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[Free New Dumps Version] Latest Release Cisco SWITCH 300-115 Dump Exam Question Youtube Study Guide Free Shared

Where do I get trusted Cisco dumps for 300-115? The Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (300-115 SWITCH) exam is a 120 minutes (30-40 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNP Routing and Switching, CCDP certification. Latest release Cisco SWITCH 300-115 dump exam question Youtube study guide free shared. “Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 300-115 dump test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 300-115 exam. CCNP Routing and Switching SWITCH https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-115.html dump guide from Pass4itsure enables you to succeed on the exam the first time and is the only self-study resource approved by Cisco.

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300-115 dumps

Free Pass4itsure 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 33 A switch is added into the production network to increase port capacity. A network engineer is configuring the switch for DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard, but is unable to configure ip verify source under several of the interfaces. Which option is the cause of the problem?
A. The local DHCP server is disabled prior to enabling IP Source Guard.
B. The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.
C. No VLANs exist on the switch and/or the switch is configured in VTP transparent mode.
D. The switch is configured for sdm prefer routing as the switched database management template.
E. The configured SVIs on the switch have been removed for the associated interfaces.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34 Which command correctly configures standby tracking for group 1 using the default decrement priority value?
A. standby 1 track 100
B. standby 1 track 100 decrement 1
C. standby 1 track 100 decrement 5
D. standby 1 track 100 decrement 20
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35 Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36 RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch. Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.

B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch isoverloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37 Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, localusername, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38 You are giving the debug RHCT exam. The examiner told you that the password of root is redhat. When you tried to login displays the error message and redisplayed the login screen. You changed the root password, again unable to login as a root. How will you make Successfully Login as a root.
Answer and Explanation:
When root unable to login into the system think:
1. Is password correct?
2. Is account expired?
3. Is terminal Blocked?
Do these Steps:
. Boot the System on Single user mode.
. Change the password
. Check the account expire date by using chage -l root command.
If account is expired, set net expire date: chage -E “NEVER” root
1. Check the file /etc/securetty Which file blocked to root login from certain terminal.
2. If terminal is deleted or commented write new or uncomment.
3. Reboot the system and login as a root.
QUESTION 39 You are giving RHCT Exam and in your Exam paper there is a written, make successfully ping to 192.168.0.254.
300-115 vce Answer and Explanation:
In Network problem thinks to check:
1. IP Configuration: use ifconfig command either IP is assigned to interface or not?

2. Default Gateway is set or not?
3. Hostname is set or not?
4. Routing problem is there?
5. Device Driver Module is loaded or not?
6. Device is activated or not?
Check In this way:
1. use ifconfig command and identify which IP is assigned or not.
2. cat /etc/sysconfig/network What, What is written here. Actually here are these parameters.
NETWORKING=yes or no
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
HOSTNAME=?
NISDOMAIN=?
– Correct the file
QUESTION 40 Use vi /etc/sysconfig/network-scirpts/ifcfg-eth0 and check the proper options
DEVICE=eth0
ONBOOT=yes
BOOTPROTO=static
IPADDR=x.x.x.x
NETMAKS=x.x.x.x
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
QUESTION 41  Set the Hostname station?.example.com where ? is your Host IP Address.
300-115 exam Answer and Explanation:
1. hostname station?.example.com This will set the host name only for current session. To set hostname permanently.
2. vi /etc/sysconfig/network HOSTNAME=station?.example.com
3. service network restart

QUESTION 42 The System you are using is for NFS (Network File Services). Some important data are shared from your system. Make automatically start the nfs and portmap services at boot time.
Answer and Explanation:
We can control the services for current session and for next boot time also. For current Session, we use service servicename start or restart or stop or status. For automatically on next reboot time:
1. chkconfig servicename on or off
eg: chkconfig nfs on chkconfig portmap on or ntsysv Select the nfs and portmap services.
2. Reboot the system and identify whether services are running or not.

QUESTION 43
Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?
A. Control Quality
B. Control Scope
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule
compared to the contract is known as:
A. Work performance information.
B. Inspections and audits.
C. Payment systems.
D. Procurement performance reviews.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?
A. Project Communications Management
B. Project Integration Management
C. Project Risk Management
D. Project Scope Management
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate
Costs process?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk register
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
A. Organizational process assets.
B. Enterprise environmental factors updates.
C. Project staff assignments.
D. Organizational charts and position descriptions.
300-115 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete
project activities is known as:
A. Plan Human Resource Management.
B. Acquire Project Team.
C. Manage Project Team.
D. Develop Project Team.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
Which item is an example of personnel assessment?
A. Resource calendar
B. Tight matrix
C. Team-building activity
D. Focus group
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Initiating
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 51
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can
best be involved in a project?
A. Feedback analysis
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Communication management plan
D. Stakeholder management plan
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected
product before actually building is known as:
A. Benchmarking.
B. Context diagrams.
C. Brainstorming.
D. Prototyping.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 53
Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?
A. Power/influence grid
B. Power/interest grid
C. Influence/impact grid
D. Salience model
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?
A. Facilitation techniques
B. Expert judgment
C. Analytical techniques
D. Variance analysis
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?
A. Control charts
B. Pareto diagrams
C. Ishikavva diagrams

D. Checksheets
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:
A. Collect Requirements.
B. Conduct Procurements.
C. Estimate Activity Durations.
D. Estimate Activity Resources.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?
A. Procurement documents
B. Communications plan
C. Project charter
D. Stakeholder register
300-115 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Executing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:
A. Business case.
B. Activity list.
C. Project management plan.
D. Cost forecast.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?
A. Change request
B. Requirements documentation
C. Scope baseline
D. Risk urgency assessment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?
A. Control Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Identify Risks
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:
A. Nominal group technique.
B. Majority.
C. Affinity diagram.
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:
A. mitigate
B. accept
C. transfer
D. avoid
300-115 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:
A. A process improvement plan,
B. Quality control measurements.
C. Work performance information,
D. The project management plan.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 65
A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:
A. Change control plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Risk log
D. Communications management plan
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?
A. Enhance
B. Share
C. Exploit
D. Accept
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:
A. Expert judgment.
B. Analytical techniques.
C. Earned value management.
D. Group decision-making techniques.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?
A. Timing
B. Methodology
C. Risk categories
D. Budgeting
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?
A. Negative
B. Zero
C. Positive
D. Free
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
A reward can only be effective if it is:
A. Given immediately after the project is completed.
B. Something that is tangible.
C. Formally given during project performance appraisals.
D. Satisfying a need valued by the individual.
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and
analysis?
A. Nominal group technique
B. Idea/mind mapping
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 73
Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and
complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement
for a current project describes which type of estimating?
A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric
C. Analogous
D. Three-point
300-115 exam Correct Answer: C
300-115 dumps

“Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks”, also known as 300-115 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-115 dump exam questions answers are updated (456 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 300-115 dump is CCNP Routing and Switching, CCDP. Expert engineer shares preparation hints and test-taking tips, helping you identify areas of weakness and improve https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-115.html dumps both your conceptual knowledge and hands-on skills.

