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Latest Questions 3M0-300 exam dumps _v2011-11-09_55q_By-Ned

this dump good luck By-Ned Exam A QUESTION 1
Which of the following routers supports version 2.41 router code?
A. 5231
B. 5232
C. 5640
D. 5680
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a standard port available on the Router 5012?
A. ISDN
B. Console
C. Serial WAN
D. 10/100 Ethernet

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
True or False: The Flexible Interface Cards (FICs) in the Router 6040 can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
True or False: The RPU can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
What kind of modules does the Router 5232 use?
A. SICs only
B. MIMs only
C. SICs and MIMs
D. SICs and FICs

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
Which of the following modules is a daughter card that fits onto the RPU2?
A. ATM
B. Enhanced Serial
C. Encryption Card
D. Memory Expansion Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
How many FIC slots does a Router 6040 have?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
Which of the following features is available on both the RPU and the RPU2?
A. SFP Interface Slot
B. CF Memory Card slot
C. Gigabit Ethernet Interfaces
D. Power and Fan LED indicators

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
What does it indicate if the LEDs on the Power Supply of the Router 6000 are as follows? ALM (red) – OFF RUN (green) ON
AC OK (red) – ON
A. Power is OFF or has failed
B. A Runtime error has occurred
C. Power is ON and voltage is normal
D. Power is ON but operating voltage is not within acceptable range

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
True or False, The Router 6080 Fans have two rotational speeds.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
True or False: The RPU2 can support a daughter card.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which of the following Network Management applications does NOT support the Router 5000/6000?
A. Enterprise Management Suite
B. 3Com Network Director Firewall
C. Router Manager
D. Switch Manager

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
The default baud rate for the Router 6040 is 9600 bps. What are the other settings?
A. 7 data bits, 2 stop bits, Even Parity
B. 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, Even Parity
C. 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, No Parity
D. 8 data bits, 0 stop bits, No Parity

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
At which prompt will you receive an error if you entered the command Interface Serial 0/0?
A. <Router>
B. [Router]
C. [Router-ospf-1]
D. [Router-Eth 1/0]

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Which command will reset the router to factory defaults?
A. undo start
B. reset start
C. reset to factory
D. reset saved-configuration

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Which interface/command shows the correct syntax to configure an IP address on a serial interface of the router 5012 on slot 1 port 0?
A. [RTA-Serial 1/0] ip interface10.1.3.1 24
B. [RTA-Serial 0/1] ip address 10.1.3.1 24
C. [RTA-Serial 1/0/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24
D. [RTA-Serial 0/1/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements is true about Router 5000/6000 series routers, with regard to TFTP?
A. They can be TFTP clients only
B. They can be TFTP servers only
C. They can be either TFTP clients or TFTP Servers
D. They do not support TFTP

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
True or False, The Router 6000 series routers have boot code and main code to upgrade while the 5000 Series Routers only have main code to upgrade.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
In a Router 5012, which command lists the files in a directory?
A. ls
B. dir
C. show list
D. display directory

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20
In the command delete /unreserved name2.bin What does /unreserved specify
A. to hide the file so that it looks deleted
B. to store the file in the recycle bin after deleting
C. to delete the file and not add it to the recycle bin
D. to perform the command immediately and not to queue the operation

Correct Answer: C

 

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QUESTION 67
You have a fully-loaded, top-end, NBX V3000 with full licensing. You discover the NBX V3000 internal disk drive is nearly full. Which three are ways the NBX administrator can manage the available disk space on an NBX V3000 system? (Choose three.)
A. Limit the number of NBX users
B. Limit the maximum length of any message
C. Use a network server to supplement the NBX V3000 internal disk drive
D. Limit the number of messages an individual user can have at any one time
E. Replace the NBX V3000 20Gb internal disk drive with a larger capacity disk
F. Have the system remove messages more quickly by reducing the message retention period
G. Increase the NBX V3000 disk drive “Free Space” setting which automatically removes the oldest voice messages when the Free Space threshold is exceeded

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 68
Which NBX system(s) supports software version R4.4?
A. NBX 100
B. NBX V3000
C. SuperStack 3 NBX
D. All NBX Systems

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
Which two NBX V3000 system components are field upgradeable or field replaceable? (Choose two.)
A. Disk drive
B. Power supply
C. Memory module
D. Analog port module
E. Analog Terminal Card
F. T1/E1 Digital Line module
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 70
Which four are NBX V3000 system R4.4 paging capabilities? (Choose four.)
A. Up to nine (9) paging zones can be created
B. Users can disable paging on their individual phones
C. Any device within a paging group can initiate a page
D. There is no limit on the number of users in a page zone
E. A device or extension can belong to only one paging zone
F. Must page all internal devices, all external devices or both
G. Page users through telephone speakers and/or external Public Address system

Correct Answer: ACDG
QUESTION 71
Which two are NBX system R4.3 paging capabilities? (Choose two.)
A. Up to nine (9) paging zones can be created
B. Users can disable paging on their individual phones
C. There is no limit on the number of users in a page zone
D. Must page all internal devices, all external devices or both
E. Page users through telephone speakers and/or external Public Address system

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 72
All NBX Basic and Business Telephones can initiate and/or receive a page.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 73
Which three devices can initiate an NBX page but cannot receive a page? (Choose three.)
A. WAV device
B. NBX Basic telephone
C. NBX Digital Line Card
D. Polycom Speakerphone
E. NBX Analog Terminal Card
F. NBX Analog Terminal Adapter (ATA)

Correct Answer: AEF
QUESTION 74
How does an NBX telephone or pcXset user send a page?
A. Pick up handset and dial the page zone extension; caller speaks sending page to receivers terminate call
B. Pick up handset;press feature button;dail the page zone extension; caller speks sending page to receivers ;terminate call
C. Pick up handset; press feature button; dail the page zone extension; caller waits until LCD displays-“Paging ready”;caller speaks sending page to receivers; terminate call
D. Pickup the handset; press feature button and dial the page zone extension;caller waits until LCD displays-“paging ready”;caller speaks sending page to receivers; terminate call

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 75
Which four steps should the NBX administrator perform to set up a new Page Zone that includes an external broadcast over a public address (PA) system? (Choose four.)
A. Specify the MAC or IP address of PA system
B. Checkbox “Add External Page” to include PA system
C. Specify the Page Zone name and associated zone extension
D. Add new members by clicking on members in the “Member” list
E. Add new members to the page zone by typing in their extension or name
F. Select User Configuration / Page Zones / Add to create a new page zone
G. Select Device Configuration / Telephone Groups / Page Zones to create a new page zone.

Correct Answer: BCDF
QUESTION 76
Which three steps should the NBX administrator perform to add new members to an existing Page Zone? (Choose three.)
A. Select user Configuration / Page Zones
B. Select the new members from the “Non-Members” list and click the “<<” button
C. Select User Configuration / Page Zones and add users
D. Select the existing Page Zone to be updated from the list of zones and choose “Modify”
E. Select User Configuration/page zone;enter the page name and extension;and click “Modify”

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 77
What is the function of the NBX Configurable Operator?
A. Allows the NBX administrator to setup system operators available to inbound callers who reach voice mail
B. Allows an NBX user to setup multiple Auto Attendant destinations so inbound callers can direct their call to a specific person in their department
C. Allows the NBX administrator and NBX users to setup a System and/or Personal Operator available to inbound callers who reach a user’s voice mail
D. Allows the NBX administrator to setup multiple Auto Attendant destinations so inbound callers can direct their call to a specific department in the company
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 78
What should the NBX administrator do to allow users to create their own Personal Operator?
A. Ensure that 3rd-party messaging is enabled
B. Using NetSet, select User Configuration / Class of Service and enable Personal Operator
C. Using NetSet, select NBX Messaging / Personal Operator and enable the Operator functions
D. Using NetSet, select User Configuration / Class of Service and enable System and Personal Operators
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 61
The 3Com 11a/b/g Wireless LAN Workgroup Bridge enables a laptop, PC or printer without built-in wireless capability to connect to a wireless LAN.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 62
Which three are concerns facing companies deploying Voice Wi-Fi (VoWi-Fi) network solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Low level of security
B. Multi-building campus environments
C. Roaming from access point (AP) to AP
D. Bandwidth capacity of access points (APs)
E. Quality of Service (QoS)

Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 63
An advantage of using radio frequency (RF) signals for a Wireless LAN (WLAN) is that an RF signal can pass through any object without interference (i.e., walls, concrete, steel, etc.).
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 64
Drag each 3Com Wireless LAN Access Point (AP) model to the set of features it supports.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 65
Match each 3Com OfficeConnect wireless product with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 66
Choose the three features supported by the 11g 54Mbps Wireless LAN Outdoor Building-to-Building Bridge. (Choose three.)

A. Wireless Distribution System (WDS) Bridging
B. Multiple antenna options
C. Weatherproof enclosure
D. Built-in 18dBi directional antenna
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 67
Match each security protocol/standard with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 68
How can the network administrator set the IP address and administrator password on a 3Com Access Point?
A. Type the follow CLI commands “Set IPaddress <x.x.x.x>” and “Set user <name> password <p/w> admin”
B. Use the Wireless Infrastructure Device Manager (WIDM) IP command
C. Use the Wireless Infrastructure Device Manager (WIDM) configure command
D. Type the follow CLI command “Set user <name> password <p/w> admin”

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 69
Which procedure allows the network administrator to set up a Wireless LAN Access Point (AP) 8750 to support RADIUS Authentication?
A. Use the Wireless Infrastructure Device Manager (WIDM) to choose the AP from the list, click on the “RADIUS” hyperlink and configure the RADIUS settings
B. Use a web browser to navigate to the RADIUS Authentication server, click on “Configure new device,” choose the AP from the list and configure the RADIUS settings
C. Use the 3Com Web Configuration Management System to login to the 3Com Wireless LAN Controller/ Switch, choose the AP from the list and configure the RADIUS settings
D. Use the 3Com Web Configuration Management System to login to the AP, click on the “RADIUS” hyperlink and configure the RADIUS settings
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 70
Which best describes the features of the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch WX1200?
A. Centrally manages/controls up to 24 Managed Access Points (MAPs), improving wireless roaming, security and management
B. Centrally manages/controls up to six Managed Access Points (MAPs), improving security and management
C. Centrally manages/controls up to 24 Managed Access Points (MAPs), improving security and management
D. Centrally manages/controls up to 12 Managed Access Points (MAPs), improving wireless roaming, security and management
E. Centrally manages/controls up to 12 Managed Access Points (MAPs), improving security and management

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 71
Which three are features of a Wireless Distribution System (WDS)? (Choose three.)
A. Operates only in Extended Service Set (ESS)
B. Makes a wireless network a Layer 3 network
C. Can bridge traffic between access points
D. Uses Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) to manage redundant wireless paths
E. Supported on the Wireless LAN Access Point 7250 and Wireless LAN Access Point 8xx0 family
F. Access points must be configured with unique Service Set ID (SSID)

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 72
Which parameters must be completed to set up a 3Com access point (AP) as a non-restrictive Virtual Access Point (VAP)?
A. VLAN ID and radio channels
B. Service Set ID (SSID) and Wi-Fi settings
C. Service Set ID (SSID) and VLAN ID
D. Bridging mode and radio channels
E. MAC address and Service Set ID (SSID)
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 73
Match each security protocol/standard with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 74
Which command in Windows XP would you use to begin the setup process for a wireless NIC?
A. Right click the Wireless Network Connection icon and choose Configure
B. Right click the Wireless Network Connection icon and choose Properties
C. Right click the Wireless Network Connection icon and choose Install
D. Right click the Wireless Network Connection icon and choose Load

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 75
Which best describes the purpose of the Wireless LAN Switch/Controller “quickstart” command?
A. It is the command that allows the administrator to perform basic system configuration,
B. e., IP address, date/time, etc.
C. It is the command that first deletes any configuration on the device, then allows the administrator to perform basic system configuration, i.e., IP address, date/time, etc.
D. It is the command that allows the administrator to perform advanced system configuration
E. It begins the configuration process that automatically assigns the IP address and configures the device for basic operations

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 76
Many access points (APs) are set up with a default configuration, known as “open system” or “open system authentication,” so any station can associate and connect.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 77
Which three are standards/limitations when you are creating a mobility domain on the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller (WX)? (Choose three.)
A. Can define only one seed WX per mobility domain
B. Each WX must have a system IP address
C. Each IP address on the WX must belong to the same subnet
D. Each VLAN must be locally configured on at least one WX
E. Mobility domains are limited to a single IP subnet or network

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 78
Which RF obstacle-planning functions are supported by the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM)?
A. Create objects that may absorb RF signals and assign each object an attenuation factor
B. Assign an attenuation factor to all objects from an imported GIF floor plan
C. Assign an attenuation factor to all objects from an imported JPEG floor plan
D. Remove unnecessary layers from imported JPEG floor plans

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 79
Which 3Com Web Configuration Management System Advanced Settings software screen allows the network administrator to configure the authentication, encryption and key management parameters for an access point (AP)?
A. Wi-Fi settings
B. WEP settings
C. Radio settings
D. Security settings

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
What is required before the network administer can connect to a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller via telnet?
A. Create a user/password on the device and set the console port authentication
B. Enable privilege mode, create a user/password on the device and set the console port authentication
C. Assign a master password to the device and set the console port authentication
D. Enable telnet services, create an admin user/password on the device and assign the device an IP address
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 81
What is the #1 concern for Wireless LAN (WLAN) enterprise customers?
A. Network bandwidth capacity
B. Wireless coverage
C. Management
D. Security

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 82
Which three are 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) network planning functions? (Choose three.)
A. Generate a work order
B. Define the RF model and the coverage areas for the floor
C. Define the connection speeds for wired devices on a floor
D. Launch countermeasures against rogue access points
E. Define the geographical area for the wireless network

