSRP group information is missing.
B. The HSRP MAC address will be 0000.0c07.ac00.
C. The HSRP MAC address will be 0000.0c07.ac01.
D. The HSRP MAC address will be 0000.070c.ac11.
E. This command will not work because the active parameter is missing. “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 5 Cisco 642-813 Exam
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
What does the interface subcommand “switchport voice vlan 222” indicate?
A. The port is configured for data and voice traffic.
B. The port is fully dedicated to forwarding voice traffic.
C. The port operates as an FXS telephony port.
D. Voice traffic is directed to VLAN 222.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 8
Which statement is a characteristic of multi-VLAN access ports?
A. The port has to support STP PortFast.
B. The auxiliary VLAN is for data service and is identified by the PVID.
C. The port hardware is set as an 802.1Q trunk.
D. The voice service and data service use the same trust boundary.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. BPDUGuard is enabled on both ports of SwitchA. Initially, LinkA is connected and forwarding traffic. A new LinkB is then attached between SwitchA and HubA. Which two statements about the possible result of attaching the second link are true? (Choose two.)

A. The switch port attached to LinkB does not transition to up.
B. One or both of the two switch ports attached to the hub goes into the err-disabled state when a BPDU is received.
C. Both switch ports attached to the hub transitions to the blocking state.
D. A heavy traffic load could cause BPDU transmissions to be blocked and leave a switching loop. “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 6 Cisco 642-813 Exam
E. The switch port attached to LinkA immediately transitions to the blocking state.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 10
Which two statements are true about recommended practices that are to be used in a local VLAN solution design where layer 2 traffic is to be kept to a minimum? (Choose two.)
A. Routing should occur at the access layer if voice VLANs are utilized. Otherwise, routing should occur at the distribution layer.
B. Routing may be performed at all layers but is most commonly done at the core and distribution layers.
C. Routing should not be performed between VLANs located on separate switches.
D. VLANs should be local to a switch.
E. VLANs should be localized to a single switch unless voice VLANs are being utilized.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 11
What action should a network administrator take to enable VTP pruning on an entire management domain?
A. Enable VTP pruning on any client switch in the domain.
B. Enable VTP pruning on every switch in the domain.
C. Enable VTP pruning on any switch in the management domain.
D. Enable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 12
How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?
A. by restricting unicast traffic across VTP domains
B. by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs
C. by limiting the spreading of VLAN information
D. by disabling periodic VTP updates
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 13
In the hardware address 0000.0c07.ac0a, what does 07.ac represent?
A. vendor code
B. HSRP group number
C. HSRP router number
D. HSRP well-known physical MAC address
E. HSRP well-known virtual MAC address
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 7 Cisco 642-813 Exam
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. The network operations center has received a call stating that users in VLAN 107 are unable to access resources through router 1. What is the cause of this problem?

The network operations center has received a call stating that users in VLAN 107 are unable to access resources through router 1. What is the cause of this problem?
A. VLAN 107 does not exist on switch A.
B. VTP is pruning VLAN 107.
C. VLAN 107 is not configured on the trunk.
D. Spanning tree is not enabled on VLAN 107.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 15
Which protocol will enable a group of routers to form a single virtual router and will use the real IP address of a router as the gateway address?
A. Proxy ARP “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 8 Cisco 642-813 Exam
B. HSRP
C. IRDP
D. VRRP
E. GLBP
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 16
On a multilayer Cisco Catalyst switch, which interface command is used to convert a Layer 3 interface to a Layer 2 interface?
A. switchport
B. no switchport
C. switchport mode access
D. switchport access vlan vlan-id
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the HSRP relationship from the displayed debug output?

A. The preempt feature is not enabled on the 172.16.11.111 router.
B. The nonpreempt feature is enabled on the 172.16.11.112 router.
C. Router 172.16.11.111 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
172.16.11.112.
D. Router 172.16.11.112 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
172.16.11.111.
E. The IP address 172.16.11.111 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.
F. The IP address 172.16.11.112 is the virtual HSRP router IP address. “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 9 Cisco 642-813 Exam
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit. All network links are FastEthernet. Although there is complete connectivity throughout the network, Front Line users report that they experience slower network performance when accessing the server farm than the Reception office experiences. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Changing the bridge priority of S1 to 4096 would improve network performance.
B. Changing the bridge priority of S1 to 36864 would improve network performance.
C. Changing the bridge priority of S2 to 36864 would improve network performance.
D. Changing the bridge priority of S3 to 4096 would improve network performance.
E. Disabling the Spanning Tree Protocol would improve network performance.
F. Upgrading the link between S2 and S3 to Gigabit Ethernet would improve performance.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 19
What two things occur when an RSTP edge port receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)
A. The port immediately transitions to the forwarding state.
B. The switch generates a Topology Change Notification BPDU.
C. The port immediately transitions to the err-disable state.
D. The port becomes a normal STP switch port. “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 10 Cisco 642-813 Exam

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 20
What is the effect of configuring the following command on a switch?
Switch(config) # spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default
A. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, then PortFast is disabled and the BPDUs are processed normally.
B. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, they are ignored and none are sent.
C. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, the port transitions to the forwarding state.
D. The command enables BPDU filtering on all ports regardless of whether they are configured for BPDU filtering at the interface level.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
For which purpose is the command mpls ldp maxhops used?
A. In large ATM-MPLS networks, the LFIB can become too large and it may be necessary to limit the maximum diameter of the MPLS LSPs.
B. Because downstream-on-demand label allocation uses hop count to control loop detection, it maybe necessary to limit the maximum diameter of the MPLS network.
C. Because end-to-end delay can cause problems with some voice applications, it may be necessary to limit the maximum diameter of the MPLS network.
D. When interconnecting large frame mode MPLS and cell mode networks it may be necessary to limit the maximum network diameter to prevent forwarding loops.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the diagram. What problem can be caused by the second P router summarizing the loopback address of the egress PE router?