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[Free New Cisco Version From Google Drive] Easily To Pass Latest CCDP Online 300-101 Dumps Certification Exam Training on Issuu

Thousands of companies rely on CCNP to get successful in their business. Cisco CCNP updates itself consistently, so professionals also need to adapt themselves accordingly. We provide Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-101.html dumps to prepare for Cisco CCNP exam in one go, instead of getting stuck for years.

Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Updated: Jul 17, 2017
Q&As: 402

Q: What was your favorite exam to create?
SNMPv3 by far – I set a personal goal to record as much information in 10 minutes as possible…this nugget is faster, funnier, and more packed with information than anything I’ve ever recorded before.

Q: What’s one real-world application someone can expect to use, thanks to this Cisco 300-101 dumps course?
Configuring multi-site, worldwide routing over an MPLS full-mesh cloud while tying in an Internet connection via BGP all while eating a tasty can of pizza flavored Pringles potato chips. Yum.

 

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 300-101 Dumps  Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION NO: 32
Which GSC describes the degree to which the application communicates directly with the
processor?
A. Data communications
B. Distributed data processing
C. Transaction rate
D. Online update
300-101 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 33
Which of the following statements is a characteristic of the GSC – complex processing?
A. Development of the application is influenced by how the development was carried out
B. Development of the application is influenced by the complexity of data communication
C. Development of the application is influenced by the complexity of the processing logic
D. None of the above
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 34
Which transactional function(s) has (have) the primary intent of presenting information to the user
and must reference a data function to retrieve data or control information?
A. EI
B. EO
C. EQ
D. Both B and C
300-101 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 35
The primary intent of an EQ is to:
A. alter the behavior of the application
B. maintain one or more ILFs
C. present information to a user
D. Both A and C
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 36
An External Inquiry is defined as an elementary process that:
A. Sends data outside the boundary
B. Sends Control Information outside the boundary
C. Has a primary intent to present information to a user through retrieval of data or control
information
D. All of the above
300-101 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 37
Which statement(s) is (are) true regarding mandatory processing logic for an EQ?
A. Data or control information is maintained
B. Conditions are analyzed to determine which are applicable
C. At least one ILF or EIF is referenced
D. Data or control information entering the boundary of the application is accepted
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 38
Which processing logic can be performed by an EQ?
A. Equivalent values are converted
B. Behavior of the application is altered
C. Derived data is created
D. Both A and B
300-101 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 39
The functional complexity of an EQ is based upon the number of:
A. RETs
B. FTRs
C. DETs
D. Both B and C
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 40
Which of the following forms of processing logic is mandatory that an EO perform at least one
(m*)?
A. Behavior of the application is altered
B. Equivalent values are converted
C. At least one ILF or EIF is referenced
D. Information is prepared and then presented outside the boundary
300-101 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 41
Which of the following statements is true regarding EOs?
A. An EO is an elementary process that sends data or control information outside the boundary.
B. An EO includes additional processing logic beyond that of an EQ.
C. An EO always maintains a data function.
D. Both A and B
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Processing logic is defined as any of the requirements specifically requested by the user to
complete an elementary process. Those requirements include which of the following actions?
A. Validations
B. Algorithms or calculations
C. Reading or maintaining a data function
D. All of the above
300-101 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 43
An External Output is defined as an elementary process that:
A. Includes addition processing beyond an external inquiry
B. Sends data outside the boundary
C. Has a primary intent to present information to a user though processing logic or in addition to
retrieval of data or control information.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 44
Which of the following statements about an External Output are true?
A. Processing logic must contain multiple mathematical formulas
B. Processing logic must perform at least one mathematical formula
C. Processing logic creates derived data
D. Processing logic contains derived data
300-101 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 45
An FTR is be defined as a:
A. data function maintained by a base functional component
B. data function read and/or maintained by a transactional function
C. base functional component maintained by a transactional function
D. base functional component read and/or maintained by a transactional function
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 46

What is the primary intent of an ILF?
A. Hold data maintained through system tools for use by the application being measured
B. Hold code data for use by the application being measured
C. Hold data maintained through one or more elementary processes of the application being
measured
D. Both A and C
300-101 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 47
Data Element Type is defined as?
A. Functionality provided to the user to meet internal or external data storage requirements
B. An attribute that further describes one or more attributes of another entity
C. Two types of the base functional components identified in the IFPUG International Standard
D. Unique, user recognizable, non-repeated attribute
Answer: D

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QUESTION 38
A network engineer is extending a LAN segment between two geographically separated data centers. Which enhancement to a spanning-tree design prevents unnecessary traffic from crossing the extended LAN segment?
A. Modify the spanning-tree priorities to dictate the traffic flow.
B. Create a Layer 3 transit VLAN to segment the traffic between the sites.
C. Use VTP pruning on the trunk interfaces.
D. Configure manual trunk pruning between the two locations.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Pruning unnecessary VLANs from the trunk can be performed with one of two methods:
Manual pruning of the unnecessary VLAN on the trunk–This is the best method, and it avoids the use of the spanning tree. Instead, the method runs the pruned VLAN on trunks.