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 83
Which 5 GHz IEEE 802.11 WLAN band is best suited for building-to-building wireless communications?
A. 5.0 – 5.1 GHz
B. 5.3 GHz
C. 5.7 – 5.8 GHz
D. 5.2 GHz

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 84
Which best describes the information provided with the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) work order?
A. Information for the physical installation of Managed Access Points (MAPs)
B. Information for the physical installation of Managed Access Points (MAPs), 3Com Wireless LAN Controller/Switch initial setup configuration information and projected RSSI information of the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System
C. Information for the physical installation of the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System
D. Information for the physical installation and software parameters, i.e., IP addresses, VLANs, channel assignments, etc., of Managed Access Points (MAPs)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
What is displayed by the 3Com Launcher/3Com Wireless LAN Manager if the antenna is retracted on a 3Com 11a/b/g Wireless PC Card with XJACK Antenna?
A. A picture with a green line connecting the PC and AP
B. A picture with a yellow line connecting the PC and AP
C. A picture with a red line connecting the PC and AP
D. A picture with multiple curved lines showing the single strength between the PC and AP

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 86
Which three Wireless LAN Access Point 8750 parameters are set using the 3Com Web Configuration Management System “Advanced Setup Radio Setting” window? (Choose three.)
A. IP address and subnet mask
B. VLAN IDs
C. Maximum number of client associations
D. Device name and type
E. Administrator password
F. Service Set ID (SSID)
Correct Answer: BCEF
QUESTION 87
What does the IEEE 802.11d standard specify?
A. Defines MAC-based Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism
B. Defines encryption using the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
C. Defines the ability to fine tune Wireless LAN configuration at the Physical (PHY) Layer to comply with country-specific rules
D. Defines Inter Access Point Protocol (IAPP)

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 88
Match each 3Com OfficeConnect wireless client product with its features.
A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 89
Match each 3Com Wireless Switch (WX) IP service with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 90
Which wireless building-to-building bridge distance-related parameter must be set to ensure each wireless bridge waits the appropriate period for a response from other wireless bridges?
A. Acknowledgement Delay Timeout (ACK)
B. Request to Send/Clear to Send (RTS/CTS)
C. Broadcast Service Set Identifier (SSID)
D. Basic Rate Set
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 60
Which three are features of Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing? (Choose three)
A. 15 maximum router hops
B. Uses a path cost routing metric
C. Updates routing tables when network topology changes occur
D. By default, peridoc updates are sent every 30 seconds between routers
E. Maximum hops are limited only by the size of the routing tables within routers

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 61
Which class of IP addresses is reserved for IP multicasting?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
E. Any class of IP address may be used for IP multicasting

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
Which LAN technology provides both incremental bandwidth and redundancy between devices?
A. Resilient Links
B. Aggregated Links
C. IEEE 802.3 1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
D. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
E. IEEE 802.3 1W Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
Your Maluti University (MU) data center design uses a single Switch 8814 to support the campus backbone, the server farm and the wiring-closet connections in Building 9. Which four current Switch 8800 features address Maluti Univerisity (MU) network requirements? (Choose four)
A. With no single point of failure, the switch creates a reliable, high-availablity solution
B. Protocol-based VLAN support provides the necessary flexibility to control broadcast traffic.
C. Support integrated Services (IntServ) and RSVP to provide flow-based, fine-grain control over network traffic.
D. With the load-sharing, redundant Switch Fabric, the switch has a maximum aggregated throughput of more than 400 Mpps
E. Multiple priority features will ensure key applications receive the best network response, i.e; eight priority queues per port, Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED) queuing and DiffServ support.
F. IEEE 802.1X network Login and Authentication, Authorization, Accounting (AAA) capabilities provide the necessary network security by establishing what services employees can use and preventing unauthorized users from gaining access to the network
Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 64
Which 3Com solution would you recommend for the Maluti University (MU) data center in Building 9 to create the highly-redundant campus backbone connecting the four distribution buildings?
A. Option A -One Switch 7700 8-Slot Chassis Starter Kit with -One 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858) Eight 1000BASE-SX GBICs (3CGBIC91)
B. Option B -One Switch 8810 Starter Kit with -One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17516) Eight 1000BASE-LX GBICs (3CGBIC92)
C. Option C -One Switch 8814 Starter Kit with -One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17516) Eight 1000BASE-LX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92) -One Switch 8800 360 Gbps Fabric Module (3C17508)
D. Option D -One Switch 8814 Starter Kit with -One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17516) -Eight 1000BASE-LX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92) -Two Switch 8800 360 Gbps Fabric Modules (3C17508)

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 65
If you recommended the 3Com Switch 8800 for Maluti University (MU) data center solution in Building 9, which Switch 8800 interface-module solution would you use to connect the Satellite Buildings to the data center switch?
A. One 24-port 10/100/1000BASE-T Module (3C17516)
B. Multiple 2-port 10 GBASE-X modules (3C17512) with 10GBASE-ER XENPAK transceivers
C. One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17513) with multiple 1000BASE-LH SFP Transceivers (3CSFP97)
D. One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17513) with multiple 1000BASE-LX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
You recommended a 1000BASE-X campus-backbone solution to Maluti University (MU) to connect the four distribution buildings to the data center MU is concerned that the 1000BASE-X campus backbone will not provide enough network bandwidth to support its combined data/voice network traffic. Which solution would you recommend to MU to alleviate this concern?
A. Use VLAN segmentation to reduce the traffic that traverses the campus backbone.
B. Distribute the 28 servers, currently located in Building 9 data center, throughout the network to reduce campus-backbone traffic.
C. Use the Switch 8800 in the data center and the Switch 4070 in the distribution centers with 10-Gig Ethernet connections between the switches
D. Use the Switch 8800 in the data center and the Switch 7700 in the distribution centers with 10-Gig Ethernet connections between the switches

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 67
If you recommended the 3Com Switch 8800 for Maluti University (MU) data center solution in Building 9, which Switch 8800 interface-module solution would you use to connect the wiring-closet switches in Building 9 to the data center switch?
A. The 12-or 24-Port 1000BASE-X module
B. The 24-port 10/100/1000BASE-T Module (3C17516)
C. The 12- or 24-Port 1000BASE-X module with multiple 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers ( 3CSFP91)
D. The 12- or 24-port 1000BASE-X module with multiple 1000BASE-LHSFP Transceivers (3CSFP97)

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
Which solution would you recommend to the Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) to support its wiring closet, end-user switch requirements?
A. SuperStake 3 Switch 4400 FX
B. SuperStake 3 Switch 4400 SE with a 1000BASE-SX Module
C. SuperStake 3 Switch 4400 24/48-Port with 1000BASE-T Module
D. SuperStake 3 Switch 4400 24/48-Port with 1000BASE-SX Module

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
Which two 3Com solution would you recommend for the Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) Building 9 data center to support both the campus/building backbone and the server farm with a single switch? (Choose two)
A. One Switch 4070
B. One Switch 7700 7-Slot Chassis
C. One Switch 7700R 8-Slot Chassis
D. One Switch 8807
E. One Switch 8810

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 70
Which three Switch 8800 features address the Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) data center’s backbone-core requirements? (Choose three)
A. Protocol-based VLAN support provides the necessary flexibility to control broadcast traffic.
B. Load-sharing, redundant Switch Fabric provides higher data throughput and increased network reliability
C. With four prioritization queues per port, the switch has the QoS support required for network telephony
D. Reliability features reduce network outages, i.e, hot-swappable I/O modules, power supplies fans, Switch Fabric and VRRP support.
E. Resilient Links used in combination with Link Aggregation creates hih-speed, redundant links from the data center to the four distribution buildings.
F. IEEE 802.1X network Login and Authentication, Authorization, Accounting (AAA) capabilities provide the necessary network security by establishing what services employees can use and preventing unauthorized users from gaining access to the network

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 71
If you chose either the 3Com Switch 8810 or Switch 8814 for Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) data center solution, which interface Modules would you use to connect the four distribution centers and the nine satellite buildings?
A. Option A -One 24-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17514) with -Four 1000BASE-LX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92) to connect the distribution centers -Nine 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP91) to connect the satellite buildings
B. Option B -Two 24-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17514) with -26 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP91) to connect the distribution centers and the satellite buildings
C. Option C -One 12-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17513) and One 24-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17514) with -26 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP91) to connect the distribution centers and the satellite buildings
D. Option D -One 12-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17513) One 24-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17514)with Eight 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92) to connect the distribution centers -18 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP91) to connect the satellite buildings

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
Which two 3 Com solutions would you recommend to Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) for each of the four distribution centers in Buildings 16,20,35 and 38, to connect them to the campus backbone? (Choose two)
A. Option A -Two Switch 4050 each with -One 1000BASE-SX GBIC
B. Option B -Two Switch 4060 each with -One 1000BASE-LX GBIC
C. Option C -One switch 7700 7-slot chassis starter kit with -One 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858) -Two 1000BASE-SX GBICs (3CBIC91)
D. Option D -One switch 7700R 8-slot chassis starter kit with -One 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858) -Two 1000BASE-LX GBICs (3CBIC92)
E. Option E -One switch 7700 R 8-slot chassis starter kit with -One 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858) -Four 1000BASE-LX GBICs (3CBIC92)

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 73
Which three Switch 8800 features address the Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) data center’s backbone-core requirements? (Choose three)
A. Protocol-based VLAN support provides the necessary flexibility to control broadcast traffic.
B. Load-sharing, redundant Switch Fabric provides higher data throughput and increased network reliability
C. With four prioritization queues per port, the switch has the QoS support required for network telephony
D. Reliability features reduces network outages, i,e hot -swappable I/O modules, power supplies fans, Switch Fabric and VRRP support
E. Resilient Links used in combination with Link Aggreation creates high-speed, redundant links from the data center to the four distribution buildings
F. IEEE802.1Xnetwork Login and Authentication Authorization, Accounting (AAA) capabilities provide the necessary network security by eastablishing what services employees can use and preventing unauthorized users from gaining access to the network

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 74
Which two 3Com solutions would you recommend for the Da Silva Research Fundation (DRF) Building 9 data center to support both the campus/building backbone and the server farm with a single switch? (Choose two)
A. One Switch 4070
B. One Switch 7700 7-Slot Chassis
C. One Switch 7700R 8-Slot Chassis
D. One Switch 8807
E. One Switch 8810

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 75
Which solution would you recommend as the distribution-layer switch for each of the Bantry Bay four main buildings that connect to the data center and to the smaller buildings on campus?
A. Two Switch 4050
B. Two Switch 4060
C. Two SuperStack 3 Switch 4924
D. Two SuperStake 3 Switch 4950

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
If you choose two Switch 4060s for each of the Bantry Bay distribution layer buildings, which three would you recommend to the customer to provide maximum resiliency and throughput? (Choose three)
A. Redundant internal power supplies
B. Resilient Links to maximize backbone redundancy
C. SuperStack 3 Advanced Redundant Power System
D. XRN Interconnect Kit to connect the two distribution-layer switches
E. IEEE802.3 ad Link Aggregation to maximize backbone bandwidth and reliability
F. SuperStack 3 Switch 4900 1000BASE-T module to connect the two distribution-layer switches

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 77
If you choose the SuperStack 3 Switch 4924 to support the Bantry Bay server farm, which three customer benefits are attained from using an XRN interconnection Kit with the two SuperStack 3 Switch 4924 server-farm switches? (Choose three)
A. The Fabric Interconnect has an 8-Gbps (16-Gbps full duplex)switching limit
B. The two switches would share one IP address and be managed as a single entity
C. Any number of ports can join a Link Aggregation trunk with all ports active and transporting data
D. XRN Distributed Resilient Routing (DDR) uses a “Master Router” to perform all the routing across the Fabric.
E. XRN Distributed Resilient Routing (DDR) allows switches in the Fabric to act as a single logical router, which provides router resiliency in the event of a unit failure in the Fabric
F. XRN Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA) guarantees high levels of resiliency, because a failure in one of the member links results in automatic redistribution of traffic across the remaining links

Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 78
If you reocommend a single Switch 7700R 8-Slot Chassis to create the hihly-resilient backbone, which three switch components would Bantry Bay require for the data center’s backbone-core switch? (Choose three)
A. One Switch 7700R Starter Kit (3C16852)
B. One Switch 7700 AC Power Supply (3C 16854)
C. Three Switch 7700 AC Power Supplies (3C 16854)
D. One Switch 7700R 8-Slot Fan Assembly (3C 16855)
E. One Switch 7700R Gigabit Ethernet Redundant Switching Fabric (3C 16857R)

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 79
Which two 3Com solutions would you recommend for the Bantry Bay data center, backbone core? (Choose two)
A. Two Router 6040
B. One Router 6080
C. Two Switch 7700 4-Slot Chassis
D. Two switch 7700 7-s;ot chassis
E. One switch 7700R 8-slot Chassis

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 80
If you recommend a Switch 7700 for the data center backbone-core solution, which three modules/ interfaces would the customer require for each of the two data center backbone-core switches? (Choose three)
A. Eight 1000BASE-SX GBICs (3CGBIC91)
B. Eight 1000BASE-LH70 GBICs (3CGBIC97)
C. One Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-T module (3C16859)
D. One Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858)
E. Two Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-T module (3C16859)
F. Two Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858)

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 81
Which two rules must be followed when configuring Link Aggregation groups on the Switch 7700 1000BASE-T and 1000BASE-X modules? (Chosse two)
A. The Linux Aggregation group can start on any port.
B. All the ports in a Link Aggregation group must be consecutive
C. A single Link Aggregation group can span multiple Interface Modules
D. A maximum of eight ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation group
E. A maximum of twelve ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation roup

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 82
Which three components are required to create a local XRN solution (excluding the appropriate 3Com switches? (Choose three)
A. 3Com Network Supervisor
B. XRN Fabric interconnect Modules
C. High-Bandwidth interconnect Cable
D. Gigabit Multilayer Switching Software V3.x
E. Gigabit Ethernet Layer switching modules
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 83
What is the maximum number of Link Aggregation load-balancing group supported on the Switch 7700?
A. 4 groups
B. 13 groups
C. 24 groups
D. 64 groups
E. 128 groups