A. The first P router will be faced with a VPN label which it does not understand.
B. The second P router will be faced with a VPN label which it does not understand.
C. The egress PE router will not be able to establish a label switch path (LSP) to the ingress PE router.
D. A label switch path (LSP) will be established from the ingress PE router to the egress PE router, an event that is not desirable.
E. The ingress PE router will not be able to receive the VPN label from the egress PE router via MP-IBGP.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 3
In a central services topology, which routes do client VRFs contain?
A. routes from the client site, but not from the server site
B. routes from the server site, but not from the client site
C. routes from both the client site and the server site
D. only EBGP routes from either the client site or the server site
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 4
On a dedicated subinterface implementation, PE-2 must establish an address-family vrf IPv4 BGP neighbor relationship with which router?

A. CE-1
B. CE-2
C. PE-1
D. PE-IG
E. CE-1 and CE-2
F. PE-1 and PE-IG
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 5
What are three drawbacks of a peer-to-peer VPN using a shared provider edge (PE) router? (Choose three.)
A. A full mesh of virtual circuits is required between the customer sites.
B. All the customers have to share a common IP address space.
C. Optimal routing between customer sites cannot be guaranteed.
D. The shared PE router has to know all routes for all customers.
E. Packet filters are required on the PE routers.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 6
Which two of the following statements regarding LDP are true? (Choose two.)
A. LDP can also be used between nonadjacent routers using multicast LDP hello messages.
B. LDP does not require periodic hello messages once the LDP session has been established between the LDP peers.
C. LDP hello messages use TCP packets with a destination port number of 646.
D. Multiple sessions can be established between a pair of LSRs if they use multiple label spaces.
E. Per-platform label space can be identified by a label space ID of 0 in the LDP identifier field.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which two of the following statements about the MPLS configurations are true? (Choose two.)

A. The VPI range being configured is the default VPI range.
B. The router is missing the mpls label protocol ldp configuration command on its ATM 0/0.1 subinterface to make it an LC-ATM enabled subinterface.
C. There is a problem with the configurations because the control VC should be set to 0 32 instead.
D. The ATM switch is using VC merge since VC merge is enabled by default.
E. For MPLS label allocations, both VPI 6 and 7 can be used.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 8
What does the following command accomplish? sanjose#clear ip bgp 10.1.1.1 in prefix-filter
A. The sanjose router will perform an outbound soft reconfig to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor.
B. The sanjose router will send out the ORF prefix-list so that a new route refresh will be received from the
1.1.1 neighbor.
C. The 10.1.1.1 router will perform an inbound soft reconfig on the updates from the sanjose neighbor.
D. The 10.1.1.1 router will send out the ORF prefix-list so that a new route refresh will be received from the sanjose neighbor.
E. The bgp session between the sanjose and the 10.1.1.1 router will be reset so that all the new bgp updates from the 10.1.1.1 router can be processed by the inbound prefix-list at the sanjose router.
F. The bgp session between the sanjose and the 10.1.1.1 router will be reset so that all the new bgp updates from the sanjose router can be processed by the inbound prefix-list at the 10.1.1.1 router.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Based on the topology diagram shown in the exhibit, when should BGP be used as the routing protocol between the customer and the ISP?

A. If physical link failures can not be detected by the link-level procedures.
B. If the customer wants to affect how the ISP will route the customer’s traffic out to the rest of the Internet.
C. If the ISP does not support static routing with the customer.
D. If the customer is using provider-assigned (PA) addresses inside the customer’s network.
E. If the customer is using private addresses inside the customer’s network.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 10
Based on the network diagram shown in the exhibit, what is the correct configuration on the customer edge router used to conditionally announce the customer networks to the ISP?

A. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown network 192.168.8.0 mask 255.255.252.0 ! ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 192.168.8.33
B. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown aggregate-address 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only ! ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 192.168.8.33
C. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown network 192.168.8.0 network 192.168.9.0 network 192.168.10.0 network 192.168.11.0 ! ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.255.0 null0 ip route 192.168.9.0 255.255.255.0 null0 ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 null0 ip route 192.168.11.0 255.255.255.0 null0
D. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown aggregate-address 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only ! router ospf 1 network 192.168.8.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
E. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown aggregate-address 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 ! ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 null0
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which two statements about a transit AS are correct? (Choose two.)
A. A transit AS has eBGP connection(s) to only one external AS.
B. Routes between ASs are always exchanged via eBGP.
C. A transit AS uses an IGP like OSPF or ISIS to propagate the external networks within the transit AS.
D. Core routers within a transit AS normally use default routing to reach the external networks.
E. iBGP sessions can be established between non directly connected routers.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 12
Based on the network diagram shown in the exhibit, both R5 and R6 are clients of the R2 RR. When the 0.0.0/8 iBGP update from R3 is received by the R2 RR, which router(s) will R2 reflect the update to?

A. R1 only
B. R5 and R6
C. R5, R6 and R1
D. R4, R5 and R6
E. R4, R5, R6 and R1
F. to no other router
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which show command can be used to display the originator ID and cluster-list?
A. show ip bgp
B. show ip bgp sum
C. show ip route bgp
D. show ip route {prefix}
E. show ip bgp {prefix}
F. show ip bgp neighbors {ip address}
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which command is used to configure the external, confederation-wide AS number?
A. router(config)#router bgp {as-number}
B. router(config-router)#bgp confederation peers {as-number}
C. router(config-router)#bgp confederation identifier {as-number}
D. router(config-router)#bgp cluster-id {as-number}
E. router(config-router)#neighbor {ip address} remote-as {as-number}
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 15
As the penalty for a flapping route decreases and falls below a certain limit, the route is unsuppressed. What is the name of that limit?
A. half-life limit
B. suppress limit
C. max-suppress-time limit
D. reuse limit
E. unsuppress limit
F. penalty limit
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 16
What is the difference in implementation between a managed CE services MPLS VPN and a central services MPLS VPN?
A. RD assignment
B. selective routes export
C. selective routes import
D. MP-BGP route redistribution filtering
E. CE-PE routing process
F. none
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
In a Transit AS, how do the internal routers within the Transit AS forward packets destined for the external networks using a scalable solution?
A. using the default route
B. using the IGP routes where the external networks are redistributed into the IGP by the edge routers
C. using the EBGP routes where the external networks are redistributed into the IBGP by the edge routers
D. using the IBGP routes, then using recursive lookup based on IGP information to resolve the BGP next-hop
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Given the following configurations, R2 and R3 are not able to successfully establish the IBGP session using the loopback 0 interfaces. What could be the cause of this problem?