VTP pruning–Avoid this method if the goal is to reduce the number of STP instances. VTP- pruned VLANs on a trunk are still part of the spanning tree.
Therefore, VTP-pruned VLANs do not reduce the number of spanning tree port instances. Since the question asked for the choice that is an enhancement to the STP design, VTP pruning is the best choice. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk689/technologies_tech_note09186a0080890613.shtml
QUESTION 39
The network manager has requested that several new VLANs (VLAN 10, 20, and 30) are allowed to traverse the switch trunk interface. After the command switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,20,30 is issued, all other existing VLANs no longer pass traffic over the trunk. What is the root cause of the problem?
A. The command effectively removed all other working VLANs and replaced them with the new VLANs.
B. VTP pruning removed all unused VLANs.
C. ISL was unable to encapsulate more than the already permitted VLANs across the trunk.
D. Allowing additional VLANs across the trunk introduced a loop in the network.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The “switchport trunk allowed vlan” command will only allow the specified VLANs, and overwrite any others that were previously defined. You would also need to explicitly allow the other working VLANs to this configuration command, or use the “issue the switchport trunk allowed vlan add vlan-list” command instead to add these 3 VLANS to the other defined allowed VLANs. Reference: https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/11836/how-define-vlans-allowed-trunk- link
QUESTION 40
When you design a switched network using VTPv2, how many VLANs can be used to carry user traffic?
A. 1000
B. 1001
C. 1024
D. 2048
E. 4095
F. 4096

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP versions 1 and 2 Supports normal VLAN numbers (1-1001). Only VTP version 3 supports extended VLANs (1-4095).
Reference: http://cciememo.blogspot.com/2012/11/difference-between-vtp-versions.html

QUESTION 41
What does the command vlan dot1q tag native accomplish when configured under global configuration?
A. All frames within the native VLAN are tagged, except when the native VLAN is set to 1.
B. It allows control traffic to pass using the non-default VLAN.
C. It removes the 4-byte dot1q tag from every frame that traverses the trunk interface(s).
D. Control traffic is tagged.
Correct Answer: D Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The “vlan dot1q tag native” will tag all untagged frames, including control traffic, with the defined native VLAN.

QUESTION 42
A network engineer has just deployed a non-Cisco device in the network and wants to get information about it from a connected device. Cisco Discovery Protocol is not supported, so the open standard protocol must be configured. Which protocol does the network engineer configure on both devices to accomplish this?
A. IRDP
B. LLDP
C. NDP
D. LLTD

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a vendor-neutral link layer protocol in the Internet Protocol Suite used by network devices for advertising their identity,
capabilities, and neighbors on an IEEE 802 local area network, principally wired Ethernet. LLDP performs functions similar to several proprietary protocols, such
as the Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP). Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Link_Layer_Discovery_Protocol

QUESTION 43
A manager tells the network engineer to permit only certain VLANs across a specific trunk interface. Which option can be configured to accomplish this?
A. allowed VLAN list
B. VTP pruning
C. VACL
D. L2P tunneling

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When a trunk link is established, all of the configured VLANs are allowed to send and receive traffic across the link. VLANs 1 through 1005 are allowed on each
trunk by default. However, VLAN traffic can be removed from the allowed list. This keeps traffic from the VLANs from passing over the trunk link.
Note: The allowed VLAN list on both the ends of the trunk link should be the same. For Integrated Cisco IOS Software based switches, perform these steps:
1.To restrict the traffic that a trunk carries, issue the switchport trunk vlan-list interface configuration command.
This removes specific VLANs from the allowed list.
Reference: https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/11836/how-define-vlans-allowed-trunk- link

QUESTION 44
For client server failover purposes, the application server team has indicated that they must not have the standard 30 second delay before their switchport enters a forwarding state. For their disaster recovery feature to operate successfully, they require the switchport to enter a forwarding state immediately. Which spanning-tree feature satisfies this requirement?
A. Rapid Spanning-Tree
B. Spanning-Tree Timers
C. Spanning-Tree FastPort
D. Spanning-Tree PortFast
E. Spanning-Tree Fast Forward

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: In order to allow immediate transition of the port into forwarding state, enable the STP PortFast feature. PortFast immediately transitions the port into STP forwarding mode upon linkup. The port still participates in STP. So if the port is to be a part of the loop, the port eventually transitions into STP blocking mode. Example configuration: Switch-C# configure terminal Switch-C(config)# interface range fa0/3 – 24 Switch-C(config-if-range)# spanning-tree portfast Reference: http://www.informit.com/library/content.aspx? b=CCNP_Studies_Switching&seqNum=36
QUESTION 45
Which command does a network engineer use to verify the spanning-tree status for VLAN 10?
A. switch# show spanning-tree vlan 10
B. switch# show spanning-tree bridge
C. switch# show spanning-tree brief
D. switch# show spanning-tree summary
E. switch# show spanning-tree vlan 10 brief

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Command Description

show spanning-tree Displays information about the spanning-tree state.

Example output:
SW2#show spanning-tree vlan 10

VLAN0010
Spanning tree enabled protocol rstp
Root ID Priority 24586

Address 0014.f2d2.4180 Cost 9 Port 216 (Port-channel21) Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec
Bridge ID Priority 32778 (priority 32768 sys-id-ext 10) Address 001c.57d8.9000 Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Aging Time 300 sec
Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type ——————- —- — ——— ——– ————————— Po21 Root FWD 9 128.216 P2p Po23 Altn BLK 9 128.232 P2p
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/lanswitch/command/reference/lsw_s2.html
QUESTION 46
A new network that consists of several switches has been connected together via trunking interfaces. If all switches currently have the default VTP domain name “null”, which statement describes what happens when a domain name is configured on one of the switches?
A. The switch with the non-default domain name restores back to “null” upon reboot.
B. Switches with higher revision numbers does not accept the new domain name.
C. VTP summary advertisements are sent out of all ports with the new domain name.
D. All other switches with the default domain name become VTP clients.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By default, a switch will have a domain name of NULL and no password. If the switch hears a VTP advertisement it will automatically learn the VTP domain name,
VLANs, and the configuration revision number.
Summary advertisements sent out every 300 seconds and every time a change occurs on the VLAN database. Contained in a summary advertisement:
VTP version
Domain name
Configuration revision number
Time stamp
MD5 encryption hash code
Reference: https://rowell.dionicio.net/configuring-cisco-vtp/

QUESTION 47
A network engineer is setting up a new switched network. The network is expected to grow and add many new VLANs in the future. Which Spanning Tree Protocol should be used to reduce switch resources and managerial burdens that are associated with multiple spanning-tree instances?
A. RSTP
B. PVST
C. MST
D. PVST+
E. RPVST+

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Multiple Spanning Tree (MST) extends the IEEE 802.1w RST algorithm to multiple spanning
trees. The main purpose of MST is to reduce the total number of spanning-tree instances to
match the physical topology of the network and thus reduce the CPU cycles of a switch.
PVRST+ runs STP instances for each VLAN and does not take into consideration the physical
topology that might not require many different STP topologies. MST, on the other hand, uses a
minimum number of STP instances to match the number of physical topologies present.
Figure 3-15 shows a common network design, featuring an access Switch A, connected to two
Building Distribution submodule Switches D1 and D2. In this setup, there are 1000 VLANs, and
the network administrator typically seeks to achieve load balancing on the access switch uplinks
based on even or odd VLANs–or any other scheme deemed appropriate.