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 84
Which two Switch Fabric Engine LED conditions indicate there is a problem with the Switch 7700? (Choose two)
A. ALMLED is off
B. ALMLED is blinking
C. RUN LED is solid green
D. RUN LED is blinking green

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 85
If you choose two Switch 4060s for each of the Bantry Bay distribution layer buildings, which three would you recommend to the customer to provide maximum resiliency and throughput? (Choose three)
A. Redundant internal power supplies
B. Resilient Links to maximize backbone redundancy
C. SuperStack 3 Advanced Redundant Power System
D. XRN Interconnect Kit to connect the two distribution-layer switches
E. IEEE802.3 ad Link Aggregation to maximize backbone bandwidth and reliability
F. SuperStack 3 Switch 4900 1000BASE-T module to connect the two distribution-layer switches

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 86
The Switch 7700 or Switch 8800 can be used as the primary authentication service or as a backup if the RADIUS server group is unavailable.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
Exhibit:
Which three Ethernet modes are supported on the Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-T(3c16859)Interface
Module? (Choose three)

A. 10 Mbps in full duplex only
B. 10 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
C. 100 Mbps in full duplex mode only
D. 100 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
E. 1000 Mbps in full duplex mode only
F. 1000 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 88
Which three are recommended guidelines for an XRN network? (Choose three) A. Only enable Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) or Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) on edge switches
B. Do not insert Fabric interconnect Modules into the Super Stack 3 Switch 4900 or Switch 40×0 switches
C. Run the same version of the Gigabit Multilayer Switching (MS) Software (4Xor higher) across the fabric
D. Use fault-tolerant 3Comhardware, i.e the Switch 40×0 family that provides additional levels of hardware fault tolerance
E. The XRN Fabric Modules should be installed while the fabric switch powered on. Hot swapping XRN Fabric Modules is also recommended in the event of a failure
Correct Answer: BCD

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QUESTION 51
Which Switch 7700 command shows the prority used for input/output packet operations?
A. display priority-trust
B. display qos-interface all
C. display qos-interface traffic-priority
D. display qos-interface traffic-statistics

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 52
Which three can be used to download a configuration fole on the Switch 7700? (Choose three)
A. Use IP PROTOCOL
B. Use FTP protocol
C. Use TFTP protocol
D. Use HTTP protocol
E. Use XMODEM protocol
F. Use the system “dump” command

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 53
Which two are syslog features/ functions on the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800? (Choose two)
A. Responsible for all system information on output
B. By default, the syslog automatically clears its file every 30 days
C. Is divided into eight levels, which can be filtered based on a level
D. Serves as an information center of the system’s software modules
E. Can be dumped to aconsole, monitor, SQL database or ASCII text file
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 54
Which four are Link Aggregation features/functions on the Switch 7700? (Choose four)
A. The switch supports the IEEE 802.3ad standard
B. Link Aggregation ports must be consecutive switch ports
C. Link Aggregation ports should be set to TRUNK or HYBRID
D. Use the “display interface” command to see all ports within a group
E. Use the “display link-aggregation” command to see all ports within a group
F. A Link Aggregation port should be set to “access” if more than one VLAN is supported on the link
Correct Answer: BCDF QUESTION 55
Which two Switch Fabric Engine LED conditions indicate there is a problem with the Switch 7700? (Choose two)
A. ALMLED is off
B. ALMLED is blinking
C. RUN LED is solid green
D. RUN LED is blinking green

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 56
When two PCs on the same Virtual LAN (VLAN) are unable to communicate with each other, which three procedures will help troubleshoot the Layer 2 Data Link issue? (Choose three)
A. Flush the IP routing table
B. Check the VLAN setting for each port
C. Check the LED status on each of the ports
D. Clear and reset the Spanning Tree Protocol tables
E. Flush the Address Resolution Protocol table
F. Check the bridge forwarding table to ensure the IP/MAC address assignment is correct

Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 57
Which four are hardware features/functions of the SuperStack 3 Switch 4900 Family? (Choose four)
A. Full/half duplex on all ports
B. Four traffic queues per port
C. Store and forward switching
D. GBIC interface for flexible cabling
E. 12,000MAC addresses per unit, 64 permanent
F. Smart auto-sensing across all multi-speed copper ports
Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 58
Which four are switch configuration features of the Superstack 3 switch 4900 Family? (Choose four)
A. Configuration information is stored in a read-only file
B. Switch configuration can be stored or restored from a remote server
C. Up to three software images can be saved in the switch’s flash memory
D. The switch must be reset to the factory default before a configuration can be saved
E. Only a manager or security access level user can perform save or restor operations
F. All switch information is saved to the configuration file i.e, passwords, IP addresses, etc..
G. During the software upgrade the new image will always overwrite the standby image
H. The configuration of the Distributed Fabric is saved and restored with eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN)
Correct Answer: ABH
QUESTION 59
XRN Technology v2.0 allows network architects to scale bandwidth capacity.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 47
Which three are important considerations when configuring/calling a remote NBX phone connected via a cable modem or DSL link? (Choose three.)
A. Enable silence suppression and low bandwidth options in the NBX
B. Fixed or DHCP IP address can be assigned to remote NBX phones
C. An NBX gateway is required to support remote users without an NBX
D. All phone calls between the central and remote sites use Layer 2 IP packets
E. Network Address Translation (NAT) should be configured for the central site but NAT should not be used at the remote site
F. The Network Call Processor (NCP) can provide the remote phone an IP address for the duration of a call to a remote user
G. The Network Call Processor (NCP) can be configured to provide the local phone an IP address for the duration of a call to a remote user
Correct Answer: ABG QUESTION 48
Which three are NBX IP licensing features or requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Every NBX device requires a fixed IP address
B. A DHCP server is required to use IP On-the-Fly
C. IP On-the-Fly is included with all new NBX base systems
D. Companies can upgrade their license from IP On-the-Fly to Standard IP
E. IP addresses can be supplied via static or DCHP addressing when using Standard IP
F. An NBX phone can operate as a Layer 3 “IP Phone” on a per-call basis when using IP-on-the-Fly

Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 49
Which three bandwidth reduction methods are supported by the NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Pulse Code Modulation (PCM)
B. Adaptive Transform Encoding (ATE)
C. ITU-T G.723 bandwidth compression
D. ITU-T G.729 bandwidth compression
E. Silence suppression on a per-device basis only
F. Adaptive Differential Pulse Code Modulation (ADPCM)
G. Silence suppression on a system-wide or per-device basis

Correct Answer: DFG
QUESTION 50
Which four are requirements for using Virtual Tie Lines (VTL) with an NBX system? (Choose four.)
A. VTL license is required for each participating NCP
B. Each VTL counts as one NBX device for device limit
C. Each NBX must have its own Network Call Processor (NCP)
D. VTLs require a T1 or E1 Digital Line Card in each NBX system
E. A maximum of 96 VTLs are supported on any one NBX system
F. VTL requires either IP On-the-Fly or Standard IP license for each NBX system
G. VTLs maintain Quality of Service (QoS) and provide end-to-end IP-ToS tagging
Correct Answer: ACFG
QUESTION 51
Which three are requirements for conference call support across Virtual Tie Lines (VTL)? (Choose three.)
A. Requires Standard IP license for each participating NBX system
B. Must use same range of multicast addresses on all NBX systems
C. Internet Gateway Multicast Protocol (IGMP) addresses must be defined
D. WAN routers must support Internet Gateway Multicast Protocol (IGMP)
E. Supports functions such as: Music on Hold (MOH) and internal page initiation
F. Requires Network Address Translation (NAT) configuration on Virtual Tie Lines

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 52
Inbound NBX Computer Telephony Integration (CTI) calls support directory dialing and on-screen dialing and call processing.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
Which four are features/requirements of the NBX Desktop Call Assistant (DCA) application? (Choose four.)
A. Requires Microsoft Windows 2000 or Windows XP
B. Requires one 3Com SKU and license per NBX system
C. Supports point and click dialing to any phone in the user’s directory
D. Provides personal inbound/outbound call logs with caller ID information
E. Uses Microsoft’s Telephone Applications Program Interface (TAPI) to manage calls
F. Computer with NBXTSP software must have a physical connection to an NBX phone
G. Users can manage all their calls from a single on-screen computer interface, for example, call transfer, conferencing, call park

Correct Answer: CDEG
QUESTION 54
What is Telephone Applications Program Interface (TAPI) Route Point?
A. An NBX feature enabled in the System / TAPI Setup menu that provides intelligent Layer 3 IP routing for TAPI messages on a multi-system, company-wide bases
B. Virtual Network Call Processor (NCP) device or third party application that monitors and maps incoming calls, allowing the NCP to make intelligent routing decisions for the call
C. Virtual device within the Network Call Processor (NCP) to which outbound calls can be mapped, allowing 3rd party applications to make intelligent routing decisions for the call
D. Virtual device within the Network Call Processor (NCP) to which inbound calls can be mapped for a 3rd party application that monitors the route point and makes intelligent call route decisions

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
Which four steps should be performed when installing the NBX pcXset application? (Choose four.)
A. Select country and language
B. Check that the pcXset licenses are installed using NetSet
C. Check and install Standard IP or IP On-the-Fly on the NBX system
D. Do an audio and microphone test from the pcXset Configuration Wizard
E. Create or update the Dial Plan to insure calls are properly routed to remote sites
F. Configure the IP and MAC address of the NCP associated with the pcXset application
Correct Answer: ABDF
QUESTION 56
Which three are features/requirements for using Unified Messaging for an NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Requires NBX pcXset client software
B. Can use the computer’s default media player to listen to a message
C. APX messaging service functionality is provided by IMAP client on the NBX NCP
D. IMAP4 enabled clients Notes
E. Users can use an IMAP4 compliant application to access and manage voice messages on a computer
F. Requires a Windows-based PC with a minimum of 64MB RAM, full-duplex sound card, a microphone and headset
Correct Answer: BDE QUESTION 57
Which three does the Call Report (CDR) software provide for calls made on an NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Track all call information
B. Track all incoming and outgoing PSTN calls
C. Track all internal calls within NBX system
D. Provides customer and department chargeback accounting
E. Track all incoming and outgoing attempted and/or abandoned calls
F. Collects telephone usage information on a per user / per call basis
G. Supports “Snap-in” modules for Microsoft Excel and Lotus 123 for integrated account reporting

Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 58
Which four are Call Report (CDR) configuration options for an NBX system? (Choose four.)
A. Default setting is Disabled
B. Scramble the last digits for security
C. Determine if trunk-to-trunk calls are recorded
D. Choose how often a new tracking file will be created
E. Select what data fields will be tracked, for example, time of call, length, etc.
F. Compatibility format option, for example, Microsoft Excel or Lotus 123 formatting
G. Determine how long the tracking information will be retained before it is purged by the system

Correct Answer: ABCG
QUESTION 59
How does the NBX administrator download the Event Log file for viewing?
A. Reports / Event Log – Download Log button
B. Downloads / Event Log – choose file name and Download Logs button
C. Click on Download Logs button
D. Reports / System Data / Event Log – choose file name and Download Logs button
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 60
Which three changes require an NBX system reboot? (Choose three.)
A. New software version
B. Removing an interface card from an NBX chassis
C. Change to NCP information, for example, IP address, default gateway
D. Change to network protocol, for example, Standard IP or IP On-the-Fly
E. Change to Digital Line Card protocol, for example, Standard IP or IP On-the-Fly
F. Adding any new interface card to the NBX chassis, for example, Digital Line Card, Hub card, etc.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 61
A NBX Software license upgrade provides access to the specific license purchased and every prior software release.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
Which four are NBX configuration backup/restore attributes? (Choose four.)
A. By default, NBX voice mail messages are backed up
B. A Backup should be done after each major configuration change
C. By default, the backup is stored to the NBX hard disk
D. To run a backup choose: System Configuration / Manage Data and click Backup Database button
E. Data included in a backup: configuration database, Auto Attendant prompts, user voice mail greetings, and optionally, all voice mail messages
F. To restore the configuration information choose: Operations/ Manage Data then select Browse to locate the configuration file and Click Restore
G. To restore an individual user’s voice messages choose: Operations/ Manage Data input the users extension and click Restore Voice Mail Messages

Correct Answer: BCEF
QUESTION 63
Which four components are included with the NBX V3000 IP Telephony system? (Choose four.)
A. One Analog FXS port
B. 32 MB memory module
C. Four Analog FXO ports
D. 20 GB system disk drive
E. Two T1/E1 Digital Line ports
F. Network Call Processor (NCP)
G. Two 10/100 Mbps Ethernet LAN ports

Correct Answer: ACDF
QUESTION 64
What Power Status state indicates the NBX V3000 is currently booting?
A. Solid red
B. Solid green
C. Blinking red
D. Blinking green
E. Blinking yellow
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
What software version(s) is currently supported by the NBX V3000?
A. NBX R4.3
B. NBX R4.4
C. NBX R4.x
D. Same software versions as the NBX 100
E. Same software versions as the SuperStack 3 NBX
F. Same software versions as both the NBX 100 and SuperStack 3 NBX
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 47
Match each Radio Frequency (RF) propagation issue with its description.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 48
Choose the three features supported by the 11g 54Mbps Wireless LAN Indoor Building-to-Building Bridge. (Choose three.)