! output omitted
!
hostname R2 ! interface loopback 0 ip address 2.2.2.2 ! interface e0 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 no shut ! interface e1 ip address 10.2.2.1 255.255.255.0 no shut ! router bgp 65101 neighbor 172.16.1.1 remote-as 65100 neighbor 3.3.3.3 remote-as 65101 ! router eigrp 101 network 10.0.0.0 network 2.0.0.0 ! !
! output omitted !
hostname R3 ! interface loopback 0 ip address 3.3.3.3 ! interface e0 ip address 10.1.1.2 255.255.255.0 no shut ! interface e1 ip address 10.2.2.2 255.255.255.0 no shut ! router bgp 65101 neighbor 192.168.1.1 remote-as 65102 neighbor 2.2.2.2 remote-as 65101 ! router eigrp 101 network 10.0.0.0 network 3.0.0.0 !
A. The “No Sync” BGP configuration command is missing.
B. R2 and R3 are not using the loopback0 IP address as the source address for the BGP messages to each other.
C. The “network 2.0.0.0” BGP configuration command is missing on R2 and the “network 3.0.0.0” BGP configuration command is missing on R3.
D. The “neighbor 2.2.2.2 ibgp-multihop 2” BGP configuration command is missing on R3 and the “neighbor 3.3.3.3 ibgp-multihop 2” BGP configuration command is missing on R2.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
AS-Path prepending is used in AS1 in order to influence the return traffic path from AS 5 to AS 1 through the higher speed path via AS 2. _____ needs to be configured for AS-Path prepending and a minimum of _____ of the AS number should be prepended.

A. R1; one copy
B. R2; one copy
C. R1; two copies
D. R2; two copies
E. R2; three copies
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
In a multihomed environment with two ISP connections, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The customer should not be configured to act as a transit AS between the two ISPs.
B. It is recommended that the multi-homed customer use a registered (public) AS number.
C. AS-Path prepending can be configured on the customer’s edge router to influence the BGP path selection process for the outbound traffic (traffic from the customer to the ISPs).
D. The customer can use Local Preference on the customer’s edge routers to influence the BGP path selection process for the inbound traffic (traffic from the ISPs to the customer).
E. The advertisement of the customer’s IP address space can be conditioned by the customer’s edge routers by using a static route to the null0 interface and by using the proper network statement under router bgp.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Based on the network diagram shown in the exhibit, both R5 and R6 are clients of the R2 RR. When the 10.0.0.0/8 iBGP update from R3 is received by the R2 RR, which router(s) will R2 reflect the update to?

A. R1 only
B. R5 and R6
C. R5, R6 and R1
D. R4, R5 and R6
E. R4, R5, R6 and R1
F. to no other router

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Based on this configuration, which two peering router neighbor statements are correct? (Choose two.) router bgp 50001 neighbor 192.168.1.1 remote-as 50001 neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 50002 neighbor
10.1.1.1 local-as 50003 ! output omitted
A. EBGP – neighbor 10.1.1.2 remote-as 50003
B. EBGP – neighbor 10.1.1.2 remote-as 50001
C. EBGP – neighbor 10.1.1.2 remote-as 50001 and neighbor 10.1.1.2 local-as 50003
D. IBGP – neighbor 192.168.1.2 remote-as 50001
E. IBGP – neighbor 192.168.1.2 remote-as 50003
F. IBGP – neighbor 192.168.1.2 remote-as 50003 and neighbor 192.168.1.2 local-as 50001
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none)

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
LAB

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center

QUESTION 4
Which two statements about a transit AS are correct? (Choose two.)
A. A transit AS has eBGP connection(s) to only one external AS.
B. Routes between ASs are always exchanged via eBGP.
C. A transit AS uses an IGP like OSPF or ISIS to propagate the external networks within the transit AS.
D. Core routers within a transit AS normally use default routing to reach the external networks.
E. iBGP sessions can be established between non directly connected routers.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit and the following connectivity requirements. How many different VRFs are required? Sites CE1A, CE1B, CE1C, and CE1D require connectivity among them. Sites CE2A and CE2B require connectivity between them. Site CE12A requires connectivity to sites CE1A, CE1B, CE1C, CE1D, and CE12B. Site CE12B requires connectivity to sites CE2A, CE2B, and CE12A.

A. 2 VRFs
B. 3 VRFs
C. 4 VRFs
D. 6 VRFs
E. 8 VRFs
F. 10 VRFs

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. A diagram of a router connected to an MPLS-enabled ATM switch via an LC-ATM MPLS interface, and a partial configuration for the MPLS-enabled ATM switch and router are shown. Which statement describes what is incorrect about the configuration shown?

A. CEF has not been enabled on the router.
B. The VPI range of 2-3 is invalid.
C. The control VPI/VCI has not been set to 0/32 on the router.
D. VC-merge has not been enabled on the ATM switch interface.
E. The router has not been configured to specifically use LDP.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
When using MPLS unicast IP forwarding, what will happen if an LSR receives an incoming labeled packet but the LSR can’t find that incoming label in its LFIB?
A. The packet will be forwarded using the FIB.
B. The packet will be forwarded using the LIB.
C. The packet will be process switched by performing a route lookup in the routing table.
D. The packet will be forwarded using the LFIB with an imp-null outgoing label.
E. The packet will be dropped even if the IP destination exists in the FIB.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the show outputs, which condition could be preventing the P1 router from establishing TDP adjacency with its neighbor over the s0/0.211 and s0/0.212 subinterfaces?