Figure 3-15: VLAN Load Balancing Figure 3-15 illustrates two links and 1000 VLANs. The 1000 VLANs map to two MST in-stances. Rather than maintaining 1000 spanning trees, each switch needs to maintain only two
spanning trees, reducing the need for switch resources.
Reference: http://ciscodocuments.blogspot.com/2011/05/chapter-03-implementing-spanning- tree_19.html

QUESTION 48
Which statement about the use of SDM templates in a Cisco switch is true?
A. SDM templates are used to configure system resources in the switch to optimize support for specific features, depending on how the switch is used in the network.
B. SDM templates are used to create Layer 3 interfaces (switch virtual interfaces) to permit hosts in one VLAN to communicate with hosts in another VLAN.
C. SDM templates are used to configure ACLs that protect networks and specific hosts from unnecessary or unwanted traffic.
D. SDM templates are used to configure a set of ACLs that allows the users to manage the flow of traffic handled by the route processor.
E. SDM templates are configured by accessing the switch using the web interface.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: You can use SDM templates to configure system resources in the switch to optimize support for specific features, depending on how the switch is used in the network. You can select a template to provide maximum system usage for some functions; for example, use the default template to balance resources, and use access template to obtain maximum ACL usage. To allocate hardware resources for different usages, the switch SDM templates prioritize system resources to optimize support for certain features. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3750x_3560x/software/release/12.2_55_s e/configuration/guide/swsdm.pdf
QUESTION 49
Which SDM template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC addresses?
A. VLAN
B. access
C. default
D. routing

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To allocate ternary content addressable memory (TCAM) resources for different usages, the switch SDM templates prioritize system resources to optimize support
for certain features. You can select SDM templates to optimize these features:
Access–The access template maximizes system resources for access control lists (ACLs) to accommodate a large number of ACLs.

Default–The default template gives balance to all functions.

Routing–The routing template maximizes system resources for IPv4 unicast routing, typically required for a router or aggregator in the center of a network.

VLANs–The VLAN template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC addresses. It would typically be selected for a Layer 2
switch. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3560/software/release/12.2_55_se/config uration/guide/swsdm.pdf
QUESTION 50
Which SDM template is the most appropriate for a Layer 2 switch that provides connectivity to a large number of clients?
A. VLAN
B. default
C. access
D. routing

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To allocate ternary content addressable memory (TCAM) resources for different usages, the switch SDM templates prioritize system resources to optimize support
for certain features. You can select SDM templates to optimize these features:
Access–The access template maximizes system resources for access control lists (ACLs) to accommodate a large number of ACLs.

Default–The default template gives balance to all functions.

Routing–The routing template maximizes system resources for IPv4 unicast routing, typically required for a router or aggregator in the center of a network.

VLANs–The VLAN template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC addresses (clients). It would typically be selected for a Layer
2 switch. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3560/software/release/12.2_55_se/config uration/guide/swsdm.pdf
QUESTION 51
In a Cisco switch, what is the default period of time after which a MAC address ages out and is discarded?
A. 100 seconds
B. 180 seconds
C. 300 seconds
D. 600 seconds

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To configure the aging time for all MAC addresses, perform this task:
Command Purpose

Step 1 switch# configure ter- Enters configuration mode.
minal

Step 2 switch(config)# mac-ad- Specifies the time before an entry ages out and is dis- dress-table aging-time carded from the MAC address table. The range is
from seconds [vlan vlan_id] 0 to 1000000; the default is 300 seconds. Entering the value 0 disables the MAC aging. If a VLAN is not
specified, the aging specification applies to all VLANs.

Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guide/cli/M ACAddress.html

QUESTION 52
If a network engineer applies the command mac-address-table notification mac-move on a Cisco switch port, when is a syslog message generated?
A. A MAC address or host moves between different switch ports.
B. A new MAC address is added to the content-addressable memory.
C. A new MAC address is removed from the content-addressable memory.
D. More than 64 MAC addresses are added to the content-addressable memory. Correct Answer: A

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
mac-address-table notification mac-move

To enable MAC-move notification, use the mac-address-table notification mac-move com- mand in global configuration mode. To disable MAC-move notification,
use the no form of this command.
mac-address-table notification mac-move [counter [syslog]] no mac-address-table notification mac-move [counter [syslog]] Syntax Description

counter (Optional) Specifies the MAC-move counter feature. syslog (Optional) Specifies the syslogging facility when the MAC-move notification detects the first
instance of the MAC move.
Usage Guidelines

MAC-move notification generates a syslog message whenever a MAC address or host moves between different switch ports.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/lanswitch/command/reference/lsw_m1.html

QUESTION 53
Which option is a possible cause for an errdisabled interface?
A. routing loop
B. cable unplugged
C. STP loop guard
D. security violation Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There are various reasons for the interface to go into errdisable. The reason can be:
Duplex mismatch
Port channel misconfiguration

BPDU guard violation

UniDirectional Link Detection (UDLD) condition

Late-collision detection

Link-flap detection
Security violation

Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) flap

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) guard

DHCP snooping rate-limit

Incorrect GBIC / Small Form-Factor Pluggable (SFP) module or cable Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) inspection

Inline power Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a00806cd87b.shtml
QUESTION 54
What is the default value for the errdisable recovery interval in a Cisco switch?
A. 30 seconds
B. 100 seconds
C. 300 seconds

D. 600 seconds Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
After you fix the root problem, the ports are still disabled if you have not configured errdisable recovery on the switch. In this case, you must reenable the ports
manually. Issue the shutdown command and then the no shutdown interface mode command on the associated interface in order to manually reenable the ports.