A. Point-to-point or point-to-multipoint configurations
B. Multiple antenna options
C. Up to 108 Mbps in turbo mode
D. Wireless Distribution System (WDS) Bridging
E. Weatherproof enclosure

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 49
Which antenna type is typically used indoors to provide large coverage areas within a building?
A. Patch panel or parabolic antenna
B. Dipole antenna
C. Omnipole antenna
D. Yagi or semi-directional antenna

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Which three are provided by the 3Com Wireless LAN Site Survey V2.x for discovered access points (APs)? (Choose three.)
A. Type of authentication and encryption activated on the APs
B. APs available in your area
C. VLAN ID of each AP
D. IP address of each AP
E. Channel used by each AP
F. Radio type for each AP, i.e., 802.1a/b/g
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 51
What is the first step a wireless station performs as it attempts to access a wireless network?
A. Beaconing
B. Active or passive scanning
C. Roaming and reassociation
D. Authentication

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 52
To configure encryption on an access point (AP) that is part of a Wireless Distribution System (WDS), you must configure each AP separately, using a wired-Ethernet connected computer.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 53
The 3Com Wireless LAN Controller WX4400 provides high-bandwidth, centralized control for up to 144 directly attached managed access points (MAPs).
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 54
To use IEEE 802.1X Network Login for the wireless LAN (WLAN), you must configure both the 3Com access point (AP) and wireless LAN NIC for 802.1X authentication.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 55
Which security protocol uses a hashed password for authentication rather than using a less secure encrypted password?
A. Extensible Authentication Protocol-Message Digest 5 (EAP-MD5)
B. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
C. 3Com Dynamic Security Link
D. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 56
What is the process for determining the best installation design of a Wireless LAN (WLAN)?
A. Facility walk-through
B. WLAN analyzer
C. Site survey
D. Network discovery

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 57
You have launched the 3Com Wireless Infrastructure Device Manager (WIDM) software to configure your Wireless LAN Access Point 8750. When you see the access point (AP) on your PC screen, it has an exclamation point located to the left of the AP. What is the significance of the exclamation point?
A. The AP is still booting up
B. The AP does not have an IP address assigned or is in a different subnet from your PC
C. The AP has had a device failure and is non-operational
D. The AP is configured as a Managed Access Point (MAP)

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 58
Which best describes the purpose of the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) “upload” command?
A. To perform an error check on a configuration file, then load the file from a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/ Controller to the 3WXM
B. To deploy a configuration file from 3WXM to a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
C. To load a configuration file from a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller into 3WXM, perform an error check on the file and place the unit into the network plan
D. To perform an error check on a configuration file, then deploy the file from 3WXM to a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 59
What is dynamic rate shifting on Wireless LAN (WLAN) products?
A. Wireless devices that support packet bursting to increase throughput by sending more frames per a given time period
B. Automatic Turbo mode with up to 108 Mbps
C. Ability to dynamically support both IEEE 802.11b and IEEE 802.11g speeds
D. Wireless devices that automatically change the connection speed based on the quality of the signal

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 60
What is the estimated Mbps speed achieved with an IEEE 802.11a access point at the maximum distance of 50 meters (164 feet)?
A. 12 Mbps
B. 6 Mbps
C. 2 Mbps
D. 36 Mbps
E. 54 Mbps

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 61

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QUESTION 21
True or False: Inverse ARP is disabled by default on the 5000 Series Router.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 22
The PPP LCP protocol is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Transport
E. Presentation

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23
What is the IPCP state for an interface if PPP is working?
A. IPCP is opened
B. IPCP is closed
C. IPCP is not used with PPP
D. It doesnt matter

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 24
What is the default setting of the Frame Relay interface type?
A. null
B. DCE
C. DTE
D. The interface will sense physical connect and autoset the interface type

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
What is the primary purpose of the Designated Router (DR) when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)?
A. It backs up the Border Gateway Router when it fails
B. It calculates all Best Path Routes for all OSPF routers in its area
C. It updates all other routers within the same area with new or changed routes
D. It updates all other routers within all areas with new or changed routes

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
What do you see when you view a PPP non-broadcast interface on OSPF?
A. Designated Router only
B. Backup Router only
C. Both a designated Router and a Backup Designated Router
D. Neither a Designated Router nor a Backup Designated Router

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Which OSPF Neighbor states means that both routers have identical Link State Databases (LSDBs)?
A. Init
B. Full
C. 2-way
D. Synch
E. Exchange

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
When setting up a GRE tunnel, Which of the following commands defines the remote (partner) serial interface IP address?
A. [Router-tunnel0] source 10.10.10.10
B. [Router-tunnel0] destination 10.10.10.10
C. [Router-tunnel0] ip address 10.10.10.10 255.255.255.0
D. remote serial interface address is not needed
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
Which type of ACL does the number range of 2000-2999 refer to in 3Com routers?
A. A basic ACL
B. An advanced ACL
C. A VLAN-based ACL
D. A Mac-based ACL
E. An interface-based ACL

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 30
What must be identical on the 2 IKE peers when configuring IPSEC?
A. router id
B. group name
C. pre-shared key
D. IKE peer name

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 31
When IGMP and PIM DM work together, On which interfaces should you enable IGMP?
A. between all core routers
B. between multicast routers
C. between router and all host PCs
D. never on router edge interfaces

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 32
Which the following is NOT an operation performed by IP Multicasting?
A. Allow hosts to join and leave multicast groups
B. Allow Routers to communicate with lower switches through delivery trees
C. Allow Switch trees to forward all multicasting packets to network receivers
D. Reduce the load on each receiving station by sending a single packet multiple times

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
True or False: The command c-rp serial 0/0 would be used to configure PIM DM.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 34
3COM 5000/6000 routers support which two multicast routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. PIM-SM
B. PIM-DM
C. DVMRP
D. MOSPF
E. MBONE

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 35
When setting up QoS, how do you link the classifier and behavior together?
A. at the interface
B. by creating a policy
C. by creating an ACL
D. the classifier links itself to the behavior

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 21
What is the purpose of a Digital Signal Processor? (Choose One)
A. Regulates carrier line voltage
B. Generates tones recognizable to Local Exchange carriers
C. Prevents a caller from hearing their own voice
D. Coverts analog sound into digital data
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Which of the following is not an element of the Dial Plan?
A. Pretranslators
B. Delayed Ringing settings
C. Dial Plan Tables
D. Extension Lists
E. Routes
F. Settings for Extensions ranges

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 23
A Timed Router is a route that defines where calls are routed based on time of day and/or day of week using pre-selected business hours or specific time periods.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
What is the name of the 3com soft-phone application that enables a user computer to have the same features and functions as a NBX. What is the name of the 3com soft-phone application that enables a user? Computer to have the same features and functions as a NBX Telephone? (Choose One)
A. NetView
B. PcXset
C. pcSoftset
D. NetSet
E. Compliment Attendant Software

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25
Desktop Call Assistant requires NBXTSP (NBX TAPI Service Provider).
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 26
The Periodic Time-Stamp on console (PTOC) feature lets the NBX send a timestamp to a remote management console at an interval specified by the administrator.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
Changes to Hot Name, IP Address, Default Gateway and Subnet Mask require a reboot.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 28
Which of the following statements best characterizes NBX Silence Suppression ? ( Choose three.)
A. When enabled, a device that detects silence in conversation sends a small packet with a silence indicator, rather than a full packet of digitized silence
B. Receiving devices generate white noise for the time periods represented by silence indicator packets
C. Can only be enabled or disabled for the entire system
D. Enabling reduces network traffic
E. Can only be used with NBX 3102 phones

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 29
What is the name of the 3com soft-phone application that enables a user computer to have the same features and functions as a NBX. What is the name of the 3com soft-phone application that enables a user? Computer to have the same features and functions as a NBX Telephone? (Choose One)
A. NetSet
B. NetView
C. PcXset
D. Compliment Attendant Software
E. pcSoftset

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Which of the following NBX phones does not support button mappings? (Choose one.)
A. 3103
B. 3101
C. 3102
D. 3100

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
In North America ISDN-PRI uses four wire pairs to provide 23 channels and one 64 kbps D channel. This is referred to a s 3B+D?
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
Automatic Call Back Allows you to queue a transferred call on to a destination extension that is already in use (meaning one or more (but to all) of its system appearance lines are in use).
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
When is NBX Layer 3 (IP Enabled) operation required? (Choose One)
A. None of Above
B. Environment Where the NBX, Chassis and Phones and cards may be on different Ethernet LANs, VLANs and/or separated by WANs
C. Environment where the NBX, Chassis and cards are all on the same Ethernet VLAN
D. Environment where the NBX, Chassis phones and cards are all on the same Ethernet LAN

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 34
Which of the following best defines the term Hunt Group? ( Choose One.)
A. A collection of telephones where all phones will ring simultaneously allowing anyone that is part of the group to pick up the call
B. A collection of outside lines pooled and arbitrated by the call processor for outbound dialing
C. A collection of telephones that ring in a pre-determined pattern until the call is answered or forwarded to a call coverage path such as voicemail or covering extension
D. A collection of outside lines directly mapped to one or more phones

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
For MWI to Telephone Feature to function the target phone must have a MWI Retrieve Programmed button.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 36
When modifying the configuration for a user’s telephone in NetSet, selecting exclude from LCD Directory will invoke which function? (Choose one)
A. The user’s telephone extension will not display during a directory search from any NBX telephone LCD display
B. The user’s telephone extension will not display on other extensions LCDs when called
C. The user will not send Call ID information over the PSTN to telephones with LCD displays and caller ID capability
D. The user will not be able to search the NBX directory via their telephone’s LCD display

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 37
Which NBX Network Call Processors (NCPs) require a memory upgrade to reach top end device and capacity limits? ( Choose two.)
A. V3000
B. V3000 BRI-ST
C. V5000
D. V3001R
E. NBX 100

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 38
For WMI to Telephone Feature to function the target phone must have a MWI Retrieve programmed button.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 39
Convergence brings added value to the customer by reducing cabling and skills costs
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40
Account codes are numbers entered by users when dialing outbound for the purpose of associating a call with an account for billing purposes.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 41
System-wide and Personal Speed Dials can only be accessed via a feature code
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 42
Layer 3 operation is required for environments with multiple LANs where the NBX and phones may be on different Ethernet LANs, VLANs or across WANs.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 43
Which of the following statements best characterizes NBX Silence Suppression ? ( Choose three.)
A. Enabling reduces network traffic
B. Can only be enabled or disabled for the entire system
C. When enabled, a device that detects silence in conversation sends a small packet with a silence indicator, rather than a full packet of digitized silence
D. Can only be used with NBX 3102 phones
E. Receiving devices generate white noise for the time periods represented by silence indicator packets

Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 44
What is the transport mechanism used for VTLs?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. SIP
D. RTP

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 45
Before a user can access their voicemail messages or make changes to their voicemail configuration, they must first create a password, name announcement and personal greeting.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 46
Which of the following modes of operation are supported by the NBX? (Choose three.)
A. PBX Mode
B. Traditional Mode
C. Key Mode
D. Hybrid Mode
E. Simulated Mode

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 47
A device will not receive a page if actively engaged in a call.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48
Which NBX phone has 4 fixed feature buttons, large message waiting indicator, no LCD and supports 802.3af power over Ethernet? (Choose three.)
A. 3106
B. 3101
C. 3102
D. 3103
E. 3100

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 49
The Whisper Page Feature allows you to dial an NBX extension that is involved in a conversation with another person and speak to that person without the other party on the call being able to hear you.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 50
The Admin Log (Adminlog) tracks all activities performed in NetSet utility under the administrator login. It is never renamed or deleted it. It continues to grow over time, but it is unlikely that the size of the file will ever grow to be a problem.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 51

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QUESTION 21
Desktop Call Assistant requires NBXTSP (NBX TAPI Service Provider).
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 22
Click the Task button.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 23
Configurable Operators gives a caller who is directed to voicemail the option of transferring to another destination, one of two different operators that a user has provisioned.
What are these two operators called? (Choose two)
A. Personal Operator
B. User Operator
C. System Operator
D. Destination Operator

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 24
For MWI to Telephone Feature to function the target phone must have a MWI Retrieve programmed button.
A. True

B. False Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25
What are the four Time of Day System Modes which can impact the automated attendants a caller hears and/or other call coverage options (destinations).
A. Open
B. Closed
C. Holiday
D. Lunch
E. Other
F. After-hours
G. Emergency Close

Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 26
A device will not receive a page if actively engaged in a call.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
Which of the following is not an element of the Dial Plan? (Choose one)
A. Settings for Extension ranges
B. Extension Lists
C. Dial Plan Tables
D. Routes
E. Delayed Ringing Settings
F. Pretranslators
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 28
Click the Task button.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 29
The Dial Plan entries shown below are representative of which type of operation? (Choose one)

A. Timed Route
B. Phantom Extension
C. Alternate Carrier
D. Phantom Mailbox

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 30
The Dial Plan entries shown below are representative of which type of operation? (Choose one)

A. Timed Route
B. Phantom Extension
C. Alternate Carrier
D. Phantom Mailbox

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 31
A Timed Route is a route that defines where calls are routed based on time of day and/or day of week using pre-selected business hours or specific time periods.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 32
A pretranslator is a portion of the dial plan responsible for mapping incoming calls to internal extensions and providing Calling Line Identification Presentation (CLIP) for outgoing calls.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
Which of the following best defines the term Hunt Group? (Choose one)
A. A collection of outside lines directly mapped to one or more phones.
B. A collection of telephones where all phones will ring simultaneously allowing anyone that is part of the group to pick up the call.
C. A collection of telephones that ring in a pre-determined pattern until the call is answered or forwarded to a call coverage path such as voicemail or covering extension.
D. A collection of outside lines pooled and arbitrated by the Call Processor for outbound dialing.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 34
Which of the following best describes ACD Linear Call Distribution Method?
A. When you employ this call distribution option, the NBX system distributes calls to the first extension in the group unless that extension is busy and then the call will go to the next extension in the group. Incoming calls will progress in sequence always starting with the first extension.
B. When you employ this call distribution option, the NBX system distributes calls to the first extension in the group. The second call will go to the second extension in the group. The third call will go to the third extension in the group and so on. If an extension is busy, the call will go to the next available phone in the group. This method is sometimes referred to as round-robin.
C. When you employ this call distribution option, the NBX system distributes calls to the agent that has been waiting for a call the longest period of time.
D. When you employ this call distribution option, the NBX system distributes calls to members of an ACD Group according to the number of calls handled by each agent. The agent who has handled the fewest calls, gets the next call.
E. When you employ this call distribution option, a single call rings on all phones of the ACD Group until a member answers the call or the call times out and is routed to the group’s call coverage. This option sends only a single call at a time from the ACD queue to the group.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which of the following are accurate statements concerning Call Privacy Feature? (Choose three)
A. Configured via a Feature Code
B. Configured via Button Mappings
C. Allows a user to prevent a call from being monitored on a per call basis.
D. Allows the administrator to prevent all calls from being monitored by logging users in and out of feature.
E. Activated before or during a call
F. Can only be activated before a call

