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Free New Dumps Version] Best Microsoft 70-475 Dumps Study Guide With 100% Pass Rate Designing and Implementing Big Data Analytics Solutions [Video]

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Exam Code: 70-475
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing Big Data Analytics Solutions
Q&As: 42

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Free Pass4itsure 70-475 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION NO: 104
An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to suffer. What imbalance does this represent?
A. Excessive focus on quality
B. Excessively reactive
C. Excessively proactive
D. Excessive focus on cost
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 105
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfillment?
A. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
C. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested
D. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
70-475 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 106
What is the definition of an Alert?
A. An error message to the user of an application
B. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
C. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
D. A type of Incident
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 107

Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services”. These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following?
A. Functions and Processes
B. Markets and Customers
C. Applications and Infrastructure
D. People, products and technology
70-475 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 108
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?
A. Business Relationship Management
B. Continual Service Improvement
C. Service Level Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 109
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
B. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
C. The definition of Process Control is “The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice”
D. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business objectives
70-475 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 110
How is the Service Catalogue used to add value to the service provider organization?
A. Providing a central source of information on the IT services delivered
B. Showing the business impact of a change
C. Displaying the relationships between configuration items
D. To predict the root cause of issues in the IT infrastructure
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 111
Which process is responsible for monitoring an IT Service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits?
A. Service Level Management
B. Performance Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Event Management
70-475 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 112
In many organizations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk. It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:
A. Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line
B. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
C. Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line
D. Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 113
Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute is?
A. Whether to buy an application or build it
B. Should application development be outsourced
C. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be
D. Where the vendor of an application is located
70-475 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 114
Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2. What services to offer and to whom?
3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. All of the above
D. 3 only
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 115
Removing or restricting rights to use an IT Service is the responsibility of which process?
A. Access Management
B. Incident Management
C. Request Fulfillment
D. Change Management
70-475 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 116
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. Delivers specific results
B. A method of structuring an organization
C. Responds to specific events
D. It is measurable
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 117
Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
A. Applications and Infrastructure
B. Services and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
70-475 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 118
Staff in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?
A. Extreme internal focus
B. Extreme focus on cost
C. Extreme focus on responsiveness
D. Vendor focused
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 119
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. Delivers specific results
B. Responds to specific events
C. It is measurable
D. A method of structuring an organization
70-475 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 120
Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in a Network Operations Centre?
A. IT Operations Management
B. Applications Management
C. Service Desk
D. Technical Management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 121
Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?
A. Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts.
B. Development, negotiation and agreement of Organizational Level Agreements
C. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements.
D. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Portfolio
70-475 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 122
Which of the following areas would not be supported by a Service Design tool?
A. Software design
B. Process design
C. Environment design
D. Strategy design
70-475 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 123
Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?
A. Governance
B. Service Level Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Service Strategy
Answer: B

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[Free New Dumps Version] Latest Microsoft 70-533 Dumps Practice Test For Download on Youtube Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions

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Exam Code: 70-533
Exam Name: Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions
Q&As: 205

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Question No : 39 A company has an Azure subscription with four virtual machines (VM) that are provisioned in an availability set. The VMs support an existing web service. The company expects additional demand for the web service. You add 10 new VMs to the environment.
You need to configure the environment. How many Update Domains (UDs) and Fault Domains (FDs) should you create?
A. 2 UDs and 5 FDs
B. 5 UDs and 2 FDs
C. 14 UDs and 2 FDs
D. 14 UDs and 14 FDs
70-533 exam Answer: B
Question No : 40 You administer an Azure solution that uses a virtual network named FabVNet. FabVNet
has a single subnet named Subnet-1. You discover a high volume of network traffic among four virtual machines (VMs) that are part of Subnet-1. You need to isolate the network traffic among the four VMs. You want to achieve this goal with the least amount of downtime and impact on users. What should you do?
A. Create a new subnet in the existing virtual network and move the four VMs to the new subnet.
B. Create a site-to-site virtual network and move the four VMs to your datacenter.
C. Create a new virtual network and move the VMs to the new network.
D. Create an availability set and associate the four VMs with that availability set.
Answer: C
Question No : 41 Your company network includes users in multiple directories. You plan to publish a software-as-a-service application named SaasApp1 to Azure Active Directory. You need to ensure that all users can access SaasApp1. What should you do?
A. Configure the Federation Metadata URL
B. Register the application as a web application.
C. Configure the application as a multi-tenant.
D. Register the application as a native client application.
70-533 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
* When you get deeper into using Windows Azure Active Directory, you’ll run into new
terminology. For instance, is called “directory” is also referred to as a Windows Azure AD
Tenant or simply as “tenant.” This stems from the fact that WAAD ()Windows Azure Active
Directory is a shared service for many clients. In this service, every client gets its own
separate space for which the client is the tenant. In the case of WAAD this space is a
directory. This might be a little confusing, because you can create multiple directories, in
WAAD terminology multiple tenants, even though you are a single client.
* Multitenant Applications in Azure
A multitenant application is a shared resource that allows separate users, or “tenants,” to
view the application as though it was their own. A typical scenario that lends itself to a
multitenant application is one in which all users of the application may wish to customize
the user experience but otherwise have the same basic business requirements. Examples
of large multitenant applications are Office 365, Outlook.com, and visualstudio.com.
References:
QUESTION 42
In a master-detail relationship, what happens to the child records if the parent record is deleted?
A. Parent record deletion fails.
B. Child records are not deleted.
C. A subset of the child records is deleted.
D. Child records are deleted.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
Which action is available to a developer when two objects are connected by a lookup relationship? Choose
2 answers
A. create a roll-up summary field on the parent object to count child records
B. create a custom report type that allows customization of fields displayed from both parent and child
objects
C. create a cross-object formula field on the child object to reference fields on the parent object
D. create a cross-object formula field on the parent object to reference fields on the child object
70-533 pdf Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 44
Universal Containers tracks Positions as a custom object in a recruiting application. All positions with a
priority of critical should NOT be open for more than two weeks. If a position remains open for more than
14 days, the priority should be re-examined.
How would a developer automate this process?
A. Create a workflow action to clone the position, assigned to the owner of the position record, that is due
14 days after record creation
B. Create a validation rule that compares today’s date and the record’s creation date to determine if the
difference is greater than 14 days
C. Recreate a time-dependent workflow action that sends an email to the recruiter if the position is still
open 14 days after record creation
D. Create a time-dependent workflow action that updates the position status to Closed 14 days after
record creation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Given a three tier model (UI layer, business logic layer, data layer), which feature of the Force.com
platform is associated with the data layer? Choose 3 answers
A. Custom applications
B. Custom relationships
C. Custom fields
D. Custom objects
E. Custom tabs
70-533 vce Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 46
What is a Junction object?
A. A standard object with a master-detail relationship
B. A custom object with two master-detail relationships
C. A standard object with two master-detail relationships
D. A custom object with a master-detail relationship
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
A developer would like to enable end users to filter the data displayed on the related list of an object detail
page. How could a developer accomplish this?
A. Enable Advanced Search on the object’s related list
B. Customize the search filter fields layout for that object
C. Create a Visualforce page to replace the object detail view
D. Configure the object’s related list to add a filter
70-533 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
Hiring managers at Universal Containers would like a visual mechanism for determining review score
outliers. Review scores are captured as a custom field on a custom Review object and can range from l to
10. Any review score that is > 8 should be highlighted in green.
Any review score that is < 4 should be highlighted In red.
How would a developer accomplish this?
A. Use custom summary formulas
B. Use matrix reports
C. Use charts
D. Use conditional highlighting
Correct Answer: D

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[Free New Dumps Version] Best Microsoft 70-346 Dumps Exam Video Study Guide Microsoft Office 365 Preparation Materials Online

Is going for the brain dumps for Microsoft 70-346 dumps the right way? “Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements” is the name of Microsoft 70-346 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Best Microsoft 70-346 dumps exam video study guide Microsoft Office 365 preparation materials online. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-346 dumps exam questions answers are updated (211 Q&As) are verified by experts.

