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[Free New Dumps Version] Latest Release Cisco SWITCH 300-115 Dump Exam Question Youtube Study Guide Free Shared

Where do I get trusted Cisco dumps for 300-115? The Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (300-115 SWITCH) exam is a 120 minutes (30-40 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNP Routing and Switching, CCDP certification. Latest release Cisco SWITCH 300-115 dump exam question Youtube study guide free shared. “Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 300-115 dump test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 300-115 exam. CCNP Routing and Switching SWITCH https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-115.html dump guide from Pass4itsure enables you to succeed on the exam the first time and is the only self-study resource approved by Cisco.

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300-115 dumps

Free Pass4itsure 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 33 A switch is added into the production network to increase port capacity. A network engineer is configuring the switch for DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard, but is unable to configure ip verify source under several of the interfaces. Which option is the cause of the problem?
A. The local DHCP server is disabled prior to enabling IP Source Guard.
B. The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.
C. No VLANs exist on the switch and/or the switch is configured in VTP transparent mode.
D. The switch is configured for sdm prefer routing as the switched database management template.
E. The configured SVIs on the switch have been removed for the associated interfaces.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34 Which command correctly configures standby tracking for group 1 using the default decrement priority value?
A. standby 1 track 100
B. standby 1 track 100 decrement 1
C. standby 1 track 100 decrement 5
D. standby 1 track 100 decrement 20
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35 Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36 RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch. Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.

B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch isoverloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37 Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps

When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, localusername, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38 You are giving the debug RHCT exam. The examiner told you that the password of root is redhat. When you tried to login displays the error message and redisplayed the login screen. You changed the root password, again unable to login as a root. How will you make Successfully Login as a root.
Answer and Explanation:
When root unable to login into the system think:
1. Is password correct?
2. Is account expired?
3. Is terminal Blocked?
Do these Steps:
. Boot the System on Single user mode.
. Change the password
. Check the account expire date by using chage -l root command.
If account is expired, set net expire date: chage -E “NEVER” root
1. Check the file /etc/securetty Which file blocked to root login from certain terminal.
2. If terminal is deleted or commented write new or uncomment.
3. Reboot the system and login as a root.
QUESTION 39 You are giving RHCT Exam and in your Exam paper there is a written, make successfully ping to 192.168.0.254.
300-115 vce Answer and Explanation:
In Network problem thinks to check:
1. IP Configuration: use ifconfig command either IP is assigned to interface or not?

2. Default Gateway is set or not?
3. Hostname is set or not?
4. Routing problem is there?
5. Device Driver Module is loaded or not?
6. Device is activated or not?
Check In this way:
1. use ifconfig command and identify which IP is assigned or not.
2. cat /etc/sysconfig/network What, What is written here. Actually here are these parameters.
NETWORKING=yes or no
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
HOSTNAME=?
NISDOMAIN=?
– Correct the file
QUESTION 40 Use vi /etc/sysconfig/network-scirpts/ifcfg-eth0 and check the proper options
DEVICE=eth0
ONBOOT=yes
BOOTPROTO=static
IPADDR=x.x.x.x
NETMAKS=x.x.x.x
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
QUESTION 41  Set the Hostname station?.example.com where ? is your Host IP Address.
300-115 exam Answer and Explanation:
1. hostname station?.example.com This will set the host name only for current session. To set hostname permanently.
2. vi /etc/sysconfig/network HOSTNAME=station?.example.com
3. service network restart

QUESTION 42 The System you are using is for NFS (Network File Services). Some important data are shared from your system. Make automatically start the nfs and portmap services at boot time.
Answer and Explanation:
We can control the services for current session and for next boot time also. For current Session, we use service servicename start or restart or stop or status. For automatically on next reboot time:
1. chkconfig servicename on or off
eg: chkconfig nfs on chkconfig portmap on or ntsysv Select the nfs and portmap services.
2. Reboot the system and identify whether services are running or not.