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 36
The Whisper Page feature allows you to dial an NBX extension that is involved in a conversation with another person and speak to that person without the other party on the call being able to hear you.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
Camp On allows you to queue a transferred call on to a destination extension that is already in use (meaning one or more (but not all) of its system appearance lines are in use).
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
Automatic Call Back allows you to queue a transferred call on to a destination extension that is already in use (meaning one or more (but not all) of its system appearance lines are in use).
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Account Codes are numbers entered by users when dialing outbound for the purpose of associating a call with an account for billing purposes.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40
When is NBX Layer 3 (IP enabled) operation required? (Choose one)
A. Environments where the NBX, Chassis, phones, and cards are all on the same Ethernet LAN
B. Environments where the NBX, Chassis, phones, and cards are all on the same Ethernet VLAN
C. Environments where the NBX, Chassis, phones, and cards may be on different Ethernet LANs, VLANs and/or separated by WANs

Correct Answer: C

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Exam A QUESTION 1
The Dial Plan Entries shown below are representative of which type of operation? (Choose One)

A. Timed Route
B. Phantom Mailbox
C. Alternate Carrier
D. Phantom Extension

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in Dial Plan operations. Match the Dial plan Operation with the appropriate description.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 3
Camp on allows you to queue to transferred call on to a destination extension that is already in use (meaning one or more (but not all) of its system appearance lines are in use).
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Configurable operators gives a caller who is directed to voicemail the option of transferring to another destination, one of two different operators that a user has provisioned. What are these two operators called? ( Choose two.)
A. Personal Operator
B. System Operator
C. User Operator
D. Destination Operator

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 5
The Network Call Processor (NCP) is responsible for setting up communication between endpoints
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Which of the following best defines the acronym VPIM (Choose one)
A. Voice profile for internet messaging
B. Vector profile for internet messaging
C. Voice protocol for internet messages
D. Vector protocol for internet messages

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
Bridge station Appearance is created via button mappings.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
Which of the following is true of the V3000 NCP? ( Choose three.)
A. Supports up to 1500 total devices
B. Supports up to 12 Voice Mail Ports
C. Supports up to 48 Virtual Tie Lines
D. Supports up to 8 Virtual Tie Lines
E. Supports up to 200 total devices
F. Supports up to 72 Voice mail ports

Correct Answer: ACF QUESTION 9
Which NBX Network Call Processors (NCPs) require a memory upgrade to reach top end device and capacity limits? ( Choose two.)
A. V3000
B. NBX 100
C. V5000
D. V3000 BRI-ST
E. V3001R

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in Call
Forward Options. Match the Options with the appropriate descriptions.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 11
What are the two main components of NBX Media Driver? (Choose two.)
A. QSIG
B. IMAP4
C. LEC
D. TAPI
E. WAV

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 12
IMAP4 capability and SMTP capability are included with NBX at no charge and no license is required
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
What are the four Time of Day System Modes which can impact the automated attendants a caller hears and/or other call coverage options (destinations).
A. Open
B. Other
C. After-Hours
D. Lunch
E. Closed
F. Emergency close
G. Holiday

Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 14
A NBX System running in SIP Mode can interoperate with any other SIP endpoint, including gateways, devices and SIP enabled applications.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Which of the following are not subject to Class of Service settings? (Choose two.)
A. WAN class
B. Long Distance calls
C. Alternate Carrier
D. Emergency 911 Calls
E. System Wide Speed Dials
F. International

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 16
Which of the following are accurate statements concerning Call Detail Reporting (CDR)? ) (Choose three.)
A. Tracks only complete calls
B. Telephone system usage tracked on a per telephone group/per call basis
C. Does not require a license
D. Tracks completed calls and all attempted and/or abandoned calls
E. Telephone System usage tracked on a per user/ per call basis
F. Requires a CDR license
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 17
Which of the following best describes ACD Linear Call Distribution Method?
A. When you employ this call distribution option, the NBX system distributes calls to the first extension in the group unless that extension is busy and then the call will go to the next extension in the group. Incoming calls will progress in sequence always starting with the first extension.
B. When you employ this call distribution option, the NBX system distributes calls to the first extension in the group. The second call will go to the second extension in this group. The third call will go to the third extension in the group and so on. If an extension is busy, the call will go to the next available phone in the group. This method is sometimes referred to as round-robin.
C. When you employ this call distribution option, the NBX system distributes calls to members of an ACD Group according to the number of calls handled by each agent. The agent who has handled the fewest calls, gets the next call
D. When you employ this call distribution, the NBX system distributes calls to the agent that has been waiting for a call the longest period of time

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which of the following are accurate statements concerning Call Privacy Feature? ( Choose three.)
A. Activated before or during a call
B. Configured via a Feature Code
C. Allows a user to prevent a call from being monitored on a per call basis
D. Configured via Button Mappings
E. Allows the administrator to prevent all calls from being monitored by logging users in and out of feature
F. Can only be activated before a call

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 19
What are the two main components of NBX Media Driver? (Choose two.)
A. QSIG
B. TAPI
C. WAV
D. IMAP4
E. LEC

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 20
Which of the following are recommended tools for troubleshooting and repairing Analog Lines? ( Choose Four.)
A. 599 Punch-Down Tool/Blades
B. Tone Generator
C. Loop Current Tester
D. Cable Splicer’s Knife
E. Flux Capacitor
F. Butt-Set
Correct Answer: BCDF

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which two are accurate statements? (Choose two.)
A. NBX 100 supports 48 VTLs
B. NBX V5000 supports 48 VTLs
C. NBX V3000 supports 48 VTLs
D. NBX V5000 supports 72 VTLs

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2
Which three office-to-office and/or office-to-remote user call options are supported by the NBX systems? (Choose three.)
A. With a single NBX system at HQ, users can call to/from a remote office across the data network WAN link using Layer 3 IP communications
B. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each site, users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL)
C. With a single NBX system at HQ and pcXset on the remote office PC, the remote user can call to/from HQ via any WAN link using TCP/IP Layer 4 communications
D. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL) using IP On-the-Fly or a Standard IP license
E. With a NBX system and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a WAN link that supports IP protocol, for example, VPN, T1, E1 and Frame Relay

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 3
Which two are features of the NBX NetSet Administration Utility? (Choose two.)
A. Allows users to sign on with a username of “user” and use their voicemail password for access
B. Is found on 3Com’s NBX systems, as well as, licensed 3rd party Ethernet-based telephony systems
C. Can be accessed through the default IP address of 192.168.1.190.
D. Can be accessed through the default IP address of 192.168.1.191.
E. Allows the administrator to sign on with a username of “administrator” and a password of “0000” for access
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 4
Which three are true statements concerning Silence Suppression? (Choose 3.)
A. Enabling Silence Suppression prioritizes voice traffic
B. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system only
C. Can be enabled or disabled only for individual telephones
D. Enabling Silence Suppression reduces network traffic
E. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system, or for individual telephones and line card ports
F. A device that detects silence in a conversation will not send any packets to the other device during the period of silence
G. A device that detects silence in conversation sends a small packet with a “silence indicator,”rather than a full packet of “digitized silence”
Correct Answer: DEG
QUESTION 5
How do NBX phones prioritize audio traffic?
A. NBX phones forward all voice packets to IEEE 802.1p aware hubs
B. NBX phones tag voice packets using DiffServ for all LAN communication
C. NBX phones use VLAN-tagged frames with the priority level automatically set to 6
D. NBX phones place audio traffic into a priority queue within the NCP, forwarding all voice traffic before forwarding data packets

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which three are prioritization mechanisms used with the NBX Communication Systems? (Choose three.)
A. IP TOS
B. Diff Serv
C. IEEE 802.3
D. IEEE 802.1p
E. ANSI 96/RS232
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 7
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to display a Tab Screen for all of the configuration options for a NBX Communication System?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 8
Which three are maintenance alert features on the NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Can send alert to voicemail
B. Can send alert to a pager or email
C. Can send alert to 3rd party voice messaging systems
D. Can be configured to send alerts to up to 15 mailboxes
E. Can be configured to send an alert for any physical device failure
F. Maintenance alert function is supported on the NBX 100 Communications System only

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 9
Click theTask button.
Identify the NBX V5000 System components by dragging the descriptions to the correct location? (Choose Three.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to modify the Business Information and Business Hours on an NBX Communication System?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 11
Which two devices are not supported by an NBX Analog Terminal Card (ATC) or Analog Terminal Adapter (ATA)? (Choose two.)
A. Modem
B. FAX machine
C. Cordless phone
D. Credit card reader
E. External bell or pager
F. Standard telephone that requires a DTMF connection
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 12
Which four are features of the NBX Analog Line Card? (Choose four.)
A. An NBX V5000 chassis supports only one Analog Line card at a time
B. The NBX Auto Discover Line Cards function can be used to find newly installed Analog Line Cards
C. In Key System Mode, CO lines connected to an Analog Line Card can be mapped to one or more telephones
D. Its Power Failure Jack provides access to the telephone CO in case of a NBX power failure
E. By default, when a port is mapped to multiple telephones, calls will ring at the lowest extension first, then to the next extension, until the call is answered
F. In PBX System Mode, CO lines connected to an Analog Line Card are pooled and allocated by the Call Processor for use by any phone for outbound calls
G. In Hybrid Mode, incoming calls go to an Auto Attendant only and CO lines are pooled and allocated by the Call Processor for use by any phone on the system

Correct Answer: BCDF
QUESTION 13
What is the easiest way for the NBX system administrator to set up calling permissions and/or restrictions for a group of users?
A. Define a Type of Service (ToS) and then assign the ToS to each user
B. Define a Class of Service (CoS) and then assign the CoS to each user
C. Define a User Configuration and then assign the Configuration to each user
D. Define a Type of Service (ToS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new ToS
E. Define a Class of Service (CoS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new CoS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which four are characteristics or requirements for NBX Bridge Station Appearance (BSA) assuming only 3102 business phones are used in the customer location? (Choose four.)
A. Maps a primary phone to a secondary phone
B. Only need to configure the primary phone settings
C. Up to 16 extensions can be mapped to a common secondary phone
D. To configure BSA settings select Device Configuration / Telephones then select Button Mappings
E. Either phone can answer a call, as incoming primary-phone calls appear on primary and secondary phone
F. Incoming calls to primary phone are automatically transferred to secondary phone based on time-of-day settings

Correct Answer: ACDE
QUESTION 15
Which four Call Forward user settings are available to a user logged into NetSet on a NBX Communication System? (Choose four.)
A. Forward calls to voicemail box
B. Forward calls to an e-mail inbox
C. Disconnect (no forwarding) calls
D. Forward calls to another phone number
E. Forward calls to an Automated Attendant
F. Do not ring, which places the caller into voice mail
G. Forward calls to the LCD Directory so the caller can contact another employee if they choose
Correct Answer: ACDE QUESTION 16
A manager at extension 3002 has asked you to setup a NBX Communication System to allow an assistant at extension 1010 to filter calls. You have decided the best way to do this is Bridged Station Appearance. You have already setup the primary phones button mappings. Which is the correct extension number to add to the secondary phone Bridged Extension Number Field?
A. 1010
B. 1010-2
C. 3002
D. 3002-2

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to create or modify a Hunt Group?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 18
Which two are features of an NBX Calling Group? (Choose two.)
A. Member phones ring simultaneously for incoming calls
B. Calling Groups are the same as NBX Key Mode configuration
C. Up to 100 Calling Groups can be configured on an NBX 100 system
D. NBX administrator can define “ring progression” for a Calling Group
E. Member login/logout password is defined by NBX administrator using NetSet

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 19
Which three best describe how members Login/Logout of a Hunt Group? (Choose three.)
A. Group members can login and logout as their schedule requires
B. A forced login member is always logged in whether they are at their phone or not
C. To login/logout a user only needs to pickup their phone and enter their voice mail password
D. Administrator can set optional automatic logout to force a logout if an incoming call is not answered at a phone
E. All members must login only once during the day. They are automatically logged out at the end of the day based on the NBX System Business Time definition
F. A dynamic login member must login at the start of a day and will only need to login again if they are logged out after 15 minutes pass between phone calls
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 20
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to add Auto Attendants or make changes to existing Auto Attendants?