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Exam Code: 70-346
Exam Name: Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements
Q&As: 211

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Question No : 12 DRAG DROP  Contoso Ltd. plans to use 70-346 exam Office 365 services for collaboration between departments. Contoso has one Active Directory Domain Services domain named contoso.local. You deploy the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool. You plan to implement single sign-on (SSO) for Office 365. You need to synchronize only the user accounts that have valid routable domain names
and are members of specified departments. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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Answer:
70-346 dumps

Question No : 13
An organization plans to migrate to Office 365. You use the Windows Azure Active
Directory (AD) Sync tool. Several users will not migrate to Office 365. You must exclude these users from
synchronization. All users must continue to authenticate against the on-premises Active
Directory. You need to synchronize the remaining users. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Populate an attribute for each user account.
B. Disable the user accounts in Active Directory.
C. Perform a full synchronization.
D. Configure the connection filter.
E. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-MsolDirSyncEnabled -EnableDirSync
$false.
Answer: B,D,E

Question No : 14 You use a centralized identity 70-346 dumps management system as a source of authority for user account information. You export a list of new user accounts to a file on a daily basis. Your company uses a local Active Directory for storing user accounts for on-premises solutions.
You are configuring the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
New user accounts must be created in both the local Active Directory and Office 365. You
must import user account data into Office 365 daily.
You need to import the new users. What should you do?
A. Use the Office 365 admin center to import the file.
B. Create a Windows PowerShell script to import account data from the file into Active
Directory.
C. Use the Windows Azure Management Portal to import the file.
D. Create a Windows PowerShell script that uses the MSOnline module to import account
data from the file.
Answer: B
Question No : 15 DRAG DROP An organization plans to deploy an Office 365 tenant. The company has two servers named SERVER1 and SERVER2. SERVER1 is a member server of the Active Directory
forest that you are synchronizing. SERVER2 is a standalone server. Both servers run
Windows Server 2012.
You need to use the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool to provision users.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
70-346 dumps
QUESTION 16
Which is the purpose of the Change theme?
A. Prevent change to baselined products
B. Identify, assess and control any potential and approved changes to baselined products
C. Establish mechanisms to monitor and compare actual achievements against those planned
D. Assess and control uncertainty
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which step in the issue and change control procedure considers alternative options for responding to an
issue that is being managed formally?
A. Capture
B. Examine
C. Propose
D. Decide

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
A product can NOT be supplied to meet all of the requirements in its baselined Product Description.
What first action should be taken?
A. Raise a request for change
B. Raise an off-specification
C. Write an Exception Report
D. Amend the Work Package
70-346 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which of the following statements about the Closing a Project process are true?
1. The Closing a Project process provides a fixed point for the receipt of completed Work Packages for the
work performed in the final stage.
2. The Closing a Project process provides a fixed point to review if the objectives set out in the original
Project Initiation Documentation have been achieved.
A. Only 1 is true
B. Only 2 is true
C. Both 1 and 2 are true
D. Neither 1 or 2 are true
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
What takes place during the Closing a Project process?
A. The post-project benefits reviews are performed
B. Ownership of the project’s products is transferred to the customer
C. An End Stage Report is prepared for the final stage
D. The project closure notification is reviewed and approved
70-346 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Which is an objective of the Closing a Project process?
A. Prepare the plan for the next stage
B. Assess any benefits that have already been realized
C. Produce a Benefits Review Plan to identify what benefits are expected
D. Check that all benefits are realized before closing a project
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Which is a purpose of the Closing a Project process?
A. Authorize the final stage of the project
B. Confirm that all benefits defined in the Business Case have been achieved
C. Recognize whether objectives set out in the original Project Initiation Documentation have been
achieved
D. Delegate day-to-day management of the end of the project to the Project Manager

70-346 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Which should be used to document any uncompleted work that needs to be done to a project product after
the project has closed?
A. Off-specifications
B. Follow-on action recommendations
C. Issue Register
D. Risk Register
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Which is an objective of the Closing a Project process?
A. Review and approve the plan for project closure
B. Review the performance of the project against its baseline
C. Perform any post-project reviews
D. Create a Benefits Review Plan
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Which is a purpose of the Controlling a Stage process?
A. Produce a Team Plan for the work to be assigned to a Team Manager
B. Select and implement actions that will resolve deviations from a plan within tolerance
C. Obtain approvals for products delivered in a Work Package
D. Update a Project Plan to incorporate the actuals from a Stage Plan
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
What process ensures focus on the delivery of a stage’s products and avoids uncontrolled change?
A. Directing a Project
B. Managing a Stage Boundary
C. Controlling a Stage
D. Starting up a Project
70-346 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Which process is triggered towards the end of the final stage when all the assigned work has been
completed?
A. Managing a Stage Boundary
B. Managing Product Delivery
C. Closing a Project
D. Controlling a Stage
Correct Answer: C

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[Free New Microsoft Version] Latest Updated Microsoft 070-461 Dumps Practice Test Questions And Answers Youtube Study (From Google Drive)

Do you want to find a high efficiency way to prepare for Microsoft 070-461 dumps verified answers exam test? “Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012” is the name of Microsoft 070-461 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Latest updated microsoft 070-461 dumps practice test questions and answers youtube study. Pass4itsure https://www.pass4itsure.com/070-461.html dumps exam questions answers are updated (164 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 070-461 dumps is Microsoft SQL Server 2012.

Exam Code: 070-461
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Sep 08, 2017
Q&As: 164

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Question No : 5 CORRECT TEXT  You have a view that was created by using the following code:
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✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to create an inline table-valued function named Sales.fn_OrdersByTerritory,
which must meet the following 070-461 exam requirements:
Accept the @T integer parameter.
Use one-part names to reference columns.
Filter the query results by SalesTerritoryID.
Return the columns in the same order as the order used in OrdersByTerritoryView.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:
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Question No : 6 CORRECT TEXT You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibitbutton.)

070-461 dumps


You deploy a new server that has SQL Server 2012 installed. You need to create a table
named Sales.OrderDetails on the new server. Sales.OrderDetails must meet the following
requirements: Write the results to a disk. Contain a new column named LineItemTotal that stores the product of ListPrice
  and Quantity for each row. The code must NOT use any object delimiters.
The solution must ensure that LineItemTotal is stored as the last column in the table. Which
code segment should you use? To answer, type the correct 070-461 dumps code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:

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Question No : 7 CORRECT TEXT  You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
070-461 dumps

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to create a view named uv_CustomerFullName to meet the following
requirements:
The code must NOT include object delimiters.
The view must be created in the Sales schema.
Columns must only be referenced by using one-part names.
The view must return the first name and the last name of all customers.
The view must prevent the underlying structure of the customer table from being
  changed.
The view must be able to resolve all referenced objects, regardless of the user’s
default schema.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:

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Question No : 8 CORRECT TEXT  You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