A. The s0/0.211 and s0/0.212 subinterfaces line protocol are in the down state.
B. The P1 router cannot establish a TCP session with its neighbors.
C. The P1 router is missing the mpls label protocol LDP command.
D. The show mpls tdp neighbor command needs to be used to view the TDP neighbor status.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
LAB A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 10
What is the correct command to set the BGP scanner interval to two minutes?
A. bgp scan-time 2
B. bgp scan-time 120
C. bgp scan-time 2 60
D. The maximum scanning interval cannot exceed one minute.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Given the AS-path of (51002 51003) 51001 i from the show ip bgp output, what is the origin?
A. AS 51001
B. AS 51002
C. AS 51003
D. (51002 51003)
E. IGP
F. IBGP

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
What best describes the following configuration example of allowas-in? router bgp 100 address-family ipv4 vrf CustomerAneighbor 195.12.4.5 remote-as 123 neighbor 195.12.4.5 activateneighbor 195.12.4.5 allowas-in 2
A. permits incoming BGP updates defined by access-list 2
B. permits incoming BGP updates defined by class-map 2
C. permit incoming BGP updates defined by route-map 2
D. permits incoming BGP updates with no more than two occurrences of AS 100 in the AS path
E. permits incoming BGP updates with no more than two occurrences of AS 123 in the AS path

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
In the diagram, the customer is using static routing to connect to the ISP. Which configuration on the ISP edge routers will enable load balancing and backup of the traffic to the customer?

A. ! R1 ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.128 serial 0 ! R2 ip route 10.1.1.128 255.255.255.128 serial 0
B. ! R1 ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0 ! R2 ip route 10.1.1.128 255.255.255.0 serial 0
C. ! R1 ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.128 serial 0 ip route 10.1.1.128 255.255.255.128 serial 0 ! R2 ip route 10.1.1.128 255.255.255.128 serial 0 ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.128 serial 0
D. ! R1 ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.128 serial 0 ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0 ! R2 ip route
10.1.1.128 255.255.255.128 serial 0 ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
When using the redistribute ospf {process-id} command, which types of OSPF routes will be redistributed into BGP?
A. all internal (interarea and intra-area) OSPF routes
B. all external OSPF routes
C. all external OSPF routes except type 7 LSAs
D. both internal and external OSPF routes
E. only classful OSPF routes without the subnet option
F. only external OSPF routes without the match option

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Based on the network diagram shown in the exhibit, what is the correct configuration on the customer edge router used to conditionally announce the customer networks to the ISP?

A. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown network 192.168.8.0 mask 255.255.252.0 ! ip route
192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 192.168.8.33
B. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown aggregate-address 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only ! ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 192.168.8.33
C. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown network 192.168.8.0 network 192.168.9.0 network
192.168.10.0 network 192.168.11.0 ! ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.255.0 null0 ip route 192.168.9.0
255.255.255.0 null0 ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 null0 ip route 192.168.11.0 255.255.255.0 null0
D. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown aggregate-address 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only ! router ospf 1 network 192.168.8.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
E. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown aggregate-address 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 ! ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 null0

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
When configuring Internet access using a separate MPLS VPN, which three statements are correct? (Choose three.)
A. The Internet backbone is separate from the MPLS VPN backbone.
B. Two dedicated physical or logical links between the PE and the CE routers are required.
C. An Internet gateway is connected as a CE router to the MPLS VPN backbone.
D. An Internet gateway shall insert full Internet routing into the Internet VPN to achieve optimal routing.
E. The customer’s Internet access is enabled by combining the Internet VPN with the Customer VPN using overlapping VPN topology.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
What is the difference in implementation between a managed CE services MPLS VPN and a central services MPLS VPN?
A. RD assignment
B. selective routes export
C. selective routes import
D. MP-BGP route redistribution filtering
E. CE-PE routing process
F. none

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which four attributes are used by BGP to detect routing loops? (Choose four.)
A. AS-Path
B. Cluster ID
C. Cluster List
D. Originator ID
E. Community ID

Correct Answer: ABCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which configuration task requires configuring the bgp cluster-id {cluster-id} command?
A. configuring the member ASs within a BGP confederation
B. configuring the BGP confederation ID
C. configuring hierarchical BGP confederations
D. configuring redundant BGP confederations
E. configuring hierarchical route reflectors
F. configuring redundant route reflectors

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
During the autonomous system number migration process, which BGP feature allows a BGP router to act as a router within one autonomous system to some BGP neighbors but also appear to be in another autonomous system to other neighbors?
A. remove-private-as
B. local-as
C. as-path prepending
D. AS override
E. Site-of-Origin (S00)

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
For which purpose is the command mpls ldp maxhops used?
A. In large ATM-MPLS networks, the LFIB can become too large and it may be necessary to limit the maximum diameter of the MPLS LSPs.
B. Because downstream-on-demand label allocation uses hop count to control loop detection, it maybe necessary to limit the maximum diameter of the MPLS network.
C. Because end-to-end delay can cause problems with some voice applications, it may be necessary to limit the maximum diameter of the MPLS network.
D. When interconnecting large frame mode MPLS and cell mode networks it may be necessary to limit the maximum network diameter to prevent forwarding loops.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the diagram. What problem can be caused by the second P router summarizing the loopback address of the egress PE router?

A. The first P router will be faced with a VPN label which it does not understand.
B. The second P router will be faced with a VPN label which it does not understand.
C. The egress PE router will not be able to establish a label switch path (LSP) to the ingress PE router.
D. A label switch path (LSP) will be established from the ingress PE router to the egress PE router, an event that is not desirable.
E. The ingress PE router will not be able to receive the VPN label from the egress PE router via MP-IBGP.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 3
In a central services topology, which routes do client VRFs contain?
A. routes from the client site, but not from the server site
B. routes from the server site, but not from the client site
C. routes from both the client site and the server site
D. only EBGP routes from either the client site or the server site
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 4
On a dedicated subinterface implementation, PE-2 must establish an address-family vrf IPv4 BGP neighbor relationship with which router?