A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:

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3Com_RealExamQuestions.Com 3M0-600 v2011-11-09_100q_By-Nelson

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Match each 3Com Wireless Switch (WX) term with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 2
Which functionality is transferred from 3Com Access Points (APs) to the 3Com Wireless LAN Controller/ Switch, creating Fit APs or Managed Access Points (MAPs) with the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System?
A. Radio frequency (RF) radio, encryption and roaming
B. Encryption, roaming and security policy
C. Authentication, roaming and security policy
D. Encryption, authentication, roaming and security policy
E. Encryption, authentication and security policy

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Wireless LAN (WLAN) IEEE 802.11a Turbo Mode bonds two channels together for up to 108 Mbps data rates.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Which three steps are required to configure a non-encrypted 3Com Wireless Distribution System? (Choose three.)
A. Ensure all access points (APs) are configured for Managed Access Point (MAP) mode
B. Copy the access points (APs) to the Wireless Distribution System (WDS) configuration
C. Configure the access points (APs) for bridge mode
D. Assign each access point (AP) the same IP address
E. Configure the access points (APs) for group mode
F. Assign each access point (AP) the same Service Set ID (SSID) and radio channels

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Arrange the steps to connect to a Wireless Network in Windows XP.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6
What can the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) do when it discovers a wireless rogue device?
A. Flood the access point (AP), causing a Denial of Service (DoS) condition
B. Verify the IP address of the rouge device and send the information to a Syslog server
C. Verify the IP address of the rouge device and send the information to the management software, which blocks future packets from the device
D. Deactivate the access point (AP) and send a message to the network management software

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Drag each 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System product to the set of features it supports.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8
What is a key alignment issue when installing an outdoor Wireless LAN (WLAN) panel antenna?
A. Identical vertical and/or horizontal polarization
B. Fresnel zone obstructions
C. Acknowledgement delay timeout (ACK) setting
D. Length of the antenna cable from the wireless bridge

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which describes the 3Com Receiver Signal Strength Indicator (RSSI) access point (AP) implementation?
A. AP displays its own signal strength and quality as a percentage value
B. AP displays neighbor AP’s signal strength and quality as a value from 0 to 255
C. AP displays its own signal strength as a value from 0 to 255
D. AP displays neighbor AP’s signal strength as a percentage value
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 10

DRAG DROP Drag the 3Com product you would use for each location (A, B and C) to complete the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System solution.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 11
The network administrator can draw or import a JPEG or AutoCAD building floor plan using the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM).
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which three are features of 3Com Dynamic Security Link? (Choose three.)
A. Local and remote access point (AP) authentication and encryption support
B. Per user, per session dynamic key encryption
C. Internal database supporting up to 1,000 user names and passwords
D. 40-, 128- and 168-bit shared key encryption support
E. Superior wireless security for networks without a centralized authentication server

Correct Answer: BCE QUESTION 13
The 3Com Wireless LAN Access Point 8xx0 family supports a single Virtual Access Point (VAP) per RF radio installed in the unit.
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
You have installed the 3Com 11a/b/g Wireless PC Card with XJACK Antenna card its software. What is the next step required in the PC Card installation before you can access the Wireless LAN (WLAN)?
A. Using Wireless LAN Profile Manager, select the PC Card icon, click “Enable,” then choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
B. Using Wireless LAN Profile Manager, create a new profile, choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
C. Using Wireless LAN Profile Manager, click “Discover” and from the discovered-list choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
D. Using Wireless Infrastructure Device Manager (WIDM), choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
DRAG DROP
Match each security protocol/standard with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 16
Every mobility domain should have a minimum of two seed switches assigned one main and one backup.
A. False B. True

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Which three are benefits of the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System? (Choose three.)
A. Automates access point (AP) management, i.e., adjusts traffic loads, optimizes AP power, changes AP channel assignments
B. Provides centralized management for wireless controllers/switches and Managed Access Points
C. Enhances user and group security with security profiles
D. Improves throughput of critical data with multiple priority queues and queuing algorithms on each wireless controller/switch
E. Eliminates the need to install access points (APs) throughout the building

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 18
All 3Com OfficeConnect Wireless 54 Mbps 11g PC Cards support 108 Mbps data rate in Turbo mode.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
DRAG DROP Match each 3Com wireless component with its description. Exhibit: 600-c-45.JPG

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 20
Which three types of wireless devices may be detected as rogues by the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM)? (Choose three.)
A. Unauthorized 3Com access point (AP)
B. Unauthorized 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
C. Wireless NIC running in ad-hoc mode
D. Unauthorized third-party access point
E. Authorized wireless NIC

Correct Answer: ACD

3COM 3M0-600 3Com Wireless Specialist Final Exam v1.0 162 Q&A Version 2.29

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Exam A QUESTION 1
What does the IEEE 802.11d standard specify?
A. Defines Inter Access Point Protocol (IAPP)
B. Defines MAC-based Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism
C. Defines encryption using the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
D. Defines the ability to fine tune Wireless LAN configuration at the Physical (PHY) Layer to comply with country-specific rules

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Click the Task button.
Match each IEEE 802.11 standard with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 3
Wireless LAN (WLAN) IEEE 802.11a Turbo Mode bonds two channels together for up to 108 Mbps data rates.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
Which two are features of a Wireless LAN (WLAN) Infrastructure Basic Service Set? (Choose two.)
A. Also known as an Ad Hoc or Peer-to-Peer WLAN
B. Members communicate directly with each other within the service area
C. Created when two or more Basic Service Sets are connected together
D. Only stations exist in the service area and no access point (AP) is used
E. Management and control of the service area is performed by the access point (AP)

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5
Click the Task button.
Match each Radio Frequency (RF) propagation issue with its description.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6
Which antenna type is typically used indoors to provide large coverage areas within a building?
A. Dipole antenna
B. Omnipole antenna
C. Yagi or semi-directional antenna
D. Patch panel or parabolic antenna

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which statement is true for Wireless LAN (WLAN) data and throughput rates?
A. Data rates drop as the distance to the access point (AP) increases
B. Data rates drop as the distance to the access point (AP) decreases
C. Actual data throughput on a WLAN is about 25% of the defined throughput rate
D. Data rates on an IEEE 802.11a/g WLAN are not affected by distance from the access point (AP)

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
Which three are features of 3Com Dynamic Security Link? (Choose three.)
A. Per user, per session dynamic key encryption
B. 40-, 128- and 168-bit shared key encryption support
C. Internal database supporting up to 1,000 user names and passwords
D. Local and remote access point (AP) authentication and encryption support
E. Superior wireless security for networks without a centralized authentication server

Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 9
Many access points (APs) are set up with a default configuration, known as “open system” or “open system authentication,” so any station can associate and connect.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10
Click the Task button.
Match each security protocol/standard with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 11
What is the optimal access point (AP) channel allocation configuration on a Wireless LAN (WLAN)?
A. APs should be configured with overlapping channels
B. APs should be configured with different non-overlapping channels
C. It makes no difference if APs use overlapping or non-overlapping channels
D. Allow APs to automatically perform the hunting process to determine the best channels

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
What was a limitation of first-generation Wireless LAN (WLAN) products?
A. Were designed to be managed individually
B. Did not support roaming for mobile computers
C. Did not provide authentication or encryption services
D. Were not designed to support large number of users

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
Click the Task button.
Match each 3Com OfficeConnect wireless client product with its features.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 14
Which three are features supported on the OfficeConnect ADSL Wireless 11g Firewall Router and the 3Com OfficeConnect Wireless 11g Cable/DSL Router? (Choose three.)
A. VPN termination
B. Stateful packet inspection
C. Power over Ethernet (PoE)
D. Four 10/100 Ethernet LAN ports
E. 256-bit Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) encryption
F. 40/64-bit and 128-bit Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) encryption

Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 15
The 3Com 11a/b/g Wireless LAN Workgroup Bridge enables a laptop, PC or printer without built-in wireless capability to connect to a wireless LAN.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16
Click the Exhibit button at the bottom of the screen.
Choose the two features supported by the 3Com Wireless LAN Managed Access Point (MAP) 2750.
(Choose two.)
A. Fit access point
B. IEEE 802.1X Network Login and IPSec
C. Dual-mode radio allows operation for both IEEE 802.11b/g and IEEE 802.11a
D. Dual-mode radio allows operation for either IEEE 802.11b/g or IEEE 802.11a

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 17
Which describes the 3Com Receiver Signal Strength Indicator (RSSI) access point (AP) implementation?
A. AP displays its own signal strength as a value from 0 to 255
B. AP displays neighbor AP’s signal strength as a percentage value
C. AP displays its own signal strength and quality as a percentage value
D. AP displays neighbor AP’s signal strength and quality as a value from 0 to 255

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which two are reasons a company may choose to use a building-to-building wireless bridge versus a T1/ E1 or fiber link? (Choose two.)
A. Reliability of the connection
B. Time to deploy and set up the connection
C. The distances between the two buildings
D. The initial installation costs and/or recurring monthly charges

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 19
Which wireless building-to-building bridge distance-related parameter must be set to ensure each wireless bridge waits the appropriate period for a response from other wireless bridges?
A. Basic Rate Set
B. Broadcast Service Set Identifier (SSID)
C. Acknowledgement Delay Timeout (ACK)
D. Request to Send/Clear to Send (RTS/CTS)

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
To configure encryption on an access point (AP) that is part of a Wireless Distribution System (WDS), you must configure each AP separately, using a wired-Ethernet connected computer.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

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Exam A QUESTION 1
Which of the following routers supports version 2.41 router code?
A. 5231
B. 5232
C. 5640
D. 5680
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a standard port available on the Router 5012?
A. ISDN
B. Console
C. Serial WAN
D. 10/100 Ethernet

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
True or False: The Flexible Interface Cards (FICs) in the Router 6040 can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
True or False: The RPU can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
What kind of modules does the Router 5232 use?
A. SICs only
B. MIMs only
C. SICs and MIMs
D. SICs and FICs

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
Which of the following modules is a daughter card that fits onto the RPU2?
A. ATM
B. Enhanced Serial
C. Encryption Card
D. Memory Expansion Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
How many FIC slots does a Router 6040 have?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
Which of the following features is available on both the RPU and the RPU2?
A. SFP Interface Slot
B. CF Memory Card slot
C. Gigabit Ethernet Interfaces
D. Power and Fan LED indicators

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
What does it indicate if the LEDs on the Power Supply of the Router 6000 are as follows? ALM (red) – OFF RUN (green) ON
AC OK (red) – ON
A. Power is OFF or has failed
B. A Runtime error has occurred
C. Power is ON and voltage is normal
D. Power is ON but operating voltage is not within acceptable range

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
True or False, The Router 6080 Fans have two rotational speeds.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
True or False: The RPU2 can support a daughter card.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which of the following Network Management applications does NOT support the Router 5000/6000?
A. Enterprise Management Suite
B. 3Com Network Director Firewall
C. Router Manager
D. Switch Manager

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
The default baud rate for the Router 6040 is 9600 bps. What are the other settings?
A. 7 data bits, 2 stop bits, Even Parity
B. 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, Even Parity
C. 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, No Parity
D. 8 data bits, 0 stop bits, No Parity

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
At which prompt will you receive an error if you entered the command Interface Serial 0/0?
A. <Router>
B. [Router]
C. [Router-ospf-1]
D. [Router-Eth 1/0]

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Which command will reset the router to factory defaults?
A. undo start
B. reset start
C. reset to factory
D. reset saved-configuration

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Which interface/command shows the correct syntax to configure an IP address on a serial interface of the router 5012 on slot 1 port 0?
A. [RTA-Serial 1/0] ip interface10.1.3.1 24
B. [RTA-Serial 0/1] ip address 10.1.3.1 24
C. [RTA-Serial 1/0/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24
D. [RTA-Serial 0/1/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements is true about Router 5000/6000 series routers, with regard to TFTP?
A. They can be TFTP clients only
B. They can be TFTP servers only
C. They can be either TFTP clients or TFTP Servers
D. They do not support TFTP

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
True or False, The Router 6000 series routers have boot code and main code to upgrade while the 5000 Series Routers only have main code to upgrade.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
In a Router 5012, which command lists the files in a directory?
A. ls
B. dir
C. show list
D. display directory

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20
In the command delete /unreserved name2.bin What does /unreserved specify
A. to hide the file so that it looks deleted
B. to store the file in the recycle bin after deleting
C. to delete the file and not add it to the recycle bin
D. to perform the command immediately and not to queue the operation

Correct Answer: C

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which file system command displays the directory entries on a 3Com switch?
A. dir /all
B. cd dir /all
C. display dir
D. display dir /all
E. dir display /all
F. mkdir display /all

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of the RIP View command network network_address?
A. Enables RIP on all switches with this network address
B. Enables RIP on the switch that is configured with this IP address
C. Displays all RIP routes associated with this network address or with a subnet of this address
D. Enables RIP on all interfaces that are configured with this network address or with a subnet of this address

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which two are Super-VLAN configuration requirements/limitations on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. Up to 64 ports can be assigned to a Super-VLAN
B. Up to 64 Sub-VLANs can be assigned to a Super-VLAN
C. ARP, VRRP and DHCP are not supported on Super-VLANs
D. Sub-VLANs terminate at a router and are isolated at Layer 3
E. Super-VLANs are assigned an IP address; Sub-VLANs may not be assigned an IP address

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 4
Which Switch 5500 model(s) does not support Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)?
A. Switch 5500-EI
B. Switch 5500-SI
C. Switch 5500G-EI
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the result of the command boot boot-loader file-url?
A. Reboots the switch using the file-url for the operational code
B. Updates the switch BootROM with the file-url on the system flash
C. Reboots the switch fabric only using the file-url for the operational code
D. Specifies the switch to use file-url for the operational code on the next boot
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Click on the exhibit button.
Which Switch 7700 command shows all the hardware and software information on the modules (review the output shown in the exhibit)?

A. [SW7700] display device
B. [SW7700] display version
C. [SW7700] display interfaces
D. [SW7700] display current-configuration

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 7
Click on the exhibit button.
What can be determined from the output of the display ip routing-table (based on the IP routing-table information shown in the exhibit)?

A. The default route is 200.0.0.1
B. Switch interface 1.0.0.2 is connected to network 1.0.0.0/24
C. VLAN-interface3 has two IP networks configured on the single switch
D. The most desired paths for forwarding packets are IP network 25.0.0.0 and 30.0.0.0

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which two methods can be used for day-to-day copying of switch configuration and software files on the Switch 5500/7700/8800? (Choose two.)
A. USB port with a flash drive
B. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
C. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
D. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 9
Which Switch 5500 command would display the status of the front panel Ethernet port #13 on switch unit #2?
A. [ 5500-EI ] display interface e 2/13
B. [ 5500-EI ] display interface e 2/0/13
C. [ 5500-EI ] display interface e 2/1/13
D. [ 5500-EI ] display interface e 13/0/2

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
What is the reason to connect the p port on the bottom Switch 5500 in the stack to the down port of the top Switch 5500 in the same stack?
A. Reliability – creates a resilient topology
B. Security – prevents an unauthorized user from connecting to the switch stack
C. Performance – creates the 48-Gbps eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN) Fabric
D. Management – enables Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR) on the Switch 5500-SI

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
Click on the exhibit button.
Why is it important to enable Interface Tracking for VRRP routers (based on the VRRP diagram shown in the exhibit)?