The errdisable recovery command allows you to choose the type of errors that automatically reenable the ports after a specified amount of time. The show errdisable recovery command shows the default error-disable recovery state for all the possible conditions. cat6knative#show errdisable recovery ErrDisable Reason Timer Status
udld Disabled
bpduguard Disabled
security-violatio Disabled
channel-misconfig Disabled
pagp-flap Disabled
dtp-flap Disabled
link-flap Disabled
l2ptguard Disabled
psecure-violation Disabled
gbic-invalid Disabled
dhcp-rate-limit Disabled
mac-limit Disabled
unicast-flood Disabled
arp-inspection Disabled

Timer interval: 300 seconds
Interfaces that will be enabled at the next timeout:
Note: The default timeout interval is 300 seconds and, by default, the timeout feature is disabled.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a00806cd87b.shtml

QUESTION 55
Which statement about LLDP-MED is true?
A. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates between endpoint devices and network devices.
B. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates only between network devices.
C. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates only between endpoint devices.
D. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates between routers that run BGP.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
LLDP for Media Endpoint Devices (LLDP-MED) is an extension to LLDP that operates between endpoint devices such as IP phones and network devices such as
switches. It specifically provides support for voice over IP (VoIP) applications and provides additional TLVs for capabilities discovery, network policy, Power over
Ethernet, and inventory management.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/metro/me3400/software/release/12.2_58_se/configur ation/guide/swlldp.pdf

QUESTION 56
Which statement about Cisco devices learning about each other through Cisco Discovery Protocol is true?
A. Each device sends periodic advertisements to multicast address 01:00:0C:CC:CC:CC.
B. Each device broadcasts periodic advertisements to all of its neighbors.
C. Each device sends periodic advertisements to a central device that builds the network topology.
D. Each device sends periodic advertisements to all IP addresses in its ARP table.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cisco devices send periodic CDP announcements to the multicast destination address 01-00-0c- cc-cc-cc, out each connected network interface. These multicast
packets may be received by Cisco switches and other networking devices that support CDP into their connected network interface.
Reference: http://network.spravcesite.net/subdom/network/index.php?id=cdp

QUESTION 57
Which option lists the information that is contained in a Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisement?
A. native VLAN IDs, port-duplex, hardware platform
B. native VLAN IDs, port-duplex, memory errors
C. native VLAN IDs, memory errors, hardware platform
D. port-duplex, hardware platform, memory errors

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Type-Length-Value fields (TLVs) are blocks of information embedded in CDP advertisements. Table 21 summarizes the TLV definitions for CDP advertisements.
Table 21 Type-Length-Value Definitions for CDPv2

TLV Definition

Device-ID TLV Identifies the device name in the form of a character string.

Address TLV Contains a list of network addresses of both receiving and sending devices.

Port-ID TLV Identifies the port on which the CDP packet is sent.

Capabilities TLV Describes the functional capability for the device in the form of a de- vice type, for example, a switch.

Version TLV Contains information about the software release version on which the device is running.

Platform TLV Describes the hardware platform name of the device, for example, Cisco 4500.

IP Network Prefix Contains a list of network prefixes to which the sending device can TLV forward IP packets. This information is in the form of the interface protocol and port number, for example, Eth 1/0.
VTP Management Advertises the system’s configured VTP management domain name- Domain TLV string. Used by network operators to verify VTP domain configuration in adjacent network nodes.
Native VLAN TLV Indicates, per interface, the assumed VLAN for untagged packets on the interface. CDP learns the native VLAN for an interface. This fea- ture is implemented only for interfaces that support the IEEE 802.1Q protocol.
Full/Half Duplex Indicates status (duplex configuration) of CDP broadcast interface. TLV Used by network operators to diagnose connectivity problems be- tween adjacent network elements.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/configfun/configuration/guide/fcf015.html
QUESTION 58
Which option describes a limitation of LLDP?
A. LLDP cannot provide information about VTP.
B. LLDP does not support TLVs.
C. LLDP can discover only Windows servers.
D. LLDP can discover up to two devices per port.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
LLDP Versus Cisco Discovery Protocol TLV Comparison Function Description LLDP TLV Cisco Discovery Protocol TLV
IP network prefix support-Used to send the net- No IP Network Prefix work prefix and used for ODR TLV
Hello piggybacking-Can be used to piggy back No Protocol Hello TLV hello messages from other protocols
Maximum-transmission-unit (MTU) sup- No MTU TLV port-Specifies the size of the MTU
External port support-Used to identify the card No External Port-ID terminating the fiber in the case of wave- TLV length-division multiplexing (WDM)
VTP management support No VTP Management Domain TLV
Port unidirectional mode-Used in fiber, where No Port UniDirectional the connection may be unidirectional Mode TLV
Management address Management Ad- Management-Ad-dress TLV dressTLV
Allows for organizational unique TLVs Yes No Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/technologies/tk652/tk701/technologies_white_paper0900aecd804c d46d.html
QUESTION 59
Which statement about the UDLD protocol is true?
A. UDLD is a Cisco-proprietary Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to monitor the physical status of links and detect unidirectional failures.
B. UDLD is a Cisco-proprietary Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to advertise their identity, capabilities, and neighbors on a local area network.
C. UDLD is a standardized Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to monitor the physical status of links and detect unidirectional failures.
D. UDLD is a standardized Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to advertise their identity, capabilities, and neighbors on a local area network.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Cisco-proprietary UDLD protocol monitors the physical configuration of the links between devices and ports that support UDLD. UDLD detects the existence
of unidirectional links. When a unidirectional link is detected, UDLD puts the affected port into the errdisabled state and alerts the user.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12.2SX/configuration/guide/udl d.html

QUESTION 60
Which option lists the modes that are available for configuring UDLD on a Cisco switch?
A. normal and aggressive
B. active and aggressive
C. normal and active
D. normal and passive
E. normal and standby

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Cisco-proprietary UDLD protocol monitors the physical configuration of the links between devices and ports that support UDLD. UDLD detects the existence
of unidirectional links. When a unidirectional link is detected, UDLD puts the affected port into the errdisabled state and alerts the user. UDLD can operate in either
normal or aggressive mode.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12.2SX/configuration/guide/udl d.html
QUESTION 61
What is the default interval at which Cisco devices send Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 300 seconds

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Cisco Discovery Protocol is a Layer 2, media-independent, and network-independent protocol that networking applications use to learn about nearby, directly connected devices. Cisco Discovery Protocol is enabled by default. Each device configured for Cisco Discovery Protocol advertises at least one address at which the device can receive messages and sends periodic advertisements (messages) to the well-known multicast address 01:00:0C:CC:CC:CC. Devices discover each other by listening at that address. They also listen to messages to learn when interfaces on other devices are up or go down. Advertisements contain time-to-live information, which indicates the length of time a receiving device should hold Cisco Discovery Protocol information before discarding it. Advertisements supported and configured in Cisco software are sent, by default, every 60 seconds. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ ios-xml/ios/cdp/configuration/15-mt/nm-cdp- discover.html
QUESTION 62
Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol configuration on a Cisco switch is true?
A. CDP is enabled by default and can be disabled globally with the command no cdp run.
B. CDP is disabled by default and can be enabled globally with the command cdp enable.
C. CDP is enabled by default and can be disabled globally with the command no cdp enable.
D. CDP is disabled by default and can be enabled globally with the command cdp run.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
CDP is enabled on your router by default, which means the Cisco IOS software will receive CDP information. CDP also is enabled on supported interfaces by
default. To disable CDP on an interface, use the “no cdp enable interface” configuration command. To disable it globally, use the “no cdp run” command.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/configfun/command/reference/frf015.html#wp10175

