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Exam Code: 200-105
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Updated: Jul 16, 2017
Q&As: 204

Study Material  for Cisco 200-105 Dumps ICND2 Outline

  1. Cisco Device Management
  2. Troubleshooting Networks
  3. Network Addressing
  4. VLANs and Trunking
  5. Spanning Tree Protocol
  6. Advanced Switch Redundancy
  7. Access Layer Security
  8. Routing Fundamentals
  9. EIGRP Configuration
  10. OSPF Configuration
  11. PPP WANs
  12. eBGP Configuration
  13. Secure VPNs and Tunneling
  14. Intelligent Networks
  15. Quality of Service

200-105

Free Pass4itsure Cisco 200-105 Dumps  Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 7
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a
server with the address of 192.168.13.26. Which commands can the administrator issue to verify that the
access list is working properly? (Choose three.)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
200-105 exam Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

200-105

Correct Answer:

200-105

QUESTION 9
Lab – Access List Simulation
A network associate is adding security to the configuration of the Corp1 router. The user on host C should
be able to use a web browser to access financial information from the Finance Web Server. No other hosts
from the LAN nor the Core should be able to use a web browser to access this server. Since there are

multiple resources for the corporation at this location including other resources on the Finance Web
Server, all other traffic should be allowed.
The task is to create and apply a numbered access-list with no more than three statements that will allow
ONLY host C web access to the Finance Web Server. No other hosts will have web access to the Finance
Web Server. All other traffic is permitted.
Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host.
All passwords have been temporarily set to “cisco”.
The Core connection uses an IP address of 198.18.196.65
The computers in the Hosts LAN have been assigned addresses of 192.168.33.1 – 92.168.33.254
Host A 192.168.33.1
Host B 192.168.33.2
Host C 192.168.33.3
Host D 192.168.33.4
The servers in the Server LAN have been assigned addresses of 172.22.242.17 – 172.22.242.30
The Finance Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172.22.242.23.
The Public Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172.22.242.17

200-105

200-105 dumps Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation
QUESTION 10
A sporting goods manufacturer has decided to network three (3) locations to improve efficiency in inventory
control. The routers have been named to reflect the location: Boston, Frankfurt, and Lancaster.
The necessary networking has been completed at each location, and the routers have been configured
with single area OSPF as the routing protocol. The Boston router was recently installed but connectivity is
not complete because of incomplete routing tables.
Identify and correct any problem you see in the configuration.
Note: The OSPF process must be configured to allow interfaces in specific subnets to participate in the
routing process.

200-105

Correct Answer: The question mentioned Boston router was not configured correctly or incomplete so we
should check this router first. Click on Host B to access the command line interface (CLI) of Boston router.
QUESTION 11
200-105

200-105

200-105

200-105

200-105

200-105

200-105

Why did Branch1 router lose WAN connectivity with R1 router?
A. The IP address is misconfigured on PPP multilink interface on the Branch1 router.
B. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the anch1 serial interfaces.
C. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the R1 serial interfaces.
D. The Branch1 serial interfaces are placed in a shutdown condition.
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a
device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
200-105 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
C. Only RADIUS uses TCP.
D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which IEEE standard does PVST+ use to tunnel information?
A. 802.1x
B. 802 1q
C. 802.1w
D. 802.1s
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client?
A. Ethernet
B. dialer
C. serial
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
200-105 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105

Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105

At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105

A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the
AcmeB router. What action does the router take?

A. forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface
B. forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface
C. forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface
D. forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
A. a backup route, stored in the routing table
B. a primary route, stored in the routing table
C. a backup route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the topology table
200-105 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE

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Exam Code: 70-767
Exam Name: Implementing a SQL Data Warehouse (beta)
Updated: Jul 16, 2017
Q&As: 112

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70-767

Free Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-676 PDF Exam Questions and Answers:

Question: 69
This Security Standard addresses the proper functions to be performed on a specific workstation as
well as the physical attributes of its surroundings,
A. information Access Management
B. Workstation Security
C. Access Control
D. Facility Access Controls
E. Workstation Use
70-767 pdf Answer: E

Question: 70
In addition to code sets, HIPAA transactions also contain:
A. Security information such as a fingerprint.
B. Privacy information.
C. Information on all business associates,
D. Information on all health care clearinghouses.
E. Identifiers.
Answer: E

Question: 71
Select the correct statement regarding the administrative requirements of The HIPAA privacy rule.
A. A covered entity must designate, and document, a privacy official, security officer and a HIPAA
compliance officer
B. A covered entity must designate, and document, the same person to be both privacy official and
as the contact person responsible for receiving complaints and providing further information about
the notice required by the regulations.
C. A covered entity must implement and maintain written or electronic policies and procedures with
respect to PHI that are designed to comply with HIPAA standards, implementation specifications and
other requirements.
D. A covered entity must train, and document the training of. at least one member of its workforce
on the policies and procedures with regard to PHI as necessary and appropriate for them to carry
out their function within the covered entity no later than the privacy rule compliance date.
E. A covered entity must retain the document required by the regulations for a period often years
from the time of it’s creation or the time it was last in effect, which ever is later
70-767 vce Answer: C

Question: 72
To comply with the Privacy Rule, a valid Notice of Privacy Practices:
A. Is required for all Chain of Trust Agreements.
B. Must allow for the patient’s written acknowledgement of receipt.
C. Must always be signed by the patient.
D. Must be signed in order for the patient’s name to be sold to a mailing list organization.
E. Is not required if an authorization is being developed.
Answer: B

Question: 73
Security to protect information assets is generally defined as having:
A. Controls
B. PRI
C. Biometrics
D. VPN technology
E. Host-based intrusion detection
70-767 dumps Answer: A

Question: 74
One characteristic of the Notice of Privacy Practices is:
A. It must be written in plain, simple language.
B. It must explicitly describe all uses of PHI.
C. A description about the usage of hidden security cameras for tracking patient movements for
implementing privacy.
D. A description of the duties of the individual.
E. A statement that the individual must abide by the terms of the Notice.
Answer: A

Question: 75
Select the FALSE statement regarding the transaction rule.
A. The Secretary is required by statue to impose penalties of at least $100 per violation on any
person or entity that fails to comply with a standard except that the total amount imposed on any
one person in each calendar year may not exceed $1 .000.000 for violations of one requirement.
B. Health plans are required to accept all standard transactions.
C. Health plans may not require providers to make changes or additions to standard transactions.
D. Health plans may not refuse or delay payment of standard transactions.
E. If additional information is added to a standard transaction it must not modify the definition,
condition, intent, or use of a data element.
70-767 exam Answer: A

Question: 76
Which of the following is primarily concerned with implementing security measures that are
sufficient to reduce risks and vulnerabilities to a reasonable and appropriate level.
A. Access Establishment and Modification
B. Isolating Health care clearinghouse Functions
C. Information System Activity Review
D. Risk Management
E. Risk Analysis
Answer: D

Question: 77
The applicable methods for HIPAA-related EDI transactions are:
A. Remote and enterprise.
B. Claim status and remittance advice.
C. Subscriber and payer.
D. Batch and real-time.
E. HCFA-1500 and 837.

Answer: D

Question: 78
A valid Notice of Privacy Practices must
A. Detail specifically all activities that are considered a use or disclosure
B. Describe in plain language what is meant by treatment, payment, and health care operations
(TPO).
C. Inform the individual that protected health information (PHI) may only be used for valid medical
research.
D. Inform the individual that this version of the Notice will always cover them, regardless of
subsequent changes.
E. State the expiration date of the Notice.
70-767 pdf Answer: B

Question: 79
The office manager of a small doctors office wants to donate several of their older workstations to
the local elementary school. Which Security Rule Standard addresses this situation?
A. Security Management Process
B. Device and Media Controls
C. information Access Management
D. Facility Access Controls
E. Workstation Security
Answer: B

Question: 80
Information in this transaction is generated by the payer’s adjudication system:
A. Eligibility (2701271)
B. Premium Payment 2O)
C. Unsolicited Claim Status (277)
D. Remittance Advice 35)
E. Functional Acknowledgment (997)
Answer: D

Question: 81
The key objective of a contingency plan is that the entity must establish and implement policies and
procedures to ensure The:
A. Creation and modification of health information during and after an emergency.
B. Integrity of health information during and after an emergency.
C. Accountability of health information during and after an emergency.
D. Vulnerability of health information during and after an emergency.
E. Non-repudiation of the entity.
70-767 vce Answer: B

Question: 82
A covered entity’ that fails to implement the HIPAA Privacy Rule would risk:
A. $50O0 in fines.
B. $5000 in fines and six months in prison.
C. An annual cap of $5000 in fines.
D. A fine of up to $50000 if they wrongfully disclose PHI.
E. Six months in prison.
Answer: D

Question: 83
This transaction supports multiple functions. These functions include: telling a bank to move money
OR telling a bank to move money while sending remittance information
A. 277.
B. 276
C. 271
D. 820.
E. 270.
70-767 dumps Answer: D

Question: 84
When PHI is sent or received over an electronic network there must be measures to guard against
unauthorized access. This is covered under which security rule standard?
A. Device and Media Controls
B. Access Controls
C. Transmission Security
D. Integrity
E. Audit Controls
Answer: C

Question: 85
Title 1 of the HIPAA legislation in the United States is about:
A. P1<1 requirements for hospitals and health care providers.
B. Encryption algorithms that must be supported by hospitals and health care providers.
C. Fraud and abuse in the health care system and ways to eliminate the same.
D. Guaranteed health insurance coverage to workers and their families when they change
employers.
E. The use of strong authentication technology that must be supported by hospitals and health care
providers.
Answer: D

Question: 86
Implementing policies and procedures to prevent, detect, contain, and correct security violations is
required by which security standard?
A. Security incident Procedures
B. Assigned Security Responsibility
C. Access control
D. Facility Access Controls
E. Security Management Process
Answer: E

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MCDBAVendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCDBA
Exam Name: UPGRADE:MCDBA Skills to MCITP DB Admin by Using MS SQL 2005
Exam Code: 070-447
Total Questions: 137 Q&As
Last Updated: May 05, 2017

Exam Information:
QUESTION 1
When using a proxy server to manage how BlackBerry Smartphone connect to web pages, what are the types available for creating a proxy profile?
A. SQUID, Microsoft ISA
B. Manual configuration, PAC configuration
C. Filtering, Caching, DNS
D. Transparent Proxy, Onion Router

Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Where can ‘new email notifications be configured?
A. Settings -> Notifications -> Messages
B. Options -> Notifications -> Messages
C. BlackBerry Hub -> Notifications -> Messages
D. BlackBerry Hub -> Advanced -> Notifications -> Messages

Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
A user trying to activate their device over USB logs onto Web Desktop with a version of Internet Explorer notices this error Complete the setup process. The necessary controls have not been installed. The ActiveX control is installed on the user s computer. The user should retry the connection with
A. Internet Explorer 8.0 or later browser.
B. Internet Explorer 7.0 or later browser.
C. Firefox 3.5 or later browser.
D. Internet Explorer 9.0 or earlier browser.

Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
The BDS administrator can create an SCEP profile for a simplified means of:
A. deploying certificates for large-scale implementation to everyday users.
B. generating certificates for large-scale deployment.
C. auditing which accounts have certificates in large-scale implementation for everyday users.
D. creating device shortcut icons that the device owner can use to request certificates.

Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
What are the different methods for assigning an activation password for a BlackBerry device?
A. Login to BlackBerry Administration Console, search the user, and select option Specify an Activation password from the user properties
B. Login to BlackBerry Administration Console, search the user, and select option Generate an Activation Email from the user properties
C. Login to BlackBerry Administration Console, search the user, and select option Assign EA password from the user properties
D. Instruct the user to login to BlackBerry Web Desktop and assign their Activation password

Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: JN0-643
Exam Name: Enterprise Routing and Switching, Professional (JNCIP-ENT)
Updated: Apr 20, 2017
Q&As: 221
Exam Information:http://www.pass4itsure.com/jn0-643.html

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QUESTION 10
— Exhibit
jn0-643 dumps

— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which LSA type will Router R2 inject into Area 1?
A. Type 3 LSA
B. Type 4 LSA
C. Type 5 LSA
D. Type 7 LSA
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 11
— Exhibit —
[edit protocols ospf]
[email protected]# show
area 0.0.0.6 {
nssa {
default-lsa default-metric 10;
area-range 184.23.12.0/24;
}
interface ge-1/1/4;
}
[edit protocols ospf]
[email protected]# show ospf database
OSPF database, Area 0.0.0.0
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Router *192.168.0.2 192.168.0.2 0x80000004 749 0x22 0x87c2 60 Router 192.168.0.3 192.168.0.3
0x80000004 399 0x22 0x94b5 60 Summary *10.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 0x80000003 19 0x22 0xe2e4 28
Summary *192.168.0.1 192.168.0.2 0x80000002 1100 0x22 0xbda7 28
OSPF database, Area 0.0.0.6
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Router 192.168.0.1 192.168.0.1 0x80000004 404 0x20 0x76db 60 Router *192.168.0.2 192.168.0.2
0x80000003 1802 0x20 0x319b 48 Summary *11.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 0x80000002 2504 0x20 0xf5d3 28
Summary *192.168.0.2 192.168.0.2 0x80000003 2153 0x20 0xc5a0 28 Summary *192.168.0.3
192.168.0.2 0x80000002 398 0x20 0xc79d 28 NSSA *0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 0x80000001 11 0x20 0xcbf1 36
NSSA 184.23.12.0 192.168.0.1 0x80000002 447 0x28 0xb93f 36 OSPF AS SCOPE link state database
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Extern *184.23.12.0 192.168.0.2 0x80000003 11 0x22 0x28d6 36 — Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. R2 injects a Type 3 LSA for 184.23.12.0/24 into the backbone.
B. R2 is an ABR.
C. R2 injects a Type 5 LSA for 184.23.12.0/24 into the backbone.
D. R2 is an ASBR.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
— Exhibit
jn0-643 dumps

Exhibit
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which type of LSA will be seen on router A for routes originating in Customer A’s
network?
A. Type 7 LSA
B. Type 2 LSA
C. Type 5 LSA
D. Type 1 LSA
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

 

QUESTION 13
Which statement is true regarding OSPF multi-area adjacencies?
A. A type 3 (stub) link is advertised for a multi-area adjacency.
B. Configuring a multi-area adjacency allows the corresponding link to be considered an interarea link, s
it will be less preferred over an intra-area link.
C. One logical interface will be a primary link, and the other configured as a secondary link; the seconda
link will be established as an unnumbered point-to-point interface.
D. A DR and a BDR will be elected over the secondary interface, because it is not point-to-point.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 14
— Exhibit

jn0-643 dumps

— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Traffic destined for R2 will be blackholed.
B. Transit traffic will follow the R1-R2-R4 path.
C. Traffic destined for R2 will reach R2.
D. Transit traffic will follow the R1-R3-R4 path.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference: JN0-643 dumps

 


QUESTION 15
Which statement is true about using an OSPF import policy?
A. Import policies are not allowed in OSPF, applying the policy will do nothing.

B. Applying an import policy to OSPF may block normal LSA flooding.
C. Import policies are allowed only for external route types.
D. Applying this policy will cause a commit failure.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 16
Which statement is true regarding the SPF algorithm?
A. The SPF algorithm is run on a per-domain basis.
B. If you apply an import policy to OSPF, it keeps LSAs from being flooded, and the SPF calculation
be affected.
C. There are two databases used in the calculation, the link-state database and the tree database.
D. The SPF calculation is run on a per-area basis on each router.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 17
You are asked to configure graceful restart in your network.
Which OSPF LSA type would you expect to see in the LSDB?
A. Type 8
B. Type 9
C. Type 10
D. Type 11
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 18
— Exhibit
jn0-643 dumps

— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which answer is correct?
A. R2 is the DR and R1 is the BDR.
B. R4 is the DR and R2 is the BDR.

C. R2 is the DR and R3 is the BDR.
D. R3 is the DR and R2 is the BDR.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 19
— Exhibit —
[email protected]> show ospf database network extensive
OSPF link state database, area 0.0.0.1
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Network 10.222.1.1 192.168.20.1 0x80000002 813 0x2 0x 32 mask 255.255.255.0
attached router 192.168.20.1
attached router 192.168.40.1
Aging timer 00:46:27
Installed 00:13:32 ago, expires in 00:46:27, sent 1w5d 01:07:09 ago
— Exhibit —
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true regarding the OSPF network LSA?
A. The ID field value shows the router ID of the advertising router.
B. The ID field is the local interface IP address from which the LSA will be advertised.
C. The options field indicates this is a Type 2 LSA.
D. The output shows that 192.168.20.1 is the designated router.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Vendor: Oracle
Certifications: Oracle Database
Exam Code: 1Z0-060
Exam Name: Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c
Total Questions: 150 Q&As
Updated on: Apr 01, 2017

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QUESTION 44
If you insert an EJB control into a page flow, which annotation tag marks the addition?
A. @common:jc
B. @common:ejbgen
C. @common:netuix
D. @common:control
E. @common:context
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
When Workshop generates a Session Bean, it creates a template for which method?
A. ejbFind()
B. None of these
C. ejbCreate()
D. onMessage()
E. setMessageContext()
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 46
Which of the following is NOT a valid project type in Workshop?
A. JMS project
B. Java project
C. Web project
D. Schema project
E. Datasync project

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
In JPD, nodes that are scripted:
A. None of these
B. Contain JSP code
C. Contain custom code
D. Contain EXMAscript code
E. Are generated automatically

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
What is the name of the connection pool that is used to track conversational states?
A. cgTX
B. cgWS
C. cqPool
D. cgState
E. cqConverse

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
Placeholders can be used in portals and in:
A. EJBs
B. Controls
C. Campaigns
D. None of these
E. Integration projects

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
While developing an application, you notice several sever and application anomalies, including the fact that the Administration Console does not display. Which command would help you determine what the problem is?
A. java weblogic.Admin -url localhost:7001 -username WebLogic -password WebLogic DEBUG
B. java weblogic.Admin -url localhost:7001 -username WebLogic -pasword WebLogic GET-all
C. java weblogic.Admin -url localhost:7001 -username WebLogic -password WebLogic LIST-all
D. java weblogic.Admin -url localhost:7001 -username WebLogic -password WebLogic THREAD_DUMP
E. java weblogic.Admin -url localhost:7001 -username WebLogoc -password WebLogoc COLLECT_DATA

Correct Answer: D
1Z0-060 exam QUESTION 51
The BEA Repository holds what type of portal project data?
A. None of these
B. Portal configuration information
C. Domain configuration information
D. Contectmanagement information
E. WebLogic WorkShop configuration information

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
What is the name of the global page flow source file?
A. app.jpf
B. app.jcx
C. Global.app
D. Application.jpf
E. MasterpageFlow.jpf

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
The deployment descriptor within a WAR file resides in which directory?
A. WEB – INF
B. APP – INF
C. META – INF
D. MANIFEST
E. Resources

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
A Page Flow action begins a JTA transaction and then involves several EJBs in the transaction. One EJB detects a severe during a data-validity check. Can this EJB roll back the transaction?
A. Yes. The EJB can call a rollback
B. Yes. The EJB can call setrollbackonly.
C. Yes. The EJB can throw an application excption, which automatically causes the transaction to roll back.
D. Yes. The EJB can throw a javax.ejb RollbackException, which automatically causes the transaction to roll back.
E. No The EJB must propagate an exception or error message back to the Page Flow action as a signal for it to call a rollback.