A. If a link failure occurs, the path to the virtual gateway will be blocked
B. If a link failure occurs, it takes longer for the VRRP routers to reconfigure the virtual gateway path
C. If a link failure occurs, the master router can configure a new physical link to the virtual gateway
D. If a link failure occurs, a less efficient network path may be used to forward packets to the Internet or connectivity to the Internet may be lost altogether

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Click on the exhibit button.
How many OSPF areas are configured on the Switch 8800 (Router ID 1.1.1.1) (based on the set of OSPF commands and diagram shown in the exhibit)?

A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
Click on the exhibit button.
Which IP static route command would configure Switch A with a path to Host C (based on the network diagram shown in the exhibit)?

A. [Switch A]ip route-static 1.1.3.0 255.255.255.0 1.1.1.2
B. [Switch A]ip route-static 1.1.3.2 255.255.255.0 1.1.2.2
C. [Switch A]ip route-static 1.1.4.0 255.255.255.0 1.1.2.2
D. [Switch A]ip route-static 1.1.5.0 255.255.255.0 1.1.2.2

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
What does a slow (once per second) flashing RUN LED indicate on the Switch 7700 Fabric I/O module?
A. The fabric module is faulty
B. The fabric module is running normally
C. The fabric module is faulty or out of position
D. The fabric module is booting or has not registered successfully

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
What is the result of configuring a switch port that permits traffic from all Virtual LANs (VLANs), i.e., configured as a Trunk Port?
A. All VLANs will be tagged
B. All VLANs will be untagged
C. VLAN 1 will be tagged; all other VLANs will be untagged
D. VLAN 1 will be untagged; all other VLANs will be tagged

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Which two multicast protocols cannot be enabled on the Switch 5500/7700/8800, if IGMP snooping is enabled on the VLAN interface? (Choose two.)
A. IGMP
B. PIM-DM/PIM-SM
C. Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF)
D. Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP)
E. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 17
How do you configure Ethernet ports on the Switch 5500/7700/8800 families?
A. Use the thernet command to enter the Ethernet Port View
B. Use the Portview command to enter the Ethernet Port View
C. Use the Interface command to enter the Ethernet Port View
D. Use the Configure command to enter the Ethernet Port View

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
How would you stop a specific port interface, which has no router attached, from sending and receiving RIP updates?
A. From the interface view, issue the ndo network command
B. From the interface view, issue the ndo rip work command
C. From the interface view, issue the ndo rip input command
D. From the interface view, issue the ndo rip output command

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
You have already configured and enabled individual switch ports for IEEE 802.1X Network Login. What is required for authentication to be activated on the ports?
A. From the System View, enable 802.1X Network Login
B. From the Ethernet Port View, set the port access control mode
C. From the System View, configure the authentication method for 802.1X users
D. From the Ethernet Port View, configure the authentication method, i.e., chap, pap, eap, etc.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Protocol Independent Multicast – Sparse Mode (PIM-SM) only delivers multicast traffic to network segments with active receivers that have explicitly requested the data.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Which best defines the mechanism of IEEE 802.1X Network Login?
A. An authenticator requests access to network services; the authentication server enforces authentication before allowing access to the network and validates the supplicant on behalf of the authenticator
B. A supplicant requests access to network services; the authenticator enforces authentication before allowing access to the network; the authentication server validates the supplicant on behalf of the authenticator
C. A supplicant requests access to network services; the authentication server enforces authentication before allowing access to the network; the authenticator validates the supplicant on behalf of the authentication server

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
How would you configure the Switch 5500/7700/8000 to ensure DHCP clients can communicate with the DHCP server, regardless of which network the client and server reside on?
A. Configure the switch for UDP Helper
B. Configure the switch for DHCP Relay
C. Configure all the switches as DHCP servers
D. Configure both the DHCP master and DHCP slave

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Which best describes the result of the command 5500-EI-Ethernet1/0/1]traffic-priority inbound ip-group 3010 cos video where video is defined at priority 5 in the IEEE 8021.p priority table?
A. The Switch 5500 assigns a priority of 5 to all inbound packets
B. Ethernet port 1 on switch unit ID 1 assigns a priority of 5 to all inbound packets
C. The Switch 5500 assigns a priority of 5 to all outbound packets identified by ACL 3010
D. Ethernet port 1 on switch unit ID 1 assigns a priority of 5 to all inbound packets identified by ACL 3010
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
You have previously configured a switch port as port link-type trunk. You now want the port to support packets without tagging from multiple VLANs with untagged packets?
A. Use the port link-type hybrid command
B. Use the port link-type access command
C. Use the port link-type access command followed by the port link-type trunk command
D. Use the port link-type access command followed by the port link-type hybrid command

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 25
Which three are properties of the OSPF Designated Router (DR)? (Choose three.)
A. It speaks for all of its adjacent routers in its area
B. All DRs on a network must have the same Router ID
C. The router with the lowest MAC address is elected DR
D. A router with a priority of zero will never become the DR
E. It is responsible for generating and flooding network link advertisements

Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 26
Click on the exhibit button.
Which best describes the configuration of the voice VLAN on the switch (based on the information shown in the exhibit)?

A. The voice VLAN ID is 2; it has been enabled at both the System View and Port View; and all IP phones will automatically be added to the VLAN
B. The voice VLAN ID is 2; it has been enabled only at the System View; and 3Com and Cisco IP phones will automatically be added to the VLAN
C. The voice VLAN ID is 2; 3Com and Cisco IP phones will automatically be added to the VLAN 2; and the switch filters out all Ethernet frames in the Voice VLAN whose source MAC does not match the OUI
D. The voice VLAN ID is 2; it was automatically configured; 3Com and Cisco IP phones will be recognized by the switch; and the switch allows all Ethernet frames in the Voice VLAN that are not OUI-based frames

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
What is the primary purpose for using Q-in-Q VLANs (on the Switch 7700/8800, it is referred to as VLAN-VPN)?
A. To provide a VLAN tunneling technique that is transparent to the Internet Service Provider (ISP)
B. To interconnect multiple VLANs to allow packets to be sent between the VLANs without the requirement of a router
C. To create QoS profiles that can be assigned to multiple VLANs vs. configuring each VLAN’s parameters individually
D. Enables a Service Provider to offer transport services that preserve and extend customers’ VLAN topology over a metropolitan-area network (MAN)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
Which three steps are required to configure and enable an ACL on the Switch 5500/7700/8800? (Choose three.)
A. Define the ACL
B. Create the ACL rules
C. Apply the ACL to the switch
D. Apply the ACL to an interface
E. Apply the user-defined flow template to the ACLs

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 29
What is a key reason for using Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) vs.
Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) on a network with multiple VLANs?
A. MSTP supports fast-forwarding configuration on edge ports
B. MSTP supports load balancing Virtual LANs (VLANs) across multiple data paths
C. MSTP allows you to choose the root bridge so you can eliminate the need to use VLANs on a Layer 2 network
D. MSTP allows you to configure more than one switch to be the Primary Root for a Multiple Spanning Tree Instance (MSTI) to provide better resilience when VLANs are used
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
Click on the exhibit button.
Which best describes the Switch 5500-EI Link Aggregation configuration (based on the output of the display link-aggregation verbose command shown in the exhibit)?

A. The LA group contains two links, the links were manually configured and load sharing has been turned off for the LA group
B. The LA group contains two links, the links were dynamically configured and load sharing has been turned on for the LA group
C. The LA group contains four links, the links were manually configured and load sharing has been turned on for the LA group
D. The LA group contains four links, the links were dynamically configured and load sharing has been turned off for the LA group
Correct Answer: B

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
The Switch 7700 or Switch 8800 can be used as the primary authentication service or as a backup if the RADIUS server group is unavailable.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which four are Switching Fabric features/Functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose four)
A. Each Switch Fabric has a data channel to every module
B. Supports a hot-swappable, load-balancing Switch Fabric.
C. There is a data channel between the two Switch Fabrics.
D. Each Switch Fabric has a management channel to every module
E. Supports a hot-standby, hot-swappable redundant Switch Fabric
F. The master Switch Fabric is always set to slot #1 unless the fabric in slot #1 fails
G. The master Switch Fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire chassis

Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 3
What is the maximum number of Linux Aggregation load-balancing groups supported on the Switch 7700?
A. 4 groups
B. 13 groups
C. 24 groups
D. 64 groups
E. 128 groups

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which three are Quality of Service (QoS) features/functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose three)
A. Has eight output queues per port
B. Supports Differentiated Services (DiffServ)prioritization
C. Uses a Randam Early Detection (RED) queue prioritization
D. Uses a Weihted Random Early Detection (WRED) queue prioritization
E. Can configure the priority queues “globally” across all I/O interfaces on a switch
F. Uses Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) to allocate bandwidth for high-priority applications

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 5
Which two rules must be followed when configuring Link Aggregation groups on the Switch 7700 1000BASE-T and 1000BASE-X modules? (Chosse two)
A. The Linux Aggregation group can start on any port.
B. All the ports in a Link Aggregation group must be consecutive
C. A single Link Aggregation group can span multiple Interface Modules
D. A maximum of eight ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation group
E. A maximum of twelve ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation roup

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 6
Exhibit:
Which three Ethernet modes are supported on the Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-T(3c16859)Interface
Module? (Choose three)

A. 10 Mbps in full duplex only
B. 10 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
C. 100 Mbps in full duplex mode only
D. 100 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
E. 1000 Mbps in full duplex mode only
F. 1000 Mbps in half/full duplex mode

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 7
Which two are functions of Switch 40×0 Family Multinetting? (Choose two)
A. Automatically assigns multiple VLANs on each router interface
B. Floods traffic from different subnets on the same broadcast domain
C. Enables configuration of multiple router interfaces for each VLan/broadcast domain
D. Enables multiple VLANs/broadcast domains to be configured for each router interface

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8
What is the benefit of using the Switch 40×0 Family’s Spanning Tree Ignore/Disable feature?
A. Prevents disassociation of Layer 2 traffic from Layer 3 traffic.
B. Enables use of a routing protocol at Layer 2 to make forwarding decisions
C. Enables use of spanning Tree Protocol (STP) at Layer 3 to prevent loops in the network
D. Supports use of routing paths at Layer 3, while Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) manages Layer 2 switched links

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which three are security-design features that can be employed in enterprise networks to improve security? (Choose three)
A. Enable IEEE 802 d link aggregation
B. Turn off IGMP snooping on all access-layer switches
C. Provide security for active devices using local or RADIUS authentication
D. Support IEEE 802.1X Network Login for authentication and authorization
E. Provide separate VLANs for management and wireless users with a VLAN-centric design
F. Employee TCP Windowing and or IEEE802.3X Flow Control to minimize effects of network attacks
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 10
Which three are key requirements for the Access Layer (edge) of the network? (Choose three)
A. Multilayer traffic prioritization
B. Multiple priority queues per port
C. Hardware-based Access Control List (ACLs)
D. Rate limiting and remarking for outgoing traffic.
E. MAC address authorization or IEEE 802.1X Network Login
F. Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) bandwidth allocation

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 11
Which three are true statements regarding 10 Gigabit technology and/or 3Com products? (Choose three)
A. The 3 Com XFP 10G Fiber Transceivers use LC connects
B. IEEE 802.3X defines the 10GBASE-CX4 standard for Twin axial
C. 3Com supports 10G interface Modules for both the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800
D. The 10GBASE-T standard requires four-pair Category 5 or two-pair Category 6 UTP wiring

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 12
Which three are recommended guidelines for an XRN network? (Choose three)
A. Only enable Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) or Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) on edge switches
B. Do not insert Fabric interconnect Modules into the Super Stack 3 Switch 4900 or Switch 40×0 switches
C. Run the same version of the Gigabit Multilayer Switching (MS) Software (4Xor higher) across the fabric
D. Use fault-tolerant 3Comhardware, i.e the Switch 40×0 family that provides additional levels of hardware fault tolerance
E. The XRN Fabric Modules should be installed while the fabric switch powered on. Hot swapping XRN Fabric Modules is also recommended in the event of a failure

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 13
Which three are benefits/features of the 3Com XRN technology? (Choose three)
A. Ensure continuous network availability
B. Supports enhanced network performance
C. Can be created using any IP-based switch
D. Create a path for future-proofing the network
E. Eliminates the need for hardware redundancy to achieve maximum network resiliency

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 14
Which three components are required to create a local XRN solution (excluding the appropriate 3Com switches? (Choose three)
A. 3Com Network Supervisor
B. XRN Fabric interconnect Modules
C. High-Bandwidth interconnect Cable
D. Gigabit Multilayer Switching Software V3.x
E. Gigabit Ethernet Layer switching modules

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 15
Which three are advantages of using 3Com’s XRN Distribution Resilient Routing (DRR) over Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)? (Choose three)
A. DRR is easy to configure and administer, VRRP is more complex to manage
B. DRR supports both IP unicast and IP multicast traffic, VRRP only supports IP unicast routing C. DRR fast failover is less than five seconds, VRRP fast failover can take as long as 60 seconds
D. DRR distributes routing table updates only, VRRP distributes the entire routing table to update other devices
E. DRR distributes routing across all switches in the XRN Distributed Fabric on the router interfaces, VRRP uses a single Master router for all routing

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 16
Which component of XRN technology is defined as “A set of interconnected switches that support Distributed Device Management (DDM), Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA) and Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)”?
A. XRN Interconnect
B. XRN Distributed Fabric
C. XRN Interconnect Fabric
D. XRN Distributed Software

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which Switch 7700 command would show if Port#4 on Ethernet Module #2 is a member of a Link Aggregation (LA) group and is the “LA Master Port”?
A. display interface Ethernet 2/4
B. display interface Ethernet 2/04
C. display interface Ethernet 4/0/2
D. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/4
E. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/0/4
F. display link-aggregation Ethernet 4/0/2