QUESTION 63
Which VTP mode is needed to configure an extended VLAN, when a switch is configured to use VTP versions 1 or 2?
A. transparent
B. client
C. server
D. Extended VLANs are only supported in version 3 and not in versions 1 or 2.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP version 1 and version 2 support VLANs 1 to 1000 only. Extended-range VLANs are supported only in VTP version 3. If converting from VTP version 3 to VTP
version 2, VLANs in the range 1006 to 4094 are removed from VTP control.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12.2SX/configuration/guide/vtp.
html

QUESTION 64
What is the size of the VLAN field inside an 802.1q frame?
A. 8-bit
B. 12-bit
C. 16-bit
D. 32-bit
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The VLAN field is a 12-bit field specifying the VLAN to which the frame belongs. The hexadecimal values of 0x000 and 0xFFF are reserved. All other values may be used as VLAN identifiers, allowing up to 4,094 VLANs Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IEEE_802.1Q
QUESTION 65
What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be assigned to an access switchport without a voice VLAN?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 1024
Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
A standard (non-voice VLAN port) access switch port can belong to only a single VLAN. If more than one VLAN is needed, the port should be configured as a
trunk port.

QUESTION 66
Refer to the exhibit.

Which option shows the expected result if a show vlan command is issued?

A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In this case, the port has been configured both as a trunk and as a switchport in data vlan 10. Obviously, a port can not be both, so even though Cisco IOS will
accept both, the port will actually be used as a trunk, ignoring the switchport access VLAN 10 command.

QUESTION 67
Which feature is automatically enabled when a voice VLAN is configured, but not automatically disabled when a voice VLAN is removed?
A. portfast
B. port-security
C. spanning tree D. storm control

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Voice VLAN Configuration Guidelines
You should configure voice VLAN on switch access ports.
The voice VLAN should be present and active on the switch for the IP phone to correctly communicate on the voice VLAN. Use the show vlan privileged EXEC command to see if the VLAN is present (listed in the display).

The Port Fast feature is automatically enabled when voice VLAN is configured. When you disable voice VLAN, the Port Fast feature is not automatically
disabled. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2950/software/release/12.1_22_ea11x/co nfiguration/guide/swvoip.html
QUESTION 68
In which portion of the frame is the 802.1q header found?
A. within the Ethernet header
B. within the Ethernet payload
C. within the Ethernet FCS
D. within the Ethernet source MAC address

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Frame format

Insertion of 802.1Q tag in an Ethernet frame 802.1Q does not encapsulate the original frame. Instead, for Ethernet frames, it adds a 32-bit field between the source MAC address and the EtherType/length fields of the original frame Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IEEE_802.1Q
QUESTION 69
Which VLAN range is eligible to be pruned when a network engineer enables VTP pruning on a switch?
A. VLANs 1-1001
B. VLANs 1-4094
C. VLANs 2-1001
D. VLANs 2-4094

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP pruning should only be enabled on VTP servers, all the clients in the VTP domain will automatically enable VTP pruning. By default, VLANs 2 1001 are
pruning eligible, but VLAN 1 can’t be pruned because it’s an administrative VLAN. Both VTP versions 1 and 2 supports pruning.
Reference: http://www.orbit-computer-solutions.com/VTP-Pruning.php

QUESTION 70
Which feature must be enabled to eliminate the broadcasting of all unknown traffic to switches that are not participating in the specific VLAN?
A. VTP pruning
B. port-security
C. storm control
D. bpdguard

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: VTP ensures that all switches in the VTP domain are aware of all VLANs. However, there are occasions when VTP can create unnecessary traffic. All unknown unicasts and broadcasts in a VLAN are flooded over the entire VLAN. All switches in the network receive all broadcasts, even in situations in which few users are connected in that VLAN. VTP pruning is a feature that you use in order to eliminate or prune this unnecessary traffic. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/ support/docs/lan-switching/vtp/10558- 21.html#vtp_pruning
QUESTION 71
Refer to the exhibit.

The users in an engineering department that connect to the same access switch cannot access the network. The network engineer found that the engineering
VLAN is missing from the database.
Which action resolves this problem?

A. Disable VTP pruning and disable 802.1q.
B. Update the VTP revision number.
C. Change VTP mode to server and enable 802.1q.
D. Enable VTP pruning and disable 802.1q.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Only VTP servers can add new VLANs to the switched network, so to enable vlan 10 on this switch you will first need to change the VTP mode from client to
server. Then, you will need to enable 802.1Q trunking to pass this new VLAN along to the other switches.

QUESTION 72
Refer to the exhibit.

The network switches for two companies have been connected and manually configured for the required VLANs, but users in company A are not able to access network resources in company B when DTP is enabled. Which action resolves this problem?
A. Delete vlan.dat and ensure that the switch with lowest MAC address is the VTP server.
B. Disable DTP and document the VTP domain mismatch.
C. Manually force trunking with switchport mode trunk on both switches.
D. Enable the company B switch with the vtp mode server command.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Since the number of existing VLANs differ on the switches (9 on A and 42 on B) we know that there is a problem with VTP or the trunking interfaces. The VTP
domain names do match and they are both VTP servers so there are no issues there. The only viable solution is that there is a DTP issues and so you must
instead manually configure the trunk ports between these two switches so that the VLAN information can be sent to each switch.

QUESTION 73
A network engineer must implement Ethernet links that are capable of transporting frames and IP traffic for different broadcast domains that are mutually isolated. Consider that this is a multivendor environment. Which Cisco IOS switching feature can be used to achieve the task?
A. PPP encapsulation with a virtual template
B. Link Aggregation Protocol at the access layer
C. dot1q VLAN trunking
D. Inter-Switch Link

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Here the question asks for transporting “frames and IP traffic for different broadcast domains that are mutually isolated” which is basically a long way of saying
VLANs so trunking is needed to carry VLAN information. There are 2 different methods for trunking, 802.1Q and ISL. Of these, only 802.1Q is supported by
multiple vendors since ISL is a Cisco proprietary protocol.