A. CE-1
B. CE-2
C. PE-1
D. PE-IG
E. CE-1 and CE-2
F. PE-1 and PE-IG
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 5
What are three drawbacks of a peer-to-peer VPN using a shared provider edge (PE) router? (Choose three.)
A. A full mesh of virtual circuits is required between the customer sites.
B. All the customers have to share a common IP address space.
C. Optimal routing between customer sites cannot be guaranteed.
D. The shared PE router has to know all routes for all customers.
E. Packet filters are required on the PE routers.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 6
Which two of the following statements regarding LDP are true? (Choose two.)
A. LDP can also be used between nonadjacent routers using multicast LDP hello messages.
B. LDP does not require periodic hello messages once the LDP session has been established between the LDP peers.
C. LDP hello messages use TCP packets with a destination port number of 646.
D. Multiple sessions can be established between a pair of LSRs if they use multiple label spaces.
E. Per-platform label space can be identified by a label space ID of 0 in the LDP identifier field.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which two of the following statements about the MPLS configurations are true? (Choose two.)

A. The VPI range being configured is the default VPI range.
B. The router is missing the mpls label protocol ldp configuration command on its ATM 0/0.1 subinterface to make it an LC-ATM enabled subinterface.
C. There is a problem with the configurations because the control VC should be set to 0 32 instead.
D. The ATM switch is using VC merge since VC merge is enabled by default.
E. For MPLS label allocations, both VPI 6 and 7 can be used.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 8
What does the following command accomplish? sanjose#clear ip bgp 10.1.1.1 in prefix-filter
A. The sanjose router will perform an outbound soft reconfig to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor.
B. The sanjose router will send out the ORF prefix-list so that a new route refresh will be received from the
1.1.1 neighbor.
C. The 10.1.1.1 router will perform an inbound soft reconfig on the updates from the sanjose neighbor.
D. The 10.1.1.1 router will send out the ORF prefix-list so that a new route refresh will be received from the sanjose neighbor.
E. The bgp session between the sanjose and the 10.1.1.1 router will be reset so that all the new bgp updates from the 10.1.1.1 router can be processed by the inbound prefix-list at the sanjose router.
F. The bgp session between the sanjose and the 10.1.1.1 router will be reset so that all the new bgp updates from the sanjose router can be processed by the inbound prefix-list at the 10.1.1.1 router.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Based on the topology diagram shown in the exhibit, when should BGP be used as the routing protocol between the customer and the ISP?

A. If physical link failures can not be detected by the link-level procedures.
B. If the customer wants to affect how the ISP will route the customer’s traffic out to the rest of the Internet.
C. If the ISP does not support static routing with the customer.
D. If the customer is using provider-assigned (PA) addresses inside the customer’s network.
E. If the customer is using private addresses inside the customer’s network.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 10
Based on the network diagram shown in the exhibit, what is the correct configuration on the customer edge router used to conditionally announce the customer networks to the ISP?

A. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown network 192.168.8.0 mask 255.255.252.0 ! ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 192.168.8.33
B. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown aggregate-address 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only ! ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 192.168.8.33
C. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown network 192.168.8.0 network 192.168.9.0 network 192.168.10.0 network 192.168.11.0 ! ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.255.0 null0 ip route 192.168.9.0 255.255.255.0 null0 ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 null0 ip route 192.168.11.0 255.255.255.0 null0
D. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown aggregate-address 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only ! router ospf 1 network 192.168.8.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
E. router bgp 65001 ! neighbor commands not shown aggregate-address 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 ! ip route 192.168.8.0 255.255.252.0 null0
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which two statements about a transit AS are correct? (Choose two.)
A. A transit AS has eBGP connection(s) to only one external AS.
B. Routes between ASs are always exchanged via eBGP.
C. A transit AS uses an IGP like OSPF or ISIS to propagate the external networks within the transit AS.
D. Core routers within a transit AS normally use default routing to reach the external networks.
E. iBGP sessions can be established between non directly connected routers.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 12
Based on the network diagram shown in the exhibit, both R5 and R6 are clients of the R2 RR. When the 0.0.0/8 iBGP update from R3 is received by the R2 RR, which router(s) will R2 reflect the update to?

A. R1 only
B. R5 and R6
C. R5, R6 and R1
D. R4, R5 and R6
E. R4, R5, R6 and R1
F. to no other router
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which show command can be used to display the originator ID and cluster-list?
A. show ip bgp
B. show ip bgp sum
C. show ip route bgp
D. show ip route {prefix}
E. show ip bgp {prefix}
F. show ip bgp neighbors {ip address}
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which command is used to configure the external, confederation-wide AS number?
A. router(config)#router bgp {as-number}
B. router(config-router)#bgp confederation peers {as-number}
C. router(config-router)#bgp confederation identifier {as-number}
D. router(config-router)#bgp cluster-id {as-number}
E. router(config-router)#neighbor {ip address} remote-as {as-number}
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 15
As the penalty for a flapping route decreases and falls below a certain limit, the route is unsuppressed. What is the name of that limit?
A. half-life limit
B. suppress limit
C. max-suppress-time limit
D. reuse limit
E. unsuppress limit
F. penalty limit
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 16
What is the difference in implementation between a managed CE services MPLS VPN and a central services MPLS VPN?
A. RD assignment
B. selective routes export
C. selective routes import
D. MP-BGP route redistribution filtering
E. CE-PE routing process
F. none
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
In a Transit AS, how do the internal routers within the Transit AS forward packets destined for the external networks using a scalable solution?
A. using the default route
B. using the IGP routes where the external networks are redistributed into the IGP by the edge routers
C. using the EBGP routes where the external networks are redistributed into the IBGP by the edge routers
D. using the IBGP routes, then using recursive lookup based on IGP information to resolve the BGP next-hop
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Given the following configurations, R2 and R3 are not able to successfully establish the IBGP session using the loopback 0 interfaces. What could be the cause of this problem?