QUESTION 43
Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?
A. Control Quality
B. Control Scope
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule
compared to the contract is known as:
A. Work performance information.
B. Inspections and audits.
C. Payment systems.
D. Procurement performance reviews.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?
A. Project Communications Management
B. Project Integration Management
C. Project Risk Management
D. Project Scope Management
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate
Costs process?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk register
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
A. Organizational process assets.
B. Enterprise environmental factors updates.
C. Project staff assignments.
D. Organizational charts and position descriptions.
300-115 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete
project activities is known as:
A. Plan Human Resource Management.
B. Acquire Project Team.
C. Manage Project Team.
D. Develop Project Team.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
Which item is an example of personnel assessment?
A. Resource calendar
B. Tight matrix
C. Team-building activity
D. Focus group
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Initiating
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 51
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can
best be involved in a project?
A. Feedback analysis
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Communication management plan
D. Stakeholder management plan
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected
product before actually building is known as:
A. Benchmarking.
B. Context diagrams.
C. Brainstorming.
D. Prototyping.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 53
Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?
A. Power/influence grid
B. Power/interest grid
C. Influence/impact grid
D. Salience model
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?
A. Facilitation techniques
B. Expert judgment
C. Analytical techniques
D. Variance analysis
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?
A. Control charts
B. Pareto diagrams
C. Ishikavva diagrams

D. Checksheets
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:
A. Collect Requirements.
B. Conduct Procurements.
C. Estimate Activity Durations.
D. Estimate Activity Resources.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?
A. Procurement documents
B. Communications plan
C. Project charter
D. Stakeholder register
300-115 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Executing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:
A. Business case.
B. Activity list.
C. Project management plan.
D. Cost forecast.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?
A. Change request
B. Requirements documentation
C. Scope baseline
D. Risk urgency assessment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?
A. Control Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Identify Risks
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:
A. Nominal group technique.
B. Majority.
C. Affinity diagram.
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:
A. mitigate
B. accept
C. transfer
D. avoid
300-115 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:
A. A process improvement plan,
B. Quality control measurements.
C. Work performance information,
D. The project management plan.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 65
A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:
A. Change control plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Risk log
D. Communications management plan
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?
A. Enhance
B. Share
C. Exploit
D. Accept
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:
A. Expert judgment.
B. Analytical techniques.
C. Earned value management.
D. Group decision-making techniques.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?
A. Timing
B. Methodology
C. Risk categories
D. Budgeting
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?
A. Negative
B. Zero
C. Positive
D. Free
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
A reward can only be effective if it is:
A. Given immediately after the project is completed.
B. Something that is tangible.
C. Formally given during project performance appraisals.
D. Satisfying a need valued by the individual.
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and
analysis?
A. Nominal group technique
B. Idea/mind mapping
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 73
Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and
complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement
for a current project describes which type of estimating?
A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric
C. Analogous
D. Three-point
300-115 exam Correct Answer: C
300-115 dumps

“Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks”, also known as 300-115 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-115 dump exam questions answers are updated (456 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 300-115 dump is CCNP Routing and Switching, CCDP. Expert engineer shares preparation hints and test-taking tips, helping you identify areas of weakness and improve https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-115.html dumps both your conceptual knowledge and hands-on skills.

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Latest Questions 3M0-300 exam dumps _v2011-11-09_55q_By-Ned

this dump good luck By-Ned Exam A QUESTION 1
Which of the following routers supports version 2.41 router code?
A. 5231
B. 5232
C. 5640
D. 5680
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a standard port available on the Router 5012?
A. ISDN
B. Console
C. Serial WAN
D. 10/100 Ethernet

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
True or False: The Flexible Interface Cards (FICs) in the Router 6040 can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
True or False: The RPU can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
What kind of modules does the Router 5232 use?
A. SICs only
B. MIMs only
C. SICs and MIMs
D. SICs and FICs

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
Which of the following modules is a daughter card that fits onto the RPU2?
A. ATM
B. Enhanced Serial
C. Encryption Card
D. Memory Expansion Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
How many FIC slots does a Router 6040 have?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
Which of the following features is available on both the RPU and the RPU2?
A. SFP Interface Slot
B. CF Memory Card slot
C. Gigabit Ethernet Interfaces
D. Power and Fan LED indicators

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
What does it indicate if the LEDs on the Power Supply of the Router 6000 are as follows? ALM (red) – OFF RUN (green) ON
AC OK (red) – ON
A. Power is OFF or has failed
B. A Runtime error has occurred
C. Power is ON and voltage is normal
D. Power is ON but operating voltage is not within acceptable range

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
True or False, The Router 6080 Fans have two rotational speeds.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
True or False: The RPU2 can support a daughter card.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Which of the following Network Management applications does NOT support the Router 5000/6000?
A. Enterprise Management Suite
B. 3Com Network Director Firewall
C. Router Manager
D. Switch Manager