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 8
Many users, located in different geographic regions, all need access to certain secure web applications and EJB components. The users although dispersed, have common Job descriptions. What is the best way to generically provide access for all of these users?
A. Use declarative security by providing authorization based user roles
B. Programmatically authorize each user who requests a protected resource
C. Use Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) to implement discretionary security
D. Create all user accounts in an LDAP server, and make it the default realm for the domain
E. Define a custom security proxy that stores and propagates each authenticated user’s credential information
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Within a Service-Oriented Architecture, which of the following is NOT specified by a Service Policy?
A. Encryption rules
B. Execution Rules
C. Versioning Rules
D. Authorization rules
E. Authentication rules
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
Which statement best describes the way in which WebLogic Workshop can be used to develop applications following the MVC pattern?
A. Create EJBs and JSPs. Call EJBs from Servlets.
B. WebLogic Workhop doesn’t use the MVC model.
C. Create a Struts Action from and associate it with the appropriate action mapping definition
D. Create a serializable javaBean THAT DEFINES THE STATEFUL FIELDS AND THEIR METHODS AND PASSES THE DATA BETWEEN THE MODEL INVOCATION AND VIEW ELEMENTS
E. Create an action from that defines the stateful fields and their accessor/mutator methods. Scope the form to a PageFlow and pass the state to controls, and call from the view as necessary.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 11
Your application requirements include accessing a legacy mainframe application with native communication protocols. The legacy system must be accessible from J2EE and Net servers. To do this most effectively, you would use a product based on which specification?
A. J2CA
B. JDBC
C. RMI/IIOP
D. Web Services
E. Java to CORBA bridge

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Within a Service -Oriented Architecture, service version are bound to consumer through the;
A. UDDI Server
B. Service Policy
C. Connectivity Layer
D. Services Directory
E. Orchestration Layer

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
When considering distributed transactions and the two phase commit protocol which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. WebLogic SERVER DOES NOT SUPPORT NESTED TRANSACTIONS
B. WebLogic SERVER ALLOWS TRANSACTIONS TO BE terminated only by the client that created the transaction
C. Recovering transactions for a failed WebLogic server instance requires a weblogic cluster configuration
D. A heuristic decision occurs when any XA resource makes a unilateral decision during the completion phase
E. By default, the Transaction Manager will continue to complete the transaction during the second phase for up to 24 hours

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Within the WebLogic Platform environment, which of these events are NOT part the of the Application Lifecycle when re-deploying an application and when the debug flags are set?
A. preStart
B. postStop
C. postStart
D. completed
E. inialization

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
When designing a Service-Oriented Architecture you plan to provide Services Management capabilities. Primarily Services Management includes:
A. The Message Broker
B. Java Control tracking
C. Business Process instances
D. Security implementation Details
E. Service registration and discovery

Correct Answer: E

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Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012

  • Published: 2017-02-01
  • Languages: English, French, German, Japanese, Russian, Spanish, Portuguese (Brazil), Chinese (Simplified)
  • Audiences: IT professionals
  • Technology: Microsoft SQL Server 2012
  • Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSA, MCSE

Design and implement a data warehouse (11%)
Extract and transform data (23%)
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incremental data load strategy.
The package reads data from a source system that uses the SQL Server change data capture (CDC)
feature.
You have added a CDC Source component to the data flow to read changed data from the source
system.
You need to add a data flow transformation to redirect rows for separate processing of insert,
update, and delete
operations.
Which data flow transformation should you use?
A. CDC Splitter
B. Audit
C. Merge Join
D. Merge
Answer: A

Explanation: The CDC splitter splits a single flow of change rows from a CDC source data flow into
different data flows
for Insert, Update and Delete operations

 

NO.2 You are designing an enterprise star schema that will consolidate data from three independent
data marts. One of the data marts is hosted on SQL Azure.
Most of the dimensions have the same structure and content. However, the geography dimension is
slightly different in each data mart.
You need to design a consolidated dimensional structure that will be easy to maintain while ensuring
that all dimensional data from the three original solutions is represented.
What should you do?
A. Implement change tracking.
B. Create a conformed dimension for the geography dimension.
C. Create a degenerate dimension for the geography dimension.
D. Create a Type 2 slowly changing dimension for the geography dimension.
Answer: B

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B. Yes
Answer: B

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QUESTION 5
The System Image Utility ________.
A. creates and scans an ASR-ready disk image
B. prepares a disk image for NetBoot or Network Install
C. configures an image to act as the default boot volume
D. configures a computer to startup from a network image

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
You are using ASR multicast to restore multiple computers with the same copy of an ASR-ready disk image. What will the result be?
A. The restorations will be performed simultaneously.
B. The restorations will be queued in the order requested.
C. Users will be prompted to specify a data rate to use for their computer.
D. The computers will start up from a network image and run asr automatically.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
Apple Remote Desktop is ________.
A. an update service provided by Mac OS X Server
B. a management tool used to control computers remotely
C. an administrative tool used to install Mac OS X on remote systems
D. the system preference for allowing remote Apple events in Mac OS X

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
In a multiple-user environment, what action must you take to assure that a user’s Classic preferences will be stored separately?
A. No action is necessary. Classic automatically stores preferences in each user’s home folder.
B. Create an alias to the Classic Preferences folder in the Library folder in each user’s home folder.
C. Under the advanced tab in the Classic System Preferences pane, check use Mac OS 9 preferences from your home folder.
D. In the Classic System Folder, create an alias to the Library/Preferences folder of each user’s home folder and name the alias Preferences.name, where name is the username of that user.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 09
You have added packages to a custom Network Install image. To ensure that the packages are delivered to clients that start up from the image, you must ________.
A. rename the primary package or metapackage on the install image to OSInstall.pkg
B. create a metapackage named primary.mpkg that includes all of the added packages
C. edit the file /private/etc/rc.cdrom.packagePath to contain the path to the main package or metapackage
D. modify /private/etc/installconfig.xml on the disk image to point to the main install package or metapackage

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 31
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference: http://www.pass4cert.net/70-480-dumps-download.html
The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols are needed so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and
frames.
The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populated based on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding
Information Base (FIB) is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.

QUESTION 32
Which option is the most effective action to avoid packet loss due to microbursts?
A. Implement larger buffers.
B. Install a faster CPU.
C. Install a faster network interface.
D. Configure a larger tx-ring size.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can’t avoid or prevent them as such without modifying the sending host’s application/network stack so it smoothes out the bursts. However, you can manage microbursts by tuning the size of receive buffers / rings to absorb occasional microbursts.
QUESTION 33
Which two statements about packet fragmentation on an IPv6 network are true? (Choose two.)
A. The fragment header is 64 bits long.
B. The identification field is 32 bits long.
C. The fragment header is 32 bits long.
D. The identification field is 64 bits long.
E. The MTU must be a minimum of 1280 bytes.
F. The fragment header is 48 bits long.
Correct Answer: AB Explanation   cisco-200-125 ccna pdf

Explanation/Reference:
The fragment header is shown below, being 64 bits total with a 32 bit identification field: Reference: http://www.openwall.com/presentations/IPv6/img24.html

QUESTION 34
You are backing up a server with a 1 Gbps link and a latency of 2 ms. Which two statements about the backup are true? (Choose two.)
A. The bandwidth delay product is 2 Mb.
B. The default TCP send window size is the limiting factor.
C. The default TCP receive window size is the limiting factor.
D. The bandwidth delay product is 500 Mb.
E. The bandwidth delay product is 50 Mb.

Correct Answer: AC Explanation Explanation/Reference:
1 Gbps is the same as 1000 Mbps, and 1000Mb x .0002 = 2 Mbps. With TCP based data transfers, the receive window is always the limiting factor, as the sender is generally able to send traffic at line rate, but then must wait for the acknowledgements to send more data.
QUESTION 35
Which two pieces of information does RTCP use to inform endpoint devices about the RTP flow? (Choose two.)
A. the transmitted octet
B. the lost packet count
C. session control function provisioning information
D. the CNAME for session participants
E. the authentication method
F. MTU size changes in the path of the flow Correct Answer: AB

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
RTCP transports statistics for a media connection and information such as transmitted octet and packet counts, packet loss, packet delay variation, and round-trip delay time. An application may use this information to control quality of service parameters, perhaps by limiting flow, or using a different codec.

QUESTION 36
How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32

Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference:
In order to understand how the load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table), which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.

QUESTION 37
Which three features require Cisco Express Forwarding? (Choose three.)
A. NBAR
B. AutoQoS
C. fragmentation
D. MPLS
E. UplinkFast
F. BackboneFast

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.certadept.com/cisco-200-125-exam-with-our-dumps-pdf-vce-free-try.html

Recognition.
QoS Features That Require CEF These class-based QoS features are supported only on routers that run CEF. Network Based Application Recognition (NBAR) provides intelligent network classification. For more information, refer to Network Based Application

The AutoQoS -VoIP feature simplifies and speeds up the implementation and provisioning of QoS for VoIP traffic. This feature is enabled with the help of the
auto qos voip command. CEF must be enabled at the interface or ATM PVC before the auto qos command can be used. For more information about this feature and its prerequisites, refer to AutoQoS – VoIP.
From MPLS Fundamentals – Luc De Ghein Why Is CEF Needed in MPLS Networks? Concerning MPLS, CEF is special for a certain reason; otherwise, this book would not explicitly cover it. Labeled packets that enter the router are switched according to the label forwarding information base (LFIB) on the router. IP packets that enter the router are switched according to the CEF table on the router. Regardless of whether the packet is switched according to the LFIB or the CEF table, the outgoing packet can be a labeled packet or an IP packet

QUESTION 38
Which two options are interface requirements for turbo flooding? (Choose two.)
A. The interface is Ethernet.
B. The interface is configured for ARPA encapsulation.
C. The interface is PPP.
D. The interface is configured for GRE encapsulation.
E. The interface is configured for 802.1Q encapsulation.

Correct Answer: AB Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ccie-routing-switching.html
In the switch, the majority of packets are forwarded in hardware; most packets do not go through the switch CPU. For those packets that do go to the CPU, you can speed up spanning tree-based UDP flooding by a factor of about four to five times by using turbo-flooding. This feature is supported over Ethernet interfaces configured for ARPA encapsulation.
swiprout.html
QUESTION 39
Which three options are sub-subfields of the IPv4 Option Type subfield? (Choose three.)
A. Option Class
B. GET
C. Copied
D. PUSH
E. Option Number
F. TTL

Correct Answer: ACE Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Each IP option has its own subfield format, generally structured as shown below. For most options, all three subfields are used. Option Type, Option Length and Option Data.

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210-060 PDF

QUESTION 7
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager at one time. Which option should be used?
A. Bulk Administration Tool
B. Product Upgrade Tool
C. Command Lookup Tool
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E. Cisco Upload Tool

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text Label
B. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user’s phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page?
A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box
B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box
C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box
D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber. Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems?
A. Show Connection Status
B. Report A Problem
C. Advanced Settings
D. About Jabber
E. Reset Jabber
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Use the exhibits below to answer the question.