! output omitted
!
hostname R2 ! interface loopback 0 ip address 2.2.2.2 ! interface e0 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 no shut ! interface e1 ip address 10.2.2.1 255.255.255.0 no shut ! router bgp 65101 neighbor 172.16.1.1 remote-as 65100 neighbor 3.3.3.3 remote-as 65101 ! router eigrp 101 network 10.0.0.0 network 2.0.0.0 ! !
! output omitted !
hostname R3 ! interface loopback 0 ip address 3.3.3.3 ! interface e0 ip address 10.1.1.2 255.255.255.0 no shut ! interface e1 ip address 10.2.2.2 255.255.255.0 no shut ! router bgp 65101 neighbor 192.168.1.1 remote-as 65102 neighbor 2.2.2.2 remote-as 65101 ! router eigrp 101 network 10.0.0.0 network 3.0.0.0 !
A. The “No Sync” BGP configuration command is missing.
B. R2 and R3 are not using the loopback0 IP address as the source address for the BGP messages to each other.
C. The “network 2.0.0.0” BGP configuration command is missing on R2 and the “network 3.0.0.0” BGP configuration command is missing on R3.
D. The “neighbor 2.2.2.2 ibgp-multihop 2” BGP configuration command is missing on R3 and the “neighbor 3.3.3.3 ibgp-multihop 2” BGP configuration command is missing on R2.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
AS-Path prepending is used in AS1 in order to influence the return traffic path from AS 5 to AS 1 through the higher speed path via AS 2. _____ needs to be configured for AS-Path prepending and a minimum of _____ of the AS number should be prepended.

A. R1; one copy
B. R2; one copy
C. R1; two copies
D. R2; two copies
E. R2; three copies
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
In a multihomed environment with two ISP connections, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The customer should not be configured to act as a transit AS between the two ISPs.
B. It is recommended that the multi-homed customer use a registered (public) AS number.
C. AS-Path prepending can be configured on the customer’s edge router to influence the BGP path selection process for the outbound traffic (traffic from the customer to the ISPs).
D. The customer can use Local Preference on the customer’s edge routers to influence the BGP path selection process for the inbound traffic (traffic from the ISPs to the customer).
E. The advertisement of the customer’s IP address space can be conditioned by the customer’s edge routers by using a static route to the null0 interface and by using the proper network statement under router bgp.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
By default, which traffic can pass through a Cisco ASA that is operating in transparent mode without explicitly allowing it using an ACL?
A. ARP
B. BPDU
C. CDP
D. OSPF multicasts
E. DHCP

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 2
Which three Cisco ASA configuration commands are used to enable the Cisco ASA to log only the debug output to syslog? (Choose three.)
A. logging list test message 711001
B. logging debug-trace
C. logging trap debugging
D. logging message 711001 level 7
E. logging trap test

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 3
By default, how does the Cisco ASA authenticate itself to the Cisco ASDM users?
A. The administrator validates the Cisco ASA by examining the factory built-in identity certificate thumbprint of the Cisco ASA.
B. The Cisco ASA automatically creates and uses a persistent self-signed X.509 certificate to authenticate itself to the administrator.
C. The Cisco ASA automatically creates a self-signed X.509 certificate on each reboot to authenticate itself to the administrator.
D. The Cisco ASA and the administrator use a mutual password to authenticate each other.
E. The Cisco ASA authenticates itself to the administrator using a one-time password.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 4
When will a Cisco ASA that is operating in transparent firewall mode perform a routing table lookup instead of a MAC address table lookup to determine the outgoing interface of a packet?
A. if multiple context mode is configured
B. if the destination MAC address is unknown
C. if the destination is more than a hop away from the Cisco ASA
D. if NAT is configured
E. if dynamic ARP inspection is configured

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco ASA feature is implemented by the ip verify reverse-path interface interface_name command?
A. uRPF
B. TCP intercept
C. botnet traffic filter
D. scanning threat detection
E. IPS (IP audit)

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 6
In one custom dynamic application, the inside client connects to an outside server using TCP port 4444 and negotiates return client traffic in the port range of 5000 to 5500. The server then starts streaming UDP data to the client on the negotiated port in the specified range. Which Cisco ASA feature or command supports this custom dynamic application?
A. TCP normalizer
B. TCP intercept
C. ip verify command
D. established command
E. tcp-map and tcp-options commands
F. set connection advanced-options command

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the Telnet session from 10.0.0.1 to 172.26.1.200 is true?
A. The Telnet session should be successful.
B. The Telnet session should fail because the route lookup to the destination fails.
C. The Telnet session should fail because the inside interface inbound access list will block it.
D. The Telnet session should fail because no matching flow was found.
E. The Telnet session should fail because inside NAT has not been configured.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

On Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3 and later, which two sets of CLI configuration commands result from this Cisco ASDM configuration? (Choose two.)
A. nat (inside) 1 10.1.1.10 global (outside) 1 192.168.1.1
B. nat (outside) 1 192.168.1.1 global (inside 1 10.1.1.10
C. static(inside,outside) 192.168.1.1 10.1.1.10 netmask 255.255.255.255 tcp 0 0 udp 0
D. static(inside,outside) tcp 192.168.1.1 80 10.1.1.10 80
E. object network 192.168.1.1 nat (inside,outside) static 10.1.1.10
F. object network 10.1.1.10 nat (inside,outside) static 192.168.1.1
G. access-list outside_access_in line 1 extended permit tcp any object 10.1.1.10 eq http access-group outside_access_in in interface outside
H. access-list outside_access_in line 1 extended permit tcp any object 192.168.1.1 eq http access-group outside_access_in in interface outside

Correct Answer: FG Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

Which corresponding Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3 command accomplishes the same Cisco ASA Software Version 8.2 NAT configuration?
A. nat (any,any) dynamic interface
B. nat (any,any) static interface
C. nat (inside,outside) dynamic interface
D. nat (inside,outside) static interface
E. nat (outside,inside) dynamic interface
F. nat (outside,inside) static interface