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which two should you verify on either the Switch 7700 or the Switch 8800 if the network is experiencing an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) problem? (Choose two)
A. OSPF is enabled on all switch ports
B. VRRP is properly configured on the switch ports supporting OSPF
C. The Link State Database is the same for all routers in an OSPF area
D. The switch is sending/receiving OSPF Hello packets and Link State updates

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 19
Which command shows the Quality of Service (QoS) settings for interface Modules #2 Ethernet port #6 on the Switch 7700?
A. display qos Ethernet 6/2 all
B. display qos Ethernet 2/0/6 all
C. display qos-interface Ethernet 2/0/6 all
D. display qos-interface Ethernet 6/0/2 all

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which two should be verified on either the Switch 7700 or the Switch 8800 when the network is experiences a RIP problem? (Choose two)
A. Check if BP is enabled on the switches using RIP
B. Check if the RIP versions are the same on the router interfaces
C. Use the “display RIP-statistics” command to check all RIP routes on the switch
D. Use the “display RIP packet” command to check if the switch is sending/receiving RIP updates
E. Use the “debugging RIP packet” command to check if the switch is sending/receiving RIP updates

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 21
The Switch 7700 automatically saves the system configuration to its flash memory.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 22
Which Access Control list modes are supported on both the Switch 7700 and the Switch 8800?
A. IP and Link based
B. IP and Port based
C. MAC and Link based
D. Link and Port based

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23
The 3Com NBX IP Telephony Systems use multicast routing for operations such as conference calls, Music-on-Hold and paging.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 24
Which command displays the system configuration stored in the Switch 7700 flash memory?
A. display flash
B. display configuration
C. display saved-configuration
D. display current-configuration

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
Which two procedures should a network administrator implement to assist in identifying the cause of a network incident or problem?(Choose two)
A. Document the existing network configuration
B. Install network sniffer throughout the network
C. Download all router and Layer 3 switch tables
D. Gather appropriate sniffer traces for the problem
E. Dump the pertinent statistics from all affected network devices Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 26
Which two are Access Control List match order parameters for both the Switch 7700 and the Switch 8800? (Choose two)
A. Null-no match
B. Config – first match
C. All – longest match
D. Exact – identical match

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 27
Which two are useful in determining the source of a network broadcast storm? (Choose two)
A. Check all the router tables on the network
B. Check RX broadcast count in port statistics
C. Check TX broadcast count on port statistics
D. Place a network sniffer anywhere on the network
E. Use the “display igmp” command to check VLAN assignment

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 28
Which two are traffic prioritization features of the SuperStack 3 Switch 4900 Family? (Choose two)
A. Queues can be manipulated
B. By default, there is a single queue per port
C. Logical queues are classified based on latency
D. Traffic prioritization is based on IEEE 802.1 Q tag information
E. All models support four queues per port, two physical and two loical

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 29
Which four are Link Aggregation features/functions of the SuperStak 3 Switch 4900 Family? (Choose four)
A. Supports the IEEE 802.3ad standard
B. Aggregated Links can be of different speeds
C. Aggregated Links participate in Resilient Link pairs
D. Configuration rules are 15 groups of up to four ports each
E. With mixed-speed Aggregated Links, traffic is sent via the hiher-speed links only
F. Resilient Aggregated Links are implemented using Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
G. Trunk Control Message Protocol (TCMP) must be enabled when connecting to the SuperStak 3 Switch 9300 or Switch 3900

Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 30
Which SuperStake 3 Switch 4900 model can concurrently support Gigabit Ethernet over UTP wiring, multimode fiber, single-mode fiber and long haul cabling without the addition of an expansion module?
A. SuperStake 3 Switch 4900
B. SuperStake 3 Switch 4900 SX
C. SuperStake 3 Switch 4924
D. SuperStake 3 Switch 4950

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QUESTION 1
The Switch 7700 or Switch 8800 can be used as the primary authentication service or as a backup if the RADIUS server group is unavailable.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which four are Switching Fabric features/Functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose four)
A. Each Switch Fabric has a data channel to every module
B. Supports a hot-swappable, load-balancing Switch Fabric.
C. There is a data channel between the two Switch Fabrics.
D. Each Switch Fabric has a management channel to every module
E. Supports a hot-standby, hot-swappable redundant Switch Fabric
F. The master Switch Fabric is always set to slot #1 unless the fabric in slot #1 fails
G. The master Switch Fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire chassis

Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 3
What is the maximum number of Linux Aggregation load-balancing groups supported on the Switch 7700?
A. 4 groups
B. 13 groups
C. 24 groups
D. 64 groups
E. 128 groups

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which three are Quality of Service (QoS) features/functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose three)
A. Has eight output queues per port
B. Supports Differentiated Services (DiffServ)prioritization
C. Uses a Randam Early Detection (RED) queue prioritization
D. Uses a Weihted Random Early Detection (WRED) queue prioritization
E. Can configure the priority queues “globally” across all I/O interfaces on a switch
F. Uses Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) to allocate bandwidth for high-priority applications

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 5
Which two rules must be followed when configuring Link Aggregation groups on the Switch 7700 1000BASE-T and 1000BASE-X modules? (Chosse two)
A. The Linux Aggregation group can start on any port.
B. All the ports in a Link Aggregation group must be consecutive
C. A single Link Aggregation group can span multiple Interface Modules
D. A maximum of eight ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation group
E. A maximum of twelve ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation roup

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 6
Exhibit:
Which three Ethernet modes are supported on the Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-T(3c16859)Interface
Module? (Choose three)

A. 10 Mbps in full duplex only
B. 10 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
C. 100 Mbps in full duplex mode only
D. 100 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
E. 1000 Mbps in full duplex mode only
F. 1000 Mbps in half/full duplex mode

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 7
Which two are functions of Switch 40×0 Family Multinetting? (Choose two)
A. Automatically assigns multiple VLANs on each router interface
B. Floods traffic from different subnets on the same broadcast domain
C. Enables configuration of multiple router interfaces for each VLan/broadcast domain
D. Enables multiple VLANs/broadcast domains to be configured for each router interface

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8
What is the benefit of using the Switch 40×0 Family’s Spanning Tree Ignore/Disable feature?
A. Prevents disassociation of Layer 2 traffic from Layer 3 traffic.
B. Enables use of a routing protocol at Layer 2 to make forwarding decisions
C. Enables use of spanning Tree Protocol (STP) at Layer 3 to prevent loops in the network
D. Supports use of routing paths at Layer 3, while Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) manages Layer 2 switched links

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which three are security-design features that can be employed in enterprise networks to improve security? (Choose three)
A. Enable IEEE 802 d link aggregation
B. Turn off IGMP snooping on all access-layer switches
C. Provide security for active devices using local or RADIUS authentication
D. Support IEEE 802.1X Network Login for authentication and authorization
E. Provide separate VLANs for management and wireless users with a VLAN-centric design
F. Employee TCP Windowing and or IEEE802.3X Flow Control to minimize effects of network attacks
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 10
Which three are key requirements for the Access Layer (edge) of the network? (Choose three)
A. Multilayer traffic prioritization
B. Multiple priority queues per port
C. Hardware-based Access Control List (ACLs)
D. Rate limiting and remarking for outgoing traffic.
E. MAC address authorization or IEEE 802.1X Network Login
F. Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) bandwidth allocation

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 11
Which three are true statements regarding 10 Gigabit technology and/or 3Com products? (Choose three)
A. The 3 Com XFP 10G Fiber Transceivers use LC connects
B. IEEE 802.3X defines the 10GBASE-CX4 standard for Twin axial
C. 3Com supports 10G interface Modules for both the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800
D. The 10GBASE-T standard requires four-pair Category 5 or two-pair Category 6 UTP wiring

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 12
Which three are recommended guidelines for an XRN network? (Choose three)
A. Only enable Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) or Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) on edge switches
B. Do not insert Fabric interconnect Modules into the Super Stack 3 Switch 4900 or Switch 40×0 switches
C. Run the same version of the Gigabit Multilayer Switching (MS) Software (4Xor higher) across the fabric
D. Use fault-tolerant 3Comhardware, i.e the Switch 40×0 family that provides additional levels of hardware fault tolerance
E. The XRN Fabric Modules should be installed while the fabric switch powered on. Hot swapping XRN Fabric Modules is also recommended in the event of a failure

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 13
Which three are benefits/features of the 3Com XRN technology? (Choose three)
A. Ensure continuous network availability
B. Supports enhanced network performance
C. Can be created using any IP-based switch
D. Create a path for future-proofing the network
E. Eliminates the need for hardware redundancy to achieve maximum network resiliency

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 14
Which three components are required to create a local XRN solution (excluding the appropriate 3Com switches? (Choose three)
A. 3Com Network Supervisor
B. XRN Fabric interconnect Modules
C. High-Bandwidth interconnect Cable
D. Gigabit Multilayer Switching Software V3.x
E. Gigabit Ethernet Layer switching modules

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 15
Which three are advantages of using 3Com’s XRN Distribution Resilient Routing (DRR) over Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)? (Choose three)
A. DRR is easy to configure and administer, VRRP is more complex to manage
B. DRR supports both IP unicast and IP multicast traffic, VRRP only supports IP unicast routing C. DRR fast failover is less than five seconds, VRRP fast failover can take as long as 60 seconds
D. DRR distributes routing table updates only, VRRP distributes the entire routing table to update other devices
E. DRR distributes routing across all switches in the XRN Distributed Fabric on the router interfaces, VRRP uses a single Master router for all routing

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 16
Which component of XRN technology is defined as “A set of interconnected switches that support Distributed Device Management (DDM), Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA) and Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)”?
A. XRN Interconnect
B. XRN Distributed Fabric
C. XRN Interconnect Fabric
D. XRN Distributed Software

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which Switch 7700 command would show if Port#4 on Ethernet Module #2 is a member of a Link Aggregation (LA) group and is the “LA Master Port”?
A. display interface Ethernet 2/4
B. display interface Ethernet 2/04
C. display interface Ethernet 4/0/2
D. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/4
E. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/0/4
F. display link-aggregation Ethernet 4/0/2

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which two should you verify on either the Switch 7700 or the Switch 8800 if the network is experiencing an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) problem? (Choose two)
A. OSPF is enabled on all switch ports
B. VRRP is properly configured on the switch ports supporting OSPF
C. The Link State Database is the same for all routers in an OSPF area
D. The switch is sending/receiving OSPF Hello packets and Link State updates

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 19
Which command shows the Quality of Service (QoS) settings for interface Modules #2 Ethernet port #6 on the Switch 7700?
A. display qos Ethernet 6/2 all
B. display qos Ethernet 2/0/6 all
C. display qos-interface Ethernet 2/0/6 all
D. display qos-interface Ethernet 6/0/2 all

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which two should be verified on either the Switch 7700 or the Switch 8800 when the network is experiences a RIP problem? (Choose two)
A. Check if BP is enabled on the switches using RIP
B. Check if the RIP versions are the same on the router interfaces
C. Use the “display RIP-statistics” command to check all RIP routes on the switch
D. Use the “display RIP packet” command to check if the switch is sending/receiving RIP updates
E. Use the “debugging RIP packet” command to check if the switch is sending/receiving RIP updates

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 21
The Switch 7700 automatically saves the system configuration to its flash memory.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 22
Which Access Control list modes are supported on both the Switch 7700 and the Switch 8800?
A. IP and Link based
B. IP and Port based
C. MAC and Link based
D. Link and Port based

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23
The 3Com NBX IP Telephony Systems use multicast routing for operations such as conference calls, Music-on-Hold and paging.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 24
Which command displays the system configuration stored in the Switch 7700 flash memory?
A. display flash
B. display configuration
C. display saved-configuration
D. display current-configuration

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
Which two procedures should a network administrator implement to assist in identifying the cause of a network incident or problem?(Choose two)
A. Document the existing network configuration
B. Install network sniffer throughout the network
C. Download all router and Layer 3 switch tables
D. Gather appropriate sniffer traces for the problem
E. Dump the pertinent statistics from all affected network devices Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 26
Which two are Access Control List match order parameters for both the Switch 7700 and the Switch 8800? (Choose two)
A. Null-no match
B. Config – first match
C. All – longest match
D. Exact – identical match

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 27
Which two are useful in determining the source of a network broadcast storm? (Choose two)
A. Check all the router tables on the network
B. Check RX broadcast count in port statistics
C. Check TX broadcast count on port statistics
D. Place a network sniffer anywhere on the network
E. Use the “display igmp” command to check VLAN assignment

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 28
Which two are traffic prioritization features of the SuperStack 3 Switch 4900 Family? (Choose two)
A. Queues can be manipulated
B. By default, there is a single queue per port
C. Logical queues are classified based on latency
D. Traffic prioritization is based on IEEE 802.1 Q tag information
E. All models support four queues per port, two physical and two loical

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 29
Which four are Link Aggregation features/functions of the SuperStak 3 Switch 4900 Family? (Choose four)
A. Supports the IEEE 802.3ad standard
B. Aggregated Links can be of different speeds
C. Aggregated Links participate in Resilient Link pairs
D. Configuration rules are 15 groups of up to four ports each
E. With mixed-speed Aggregated Links, traffic is sent via the hiher-speed links only
F. Resilient Aggregated Links are implemented using Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
G. Trunk Control Message Protocol (TCMP) must be enabled when connecting to the SuperStak 3 Switch 9300 or Switch 3900

Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 30
Which SuperStake 3 Switch 4900 model can concurrently support Gigabit Ethernet over UTP wiring, multimode fiber, single-mode fiber and long haul cabling without the addition of an expansion module?
A. SuperStake 3 Switch 4900
B. SuperStake 3 Switch 4900 SX
C. SuperStake 3 Switch 4924
D. SuperStake 3 Switch 4950

Correct Answer: D

related 3M0-212:https://www.pass4itsure.com/3M0-211.html dumps

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