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QUESTION 132
Which command assigns a cost value of “17” to a switch port?
A. spanning-tree interfacefastethernet 5/8 17
B. spanning-treeportcost 17
C. spanning-treeportcost 17
D. spanning-treevlan 1 cost 17

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
You have configured and applied a Cisco IOS Firewall access rule to the inbound, untrusted interface. You suspect that the rule may be blocking necessary traffic onto the network. What must you do to delete that rule when using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager?
A. Select ACL Editor > Access Rules to delete the rule.
B. You must remove the association between the rule and the interface before deleting the rule
C. You must delete the associated access list on the interface, then reconfigure the access list as required, and then reapply the access group to the proper interface.
D. Go to the Edit Firewall Policy tab to delete the rule.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
A customer in Europe needs to establish an 11-Mbps wireless bridge link between two office buildings that are approximately 1.3 km apart. The wireless link will pass through a public park, which contains a lake that is surrounded by trees. You run the range calculation and determine that the Cisco Aironet 1300 Series Outdoor Access Point/Bridge should work. You install the link using 10.5-dB yagis with 75 feet of standard Cisco cabling and both radios set at 20 mW. The wireless bridges are not able to establish or maintain a link.
What is needed to successfully complete this link?
A. An amplifier needs to be installed at one of the sites.
B. The antenna must be raised high enough to clear the trees
C. Lower loss cabling needs to be used to bring the EIRP into legal limits.
D. Due to the trees, a 21-dBi dish needs to be used for its narrower beam width.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
You connect via Telnet to a Cisco access point and enter the command show dot11 link test. Which output might you obtain?
A. signal-to-noise ratio
B. incoming and outgoing signal strength
C. TX packets dropped
D. RX packets per second

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Refer to the exhibit. The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configurations of Router A and Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the sitE.to-site VPN between Router A and Router B.
What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?

A. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a Turbo ACL (150-199).
B. The IKE encryption methods on the two routers are different
C. the IPSec policy map names on the two routers are different.
D. the IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the Answer: interesting traffic.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

How many active VPN clients are currently connected to the 1841 ISR router?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

Which IP address or address range will be used when allocating an internal IP address to the VPN clients
for the “test” VPN group?________________________________________________________________________
A. 10.1.1.100 to 10.1.1.200 I
B. 10.1-1.2 to 10.1.1.254
C. 192.168.1.1 to 192.168.1.100
D. 192.168.1.2 to 192.168.1.254
E. 192.168.1.1
F. 192.168.1.2

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

Which authentication method is used by the test” VPN group?
A. RSA Encrypted Nounce
B. RSA Digital Signature
C. PrE.Shared Key
D. Digital Certificate
E. DH2

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 140
You are the network consultant. You have a customer with a small network of 15 remote sites is trying to optimize its VPN by migrating some remote sites using Frame Relay connections to the Internet to using cable connections to the Internet. The keypoint for your customer is to save money. Only a moderate amount of IP traffic is passing through the network, most of which is from the remote sites to the central site. IPSec should be used to provide VPN functionality and basic confidentiality is desired..Considering the above requirements. Which solution would be the easiest for this customer to set up and manage?
A. point-to-point
B. partial mesh
C. point-to-multipoint
D. hub-and-spoke

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
In an infrastructure based on a wireless advanced feature set using lightweight access points, by which method is a rogue contained?
A. The WCS sends excessive traffic to the rogue thus overloading the access point.
B. The rogue MAC address is used to spoof broadcastdeassociation packets.
C. The rogue MAC address is used to spoof broadcastdeauthentication packets.
D. The WCS sends out excessive signals on the same channel when the rogue is detected.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
With industry-leading services and performance, the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switch is Cisco’s flagship switching solution. It delivers the most comprehensive feature sets for core, distribution, wiring closet, data center, enterprise WAN routing, and Metro-Ethernet deployments. Which layer you think is recommended that the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WLSM be placed?
A. core
B. distribution
C. access
D. presentation

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
The Cisco Lifecycle Services approach defines the activities needed to help you successfully deploy and operate Cisco technologies and optimize their performance throughout the lifecycle of your network. Which statement is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases?
A. initiation, prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
B. site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing, and operations
C. prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
D. deployment, testing, implementation, and production

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Which IP address or address range will be used when allocating an internal ip address to the VPN client for the test

A. 120.1.1.100 to 10.1.1.200
B. 10.1.1.2 to 10.1.1.254
C. 192.1681.1 to 192.1681.1.100
D. 192.1681.2 to 192.1681.1.254

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
Which authentication method is used by the test VPN group?

A. RSA EncryptedNounce
B. RSA Digital Signature
C. Pre-shared key
D. DH2

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RA and RB. Given the debug output on RA, which two statements are true?(Choose two)
A. RA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
B. RA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
C. RA will form an adjacency with RB.
D. RAwill not form an adjacency with RB.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
You are the network administrator. There is one Gigabit Ethernet port on the Cisco CE520 used in the Smart Business Communications System. Which port role assignment would you make for?
A. Cisco Express 520
B. Cisco UC520
C. Cisco CE520
D. Cisco 871W

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Refer to the exhibit. CK-SA and CK-SC are running PVST+ STP, and CK-SB is running 802.1 Q STP. If the BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VU\N 2, then there is no blocking port in the VLAN 2 topology. The BPDU of VU\N 2 never makes a “full circle” around the topology; it is replaced by the VLAN 1 BPDU on the CK-SB-CK-SC link, because CK-SB runs only one STP merged with VU\N 1 STP of PVST+. Thus, there is a forwarding loop.

What does PVST+ do to correct this?
A. CK-SA sends PVST+ BPDUs ofVLAU 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SC. CK-SC will put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
B. CK-SB sends PVST+ BPDUs of VU\N 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SA) towards CK-SC. CK-SC will put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
C. CK-SC sends PVST+BPDUsofVU\N 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SC. CK-SAwill put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
D. CK-SA sends PVST+ BPDUs of VU\N 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SB. CK-SA will put port CK-C-CK-B into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
A wireless autonomous 1200 access point running core feature set in root mode has its SSID set to Factory_floor and provides connection to a repeater access point with its SSID set to factory_floor, if the root-mode access point is using channel 11 which channel will the repeater access point use?
A. channel 11
B. channel 1 or 6
C. anynonoverlapping channel
D. The root access point and the repeater will negotiate this setting

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
The VPN server uses a preshared key for remote device authentication
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
A customer with a large enterprise network wants to allow employees to work from home over the Internet. The customer anticipates a large amount of traffic, predominantly toward the central site. The customer also requires a VPN using strong user authentication and encryption to protect highly sensitive data. Which solution best meets this customer’s requirements?
A. remote-access VPN with software encryption
B. remote-access VPN with hardware encryption
C. site-to-site VPN with hub-and-spoke tunnels using 3DES and pre-shared secrets
D. site-to-site Cisco Easy VPN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configurations of RA and RB. Traffic between PC1 and PC2 is not successfully establishing the site-to-site VPN between -RA and -RB. What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?
A. RAis using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while RB is using a Turbo ACL(150-199).
B. The IPSec encryption methods used by each router do not match.
C. The D-H Group settings on the two routers are the same.
D. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
You are the network consultant. When will you assess a customer’s current network infrastructure?
A. plan
B. design
C. operate
D. optimize

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
A client is experiencing lower throughput and more packet retransmits is one area of the wireless network. At these times, the client utility shows high signal strength but low signal quality. What may be causing this issue?
A. The client does not support Cisco Compatible Extensions version 2.
B. Diversity is not enabled in the access point.
C. The WDS is failing to register the client card in the WLSM.
D. The channel is set incorrectly in the access point or in the client configuration.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Which statement is correct about the current address translation configurations on the security appliance?
A. Dynamic NAT is used to translate the 10.0.1.100 host on the inside interface to a global address of
192.168.1.1
B. Port AddressTranslation(PAT) is used to translate any host on the inside interface to the 192.168.1.100 global address.
C. Static NAT is used to translate the 172.16.1.2 host on thedmzl interface to a global address of
192.168.1.102
D. Dynamic NAT is used to translate any host ondmzl and dmz2 interfaces to a mapped address from the address from the address pool of 192.168.1.110 to 192.168.1.250

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
VLAN Hopping is one of the primary VLAN based attacks used by hackers to infiltrate network security. VLAN hopping is used to attack a network by sending packets to a port which is generally not accessible. VLAN hopping attacks are mainly conducted in the Dynamic Trunking Protocol and, in some cases; the attacks are targeted to the trunking encapsulation protocol (802.1 q or ISL).You worry about the switched infrastructure in an integrated network is vulnerable to VLAN hopping attacks. Which two configuration can be used to mitigate VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. switchporttrunk encapsulation
B. switchport mode trunk
C. switchport access vlan
D. switchport mode access

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
CiscoWorks SNMS is a part of the CiscoWorks family of products for managing small to large networks. CiscoWorks SIMMS is a new Web-based network management solution for small to medium-sized businesses, with 40 or fewer Cisco internetworking devices such as switches, routers, hubs, and access servers. CiscoWorks SNMS can also monitor third-party IT assets such as servers, applications, services, and printers A Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) trunk is typically the voice interconnect between any business and the outside world. Which network management tool is designed to allow businesses to manage up to 40 devices?
A. CiscoWorks Unrestricted
B. CiscoWorks WAN Management
C. CiscoWorks LAN Management
D. CiscoWorks SNMS

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
Which statement is correct about the information in the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager General and License Information screen?
A. The security appliance supports active/active failover only.
B. The security appliance supports 3DES-AES only.
C. The managed device is a Cisco ASA 5540 Security Appliance with VPN premium license enabled.
D. The managed device is Cisco PIX515E Security Appliance.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
Which three are different types of STP inconsistencies in a Layer 2 network?(Choose three)
A. MAC inconsistency
B. Root inconsistency
C. EtherChannel inconsistency
D. type inconsistency

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
According to the error log, VLAN 1 is where the BPDU was received, and VLAN 2 is where the BPDU originated. When inconsistency is detected, what happens?
A. VLAN 1 is blocked, while VLAN 2 is forwarding
B. VLAN1 is blocked, while VLAN 2 is listening
C. Both VLANs are listening on the port from which this BPDU is send
D. Both VLANs are blocked on the port from which this BPDU is received

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
Which is the current configured default gateway IP address on the security appliance?
A. 172.16.10.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 192.168.1.2
D. 10.0.1.1

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which statement is true about a Cisco Aironet 350 Series wireless client when its green LED appears to be off and its amber LED is blinking?
A. The client adapter is scanning for a network.
B. The client adapter is in ad hoc mode.
C. The client adapter is performing a self-test.
D. The client adapter is in power-save mode.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant. Your IT Manager tells you 802.11b telephone can receive an audio signal from an access point, but cannot send audio. What is the most likely reason?
A. The value of RSSI telephone is greater than 30.
B. The access point only receives 802.11g data rates.
C. The security settings in the telephone mismatch the access point.
D. The telephone transmit power is significantly lower than the t the access point

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 139
You connect via Telnet to a Cisco access point and enter the command show dot11 link test. Which output might you obtain?
A. signal-to-noise ratio
B. incoming and outgoing signal strength
C. TX packets dropped
D. RX packets per second

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 140
Refer to the exhibit. The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configurations of Router A and Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the sitE.to-site VPN between Router A and Router B.
What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?

A. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a Turbo ACL (150-199). ”
B. The IKE encryption methods on the two routers are different
C. the IPSec policy map names on the two routers are different.
D. the IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the Answer: interesting traffic.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

How many active VPN clients are currently connected to the 1841 ISR router?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the
tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

Which IP address or address range will be used when allocating an internal IP address to the VPN clients for the “test” VPN group?________________________________________________________________________
A. 10.1.1.100 to 10.1.1.200 I
B. 10.1-1.2 to 10.1.1.254
C. 192.168.1.1 to 192.168.1.100
D. 192.168.1.2 to 192.168.1.254
E. 192.168.1.1
F. 192.168.1.2

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

Which authentication method is used by the test” VPN group?
A. RSA Encrypted Nounce
B. RSA Digital Signature
C. PrE.Shared Key
D. Digital Certificate
E. DH2

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
You are the network consultant. You have a customer with a small network of 15 remote sites is trying to optimize its VPN by migrating some remote sites using Frame Relay connections to the Internet to using cable connections to the Internet. The keypoint for your customer is to save money. Only a moderate amount of IP traffic is passing through the network, most of which is from the remote sites to the central site. IPSec should be used to provide VPN functionality and basic confidentiality is desired..Considering the above requirements. Which solution would be the easiest for this customer to set up and manage?
A. point-to-point
B. partial mesh
C. point-to-multipoint
D. hub-and-spoke

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
In an infrastructure based on a wireless advanced feature set using lightweight access points, by which method is a rogue contained?

A. The WCS sends excessive traffic to the rogue thus overloading the access point.
B. The rogue MAC address is used to spoof broadcastdeassociation packets.
C. The rogue MAC address is used to spoof broadcastdeauthentication packets.
D. The WCS sends out excessive signals on the same channel when the rogue is detected.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
With industry-leading services and performance, the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switch is Cisco’s flagship switching solution. It delivers the most comprehensive feature sets for core, distribution, wiring closet, data center, enterprise WAN routing, and Metro-Ethernet deployments. Which layer you think is recommended that the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WLSM be placed?
A. core
B. distribution
C. access
D. presentation

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 147
The Cisco Lifecycle Services approach defines the activities needed to help you successfully deploy and operate Cisco technologies and optimize their performance throughout the lifecycle of your network. Which statement is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases?
A. initiation, prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
B. site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing, and operations
C. prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
D. deployment, testing, implementation, and production

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Which IP address or address range will be used when allocating an internal ip address to the VPN client for the test
A. 120.1.1.100 to 10.1.1.200
B. 10.1.1.2 to 10.1.1.254
C. 192.1681.1 to 192.1681.1.100
D. 192.1681.2 to 192.1681.1.254

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Which authentication method is used by the test VPN group?

A. RSA EncryptedNounce
B. RSA Digital Signature
C. Pre-shared key
D. DH2

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150

A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RA and RB. Given the debug output on RA, which two statements are true?(Choose two)
A. RA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
B. RA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
C. RA will form an adjacency with RB.
D. RAwill not form an adjacency with RB.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
You are the network administrator. There is one Gigabit Ethernet port on the Cisco CE520 used in the Smart Business Communications System. Which port role assignment would you make for?
A. Cisco Express 520
B. Cisco UC520
C. Cisco CE520
D. Cisco 871W
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Refer to the exhibit. CK-SA and CK-SC are running PVST+ STP, and CK-SB is running 802.1 Q STP. If the BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VU\N 2, then there is no blocking port in the VLAN 2 topology. The BPDU of VU\N 2 never makes a “full circle” around the topology; it is replaced by the VLAN 1 BPDU on the CK-SB-CK-SC link, because CK-SB runs only one STP merged with VU\N 1 STP of PVST+. Thus, there is a forwarding loop.

What does PVST+ do to correct this?
A. CK-SA sends PVST+ BPDUs ofVLAU 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SC. CK-SC will put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
B. CK-SB sends PVST+ BPDUs of VU\N 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SA) towards CK-SC. CK-SC will put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
C. CK-SC sends PVST+BPDUsofVU\N 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SC. CK-SAwill put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
D. CK-SA sends PVST+ BPDUs of VU\N 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SB. CK-SA will put port CK-C-CK-B into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
A wireless autonomous 1200 access point running core feature set in root mode has its SSID set to Factory_floor and provides connection to a repeater access point with its SSID set to factory_floor, if the root-mode access point is using channel 11 which channel will the repeater
access point use?
A. channel 11
B. channel 1 or 6
C. anynonoverlapping channel
D. The root access point and the repeater will negotiate this setting

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
The VPN server uses a preshared key for remote device authentication
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
A customer with a large enterprise network wants to allow employees to work from home over the Internet. The customer anticipates a large amount of traffic, predominantly toward the central site. The customer also requires a VPN using strong user authentication and encryption to protect highly sensitive data. Which solution best meets this customer’s requirements?
A. remote-access VPN with software encryption
B. remote-access VPN with hardware encryption
C. site-to-site VPN with hub-and-spoke tunnels using 3DES and pre-shared secrets
D. site-to-site Cisco Easy VPN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configurations of RA and RB. Traffic between PC1 and PC2 is not successfully establishing the site-to-site VPN between -RA and -RB. What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?
A. RAis using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while RB is using a Turbo ACL(150-199).
B. The IPSec encryption methods used by each router do not match.
C. The D-H Group settings on the two routers are the same. ”
D. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
You are the network consultant. When will you assess a customer’s current network infrastructure?
A. plan
B. design
C. operate
D. optimize

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
A client is experiencing lower throughput and more packet retransmits is one area of the wireless network. At these times, the client utility shows high signal strength but low signal quality. What may be causing this issue?
A. The client does not support Cisco Compatible Extensions version 2.
B. Diversity is not enabled in the access point.
C. The WDS is failing to register the client card in the WLSM.
D. The channel is set incorrectly in the access point or in the client configuration.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
Which statement is correct about the current address translation configurations on the security appliance?
A. Dynamic NAT is used to translate the 10.0.1.100 host on the inside interface to a global address of
192.168.1.1
B. Port AddressTranslation(PAT) is used to translate any host on the inside interface to the 192.168.1.100 global address.
C. Static NAT is used to translate the 172.16.1.2 host on thedmzl interface to a global address of
192.168.1.102
D. Dynamic NAT is used to translate any host ondmzl and dmz2 interfaces to a mapped address from the address from the address pool of 192.168.1.110 to 192.168.1.250 ”

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
VLAN Hopping is one of the primary VLAN based attacks used by hackers to infiltrate network security. VLAN hopping is used to attack a network by sending packets to a port which is generally not accessible.
VLAN hopping attacks are mainly conducted in the Dynamic Trunking Protocol and, in some cases; the attacks are targeted to the trunking encapsulation protocol (802.1 q or ISL).You worry about the switched infrastructure in an integrated network is vulnerable to VLAN hopping attacks. Which two configuration can be used to mitigate VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. switchporttrunk encapsulation
B. switchport mode trunk
C. switchport access vlan
D. switchport mode access

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
CiscoWorks SNMS is a part of the CiscoWorks family of products for managing small to large networks. CiscoWorks SIMMS is a new Web-based network management solution for small to medium-sized businesses, with 40 or fewer Cisco internetworking devices such as switches, routers, hubs, and access servers. CiscoWorks SNMS can also monitor third-party IT assets such as servers, applications, services, and printers A Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) trunk is typically the voice interconnect between any business and the outside world. Which network management tool is designed to allow businesses to manage up to 40 devices?
A. CiscoWorks Unrestricted
B. CiscoWorks WAN Management
C. CiscoWorks LAN Management
D. CiscoWorks SNMS

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which statement is correct about the information in the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager General and License Information screen?

A. The security appliance supports active/active failover only.
B. The security appliance supports 3DES-AES only.
C. The managed device is a Cisco ASA 5540 Security Appliance with VPN premium license enabled.
D. The managed device is Cisco PIX515E Security Appliance.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
Which three are different types of STP inconsistencies in a Layer 2 network?(Choose three) A. MAC inconsistency
B. Root inconsistency
C. EtherChannel inconsistency
D. type inconsistency

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
According to the error log, VLAN 1 is where the BPDU was received, and VLAN 2 is where the BPDU originated. When inconsistency is detected, what happens?
A. VLAN 1 is blocked, while VLAN 2 is forwarding
B. VLAN1 is blocked, while VLAN 2 is listening
C. Both VLANs are listening on the port from which this BPDU is send
D. Both VLANs are blocked on the port from which this BPDU is received

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Which is the current configured default gateway IP address on the security appliance?
A. 172.16.10.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 192.168.1.2
D. 10.0.1.1

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 166
Which statement is true about a Cisco Aironet 350 Series wireless client when its green LED appears to be off and its amber LED is blinking?
A. The client adapter is scanning for a network.
B. The client adapter is in ad hoc mode.
C. The client adapter is performing a self-test.
D. The client adapter is in power-save mode.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 167
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant. Your IT Manager tells you 802.11b telephone can receive an audio signal from an access point, but cannot send audio. What is the most likely reason?
A. The value of RSSI telephone is greater than 30.
B. The access point only receives 802.11g data rates.
C. The security settings in the telephone mismatch the access point.
D. The telephone transmit power is significantly lower than the t the access point

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 177
When you disable a rule the rule is NOT disabled until you verify your Security Policy.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 178
Static Source NAT translates public internal source IP addresses to private external source IP addresses.
A. True
B. False.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 179
What is the command that lists the interfaces to which VPN-1/FireWall-1 bound?
A. Fw ct1 iflist
B. Ifconfig -a
C. Ifconfig \all
D. Netstat -m
E. Cp bind -all

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 180
Your customer has created a rule so that every time a user wants to go to Internet, that user must be authenticated. Which if the following is the best authentication method for roaming users, such as doctors updating patient records at various floor stations in a hospital?
A. Session
B. User
C. Client
D. Connection
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 181
Which command utility allows verification of the Security Policy installed on a firewall module?
A. Fw ct1 pstat.
B. Fw printlic.
C. Fw stat.
D. Fw ver.
E. Fw pol.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 182
You are a firewall administrator with one Management Server managing 3 different Enforcement Modules. One of the Enforcement Modules does NOT show up in the dialog box when attempting to install a Security Policy. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. No master file was created.
B. License for multiple firewalls has expired.
C. The firewall has NOT been rebooted.
D. The firewall was NOT listed in the Install On column of the rule.
E. The firewall is listed as “Managed by another Management Module (external)” in the Workstation Properties dialog box.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 183
In the Install On column of a rule, when you select a specific firewall object as the only configuration object, that rule is enforced on all firewalls with in the network, with related configurations.
A. True
B. False.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 184
As an administrator, you want to force your users to authenticate. You have selected Client Authentication as your authentication scheme. Users will be using a Web browser to authenticate. On which TCP port will authentication be performed?
A. 23
B. 80
C. 259
D. 261
E. 900

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 185
Once installed the VPN-1/FireWall-1 NG resides directly below what layer of the TCP/IP stack?