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

Which traffic is permitted on the inside interface without any interface ACLs configured?
A. any IP traffic input to the inside interface
B. any IP traffic input to the inside interface destined to any lower security level interfaces
C. only HTTP traffic input to the inside interface
D. only HTTP traffic output from the inside interface E. No input traffic is permitted on the inside interface. F. No output traffic is permitted on the inside interface.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 11
On Cisco ASA Software Version 8.4.1 and later, when you configure the Cisco ASA appliance in transparent firewall mode, how is the Cisco ASA management IP address configured?
A. using the IP address global configuration command
B. using the IP address GigabitEthernet 0/x interface configuration command
C. using the IP address BVI x interface configuration command
D. using the bridge-group global configuration command
E. using the bridge-group GigabitEthernet 0/x interface configuration command
F. using the bridge-group BVI x interface configuration command

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

Which Cisco ASA CLI nat command is generated based on this Cisco ASDM NAT configuration?
A. nat (dmz, outside) 1 source static any any
B. nat (dmz, outside) 1 source static any outside
C. nat (dmz,outside) 1 source dynamic any interface
D. nat (dmz, outside) 1 source static any interface destination static any any
E. nat (dmz, outside) 1 source dynamic any outside destination static any any

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

Which additional Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3 NAT configuration is needed to meet the following requirements?
When any host in the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet behind the inside interface accesses any destinations in the 10.10.1.0/24 subnet behind the outside interface, PAT them to the outside interface. Do not change the destination IP in the packet.
A. nat (inside,outside) source static inside-net interface destination static outhosts outhosts
B. nat (inside,outside) source dynamic inside-net interface destination static outhosts outhosts
C. nat (outside,inside) source dynamic inside-net interface destination static outhosts outhosts
D. nat (outside,inside) source static inside-net interface destination static outhosts outhosts
E. nat (any, any) source dynamic inside-net interface destination static outhosts outhosts
F. nat (any, any) source static inside-net interface destination static outhosts outhosts

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 14
On Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3 and later, which two statements correctly describe the NAT table or NAT operations? (Choose two.)
A. The NAT table has four sections.
B. Manual NAT configurations are found in the first (top) and/or the last (bottom) section(s) of the NAT table.
C. Auto NAT also is referred to as Object NAT.
D. Auto NAT configurations are found only in the first (top) section of the NAT table.
E. The order of the NAT entries in the NAT table is not relevant to how the packets are matched against the NAT table.
F. Twice NAT is required for hosts on the inside to be accessible from the outside.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 15
The Cisco ASA software image has been erased from flash memory. Which two statements about the process to recover the Cisco ASA software image are true? (Choose two.)
A. Access to the ROM monitor mode is required.
B. The Cisco ASA appliance must have connectivity to the TFTP server where the Cisco ASA image is stored through the Management 0/0 interface.
C. The copy tftp flash command is necessary to start the TFTP file transfer.
D. The server command is necessary to set the TFTP server IP address.
E. Cisco ASA password recovery must be enabled.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 16
Which two Cisco ASA licensing features are correct with Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3 and later? (Choose two.)
A. Identical licenses are not required on the primary and secondary Cisco ASA appliance.
B. Cisco ASA appliances configured as failover pairs disregard the time-based activation keys.
C. Time-based licenses are stackable in duration but not in capacity.
D. A time-based license completely overrides the permanent license, ignoring all permanently licensed features until the time-based license is uninstalled.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 17
For which purpose is the Cisco ASA CLI command aaa authentication match used?
A. Enable authentication for SSH and Telnet connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
B. Enable authentication for console connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
C. Enable authentication for connections through the Cisco ASA appliance.
D. Enable authentication for IPsec VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
E. Enable authentication for SSL VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
F. Enable authentication for Cisco ASDM connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 18
Which option is one requirement before a Cisco ASA appliance can be upgraded from Cisco ASA Software Version 8.2 to 8.3?
A. Remove all the pre 8.3 NAT configurations in the startup configuration.
B. Upgrade the memory on the Cisco ASA appliance to meet the memory requirement of Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3.
C. Request new Cisco ASA licenses to meet the 8.3 licensing requirement.
D. Upgrade Cisco ASDM to version 6.2.
E. Migrate interface ACL configurations to include interface and global ACLs.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 19
Refer to the partial Cisco ASA configuration and the network topology shown in the exhibit.

Which two Cisco ASA configuration commands are required so that any hosts on the Internet can HTTP to the WEBSERVER using the 192.168.1.100 IP address? (Choose two.)
A. nat (inside,outside) static 192.168.1.100
B. nat (inside,outside) static 172.31.0.100
C. nat (inside,outside) static interface
D. access-list outside_access_in extended permit tcp any object 172.31.0.100 eq http
E. access-list outside_access_in extended permit tcp any object 192.168.1.100 eq http
F. access-list outside_access_in extended permit tcp any object 192.168.1.1 eq http

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 20
Which two statements about Cisco ASA 8.2 NAT configurations are true? (Choose two.)
A. NAT operations can be implemented using the NAT, global, and static commands.
B. If nat-control is enabled and a connection does not need a translation, then an identity NAT configuration is required.
C. NAT configurations can use the any keyword as the input or output interface definition.
D. The NAT table is read and processed from the top down until a translation rule is matched.
E. Auto NAT links the translation to a network object.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
On the Cisco ASA, tcp-map can be applied to a traffic class using which MPF CLI configuration command?
A. nspect
B. sysopt connection
C. tcp-options
D. parameters
E. set connection advanced-options

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
By default, which traffic can pass through a Cisco ASA that is operating in transparent mode without explicitly allowing it using an ACL?
A. ARP
B. BPDU
C. CDP
D. OSPF multicasts
E. DHCP

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
When enabling a Cisco ASA to send syslog messages to a syslog server, which syslog level will produce the most messages?
A. notifications
B. informational
C. alerts
D. emergencies
E. errors
F. debugging

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
What can be determined about the connection status?