QUESTION 74
Which statement about using native VLANs to carry untagged frames is true?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 2 carries native VLAN information, but version 1 does not.
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 1 carries native VLAN information, but version 2 does not.
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 1 and version 2 carry native VLAN information.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 3 carries native VLAN information, but versions 1 and 2 do not.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) version 2 passes native VLAN information between Cisco switches. If you have a native VLAN mismatch, you will see CDP error
messages on the console output.
Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=29803&seqNum=3

QUESTION 75
Refer to the exhibit.

A multilayer switch has been configured to send and receive encapsulated and tagged frames. VLAN 2013 on the multilayer switch is configured as the native VLAN. Which option is the cause of the spanning-tree error?
A. VLAN spanning-tree in SW-2 is configured.
B. spanning-tree bpdu-filter is enabled.
C. 802.1q trunks are on both sides, both with native VLAN mismatch.
D. VLAN ID 1 should not be used for management traffic because its unsafe.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Here we see that the native VLAN has been configured as 2013 on one switch, but 1 (the default native VLAN) on the other switch. If you use 802.1Q trunks, you must ensure that you choose a common native VLAN for each port in the trunk. Failure to do this causes Cisco switches to partially shut down the trunk port because having mismatched native VLANs can result in spanning-tree loops. Native VLAN mismatches are detected via spanning tree and Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP), not via DTP messages. If spanning tree detects a native VLAN mismatch, spanning tree blocks local native VLAN traffic and the remote switch native VLAN traffic on the trunk; however, the trunk still remains up for other VLANs. Reference: http://www.informit.com/library/content.aspx? b=CCNP_Studies_Switching&seqNum=25
QUESTION 76
A network engineer must improve bandwidth and resource utilization on the switches by stopping the inefficient flooding of frames on trunk ports where the frames
are not needed.
Which Cisco IOS feature can be used to achieve this task?

A. VTP pruning
B. access list
C. switchport trunk allowed VLAN
D. VLAN access-map

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cisco advocates the benefits of pruning VLANs in order to reduce unnecessary frame flooding. The “vtp pruning” command prunes VLANs automatically, which
stops the inefficient flooding of frames where they are not needed.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/catalyst-6500-series- switches/24330-185.html

QUESTION 77
Which action allows a network engineer to limit a default VLAN from being propagated across all trunks?
A. Upgrade to VTP version 3 for advanced feature set support.
B. Enable VTP pruning on the VTP server.
C. Manually prune default VLAN with switchport trunk allowed vlans remove.
D. Use trunk pruning vlan 1.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Manaully pruning the default VLAN (1) can only be done with the “switchport trunk allowed vlans remove” command. VLAN 1 is not VTP pruning eligible so it
cannot be done via VTP pruning. The “trunk pruning vlan 1” option is not a valid command.

QUESTION 78
What is required for a LAN switch to support 802.1q Q-in-Q encapsulation?
A. Support less than 1500 MTU
B. Support 1504 MTU or higher
C. Support 1522 layer 3 IP and IPX packet
D. Support 1547 MTU only
Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
The default system MTU for traffic on Catalyst switches is 1500 bytes. Because the 802.1Q tunneling (Q-in-Q) feature increases the frame size by 4 bytes when
the extra tag is added, you must configure all switches in the service-provider network to be able to process maximum frames by increasing the switch system
MTU size to at least 1504 bytes.
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/12.1_13_ea1/confi guration/guide/swtunnel.html

QUESTION 79
Refer to the exhibit.

How many bytes are added to each frame as a result of the configuration?
A. 4-bytes except the native VLAN
B. 8-bytes except the native VLAN
C. 4-bytes including native VLAN
D. 8-bytes including native VLAN

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In 802.1Q trunking, all VLAN packets are tagged on the trunk link, except the native VLAN. A VLAN tag adds 4 bytes to the frame. Two bytes are used for the tag
protocol identifier (TPID), the other two bytes for tag control information (TCI).

QUESTION 80
A network engineer configured a fault-tolerance link on Gigabit Ethernet links G0/1, G0/2, G0/3, and G0/4 between two switches using Ethernet port-channel. Which action allows interface G0/1 to always actively forward traffic in the port-channel?
A. Configure G0/1 as half duplex and G0/2 as full duplex.
B. Configure LACP port-priority on G0/1 to 1.
C. Configure LACP port-priority on G0/1 to 65535.
D. LACP traffic goes through G0/4 because it is the highest interface ID.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A LACP port priority is configured on each port using LACP. The port priority can be configured automatically or through the CLI. LACP uses the port priority with
the port number to form the port identifier. The port priority determines which ports should be put in standby mode when there is a hardware limitation that
prevents all compatible ports from aggregating. The higher the number, the lower the priority. The valid range is from 1 to 65535. The default is 32768.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2sb/feature/guide/gigeth.html#wp1081491

QUESTION 81
Which statement about the use of PAgP link aggregation on a Cisco switch that is running Cisco IOS Software is true?
A. PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirable- desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.
B. PAgP modes are active, desirable, and on. Only the combinations active-desirable, desirable- desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.
C. PAgP modes are active, desirable, and on. Only the combinations active-active, desirable- desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.
D. PAgP modes are off, active, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-auto, desirable- desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirable- desirable, and on-on will allow a channel to be formed.
The PAgP modes are explained below.

1.
on: PAgP will not run. The channel is forced to come up.
2.
off: PAgP will not run. The channel is forced to remain down.
3.
auto: PAgP is running passively. The formation of a channel is desired; however, it is not initiated.
4.
desirable: PAgP is running actively. The formation of a channel is desired and ini- tiated.
Only the combinations of auto-desirable, desirable-desirable, and on-on will allow a channel to be formed. If a device on one side of the channel does not support
PAgP, such as a router, the device on the other side must have PAgP set to on.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/catalyst-2900-xl-series- switches/21041-131.html

QUESTION 82
Refer to the exhibit.

Which EtherChannel negotiation protocol is configured on the interface f0/13 f0/15?
A. Link Combination Control Protocol
B. Port Aggregation Protocol
C. Port Combination Protocol
D. Link Aggregation Control Protocol

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirable- desirable, and on-on will allow a channel to be formed. .

1.
on: PAgP will not run. The channel is forced to come up.

2.
off: PAgP will not run. The channel is forced to remain down.

3.
auto: PAgP is running passively. The formation of a channel is desired; however, it is not initiated.