A. Data
B. Transport
C. Physical
D. Application
E. Network

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 186
Client Authentication rules should be placed above the Stealth rule, so users can authenticate to the firewall.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 187
The following rule base tells you any automatically created NAT rules have simply hidden but have not been deleted from the Rule Base.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 188
You are using static Destination NAT. You have VPN-1/FireWall-1 NG running on Windows NT/Solaris platform. By default, routing occurs after the address translation when the packet is passing form the client towards the server.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 189
Which if the following statements are FALSE?
A. Dynamic NAT cannot be used for protocols where the port number cannot be changed.
B. Dynamic NAT cannot be used when an external server must distinguish between clients bases on their IP addresses.
C. With Dynamic NAT, packet’s source port numbers are modified.
D. In Dynamic NAT, public internal addresses are hidden behind a single private external address using dynamically assigned port numbers to distinguish between them.
E. Dynamically assigned post numbers are used to distinguish between hidden private addresses.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 190
When you modify a User Template, any users already operating under that template will be updates to the new template properties.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 191
Installation time for creating network objects will decrease if you list machine names and IP addresses in the hosts files.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 192
Consider the following network: No Original Packet Translated Packet Source Destination Service Source Destination Service The administrator wants to take all the local and DMZ hosts behind the gateway except the HTTP server
192.9.200.9. The http server will be providing public services and must be accessible from Internet. Select the best NAT solution below that meets these requirements.
A. Use automatic NAT that creates a static NAT to the HTTP server.
B. To hide the private addresses set the address translation for Private Net.
C. To hide the private address set the address translation for 192.9.200.0.
D. Use automatic NAT rule creation to hide NAT Local net and private Net.
E. Both A and D.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 193
What NAT made is necessary if you want to start and HTTP session on a Reserved or Illegal IP address?
A. Static Source.
B. Static destination.
C. Dynamic
D. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 194
With SecureUpdate you are able to: (Select all that apply)
A. Change Central Licenses to Local Licenses
B. Track current installed versions of Check Point and OPSEC products
C. Update Check Point and OPSEC software remotely from a central location
D. Centrally manage Licenses
E. Perform a new installation of VPN-1/FW-1 remotely

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 195
Which is false about SIC communications?
A. A.VPN Certificates, such as those for IKE are used for secure communications
B. B.The Policy Editior initiates an SSL based connection with the Management Server
C. The Policy Editor must be defined as being authorised to use the Management Server
D. The Management Server verifies that the Clients IP address belongs to an authorised Policy Editor Client

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 182
Which command allows verification of the Security Policy name and install date on a Security Gateway?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 73 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
A. fw show policy
B. fw ctl pstat -policy
C. fw stat -l
D. fwver-p

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 183
You have two rules, ten users, and two user groups in a Security Policy. You create database version 1 for this configuration. You then delete two existing users and add a new user group. You modify one rule and add two new rules to the Rule Base. You save the Security Policy and create database version 2. After awhile, you decide to roll back to version 1 to use the Rule Base, but you want to keep your user database. How can you do this?
A. Run fwm_dbexport to export the user database. Select restore the entire database in the Database Revision screen. Then, run fwm_dbimport.
B. Restore the entire database, except the user database, and then create the new user and user group.
C. Restore the entire database, except the user database.
D. Run fwm dbexport -l filename. Restore the database. Then, run fwm dbimport -l filename to import the users.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 184
Which feature or command provides the easiest path for Security Administrators to revert to earlier versions of the same Security Policy and objects configuration?
A. Policy Package management
B. dbexport/dbimport
C. Database Revision Control
D. upgrade_export/upgrade_import

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 185
Your Security Management Server fails and does not reboot. One of your remote Security Gateways managed by the Security Management Server reboots. What occurs with the remote Gateway after reboot?
A. Since the Security Management Server is not available, the remote Gateway cannot fetch the Security Policy. Therefore, no traffic is allowed through the Gateway.
B. Since the Security Management Server is not available, the remote Gateway cannot fetch the Security Policy. Therefore, all traffic is allowed through the Gateway.
C. Since the Security Management Server is not available, the remote Gateway uses the local Security Policy, but does not log traffic.
D. The remote Gateway fetches the last installed Security Policy locally and passes traffic normally. The Gateway will log locally, since the Security Management Server is not available.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 186
How can you configure an application to automatically launch on the Security Management Server when traffic is dropped or accepted by a rule in the Security Policy?
A. Pop-up alert script
B. User-defined alert script
C. Custom scripts cannot be executed through alert scripts
D. SNMP trap alert script

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 187
Which of the following is NOT useful to verify whether or NOT a Security Policy is active on a Gateway?
A. Check the name of Security Policy of the appropriate Gateway in Smart Monitor.
B. Cpstat fw ?f policy
C. fw stat
D. fw ctl get string active_secpol “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 75 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 188
Of the following, what parameters will not be preserved when using Database Revision Control? 1) Simplified mode Rule Bases 2) Traditional mode Rule Bases 3) Secure Platform WebUI Users 4) SIC certificates 5) SmartView Tracker audit logs 6) SmartView Tracker traffic logs 7) Implied Rules 8) IPS Profiles 9) Blocked connections 10) Manual NAT rules 11) VPN communities 12) Gateway route table 13) Gateway licenses
A. 3, 4, 5, 6, 9, 12, 13
B. 5, 6, 9, 12, 13
C. 1, 2, 8, 10, 11
D. 2, 4, 7, 10, 11

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 189
Which of the following describes the default behavior of an R75 Security Gateway?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 76 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
A. Traffic is filtered using controlled port scanning.
B. All traffic is expressly permitted via explicit rules.
C. Traffic not explicitly permitted is dropped.
D. IP protocol types listed as secure are allowed by default, i.e. ICMP, TCP, UDP sessions are inspected.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 190
When you use the Global Properties’ default settings on R75, which type of traffic will be dropped if no explicit rule allows the traffic?
A. SmartUpdate connections
B. Firewall logging and ICA key-exchange information
C. Outgoing traffic originating from the Security Gateway
D. RIP traffic

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 191
You have installed a R75 Security Gateway on SecurePlatform. To manage the Gateway from the enterprise Security Management Server, you create a new Gateway object and Security Policy. When you install the new Policy from the Policy menu, the Gateway object does not appear in the Install Policy window as a target. What is the problem?
A. The new Gateway’s temporary license has expired.
B. The object was created with Node > Gateway.
C. The Gateway object is not specified in the first policy rule column Install On.
D. No Masters file is created for the new Gateway.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 192
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 77 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam Select the correct statement about Secure Internal Communications (SIC) Certificates. SIC Certificates:
A. Are used for securing internal network communications between the SmartDashboard and the Security Management Server.
B. For R75 Security Gateways are created during the Security Management Server installation.
C. Decrease network security by securing administrative communication among the Security Management Servers and the Security Gateway.
D. Uniquely identify Check Point enabled machines; they have the same function as VPN Certificates.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 193
John is the Security Administrator in his company. He installs a new R75 Security Management Server and a new R75 Gateway. He now wants to establish SIC between them. After entering the activation key, the message “Trust established” is displayed in SmartDashboard, but SIC still does not seem to work because the policy won’t install and interface fetching still does not work. What might be a reason for this?
A. This must be a human error.
B. The Gateway’s time is several days or weeks in the future and the SIC certificate is not yet valid.
C. SIC does not function over the network.
D. It always works when the trust is established.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 194
A _______ rule is used to prevent all traffic going to the R75 Security Gateway.
A. Cleanup
B. Reject
C. Stealth
D. IPS “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 78 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 195
In a distributed management environment, the administrator has removed the default check from Accept Control Connections under the Policy / Global Properties / FireWall tab. In order for the Security Management Server to install a policy to the Firewall, an explicit rule must be created to allow the server to communicate to the Security Gateway on port ______.
A. 256
B. 80
C. 900
D. 259

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 196
Your internal network is configured to be 10.1.1.0/24. This network is behind your perimeter R75 Gateway, which connections to your ISP provider. How do you configure the Gateway to allow this network to go out to the internet?
A. Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the internal interface of your perimeter Gateway.
B. Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the external IP address of your perimeter Gateway.
C. Use automatic Static NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24.
D. Do nothing, as long as 10.1.1.0 network has the correct default Gateway.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 197
Which specific R75 GUI would you use to add an address translation rule?
A. SmartConsole “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 79 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
B. SmartDashboard
C. SmartNAT
D. SmartView Monitor

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 198
You are a Security Administrator who has installed Security Gateway R75 on your network. You need to allow a specific IP address range for a partner site to access your intranet Web server. To limit the partner’s access for HTTP and FTP only, you did the following:
1.
Created manual Static NAT rules for the Web server.

2.
Created the following settings in the Global Properties’ Network Address Translation screen
-Allow bi-directional NAT*

Translate destination on client side

A.
Yes, This will ensure that traffic only matches the specific rule configured for this traffic, and that the Gateway translates the traffic after accepting the packet.

B.
Yes, Both of these settings are only application to automatically NAT rules.

C.
No, The first setting is not applicable. The second setting will reduce performance, by translating traffic in the kernel nearest the intranet server.

D.
No. The first setting is only applicable to automatic NAT rules. The second setting is necessary to make sure there are no conflicts between NAT and anti-spoofing.
Do you above settings limit the partner’s access?

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 199
You enable Automatic Static NAT on an internal host node object with a private IP address of 10.10.10.5, which is NATed into 216.216.216.5. (You use the default settings in Global Properties / NAT.)
When you run fw monitor on the R75 Security Gateway and then start a new HTTP connection from host
10.10.10.5 to browse the Internet, at what point in the monitor output will you observe the HTTP SYN-ACK packet translated from 216.216.216.5 back into 10.10.10.5?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 80 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
A. i=inbound kernel, before the virtual machine
B. O=outbound kernel, after the virtual machine
C. o=outbound kernel, before the virtual machine
D. I=inbound kernel, after the virtual machine

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 200
You have configured a remote site Gateway that supports your boss’s access from his home office using a DSL dialup connection. Everything worked fine yesterday, but today all connectivity is lost. Your initial investigation results in “nobody has touched anything”, which you can support by taking a look in SmartView Tracker Management. What is the problem and what can be done about it?
A. You cannot use NAT and a dialup connection.
B. The NAT configuration is not correct; you can only use private IP addresses in a static NAT setup.
C. A static NAT setup may not work with DSL, since the external IP may change. Hide NAT behind the Gateway is the preferred method here.
D. According to published limitations of Security Gateway R75, there’s a bug with NAT. A restart of the Gateway will help here.