070-461 dumps

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to create a query that calculates the total sales of each OrderId from the
Sales.Details table. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Use one-part names to reference columns.
Sort the order of the results from OrderId.
NOT depend on the default schema of a user.
Use an alias of TotalSales for the calculated ExtendedAmount.
Display only the OrderId column and the calculated TotalSales column.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
070-461 pdf 
Answer:
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Question No : 9. A Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) user is also a supervisor. You want to ensure that the supervisor automatically sees only his/her agents in the following: Historical reports
Real-time displays
Contact Center Manager Server
How can this be done most effectively?
A. Configure a standard partition.
B. Configure a user-defined partition.
C. The supervisor will automatically see all of the agents.
D. Link the CCMA user to the supervisor in the reporting agents partition.
Answer: D
Question No :  10. In a deployed Contact Center Rls. 7.0 network with several sites, which condition will occur if the Network Control Center (NCC) server experiences a hardware failure that drops the server from the network?
A. all call routing and call processing in the network will stop
B. calls are routed between sites but no network call-by-call data will be transferred to the NCC
C. calls will not be routed between sites in the network
D. the Contact Center Manager Servers at each site in the network will also fail
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Answer: B
Question No : 11 . In Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) Rls. 7.0, which element can be configured on the Configuration component?
A. Global Settings
B. Users
C. Agents
D. Partitions
Answer: A
Question No : 12. In Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) Rls. 7.0, which set of options specifies how statistics are
  treated in reports and real-time displays?
A. Activity codes
B. Call Presentation Class
C. Skillset Assignment
D. Threshold Class
070-461 exam 
Answer: D
Question No : 13. While the Call Presentation option “After Call Break for N seconds” (break time) is in effect, which event
can cancel the break time?
A. An agent is reserved for an NACD call by the switch.
B. An agent can put directory number calls on hold for incoming ACD calls.
C. A break time between calls has been allowed and the agent returns from walk away.
D. A break time between calls has been allowed and the agent releases an individual DN call.
E. A break time between calls has been allowed and the caller abandons the call when on an agent set.
Answer: A
Question No : 14. CERTIFICATION REQUIREMENTS
(A)Obtaining Certification:
To obtain certification in any of the RSA Certified Security Professional designations, You must
successfully comply with the initial certification requirements for that designation. Certification
requirements are available on the RSA Certification Web site, or available from RSA, The Security
Division of EMC at the address specified herein. By sending You the RSA Certified Security
Professional Welcome Kit, RSA confirms that, according to its 070-461 dumps records, You have complied with the initial certification requirements for the RSA Certified Security Professional designation indicated in the RSA Certified Security Professional Welcome Kit.
(B)Maintaining Active Certification:
To maintain Your active certification(s), You must comply with any and all continuing certification
requirements which shall be established by RSA, The Security Division of EMC and may include
periodically taking a re-certification examination that tests Your knowledge of the features and
functionality of any major product release. You acknowledge and agree that RSA may, in its sole
discretion, change the certification requirements (both initial and continuing), RSA Certified Security
Professional designations, and RSA Certified Security Professional Logos and Guidelines at any time.
You are responsible for periodically checking the RSA Certified Security Professional website for
updates and compliance with any and all updates. Failure to comply with all requirements will result in
termination of this Agreement.
(C)Transfer of Certification:
You shall not transfer or share Your RSA Certified Security Professional certification and the benefits
of such certification to or with another person or entity.
Question No : 15.USE OF RSA CERTIFIED SECURITY PROFESSIONAL DESIGNATIONS and LOGOS
Upon Your successful completion of the initial certification requirements, and so long as You remain in
compliance with all applicable continuing certification requirements, RSA, The Security Division of
EMC hereby authorizes You to use the RSA Certified Security Professional designation 070-461 exam for which You have obtained certification, as indicated in the RSA Certified Security Professional Welcome Kit which includes this RSA Certified Security Professional Agreement and the RSA Certified Security
Professional Logo Guidelines which set forth the authorized use of the RSA Certified Security
Professional Logo.
You acknowledge RSA’s sole ownership of the RSA Certified Security Professional Logo and
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performance as an RSA Certified Security Professional, or that might otherwise be implied by law,

shall operate to give You any right, title or interest in the 070-461 pdf RSA Certified Security Professional
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not derogate from RSA’s rights in the RSA Certified Security Professional Logo and designations, and
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Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Sep 06, 2017
Q&As: 503

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QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains three domain DC3 loses network connectivity due to a hardware failure. You plan to remove DC3 from the domain. You log on to DC3. You need to identify which service location (SRV) records are registered by DC3. What should you do?
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A. Open the %windir%\system32\config\netlogon.dns file.
B. Run dcdiag /test:dns
C. Open the %windir%\system32\dns\backup\adatum.com.dns file.
D. Run ipconfig /displaydns.
70-410 study guide Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains three domains. A group named Group1 is configured as a domain local distribution group in the forest root domain. You plan to grant Group1 read-only access to a shared folder named Share1. Share1 is located in a child domain. You need to ensure that the members of Group1 can access Share1. What should you do first?
A. Convert Group1 to a global distribution group.
B. Convert Group1 to a universal security group.
C. Convert Group1 to a universal distribution group.
D. Convert Group1 to a domain local security group
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2. One of the domain controllers is named DCI. The network contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to promote Server1 to a domain controller by using install from media (IFM).
What should you do first?
A. Create a system state backup of DC1.
B. Create IFM media on DC1.
C. Upgrade DC1 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
D. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
E. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Installation Wizard on DC1.
70-410 practice test Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 servers. The servers are contained in a organizational unit (OU) named ServersOU. You need to create a group named Group1 on all of the servers in the domain. You must ensure that Group1 is added only to the servers. What should you configure?
A. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to the Domain Controllers OU
B. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to the domain
C. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
D. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. All of the computer accounts for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts. Servers are restarted only occasionally. You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days.
What should you do?
A. Run dsquery computerand specify the -staiepwdpara meter.
B. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the SearchScope parameter.
C. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the IastLogonproperty.
D. Run dsquery serverand specify the -oparameter
70-410 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You log on to a domain controller by using an account named Admin1. Admin1 is a member of the Domain Admins group. You view the properties of a group named Group1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) Group1 is located in
an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. You need to ensure that you can modify the Security settings of Group1 by using Active Directory Users and Computers. What should you do from Active Directory Users and Computers?

70-410 dumps
A. From the View menu, select Users, Contacts, Groups, and Computers as containers.
B. Right-click OU1 and select Delegate Control
C. From the View menu, select Advanced Features.

D. Right-click contoso.com and select Delegate Control.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2. You install 70-410 dumps Windows Server 2012 on a new computer named DC3. You need to manually configure DC3 as a domain controller. Which tool should you use?
A. Server Manager
B. winrm.exe
C. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
D. dcpromo.exe
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
You have a server named Core1 that has a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. Core1 has the Hyper-V server role installed Core1 has two
network adapters from different third- party hardware vendors.
You need to configure network traffic failover to prevent connectivity loss if a network adapter fails.
What should you use?
A. New-NetSwitchTeam
B. Add-NetSwitchTeamMember
C. Install-Feature
D. netsh.exe
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You connect three new hard disks to Server1.
You need to create a storage space that contains the three disks. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Provide fault tolerance if a single disk fails.
– Maximize the amount of files that can be stored in the storage space.
What should you create?
A. A simple space
B. A spanned volume
C. A mirrored space
D. A parity space
70-410 study guide Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1. You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. The setup.exe command
B. The dism.exe command
C. The imagex.exe command
D. The Add-WindowsPackage cmdlet
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has five network adapters. Three of the network adapters an connected to a
network named LAN1. The two other network adapters are connected to a network named LAN2.
You need to create a network adapter team from the three network adapters connected to LAN 1.
Which tool should you use?
A. Routing and Remote Access
B. Network and Sharing Center
C. Server Manager
D. Network Load Balancing Manager
70-410 practice test Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to remove Windows Explorer, Windows Internet Explorer, and all related
components and files from Server1. What should you run on Server1?
A. Uninstall-WindowsFeature Server-Gui-Mgmt-Infra Remove
B. Uninstall-WindowsFeature Server-Gui-Shell Remove
C. msiexec.exe /uninstall iexplore.exe /x
D. msiexec.exe /uninstall explorer.exe /x
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
You have a server named Server1 that runs 70-410 dumps Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. On Server1, you create a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 has a legacy network adapter. You need to assign a specific amount of available network bandwidth to VM1.
What should you do first?
A. Remove the legacy network adapter, and then run the Set-VMNetworkAdaptercmdlet.
B. Add a second legacy network adapter, and then run the Set-VMNetworkAdoptercmdlet
C. Add a second legacy network adapter, and then configure network adapter teaming.