4.
desirable: PAgP is running actively. The formation of a channel is desired and ini- tiated.
The Link Aggregate Control Protocol (LACP) trunking supports four modes of operation: On: The link aggregation is forced to be formed without any LACP negotiation .In other words, the switch neither sends the LACP packet nor processes any inbound LACP packet. This is similar to the on state for PAgP.
Off: The link aggregation is not formed. We do not send or understand the LACP packet.

This is similar to the off state for PAgP.

Passive: The switch does not initiate the channel but does understand inbound LACP packets. The peer (in active state) initiates negotiation (when it sends out an LACP packet) which we receive and answer, eventually to form the aggregation channel with the peer. This is similar to the auto mode in PAgP.

Active: We can form an aggregate link and initiate the negotiation. The link aggregate is formed if the other end runs in LACP active or passive mode. This is
similar to the desir- able mode of PAgP. In this example, we see that fa 0/13, fa0/14, and fa0/15 are all in Port Channel 12, which is operating in desirable mode, which is only a PAgP mode.
QUESTION 83
Refer to the exhibit.

Users of PC-1 experience slow connection when a webpage is requested from the server. To increase bandwidth, the network engineer configured an EtherChannel on interfaces Fa1/0 and Fa0/1 of the server farm switch, as shown here:
Server_Switch#sh etherchannel load-balance EtherChannel Load-Balancing Operational State (src-mac): Non-IP: Source MAC address IPv4: Source MAC address IPv6: Source IP address Server_Switch#
However, traffic is still slow. Which action can the engineer take to resolve this issue?
A. Disable EtherChannel load balancing.
B. Upgrade the switch IOS to IP services image.
C. Change the load-balance method to dst-mac.
D. Contact Cisco TAC to report a bug on the switch.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Since this traffic is coming from PC-1, the source MAC address will always be that of PC-1, and since the load balancing method is source MAC, traffic will only be
using one of the port channel links. The load balancing method should be changed to destination MAC, since the web server has two NICs traffic will be load
balanced across both MAC addresses.

QUESTION 84
A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the bundle?
A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but not the duplex for all ports in the bundle.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
PAgP aids in the automatic creation of EtherChannel links. PAgP packets are sent between EtherChannel-capable ports in order to negotiate the formation of a
channel. Some restrictions are deliberately introduced into PAgP. The restrictions are:
PAgP does not form a bundle on ports that are configured for dynamic VLANs. PAgP requires that all ports in the channel belong to the same VLAN or are configured as trunk ports. When a bundle already exists and a VLAN of a port is modified, all ports in the bundle are modified to match that VLAN.
PAgP does not group ports that operate at different speeds or port duplex. If speed and duplex change when a bundle exists, PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.

PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirable- desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel. The device on the other side must have PAgP set to on if a device on one side of the channel does not support PAgP, such as a router. Reference: http:// www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/etherchannel/12023-4.html
QUESTION 85
Which statement about using EtherChannel on Cisco IOS switches is true?
A. A switch can support up to eight compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel. The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 800 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel or 8 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.
B. A switch can support up to 10 compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel. The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 1000 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel or 8 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.
C. A switch can support up to eight compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel. The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 800 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel or 16 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.
D. A switch can support up to 10 compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel. The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 1000 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel or 10 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: An EtherChannel consists of individual Fast Ethernet or Gigabit Ethernet links bundled into a single logical link. The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 800 Mbps (Fast EtherChannel) or 8 Gbps (Gigabit EtherChannel) between your switch and another switch or host. Each EtherChannel can consist of up to eight compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces. All interfaces in each EtherChannel must be the same speed, and all must be configured as either Layer 2 or Layer 3 interfaces. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/etherchannel/12023-4.html
QUESTION 86
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about switch S1 is true?
A. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 port-channel interface using an open standard protocol.
B. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 physical port-channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 port-channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
D. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 physical port-channel interface using an open standard protocol.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
These three ports show that they are in Port Channel 1, and the (SU) means they are in use and operating at layer 2. The protocol used for this port channel
shows as LACP, which is a standards based protocol, as opposed to PAgP, which is Cisco proprietary.

QUESTION 87
What happens on a Cisco switch that runs Cisco IOS when an RSTP-configured switch receives 802.1d BPDU?
A. 802.1d does not understand RSTP BPDUs because they are different versions, but when a RSTP switch receives an 802.1d BPDU, it responds with an 802.1d BPDU and eventually the two switches run 802.1d to communicate.
B. 802.1d understands RSTP BPDUs because they are the same version, but when a RSTP switch receives a 802.1d BPDU, it responds with a 802.1d BPDU and eventually the two switches run 802.1d to communicate.
C. 802.1d does not understand RSTP BPDUs because they are different versions, but when a RSTP switch receives a 802.1d BPDU, it does not respond with a 802.1d BPDU.
D. 802.1d understands RSTP BPDUs because they are the same version, but when a RSTP switch receives a 802.1d BPDU, it does not respond with a 802.1d BPDU and eventually the two switches run 802.1d to communicate.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: For backward compatibility with 802.1D switches, RSTP selectively sends 802.1D configuration BPDUs and TCN BPDUs on a per-port basis. When a port is initialized, the migrate-delay timer is started (specifies the minimum time during which RSTP BPDUs are sent), and RSTP BPDUs are sent. While this timer is active, the switch processes all BPDUs received on that port and ignores the protocol type. If the switch receives an 802.1D BPDU after the port migration-delay timer has expired, it assumes that it is connected to an 802.1D switch and starts using only 802.1D BPDUs. However, if the RSTP switch is using 802.1D BPDUs on a port and receives an RSTP BPDU after the timer has expired, it restarts the timer and starts using RSTP BPDUs on that port. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12- 2SX/configuration/guide/book/spantree.html
QUESTION 88
When two MST instances (MST 1 and MST 2) are created on a switch, what is the total number of spanning-tree instances running on the switch?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Unlike other spanning tree protocols, in which all the spanning tree instances are independent, MST establishes and maintains IST, CIST, and CST spanning trees:

An IST is the spanning tree that runs in an MST region.
Within each MST region, MST maintains multiple spanning tree instances. Instance 0 is a special instance for a region, known as the IST. All other MST instances are numbered from 1 to 4094. In the case for this question, there will be the 2 defined MST instances, and the special 0 instance, for a total of 3 instances.
The IST is the only spanning tree instance that sends and receives BPDUs. All of the other span- ning tree instance information is contained in MSTP records (M-

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