A. The output is showing normal activity to the inside 10.1.1.50 web server.
B. Many HTTP connections to the 10.1.1.50 web server have successfully completed the threeway TCP handshake.
C. Many embryonic connections are made from random sources to the 10.1.1.50 web server.
D. The 10.1.1.50 host is triggering SYN flood attacks against random hosts on the outside.
E. The 10.1.1.50 web server is terminating all the incoming HTTP connections.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What mechanism is used on the Cisco ASA to map IP addresses to domain names that are contained in the botnet traffic filter dynamic database or local blacklist?
A. HTTP inspection
B. DNS inspection and snooping
C. WebACL
D. dynamic botnet database fetches (updates)
E. static blacklist
F. static whitelist

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 6

Which statement about the policy map named test is true?

A. Only HTTP inspection will be applied to the TCP port 21 traffic.
B. Only FTP inspection will be applied to the TCP port 21 traffic.
C. both HTTP and FTP inspections will be applied to the TCP port 21 traffic.
D. No inspection will be applied to the TCP port 21 traffic, because the http class map configuration conflicts with the ftp class map.
E. All FTP traffic will be denied, because the FTP traffic will fail the HTTP inspection.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which Cisco ASA feature can be configured using this Cisco ASDM screen?

A. Cisco ASA command authorization using TACACS+
B. AAA accounting to track serial, ssh, and telnet connections to the Cisco ASA
C. Exec Shell access authorization using AAA
D. cut-thru proxy
E. AAA authentication policy for Cisco ASDM access

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 8
Which command enables the stateful failover option?

A. failover link MYFAILOVER GigabitEthernet0/2
B. failover lan interface MYFAILOVER GigabitEthernet0/2
C. failover interface ip MYFAILOVER 172.16.5.1 255.255.255.0 standby 172.16.5.10
D. preempt
E. failover group 1 primary
F. failover lan unit primary

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
In which type of environment is the Cisco ASA MPF set connection advanced-options tcp-statebypass option the most useful?
A. SIP proxy
B. WCCP
C. BGP peering through the Cisco ASA
D. asymmetric traffic flow
E. transparent firewall

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which statement about the MPF configuration is true?

A. Any non-RFC complaint FTP traffic will go through additional deep FTP packet inspections.
B. FTP traffic must conform to the FTP RFC, and the FTP connection will be dropped if the PUT command is used.
C. FTP traffic must conform to the FTP RFC, and the FTP connection will be dropped if the PUT command is used.
D. The ftp-pm policy-map type should be type inspect.
E. Due to a configuration error, all FTP connections through the outside interface will not be permitted.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
What is a reasonable conclusion?

A. The maximum number of TCP connections that the 10.1.1.99 host can establish will be 146608.
B. All the connections from the 10.1.1.99 have completed the TCP three-way handshake.
C. The 10.1.1.99 hosts are generating a vast number of outgoing connections, probably due to a virus.
D. The 10.1.1.99 host on the inside is under a SYN flood attack.
E. The 10.1.1.99 host operations on the inside look normal.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
By default, how does the Cisco ASA authenticate itself to the Cisco ASDM users?
A. The administrator validates the Cisco ASA by examining the factory built-in identity certificate thumbprint of the Cisco ASA.
B. The Cisco ASA automatically creates and uses a persistent self-signed X.509 certificate to authenticate itself to the administrator.
C. The Cisco ASA automatically creates a self-signed X.509 certificate on each reboot to authenticate itself to the administrator.
D. The Cisco ASA and the administrator use a mutual password to authenticate each other.
E. The Cisco ASA authenticates itself to the administrator using a one-time password.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 13

When will a Cisco ASA that is operating in transparent firewall mode perform a routing table lookup instead of a MAC address table lookup to determine the outgoing interface of a packet?
A. if multiple context mode is configured
B. if the destination MAC address is unknown
C. if the destination is more than a hop away from the Cisco ASA
D. if NAT is configured
E. if dynamic ARP inspection is configured

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which flag shown in the output of the show conn command is used to indicate that an initial SYN packet is from the outside (lower security-level interface)?

A. B
B. D
C. b
D. A
E. a
F. i
G. I
H. O

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which statement about the default ACL logging behavior of the Cisco ASA is true?
A. The Cisco ASA generates system message 106023 for each denied packet when a deny ACE is configured.
B. The Cisco ASA generates system message 106023 for each denied packet when a deny ACE is configured.
C. The Cisco ASA generates system message 106100 only for the first packet that matched an ACE.
D. The Cisco ASA generates system message 106100 for each packet that matched an ACE.
E. No ACL logging is enabled by default.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which Cisco ASA feature enables the ASA to do these two things? 1) Act as a proxy for the server and generate a SYN-ACK response to the client SYN request. 2) When the Cisco ASA receives an ACK back from the client, the Cisco ASA authenticates the client and allows the connection to the server.
A. TCP normalizer
B. TCP normalizer
C. TCP intercept
D. basic threat detection
E. advanced threat detection
F. botnet traffic filter

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which option is not supported when the Cisco ASA is operating in transparent mode and also is using multiple security contexts?
A. NAT
B. shared interface
C. security context resource management
D. Layer 7 inspections
E. failover

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
What does the * next to the CTX security context indicate?

A. The CTX context is the active context on the Cisco ASA.
B. The CTX context is the standby context on the Cisco ASA.
C. The CTX context contains the system configurations.
D. The CTX context has the admin role.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which Cisco ASA feature is implemented by the ip verify reverse-path interface interface_name command?
A. uRPF
B. TCP intercept
C. botnet traffic filter
D. scanning threat detection
E. IPS (IP audit)

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
In one custom dynamic application, the inside client connects to an outside server using TCP port 4444 and negotiates return client traffic in the port range of 5000 to 5500. The server then starts streaming UDP data to the client on the negotiated port in the specified range. Which Cisco ASA feature or command supports this custom dynamic application?
A. TCP normalizer
B. TCP intercept
C. ip verify command
D. established command
E. tcp-map and tcp-options commands
F. set connection advanced-options command

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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