D. Remove the legacy network adapter, and then add a network adapter
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 070-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Sep 08, 2017
Q&As: 503

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Microsoft 070-410 Dumps Exam Topics Covered:

The following list includes the topic areas covered on this exam.
• Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
• Introduction to Active Directory Domain Services
• Managing Active Directory Domain Services Objects
• Automating Active Directory Domain Services Administration
• Implementing Networking Services
• Implementing Local Storage
• Implementing File and Print Services
• Implementing Group Policy
• Implementing Server Virtualization with Hyper-V

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Free Pass4itsure Microsoft 070-410 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION  1. In Report Studio, an author merges Query1 and Query2 into one result set (Query3) using a union set operator, Query1 contains two data items: Order method and Revenue, Query2 also contains two data items: Product line and Quantity sold. The author wants to display the data from Query3 in a list report, how can the author ensure that all the order method results appear together line results appear together in the report?
A. The author must add a sort key data item directly to Query3.
B. The author must sort the Order method data item in Query1 and the Product line data item in Query2.
C. The author must sort the data item in Query3 that retrieves both Order method and Product line data. D.
The author must add a sort key data item to Query1 and Query2,and then add this sort key data item to
Query3.
070-410 exam Answer: C
QUESTION  2. Which member is used for dimensions in package that are not referenced in the expression?
A. Tabular data includes a column for each data item in the query, No grouping is applied to the tabular
data.
B. Tabular data includes a column for each data item in the query. Grouping applied in the report layout is
also applied to the tabular data.
C. Tabular data can only include columns for data items that appear in the layout. No grouping is applied
to the tabular data.
D. Tabular data includes a column for data item that appears in both the query and the layout. Grouping
applied in the report layout is also applied to tabular data.
Answer: A
QUESTION  3. In Report Studio, an author uses the tuple function to retrieve the intersection of members from two dimensions. Which member is used for dimensions in the package that are not referenced in the
expression?
A. No member is used.
B. The root member is always used.
C. The last sibling of the lowest member is always used.
D. The default member for that Dimension is always used.

070-410 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION  4. In Report Studio, an author wants to use a join object to create a relationship between two queries. Which of the following is true?
A. The author can use a join object to create either an inner or outer join between the queries.
B. The author can use a join object only if both queries contain data from OLAP data sources.
C. The author can use a join object only if both queries contain data from relational sources that has not
been modeled dimensionally.
D. Both queries must contain the same number of data item, the data items must be compatible and must
appear in the same order.
Answer: D
QUESTION  5. In Event Studio, which of the following tasks are available to a report author?
A. Run an agent
B. Run an export
C. Run an import
D. Run an index update
070-410 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION  6. In Report Studio, an author wants to conditionally format a list report according to the revenue generated by each product line. The Revenue data item does not appear in the list report but is contained in Quety1. Which of the following must the author do in order to apply this conditional formatting?
A. Make the Revenue data item a property of Queery1.
B. Make the Revenue data item a property of the list object.
C. Make the Revenue data item a property of the Page object.
D. Make the Revenue data item a property of the Variable object.
Answer: B
QUESTION  7. In an OLAP package, the Years dimension appears as show below:
If the expression for Year level in this dimension is [great_outdoors_company].[Years]. [Year].which

member will be retrieved by the following expression?
descendants(closingPeriod([great_outdoors_company].[Years],2)
A. Ench Month member for the latest year in the Year level.
B. The latest Month member for the each year in the Year level.
C. Each Quarter member for the latest year in the Year level.
D. Each Month member from the latest quarter in the Quarter level.
070-410 exam questions Answer: A
QUESTION  8. In Report Studio, an author edits the SQL statement that a query uses to retrieve data for a corsstab. After editing the SQL, the author wants to add a new data item to the query. How can the author add the data item?
A. The author must convert the edited SQL back to a query object and then add the data item.
B. The author must edit SQL statement so that the query retrieves an additional data item.
C. The author must add the data item to the query from the package displayed on the Source tab.
D. The author must add a query reference to the existing query and then add the data item to the
referenced query.
Answer: B
QUESTION  9. In Report Studio, an author creates a list report containing columns for staff Name, Order number, and Revenue. The author wants to burst this report to various sales staff members. Each member should see only data relating to sales they have made. What must the author do to specify that the burst report output will contain only data for the appropriate sales staff member?
A. In the report layout, create a master-detail relationship on the staff Name data item.
B. In the report layout, add the staff Name data item as a property of the list object.
C. In the burst options for the report, use the Staff Name data item to specify the Burst Recipients.
D. In the burst options for the report , use the Staff Name data item to specify the Burst Groups.
070-410 dumps Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You add a 4-TB disk named Disk 5 to Server1. You need to ensure that you can create a
3-TB volume on Disk 5. What should you do?
A. Create a storage pool.
B. Convert the disk to a dynamic disk.
C. Create a VHD, and then attach the VHD.
D. Convert the disk to a GPT disk.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that has a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the File Server server role installed. You need to upgrade Server1 to Windows Server 2012 R2 with the graphical user interface (GUI). The solution must meet the following
requirements: Preserve the server roles and their configurations. Minimize Administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
B. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature.
C. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
D. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature
070-410 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to install the Remote Desktop Services server role
on Server2 remotely from Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. The dsadd.exe command
B. The Server Manager console
C. The Remote Desktop Gateway Manager console
D. The Install-RemoteAccess cmdlet
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
You have a server named Server1 that runs a full installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to uninstall the graphical user interface (GUI) on Server1.
You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of Administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Reinstall Windows Server 2012 R2 on the server.
B. From Server Manager, uninstall the User Interfaces and Infrastructure feature.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature PowerShell-ISE

D. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature Desktop-Experience.
070-410 exam questions Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual
machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

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You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to ensure that the next time VM2 restarts, you can
connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
Which virtual machine setting should you configure for VM2?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 15. In Report Studio, why would an author use a filter 070-410 dumps function when querying dimensional data?
A. To retrieve a set of members that meet a String condition.

B. To suppress a set of members that meet a String condition. C.
To retrieve a set of members that meet a Boolean condition. D.
To suppress a set of members that meet a Boolean condition.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-696 
Exam Name: Managing Enterprise Devices and Apps
Updated: Sep 04, 2017
Q&As: 86

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QUESTION 6
Exhibit:
Given this display, how would you find information similar to the SHOW SWITCH command?
A. Click on STATISTICS, then SHOW, then SWITCH.
B. Click on STATISTICS, then SWITCH, then SHOW.
C. Click on STATISTICS, then SHOW.
D. Click on STATISTICS, then SWITCH.
70-696 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which ExtremeWare feature permits ESRP to increase the number of protected VLANs by placing them
under the control of a master VLAN?
A. ESRP groups
B. ESRP domains
C. ESRP host attach
D. None of these.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
STPDs s0, s1, and s2 have been created. How would you activate only s1 while leaving the other STPDs
inactive?
A. enable stpd s1
B. enable s1 stpd
C. None of these
70-696 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
SNMP access to ExtremeWare can be limited by the following methods:
A. Use an access list
B. Use an access profile

C. Use the disable snmp access command
D. None of these
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 10
How would you change the password for John Doe’s management account?
A. Enter config jdoe and then enter the new password twice.
B. Enter config jdoe user account and then enter the new password twice.
C. Enter config user account jdoe and then enter the new password twice.
D. Enter config account jdoe and then enter the new password twice.
70-696 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
What is the minimum ExtremeWare software version that supports the Summit48i?
A. ExtremeWare 4.x
B. ExtremeWare 5.x
C. ExtremeWare 6.x
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
When using Spanning Tree Protocol, ExtremeWare permits VLANs in different STPDs to share the same
port when tagged.
A. True
B. False
70-696 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which of the following routes will be used to forward a frame to 192.168.1.174?
A. 192.168.1.0/29
B. 192.168.1.128/30
C. 192.168.1.128/25
D. None of these.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
In RIP, poison reverse means that:
A. A route is not advertised to the interface from which it was learned.
B. A route is advertised as unreachable to the interface from which it was learned.
C. Traffic whose source interface does not match the routing table is blackholed.
D. None of these.
70-696 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
RIP version 2 uses a composite metric that includes link speed and delay.
A. True