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 26
A security administrator of a large private firm is researching and putting together a proposal to purchase an IPS. The specific IPS type has not been selected, and the security administrator needs to gather information from several vendors to determine a specific product. Which of the following documents would assist in choosing a specific brand and model?
A. RFC
B. RTO
C. RFQ
D. RFI

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 27
Wireless users are reporting issues with the company’s video conferencing and VoIP systems. The security administrator notices DOS attacks on the network that are affecting the company’s VoIP system (i.e. premature call drops and garbled call signals). The security administrator also notices that the SIP servers are unavailable during these attacks. Which of the following security controls will MOST likely mitigate the VoIP DOS attacks on the network? (Select TWO).
A. Configure 802.11b on the network
B. Configure 802.1q on the network
C. Configure 802.11e on the network
D. Update the firewall managing the SIP servers
E. Update the HIDS managing the SIP servers

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 28
A company has decided to use the SDLC for the creation and production of a new information system. The security administrator is training all users on how to protect company information while using the new system, along with being able to recognize social engineering attacks. Senior Management must also formally approve of the system prior to it going live. In which of the following phases would these security controls take place?
A. Operations and Maintenance
B. Implementation
C. Acquisition and Development
D. Initiation Correct Answer: B QUESTION 29
A company contracts with a third party to develop a new web application to process credit cards. Which of the following assessments will give the company the GREATEST level of assurance for the web application?
A. Social Engineering
B. Penetration Test
C. Vulnerability Assessment
D. Code Review Correct Answer: D QUESTION 30
As part of the testing phase in the SDLC, a software developer wants to verify that an application is properly handling user error exceptions. Which of the following is the BEST tool or process for the developer use?
A. SRTM review
B. Fuzzer
C. Vulnerability assessment
D. HTTP interceptor Correct Answer: B QUESTION 31
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate control measure for lost mobile devices?
A. Disable unnecessary wireless interfaces such as Bluetooth.
B. Reduce the amount of sensitive data stored on the device.
C. Require authentication before access is given to the device.
D. Require that the compromised devices be remotely wiped.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective solution for sanitizing a DVD with sensitive information on it?
A. Write over the data
B. Purge the data
C. Incinerate the DVD
D. Shred the DVD Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
A network engineer at Company ABC observes the following raw HTTP request:
GET /disp_reports.php?SectionEntered=57&GroupEntered=-1&report_type=alerts&to_date=01- 01-0101&Run= Run&UserEntered=dsmith&SessionID=5f04189bc&from_date=31-10-2010&TypesEntered=1 HTTP/1.1
Host: test.example.net Accept: */* Accept-Language: en Connection: close Cookie: java14=1; java15=1; java16=1; js=1292192278001;
Which of the following should be the engineer’s GREATEST concern?
A. The HTTPS is not being enforced so the system is vulnerable.
B. The numerical encoding on the session ID is limited to hexadecimal characters, making it susceptible to a brute force attack.
C. Sensitive data is transmitted in the URL.
D. The dates entered are outside a normal range, which may leave the system vulnerable to a denial of service attack.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
Driven mainly by cost, many companies outsource computing jobs which require a large amount of processor cycles over a short duration to cloud providers. This allows the company to avoid a large investment in computing resources which will only be used for a short time.
Assuming the provisioned resources are dedicated to a single company, which of the following is the MAIN vulnerability associated with on-demand provisioning?
A. Traces of proprietary data which can remain on the virtual machine and be exploited
B. Remnants of network data from prior customers on the physical servers during a compute job
C. Exposure of proprietary data when in-transit to the cloud provider through IPSec tunnels
D. Failure of the de-provisioning mechanism resulting in excessive charges for the resources

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
A security administrator needs a secure computing solution to use for all of the company’s security audit log storage, and to act as a central server to execute security functions from. Which of the following is the BEST option for the server in this scenario?
A. A hardened Red Hat Enterprise Linux implementation running a software firewall
B. Windows 7 with a secure domain policy and smartcard based authentication
C. A hardened bastion host with a permit all policy implemented in a software firewall
D. Solaris 10 with trusted extensions or SE Linux with a trusted policy

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
After implementing port security, restricting all network traffic into and out of a network, migrating to IPv6, installing NIDS, firewalls, spam and application filters, a security administer is convinced that the network is secure. The administrator now focuses on securing the hosts on the network, starting with the servers.
Which of the following is the MOST complete list of end-point security software the administrator could plan to implement?
A. Anti-malware/virus/spyware/spam software, as well as a host based firewall and strong, two- factor authentication.
B. Anti-virus/spyware/spam software, as well as a host based IDS, firewall, and strong three- factor authentication.
C. Anti-malware/virus/spyware/spam software, as well as a host based firewall and biometric authentication.
D. Anti-malware/spam software, as well as a host based firewall and strong, three-factor authentication.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
A security architect is assigned to a major software development project. The software development team has a history of writing bug prone, inefficient code, with multiple security flaws in every release. The security architect proposes implementing secure coding standards to the project manager. The secure coding standards will contain detailed standards for:
A. error handling, input validation, memory use and reuse, race condition handling, commenting, and preventing typical security problems.
B. error prevention, requirements validation, memory use and reuse, commenting typical security problems, and testing code standards.
C. error elimination, trash collection, documenting race conditions, peer review, and typical security problems.
D. error handling, input validation, commenting, preventing typical security problems, managing customers, and documenting extra requirements.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
A number of security incidents have been reported involving mobile web-based code developed by a consulting company. Performing a root cause analysis, the security administrator of the consulting company discovers that the problem is a simple programming error that results in extra information being loaded into the memory when the proper format is selected by the user. After repeating the process several times, the security administrator is able to execute unintentional instructions through this method. Which of the following BEST describes the problem that is occurring, a good mitigation technique to use to prevent future occurrences, and why it a security concern?
A. Problem: Cross-site scripting Mitigation Technique. Input validation Security Concern: Decreases the company’s profits and cross-site scripting can enable malicious actors to compromise the confidentiality of network connections or interrupt the availability of the network.
B. Problem: Buffer overflow Mitigation Technique: Secure coding standards Security Concern: Exposes the company to liability buffer overflows and can enable malicious actors to compromise the confidentiality/availability of the data.
C. Problem: SQL injection Mitigation Technique: Secure coding standards Security Concern: Exposes the company to liability SQL injection and can enable malicious actors to compromise the confidentiality of data or interrupt the availability of a system.
D. Problem: Buffer overflow Mitigation Technique: Output validation Security Concern: Exposing the company to public scrutiny buffer overflows can enable malicious actors to interrupt the availability of a system.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 39
A security administrator has been conducting a security assessment of Company XYZ for the past two weeks. All of the penetration tests and other assessments have revealed zero flaws in the systems at Company XYZ. However, Company XYZ reports that it has been the victim of numerous security incidents in the past six months. In each of these incidents, the criminals have managed to exfiltrate large volumes of data from the secure servers at the company. Which of the following techniques should the investigation team consider in the next phase of their assessment in hopes of uncovering the attack vector the criminals used?
A. Vulnerability assessment
B. Code review
C. Social engineering
D. Reverse engineering

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
A security manager at Company ABC, needs to perform a risk assessment of a new mobile device which the Chief Information Officer (CIO) wants to immediately deploy to all employees in the company. The product is commercially available, runs a popular mobile operating system, and can connect to IPv6 networks wirelessly. The model the CIO wants to procure also includes the upgraded 160GB solid state hard drive. The producer of the device will not reveal exact numbers but experts estimate that over 73 million of the devices have been sold worldwide. Which of the following is the BEST list of factors the security manager should consider while performing a risk assessment?
A. Ability to remotely wipe the devices, apply security controls remotely, and encrypt the SSD; the track record of the vendor in publicizing and correcting security flaws in their products; predicted costs associated with maintaining, integrating and securing the devices.
B. Ability to remotely administer the devices, apply security controls remotely, and remove the SSD; the track record of the vendor in securely implementing IPv6 with IPSec; predicted costs associated with securing the devices.
C. Ability to remotely monitor the devices, remove security controls remotely, and decrypt the SSD; the track record of the vendor in publicizing and preventing security flaws in their products; predicted costs associated with maintaining, destroying and tracking the devices.
D. Ability to remotely sanitize the devices, apply security controls locally, encrypt the SSD; the track record of the vendor in adapting the open source operating system to their platform; predicted costs associated with inventory management, maintaining, integrating and securing the devices.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
A newly-appointed risk management director for the IT department at Company XYZ, a major pharmaceutical manufacturer, needs to conduct a risk analysis regarding a new system which the developers plan to bring on-line in three weeks. The director begins by reviewing the thorough and well-written report from the independent contractor who performed a security assessment of the system. The report details what seems to be a manageable volume of infrequently exploited security vulnerabilities. The likelihood of a malicious attacker exploiting one of the vulnerabilities is low; however, the director still has some reservations about approving the system because of which of the following?
A. The resulting impact of even one attack being realized might cripple the company financially.
B. Government health care regulations for the pharmaceutical industry prevent the director from approving a system with vulnerabilities.
C. The director is new and is being rushed to approve a project before an adequate assessment has been performed.
D. The director should be uncomfortable accepting any security vulnerabilities and should find time to correct them before the system is deployed.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
A small company has a network with 37 workstations, 3 printers, a 48 port switch, an enterprise class router, and a firewall at the boundary to the ISP. The workstations have the latest patches and all have up-to-date anti-virus software. User authentication is a two-factor system with fingerprint scanners and passwords. Sensitive data on each workstation is encrypted. The network is configured to use IPv4 and is a standard Ethernet network. The network also has a captive portal based wireless hot-spot to accommodate visitors. Which of the following is a problem with the security posture of this company?
A. No effective controls in place
B. No transport security controls are implemented
C. Insufficient user authentication controls are implemented
D. IPv6 is not incorporated in the network
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
Statement: “The system shall implement measures to notify system administrators prior to a security incident occurring.”
Which of the following BEST restates the above statement to allow it to be implemented by a team of software developers?
A. The system shall cease processing data when certain configurable events occur.
B. The system shall continue processing in the event of an error and email the security administrator the error logs.
C. The system shall halt on error.
D. The system shall throw an error when specified incidents pass a configurable threshold.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
A corporate executive lost their smartphone while on an overseas business trip. The phone was equipped with file encryption and secured with a strong passphrase. The phone contained over 60GB of proprietary data. Given this scenario, which of the following is the BEST course of action?
A. File an insurance claim and assure the executive the data is secure because it is encrypted.
B. Immediately implement a plan to remotely wipe all data from the device.
C. Have the executive change all passwords and issue the executive a new phone.
D. Execute a plan to remotely disable the device and report the loss to the police.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
A user logs into domain A using a PKI certificate on a smartcard protected by an 8 digit PIN. The credential is cached by the authenticating server in domain A. Later, the user attempts to access a resource in domain B. This initiates a request to the original authenticating server to somehow attest to the resource server in the second domain that the user is in fact who they claim to be.
Which of the following is being described?
A. Authentication
B. Authorization
C. SAML
D. Kerberos

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
A certain script was recently altered by the author to meet certain security requirements, and needs to be executed on several critical servers. Which of the following describes the process of ensuring that the script being used was not altered by anyone other than the author?
A. Digital encryption
B. Digital signing
C. Password entropy
D. Code signing

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 47
A company has asked their network engineer to list the major advantages for implementing a virtual environment in regards to cost. Which of the following would MOST likely be selected?
A. Ease of patch testing
B. Reducing physical footprint
C. Reduced network traffic
D. Isolation of applications

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
The security administrator has been tasked with providing a solution that would not only eliminate the need for physical desktops, but would also centralize the location of all desktop applications, without losing physical control of any network devices. Which of the following would the security manager MOST likely implement?
A. VLANs
B. VDI
C. PaaS
D. IaaS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
A company has decided to relocate and the security manager has been tasked to perform a site survey of the new location to help in the design of the physical infrastructure. The current location has video surveillance throughout the building and entryways.
The following requirements must be met:
Able to log entry of all employees in and out of specific areas

Access control into and out of all sensitive areas

Tailgating prevention
Which of the following would MOST likely be implemented to meet the above requirements and provide a secure solution? (Select TWO).
A. Discretionary Access control
B. Man trap
C. Visitor logs
D. Proximity readers
E. Motion detection sensors

Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 31
Neil works as a project manager for SoftTech Inc. He is working with Tom, the COO of his company, on several risks within the project. Tom understands that through qualitative analysis Neil has identified many risks in the project. Tom’s concern, however, is that the priority list of these risk events are sorted in “high-risk,” “moderate-risk,” and “low-risk” as conditions apply within the project. Tom wants to know that is there any other objective on which Neil can make the priority list for project risks. What will be Neil’s reply to Tom?
A. Risk may be listed by the responses inthe near-term
B. Risks may be listed by categories
C. Risks may be listed by the additional analysis and response
D. Risks may be listed by priority separately for schedule, cost, and performance
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
In which type of access control do user ID and password system come under?
A. Administrative
B. Technical
C. Power
D. Physical

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
You and your project team are identifying the risks that may exist within your project. Some of the risks are small risks that won’t affect your project much if they happen. What should you do with these identified risk events?
A. These risks can be accepted.
B. These risks can be added to a low priority risk watch list.
C. All risks must have a valid, documented risk response.
D. These risks can be dismissed.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
Your project uses a piece of equipment that if the temperature of the machine goes above 450 degree Fahrenheit the machine will overheat and have to be shut down for 48 hours. Should this machine overheat even once it will delay the project’s end date. You work with your project to create a response that should the temperature of the machine reach 430, the machine will be paused for at least an hour to cool it down. The temperature of 430 is called what?
A. Risk identification
B. Risk response
C. Risk trigger
D. Risk event

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35
Adrian is the project manager of the NHP Project. In her project there are several work packages that deal with electrical wiring. Rather than to manage the risk internally she has decided to hire a vendor to complete all work packages that deal with the electrical wiring. By removing the risk internally to a licensed electrician Adrian feels more comfortable with project team being safe. What type of risk response has Adrian used in this example?
A. Mitigation
B. Transference
C. Avoidance
D. Acceptance

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
James work as an IT systems personnel in SoftTech Inc. He performs the following tasks:
Runs regular backups and routine tests of the validity of the backup data. Performs data restoration from
the backups whenever required. Maintains the retained records in accordance with the established
information classification policy.
What is the role played by James in the organization?

A. Manager
B. User
C. Owner
D. Custodian

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Which of the following is an entry in an object’s discretionary access control list (DACL) that grants permissions to a user or group?
A. Access control entry (ACE)
B. Discretionary access control entry (DACE)
C. Access control list (ACL)
D. Security Identifier (SID)

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
You are the project manager for your organization. You have identified a risk event you’re your organization could manage internally or externally. If you manage the event internally it will cost your project $578,000 and an additional $12,000 per month the solution is in use. A vendor can manage the risk event for you. The vendor will charge $550,000 and $14,500 per month that the solution is in use. How many months will you need to use the solution to pay for the internal solution in comparison to the vendor’s solution?
A. Approximately 13 months
B. Approximately 11 months
C. Approximately 15 months
D. Approximately 8 months

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Which of the following refers to the ability to ensure that the data is not modified or tampered with?
A. Confidentiality
B. Availability
C. Integrity
D. Non-repudiation

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Management wants you to create a visual diagram of what resources will be utilized in the project deliverables. What type of a chart is management asking you to create?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Resource breakdown structure
C. RACI chart
D. Roles and responsibility matrix

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
You are preparing to start the qualitative risk analysis process for your project. You will be relying on some organizational process assets to influence the process. Which one of the following is NOT a probable reason for relying on organizational process assets as an input for qualitative risk analysis?
A. Information on prior, similar projects
B. Review of vendor contracts to examine risks in past projects
C. Risk databases that may be available from industry sources
D. Studies of similar projects by risk specialists
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
System Authorization is the risk management process. System Authorization Plan (SAP) is a
comprehensive and uniform approach to the System Authorization Process. What are the different phases
of System Authorization Plan?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Pre-certification
B. Certification
C. Post-certification
D. Authorization
E. Post-Authorization

Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 43
A part of a project deals with the hardware work. As a project manager, you have decided to hire a company to deal with all hardware work on the project. Which type of risk response is this?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Exploit
D. Transference

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Risks with low ratings of probability and impact are included on a ____ for future monitoring.
A. Watchlist
B. Risk alarm
C. Observation list
D. Risk register

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 45
Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system, network, or Web
application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Which of the following areas can be
exploited in a penetration test?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Social engineering
B. File and directory permissions
C. Buffer overflows
D. Kernel flaws
E. Race conditions
F. Information system architectures
G. Trojan horses

Correct Answer: ABCDEG

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QUESTION 21
One class B network 155. 16. 0. 0, the mask is 255. 255. 255. 192. Then subnet quantity available is ( ) , the host quantity in every subnet at most is ( )
A. 512 126
B. 1024 64
C. 1024 62
D. 256 254
E. 192 254
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
For network segment 192.168.2.16/28, how many hosts it can hold at most?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 15
D. 14
E. 7
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
The IP address 0. 0. 0.0 indicates ( ).
A. Network address
B. Broadcast address of specially designated network segment
C. All networks
D. Broadcast address of all nodes of local network segment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
What is the network address for 190. 233. 27. 13/16?
A. 190. 0. 0. 0
B. 190. 233. 0. 0
C. 190. 233. 27. 0
D. 190. 233. 27. 1
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Which of the following address types are reserved for multicast use?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class E
D. Class D
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 26
Which is the default network mask length of 219.25.23.56?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24

D. 32
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 27
What is the maximum bits of a Class B address can be used for subnet ?
A. 8
B. 14
C. 16

D. 22
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
The subnet mask of a class a address is 250. 205. 240. 0, how many bits are used to divide subnet?
A. 4
B. 0
C. 9

D. 12
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 29
Which of the following statements are correct regarding OSPF Router LSA ?
A. Every router running OSPF must generate Router LSA.
B. In broadcast and NBMA network, only DR0ther generates Router LSA
C. Router LSA describes link states of the router in area.
D. Router LSA is flooded in the whole AS.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 30
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Network LSA in OSPF network?
A. Network LSA is generated by ABR.
B. Only the router which connects NBMA or Broadcast Network may generate Network LSA.
C. DR uses Network LSA to describe routers that have established adjacency relation with it in the network.
D. Network LSA is flooded in the whole AS.

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 31
Which type of LSA is only used to calculate external route?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
E. Type 5

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 32
Which of the followings are OSPF packet type ?
A. LSA
B. LS Request

C. LSP
D. LS Update
E. LS Ack
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 33
Which of the following elements together uniquely identify a LSA?
A. LS type
B. Link state ID
C. Advertising Router
D. LS Sequence number

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 34
Which of the following statements are correct regarding how OSPF detects old and duplicate LSAs?
A. The smaller the sequence number, the more recent the LSA.
B. The smaller the LS age, the more recent the LSA.
C. When router generates a new LSA at the first time, it will use Ox80000001 as the sequence number.
D. An LSA can be flushed from routing domain by setting its LSA age to \4axage.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 35
Which of the following statements are correct regarding intra-area route calculation of OSPF?
A. Every OSPF router only uses one Router LSA to describe local active link state for one area.
B. Every OSPF uses more than one Router LSA to describe local active link state for one area.
C. One Router LSA only describes one link.
D. One Router LSA describes more than one link.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 36
In OSPF, the process of calculating shortest path tree can be divided into two phases, calculate Transit
node first,
then calculate Stub network.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 37
In the process of calculating SPF tree, the cost from a node to root node equals to metric listed in the Router LSA generated by the node.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38
In OSPF protocol, which of the following elements are used to describe one link?
A. Link ID
B. Data
C. Type
D. Metric

Correct Answer: ABCD QUESTION 39
OSPF uses SPF algorithm to calculate SPF tree according to topology. What is the node of the SPF tree?
A. Router
B. Router and network segment
C. Port and network segment
D. Router and port

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 40
In OSPF protocol, which of the following elements are used by Network LSA to describe broadcast network segment or NBMA network segment?
A. Link ID
B. Net mask
C. Attached Router list
D. Metric

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 41
Which of the connection types that Router LSA can describe?
A. Point-to-point
B. Stub
C. Transit
D. Virtual link Correct Answer: ABCD

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