B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Unlike VRRP, the Extreme Standby Router Protocol provides redundancy at both the data link and network
layers.
A. True
B. False
70-696 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
__________ allow(s) multiple VLANs to be controlled by a single ESRP instance.
A. ESRP domains
B. ESRP groups
C. ESRP host-attach
D. None of these.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
QoS policy is applied _____ in an Extreme switch.
A. per port
B. per queue, per port
C. per queue
D. None of these.
70-696 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Without QoS, all packets are allowed equal access to an egress port.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Which of the following is not advertised in an OSPF Link State Advertisement?
A. Costs
B. Link utilization
C. Router interfaces
D. Neighbor information
70-696 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
A VLAN can be a member of up to 64 STPDs.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
What type of area is used to limit external routes?
A. Stub area
B. Normal area
C. Backbone area
D. None of these
70-696 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
All OSPF routers in the same area must have the same LSDB.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Which 70-696 dumps RIP settings are enabled by default?
A. Triggered updates
B. Poison Reverse
C. Split Horizon
D. Route redistribution
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 25
What is the default STP forward delay value?
A. 2 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 20 seconds
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Which command would you use to configure the switch to disregard STP for selected VLANs?
A. enable ignore-stp vlan <stpd>
B. enable ignore-bpdu vlan <vlan>
C. enable ignore-bpdu stpd <stpd>
D. enable ignore-stp vlan <vlan>
70-696 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
When the command disable stpd port 4:1-4:8 is entered what is the result?
A. Ports 4:1-4:8 are placed into the blocking state.
B. Ports 4:1-4:8 are placed into the listening state.
C. Ports 4.1-4.8 are placed into the learning state.
D. Ports 4:1-4:8 are placed into the forwarding state.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
How can you tell which ports are disabled?
A. Flashing amber light
B. Flashing green light
C. Flashing red light
D. None of these
70-696 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
Your Summit5i switch is connected to a 3rd party switch. By issuing the show ports rxerrors command you
can see numerous CRC errors listed. What is the first step you should take to resolve this issue?
A. Examine the log for errors.
B. Ping between the two switches.
C. Match the speed and duplex settings for the two devices.
D. Call the Extreme Networks TAC.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
You have been assigned the task of configuring an 8-port load share group between two switches that
uses the round robin-based algorithm. Which of the following commands will provide you with the desired
result?
A. Summit #1: config sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm round-robin, Summit #2: configsharing 1 grouping
1-8 algorithm round-robin
B. Summit #1: enable sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm round-robin, Summit #2: enablesharing 8 grouping
1-8 algorithm round-robin

C. Summit #1: config sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm round-robin, Summit #2: configsharing 8 grouping
1-8 algorithm round-robin
D. Summit #1: enable sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm round-robin, Summit #2: enablesharing 1 grouping
70-696 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
Routing is disabled in all VLANs by default.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
What 70-696 dumps information can you find using the show edp command?
A. ExtremeWare code version used by remote switch.
B. The ports that are disabled on the remote switch.
C. The master port of any load share groups.
D. The speed and duplex settings of the ports connecting the two switches.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
How could you verify that MAC address learning is disabled for ports 1-8 on a Summit7i switch?
A. Enter the show ports config detail command.
B. Enter the show ports management detail command.
C. Enter the show ports statistics detail command.
D. Enter the show ports info detail command.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
Which of the following are valid ESRP master election algorithms?
A. ports_track_priority_mac
B. ports_priority_track_mac
C. track_ports_priority_mac
D. track_priority_ports_mac
70-696 pdf Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 35
What is the command you would use to configure a VLAN for ESRP?
A. enable esrp vlan <vlan>
B. enable esrp vlan <vlan> detail
C. config esrp vlan <vlan>
D. config esrp vlan <vlan> detail
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
Which command would you use to configure ESRP ping tracking for the gateway address 10.0.0.1 with a
frequency of 2 seconds and a miss threshold of 5?

A. enable vlan <vlan> add track-ping add 10.0.0.1 frequency 2 miss 5
B. enable esrp add track-ping add 10.0.0.1 frequency 2 miss 5
C. config esrp track-ping add 10.0.0.1 frequency 2 miss 5
D. config vlan <vlan> add track-ping 10.0.0.1 frequency 2 miss 5
70-696 vce Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 070-489
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Updated: Aug 19, 2017
Q&As: 97

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Question: 1
Which of the following is an example of a taxable gift for federal gift tax purposes?
A – A father gives his 19-year-old daughter a note promising to give her his Rolls Royce when she
reaches the age of 21.
B – Instead of parents paying an outside executive $60,000, a son runs their business for 8
months without charging a fee.
C – The parents of a married son permit their son and his family to use a summer cottage that
rents for $3,000 per month on a rent-free basis.
D – A father cancels a $50,000 note his daughter gave him when he made a loan to her 2 years
ago.
070-489 exam 
Answer: D
Question: 2
The following are facts concerning a decedent’s estate:
Taxable estate $1.700, 000
Pre-1977 taxable gifts 200, 000
Post-1976 adjusted taxable gifts 50, 000
Post-1976 gifts made to a qualified charity 100, 000
The tentative tax base of this estate is
A – $1,700,000
B – $1,750,000
C – $1,850,000
D – $1,900,000
Answer: B
Question: 3
An executor elects to value the assets of the estate at the alternative valuation date 6 months
after death. Which of the following statements concerning the estate tax value of assets included
in this estate is correct?
A – An annuity included in the gross estate that diminishes with the mere passage of time is
includible at the date of death value.
B – Property sold before the alternate valuation date is valued at the alternate valuation date.
C – Property that has increased in value since the date of death may be valued at the date of
death if the executor so elects.
D – Property distributed under the will before the alternate valuation date is valued at the date of
death.
070-489 dumps 
Answer: A
Question: 4
A father and son have been farming land owned by the father for the past 12 years. Just prior to
his death, the father was offered $1200, 000 for his farm because of its possible use as a
shopping center. The son would like to continue to farm the land if it can be included in his
father’s estate at its current use value. Additional facts are:
1. Average annual gross rentals from nearby farms of similar acreage are $56,000.
2. Average annual state and local real estate taxes on the farm are $6,000.
3. The interest rate for loans from the Federal Land Sank is 8 percent.

For federal estate tax purposes, the farm method valuation formula would result in a current use
value for the farm of
A – $500,000
B – $600,000
C – $700,000
D – $820,000
Answer: B
Question: 5
Which of the following types of real properly ownership will be deemed to be a tenancy in
common?
A – Two brothers own equal amounts of all the common stock in a corporation, the only asset of
which is real property.
B – Two brothers own equal undivided interests in a piece of real properly, with each brother
being able to divest himself of his interest by sale, gift, or will.
C – Two brothers are equal partners in a general partnership that owns a piece of real property
used in the partnership business.
D – Two brothers own equal fractional interests in a piece of real property and at the death of one
of the brothers the survivor will own the entire piece of property.
070-489 pdf 
Answer: B
Question: 6
Which of the following statements concerning property ownership by a married couple residing in
a community-property state is correct?
A – All property owned by the couple is community property.
B – Community property loses its identity when a couple moves from a community-property state
to a common-law state.
C – Property inherited by one spouse during a marriage becomes community property
D – Income earned by one spouse becomes community property.
Answer: D
Question: 7
Which of the following statements concerning a simple trust is correct?
A – Income and principal may be distributed to a qualified charily.
B – It receives a special tax deduction for income distributed to its beneficiaries.
C – Income is accumulated at the discretion of the trustee.
D – It limits the number of permissible beneficiaries.
070-489 vce 
Answer: B
Question: 8
On the advice of their attorney and accountant, Betsy and John have decided to make substantial
transfers. They would like to pass most of their considerable wealth to their grandchildren. Which
of the following statements concerning gifts made to their grandchildren is correct?
A – The GSTT annual exclusion may be utilized by Betsy and John for each grandchild during
life time and at death.

B – The value of Betsy and John’s GSTT exemption amounts are slightly increased when used at
death rather than during life time.
C – The GSTT annual exclusion is unavailable for years in which Betsy and John make tuition
gifts for the grandchildren.
D – Betsy and John may elect to split any GSTT transfers to the grandchildren.
Answer: D
Question: 9
The decedent, D, died this year. The facts concerning D estate are:
Gross estate $3,400,000
Marital deduction 0
Charitable deduction 600,000
Funeral & administration expenses 00,000
Gifts made after 1976 170,000
State death taxes payable 192,000
What is D taxable estate?
A – $2,138,000
B – $2,358,000
C – $2,528,000
D – $2,720,000
070-489 exam 
Answer: C
Question: 10
On January 1, 2004 a father gave his daughter a $200,000 straight (ordinary) life insurance policy
on his life. Premiums are paid annually. The pertinent facts about the policy are:
Date of issue: July 1, 1992
Premium paid on July 1, 2003 $3200
Terminal reserve on July 1, 2003 20,000
Terminal reserve on July 1, 2004 24,000
What is the value of the policy for federal gift tax purposes?
A – $ 21,600
B – $23,200
C – $23,600
D – $200,000
Answer: C
Question: 11
A married man has two adult sons. His entire estate is in excess of $1,500,000 and consists
entirely of probate assets. He wants to make certain that if he predeceases his wife she will
receive all estate income as long as she lives, and the assets remaining at her death will pass
equally to their two sons. He wants to pass all assets to this wife and sons as free of federal
estate taxes as possible. To best accomplish these objectives, the man should include which of
the following estate plans in his will?
A – Establish a QTIP trust for half his estate and bequeath the remainder to his wife
B – Establish a marital deduction trust with a general power of appointment for half his estate and

place the remainder in a QTIP trust
C – Establish a bypass trust equal to the applicable exclusion amount and place the remainder of
his estate in a QTIP trust
D – Establish a QTIP trust for his entire estate
070-489 dumps 
Answer: C
Question: 12
Among the assets in a decedent’s gross estate is stock in a closely held corporation that was left
to a nephew. The interest passing to the nephew is required to bear the burden of all estate taxes
and expenses. The relevant facts about this estate are:
Adjusted gross estate $1,200,000
Fair market value of stock in the
closely held corporation 500,000
Administration and funeral expenses 25,000
State inheritance taxes 40,000
Federal estate taxes 160,000
What amount of closely held corporate stock may be redeemed under IRC Section 303 so that
the redemption will be treated as a sale or exchange rather than a dividend distribution?
A – 0
B – $ 65,000
C – $225,000
D – $500,000
Answer: C
Question: 13
A married man died this year leaving a gross estate of $3,200,000. Additional facts concerning
his estate are:
Administration expenses and debts $ 250,000
Marital deduction 1,200,000
Applicable credit amount (2005) 555,800
Applicable exclusion amount (2005) 1,500,000
State death taxes payable 20,400
Under the Unified Rate Schedule for computing estate taxes if the amount with respect to which
the tentative tax to be computed is over$1,000,000 but not over $1,250,000, the tentative tax is
$345,800, plus 41 percent of the excess of such amount over $1,000,000. If the amount is over
$1,250,000 but not over $1,500,000, the tentative tax is then $448,300, plus 43 percent of the
excess of such amount over $1,250,000. If the amount is over $1,500,000 but not over
$2,000,000, the tentative tax is then $555,800 plus 45% of the excess of such amount over
$1,500,000. Based on these facts, the net federal estate tax payable is
A – 0
B – $103,320
C – $123,720
D – $128,280
070-489 pdf 
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-357
Exam Name: Developing Mobile Apps
Updated: Aug 08, 2017
Q&As: 66

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QUESTION 1. Which of the following device communication methods is used by MIB Tools?
A. SNMPv1
B. SNMPv3 Credential
C. SNMPv3 Profile
D. Max Access/Super User
E. All of the above
F.A and C only
70-357 exam Answer: E
QUESTION 2. Which of the following definition(s) best describes the difference between managers and agents in
SNMPv1 and SNMPv3?
A. In SNMPv1, the manager and agent were distinctly different but performed overlapping functions.
Managers resided on workstations; agents on remote devices.
B. In SNMPv3, a distributed interacting collection of SNMP entities can reside on both management
workstations and remote devices. Because each entity implements a portion of SNMP capability, an entity
can act as an agent, a manager, or a combination of the two.
C. In SNMPv1, the manager and agent were distinctly different and performed discrete functions: the
manager ran applications; the agent provided functionality. Managers resided on workstations; agents on
remote devices.
D.Aand B
E.B and C
F.All of the above
Answer: E
QUESTION 3. A MIB not supported on all devices should be assigned to which SNMP Request Group, when defining
a FlexView?
A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4

E. All of the above F. B or C only
70-357 dumps Answer: F
QUESTION 4. What are the three predefined groups in Inventory Manager Network Elements?
A. Chassis, Device Type and IP
B. Chassis, Matrix and X-Pedition
C. Matrix, SmartSwitch and X-Pedition
D. Matrix, X-Pedition and IP
Answer:A
QUESTION 5. How can network masks be displayed in CIDR notation in Router Services Manager?
A. By selecting CIDR in the Network Mask option of Tools > Options
B. By selecting CIDR in the device properties window
C. By selecting Dot Delimited in the Display option of Tools > Options
D. It is not possible to have network masks displayed in CIDR notation
70-357 pdf Answer:A
QUESTION 6. The MIB Tools Utility allows you to do all of the following, EXCEPT
A. View object definitions
B. Set object values
C. Change IP addresses on devices
D. Search for objects
E. Browse the MIB database
Answer: C
QUESTION 7. Which of the following statements are true about FlexViews?
A. You can use the FlexView editor to define as many FlexViews as you want.
B. You can create custom tabs to display desired MIB information.
C. The FlexView Wizard is not available with Atlas Lite.
D. All of the ab
ove

E. A and C only
70-357 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 8. What is the name of the file that defines the absolute path to your NetSight Plug-In applications?
A. PlugIn.details
B. common
C. NetSight.properties
D. Atlas.config
Answer: C
QUESTION 9. The relationship among remote devices in each map is automatically generated by Console when you
click the Retrieve button.
A. True
B. False
70-357 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 10. What are the three tabs in the left panel of Inventory Manager?
A. Devices, Traps, Archives
B. Network Elements, Firmware Management, Configuration Management
C. Details View, Archives, Chassis
D. Properties, VLAN, Compass
Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following password cracking techniques is used when the attacker has some information
about the password?
A. Hybrid Attack
B. Dictionary Attack
C. Syllable Attack
D. Rule-based Attack
70-357 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is an application alert returned by a web application that helps an attacker guess a
valid username?
A. Invalid username or password
B. Account username was not found
C. Incorrect password
D. Username or password incorrect
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
A pen tester has extracted a database name by using a blind SQL injection. Now he begins to test the
table inside the database using the below query and finds the table:
http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (LEN(SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=’U’)=3)
WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′–
http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects
where xtype=char(85)),1,1)))=101) WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′– http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF
(ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=char(85)),2,1)))=109)
WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′– http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT
TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=char(85)),3,1)))=112) WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′–
What is the table name?
A. CTS
B. QRT
C. EMP
D. ABC
70-357  pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
When you are running a vulnerability scan on a network and the IDS cuts off your connection, what type of
IDS is being used?
A. Passive IDS
B. Active IDS
C. Progressive IDS
D. NIPS
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
HTTP protocol specifies that arbitrary binary characters can be passed within the URL by using %xx
notation, where ‘xx’ is the

A. ASCII value of the character
B. Binary value of the character
C. Decimal value of the character
D. Hex value of the character
70-357  vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which of the following appendices gives detailed lists of all the technical terms used in the report?
A. Required Work Efforts
B. References
C. Research
D. Glossary
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
An external intrusion test and analysis identify security weaknesses and strengths of the client’s systems
and networks as they appear from outside the client’s security perimeter, usually from the Internet. The
goal of an external intrusion test and analysis is to demonstrate the existence of known vulnerabilities that
could be exploited by an external attacker.
During external penetration testing, which of the following scanning techniques allow you to determine a
port’s state without making a full connection to the host?
A. XMAS Scan
B. SYN scan
C. FIN Scan
D. NULL Scan
70-357  exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Passwords protect computer resources and files from unauthorized access by malicious users. Using
passwords is the most capable and effective way to protect information and to increase the security level
of a company.

Password cracking is the process of recovering passwords from data that have been stored in or
transmitted by a computer system to gain unauthorized access to a system.

Which of the following password cracking attacks tries every combination of characters until the password
is broken?
A. Brute-force attack
B. Rule-based attack
C. Hybrid attack
D. Dictionary attack
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Rules of Engagement (ROE) document provides certain rights and restriction to the test team for
performing the test and helps testers to overcome legal, federal, and policy-related restrictions to use
different penetration testing tools and techniques.

What is the last step in preparing a Rules of Engagement (ROE) document?
A. Conduct a brainstorming session with top management and technical teams

B. Decide the desired depth for penetration testing
C. Conduct a brainstorming session with top management and technical teams
D. Have pre-contract discussions with different pen-testers
70-357  dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Which of the following is a framework of open standards developed by the Internet Engineering Task
Force (IETF) that provides secure transmission of the sensitive data over an unprotected medium, such as
the Internet?
A. DNSSEC
B. Netsec
C. IKE
D. IPsec
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
Mason is footprinting an organization to gather competitive intelligence. He visits the company’s website
for contact information and telephone numbers but does not find any. He knows the entire staff directory
was listed on their website 12 months. How can he find the directory?
A. Visit Google’s search engine and view the cached copy
B. Crawl and download the entire website using the Surfoffline tool and save them to his computer
C. Visit the company’s partners’ and customers’ website for this information
D. Use WayBackMachine in Archive.org web site to retrieve the Internet archive
70-357  pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Application security assessment is one of the activity that a pen tester performs in the attack phase. It is
designed to identify and assess threats to the organization through bespoke, proprietary applications or
systems. It checks the application so that a malicious user cannot access, modify, or destroy data or
services within the system.

Identify the type of application security assessment which analyzes the application-based code to confirm
that it does not contain any sensitive information that an attacker might use to exploit an application.
A. Web Penetration Testing
B. Functionality Testing

C. Authorization Testing
D. Source Code Review
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a firewall?
A. Manages public access to private networked resources
B. Routes packets between the networks
C. Examines all traffic routed between the two networks to see if it meets certain criteria
D. Filters only inbound traffic but not outbound traffic
70-357 vce Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-767
Exam Name: Implementing a SQL Data Warehouse (beta)
Updated: Jul 16, 2017
Q&As: 112

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Question: 69
This Security Standard addresses the proper functions to be performed on a specific workstation as
well as the physical attributes of its surroundings,
A. information Access Management
B. Workstation Security
C. Access Control
D. Facility Access Controls
E. Workstation Use
70-767 pdf Answer: E

Question: 70
In addition to code sets, HIPAA transactions also contain:
A. Security information such as a fingerprint.
B. Privacy information.
C. Information on all business associates,
D. Information on all health care clearinghouses.
E. Identifiers.
Answer: E

Question: 71
Select the correct statement regarding the administrative requirements of The HIPAA privacy rule.
A. A covered entity must designate, and document, a privacy official, security officer and a HIPAA
compliance officer
B. A covered entity must designate, and document, the same person to be both privacy official and
as the contact person responsible for receiving complaints and providing further information about
the notice required by the regulations.
C. A covered entity must implement and maintain written or electronic policies and procedures with
respect to PHI that are designed to comply with HIPAA standards, implementation specifications and
other requirements.
D. A covered entity must train, and document the training of. at least one member of its workforce
on the policies and procedures with regard to PHI as necessary and appropriate for them to carry
out their function within the covered entity no later than the privacy rule compliance date.
E. A covered entity must retain the document required by the regulations for a period often years
from the time of it’s creation or the time it was last in effect, which ever is later
70-767 vce Answer: C

Question: 72
To comply with the Privacy Rule, a valid Notice of Privacy Practices:
A. Is required for all Chain of Trust Agreements.
B. Must allow for the patient’s written acknowledgement of receipt.
C. Must always be signed by the patient.
D. Must be signed in order for the patient’s name to be sold to a mailing list organization.
E. Is not required if an authorization is being developed.
Answer: B

Question: 73
Security to protect information assets is generally defined as having:
A. Controls
B. PRI
C. Biometrics
D. VPN technology
E. Host-based intrusion detection
70-767 dumps Answer: A

Question: 74
One characteristic of the Notice of Privacy Practices is:
A. It must be written in plain, simple language.
B. It must explicitly describe all uses of PHI.
C. A description about the usage of hidden security cameras for tracking patient movements for
implementing privacy.
D. A description of the duties of the individual.
E. A statement that the individual must abide by the terms of the Notice.
Answer: A

Question: 75
Select the FALSE statement regarding the transaction rule.
A. The Secretary is required by statue to impose penalties of at least $100 per violation on any
person or entity that fails to comply with a standard except that the total amount imposed on any
one person in each calendar year may not exceed $1 .000.000 for violations of one requirement.
B. Health plans are required to accept all standard transactions.
C. Health plans may not require providers to make changes or additions to standard transactions.
D. Health plans may not refuse or delay payment of standard transactions.
E. If additional information is added to a standard transaction it must not modify the definition,
condition, intent, or use of a data element.
70-767 exam Answer: A

Question: 76
Which of the following is primarily concerned with implementing security measures that are
sufficient to reduce risks and vulnerabilities to a reasonable and appropriate level.
A. Access Establishment and Modification
B. Isolating Health care clearinghouse Functions
C. Information System Activity Review
D. Risk Management
E. Risk Analysis
Answer: D

Question: 77
The applicable methods for HIPAA-related EDI transactions are:
A. Remote and enterprise.
B. Claim status and remittance advice.
C. Subscriber and payer.
D. Batch and real-time.
E. HCFA-1500 and 837.

Answer: D

Question: 78
A valid Notice of Privacy Practices must
A. Detail specifically all activities that are considered a use or disclosure
B. Describe in plain language what is meant by treatment, payment, and health care operations
(TPO).
C. Inform the individual that protected health information (PHI) may only be used for valid medical
research.
D. Inform the individual that this version of the Notice will always cover them, regardless of
subsequent changes.
E. State the expiration date of the Notice.
70-767 pdf Answer: B

Question: 79
The office manager of a small doctors office wants to donate several of their older workstations to
the local elementary school. Which Security Rule Standard addresses this situation?
A. Security Management Process
B. Device and Media Controls
C. information Access Management
D. Facility Access Controls
E. Workstation Security
Answer: B

Question: 80
Information in this transaction is generated by the payer’s adjudication system:
A. Eligibility (2701271)
B. Premium Payment 2O)
C. Unsolicited Claim Status (277)
D. Remittance Advice 35)
E. Functional Acknowledgment (997)
Answer: D

Question: 81
The key objective of a contingency plan is that the entity must establish and implement policies and
procedures to ensure The:
A. Creation and modification of health information during and after an emergency.
B. Integrity of health information during and after an emergency.
C. Accountability of health information during and after an emergency.
D. Vulnerability of health information during and after an emergency.
E. Non-repudiation of the entity.
70-767 vce Answer: B

Question: 82
A covered entity’ that fails to implement the HIPAA Privacy Rule would risk:
A. $50O0 in fines.
B. $5000 in fines and six months in prison.
C. An annual cap of $5000 in fines.
D. A fine of up to $50000 if they wrongfully disclose PHI.
E. Six months in prison.
Answer: D

Question: 83
This transaction supports multiple functions. These functions include: telling a bank to move money
OR telling a bank to move money while sending remittance information
A. 277.
B. 276
C. 271
D. 820.
E. 270.
70-767 dumps Answer: D

Question: 84
When PHI is sent or received over an electronic network there must be measures to guard against
unauthorized access. This is covered under which security rule standard?
A. Device and Media Controls
B. Access Controls
C. Transmission Security
D. Integrity
E. Audit Controls
Answer: C

Question: 85
Title 1 of the HIPAA legislation in the United States is about:
A. P1<1 requirements for hospitals and health care providers.
B. Encryption algorithms that must be supported by hospitals and health care providers.
C. Fraud and abuse in the health care system and ways to eliminate the same.
D. Guaranteed health insurance coverage to workers and their families when they change
employers.
E. The use of strong authentication technology that must be supported by hospitals and health care
providers.
Answer: D

Question: 86
Implementing policies and procedures to prevent, detect, contain, and correct security violations is
required by which security standard?
A. Security incident Procedures
B. Assigned Security Responsibility
C. Access control
D. Facility Access Controls
E. Security Management Process
Answer: E

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The MCDBA certification is targeted at the following job functions that use Microsoft Windows and back office applications:

  • Database Administrator
  • Database Analyst
  • Database Developer
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MCDBA

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MCDBAVendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCDBA
Exam Name: UPGRADE:MCDBA Skills to MCITP DB Admin by Using MS SQL 2005
Exam Code: 070-447
Total Questions: 137 Q&As
Last Updated: May 05, 2017

Exam Information:
QUESTION 1
When using a proxy server to manage how BlackBerry Smartphone connect to web pages, what are the types available for creating a proxy profile?
A. SQUID, Microsoft ISA
B. Manual configuration, PAC configuration
C. Filtering, Caching, DNS
D. Transparent Proxy, Onion Router

Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Where can ‘new email notifications be configured?
A. Settings -> Notifications -> Messages
B. Options -> Notifications -> Messages
C. BlackBerry Hub -> Notifications -> Messages
D. BlackBerry Hub -> Advanced -> Notifications -> Messages

Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
A user trying to activate their device over USB logs onto Web Desktop with a version of Internet Explorer notices this error Complete the setup process. The necessary controls have not been installed. The ActiveX control is installed on the user s computer. The user should retry the connection with
A. Internet Explorer 8.0 or later browser.
B. Internet Explorer 7.0 or later browser.
C. Firefox 3.5 or later browser.
D. Internet Explorer 9.0 or earlier browser.

Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
The BDS administrator can create an SCEP profile for a simplified means of:
A. deploying certificates for large-scale implementation to everyday users.
B. generating certificates for large-scale deployment.
C. auditing which accounts have certificates in large-scale implementation for everyday users.
D. creating device shortcut icons that the device owner can use to request certificates.

Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
What are the different methods for assigning an activation password for a BlackBerry device?
A. Login to BlackBerry Administration Console, search the user, and select option Specify an Activation password from the user properties
B. Login to BlackBerry Administration Console, search the user, and select option Generate an Activation Email from the user properties
C. Login to BlackBerry Administration Console, search the user, and select option Assign EA password from the user properties
D. Instruct the user to login to BlackBerry Web Desktop and assign their Activation password

Correct Answer: A

MCDBAs on Microsoft SQL Server 2000 will not be required to pass Windows XP Professional/.NET Enterprise Servers exams to retain MCDBA certification. The Windows 2000 exams and the Windows XP/.NET Enterprise Servers exams for the MCDBA on Microsoft SQL Server 2000 certification are expected to remain available concurrently.
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Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012

  • Published: 2017-02-01
  • Languages: English, French, German, Japanese, Russian, Spanish, Portuguese (Brazil), Chinese (Simplified)
  • Audiences: IT professionals
  • Technology: Microsoft SQL Server 2012
  • Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSA, MCSE

Design and implement a data warehouse (11%)
Extract and transform data (23%)
Load data (27%)
Configure and deploy SSIS solutions (24%)
Build data quality solutions (15%)

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NO.1 You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to implement an
incremental data load strategy.
The package reads data from a source system that uses the SQL Server change data capture (CDC)
feature.
You have added a CDC Source component to the data flow to read changed data from the source
system.
You need to add a data flow transformation to redirect rows for separate processing of insert,
update, and delete
operations.
Which data flow transformation should you use?
A. CDC Splitter
B. Audit
C. Merge Join
D. Merge
Answer: A

Explanation: The CDC splitter splits a single flow of change rows from a CDC source data flow into
different data flows
for Insert, Update and Delete operations

 

NO.2 You are designing an enterprise star schema that will consolidate data from three independent
data marts. One of the data marts is hosted on SQL Azure.
Most of the dimensions have the same structure and content. However, the geography dimension is
slightly different in each data mart.
You need to design a consolidated dimensional structure that will be easy to maintain while ensuring
that all dimensional data from the three original solutions is represented.
What should you do?
A. Implement change tracking.
B. Create a conformed dimension for the geography dimension.
C. Create a degenerate dimension for the geography dimension.
D. Create a Type 2 slowly changing dimension for the geography dimension.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You need to recommend a fault-tolerant solution for the VPN. The solution must meet the
technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Network adapter teaming
B. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
C. Failover Clustering
D. DirectAccess
Answer: B

Explanation:
*Scenario: Core networking services in each office must be redundant if a server fails.
*The Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature distributes traffic across several servers by using the
TCP/IP networking protocol. By combining two or more computers that are running applications into
a single virtual cluster, NLB provides reliability and performance for web servers and other mission-
critical servers.
Reference: Network Load Balancing Overview

 

 

NO.4 A company has 200-125 pdf offices in multiple geographic locations. The sites have high-latency, low-
bandwidth connections. You need to implement a multisite Windows Deployment Services (WDS)
topology for deploying standard client device images to all sites.
Solution: At each site, you install a WDS Server. You apply the same configuration settings to each
WDS Server. You configure Distributed File Server Replication (DFSR) to synchronize install images.
Does this meet the goal?
A. No
B. Yes
Answer: B

Explanation:
DFS Replication is compatible with Remote Installation Services (RIS) and WDS.

QUESTION 5
The System Image Utility ________.
A. creates and scans an ASR-ready disk image
B. prepares a disk image for NetBoot or Network Install
C. configures an image to act as the default boot volume
D. configures a computer to startup from a network image

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
You are using ASR multicast to restore multiple computers with the same copy of an ASR-ready disk image. What will the result be?
A. The restorations will be performed simultaneously.
B. The restorations will be queued in the order requested.
C. Users will be prompted to specify a data rate to use for their computer.
D. The computers will start up from a network image and run asr automatically.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
Apple Remote Desktop is ________.
A. an update service provided by Mac OS X Server
B. a management tool used to control computers remotely
C. an administrative tool used to install Mac OS X on remote systems
D. the system preference for allowing remote Apple events in Mac OS X

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
In a multiple-user environment, what action must you take to assure that a user’s Classic preferences will be stored separately?
A. No action is necessary. Classic automatically stores preferences in each user’s home folder.
B. Create an alias to the Classic Preferences folder in the Library folder in each user’s home folder.
C. Under the advanced tab in the Classic System Preferences pane, check use Mac OS 9 preferences from your home folder.
D. In the Classic System Folder, create an alias to the Library/Preferences folder of each user’s home folder and name the alias Preferences.name, where name is the username of that user.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 09
You have added packages to a custom Network Install image. To ensure that the packages are delivered to clients that start up from the image, you must ________.
A. rename the primary package or metapackage on the install image to OSInstall.pkg
B. create a metapackage named primary.mpkg that includes all of the added packages
C. edit the file /private/etc/rc.cdrom.packagePath to contain the path to the main package or metapackage
D. modify /private/etc/installconfig.xml on the disk image to point to the main install package or metapackage

Correct Answer: C

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Your company has a main office that contains several servers and several users. The main office contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. The users access a large report file that is created on Server1 each day. The company plans to open a new branch office. The branch office will contain only client computers. You need to implement a solution to reduce the amount of bandwidth used by the client computers in the branch office to download the report each day.What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Install the BranchCache for network files role service on Server1. Configure the client computers to use BranchCache in hosted cache mode.
B. Configure the offline settings of the shared folder that contains the report.
C. Install the BranchCache for network files role service on Server1. Configure the client computers to use Branchcache in distributed mode.
D. Enable the Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS) feature on Server1 and on each client computer in the branch office. Move the report to a web folder.
Answer: C

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