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
The default baud rate for the Router 6040 is 9600 bps. What are the other settings?
A. 7 data bits, 2 stop bits, Even Parity
B. 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, Even Parity
C. 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, No Parity
D. 8 data bits, 0 stop bits, No Parity

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
At which prompt will you receive an error if you entered the command Interface Serial 0/0?
A. <Router>
B. [Router]
C. [Router-ospf-1]
D. [Router-Eth 1/0]

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Which command will reset the router to factory defaults?
A. undo start
B. reset start
C. reset to factory
D. reset saved-configuration

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Which interface/command shows the correct syntax to configure an IP address on a serial interface of the router 5012 on slot 1 port 0?
A. [RTA-Serial 1/0] ip interface10.1.3.1 24
B. [RTA-Serial 0/1] ip address 10.1.3.1 24
C. [RTA-Serial 1/0/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24
D. [RTA-Serial 0/1/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements is true about Router 5000/6000 series routers, with regard to TFTP?
A. They can be TFTP clients only
B. They can be TFTP servers only
C. They can be either TFTP clients or TFTP Servers
D. They do not support TFTP

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
True or False, The Router 6000 series routers have boot code and main code to upgrade while the 5000 Series Routers only have main code to upgrade.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
In a Router 5012, which command lists the files in a directory?
A. ls
B. dir
C. show list
D. display directory

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20
In the command delete /unreserved name2.bin What does /unreserved specify
A. to hide the file so that it looks deleted
B. to store the file in the recycle bin after deleting
C. to delete the file and not add it to the recycle bin
D. to perform the command immediately and not to queue the operation

Correct Answer: C

 

[Free New Dumps Version] Most Hottest Cisco Specialist 700-260 Dumps PDF Study Material Advanced Security Architecture for Account Manager

Where can I get Cisco 700-260 dumps? The Advanced Security Architecture for Account Manager (700-260) exam is a 50 Q&As assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the Cisco certification.”Advanced Security Architecture for Account Manager” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 700-260 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 700-260 exam. Yes you can prepare 700-260 dumps certification test easily.

Most hottest Cisco Specialist 700-260 dumps pdf study material Advanced Security Architecture for Account Manager. If you want suggestion then I want to recommend you Cisco exam dumps because from here you can get real and most up-to-date https://www.pass4itsure.com/700-260.html dumps.

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700-260 dumps

Free Pass4itsure 700-260 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 1
Increased employee productivity, confidence in data confidentiality, and increased visibility are features that demonstrate which Cisco business value?
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Protection
C. Control
D. Flexibility
E. Completeness
700-260 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which licensing feature enables customers to better manage their software assets and optimize their IT spending?
A. Cisco ONE
B. Smart Accounts
C. Enterprise License Agreements
D. License Bundling
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which Cisco network security solution helps protect against threats by monitoring and responding to any network anomalies, continually analyzing for potential threats and reacting to them in real time?
A. Cisco Security Manager
B. Cisco ASA Firewall Services
C. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
D. Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
E. Cisco Web Security Appliance
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance
G. Cisco Identity Services Engine
H. Cisco Site-to-Site VPN
700-260 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Identity Services Engine
D. Cisco Security Manager
E. Cisco TrustSec
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Upon which component are security solutions directly built in the Cisco future solutions architecture framework?
A. Security intelligence operations
B. Third-party applications

C. Management and intelligence capabilities
D. Cisco security platforms
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
At which point during the attack continuum does a customer experience limited remediation tools?
A. Across the entire continuum
B. During
C. Before
D. After
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which technology solution can resolve the inability of a customer to properly restrict and authorize access to protected resources while still introducing new applications, devices, and business partnerships?
A. Cisco Secure Data Center
B. Cisco Cyber Threat Defense
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Cloud
E. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure
F. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
700-260 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Utilizing the Cisco software lifecycle generates which two benefits for partners? (Choose two.)
A. Adaptable deployment
B. Software portability
C. Improved sales performance
D. Cisco incentives
E. Increased efficiencies
F. Sales promotions
G. Customer support
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 9
Which Cisco security benefit is a differentiator that allows partners to plan and model their businesses?
A. Comprehensive vision for security
B. One solution to fit every need
C. Unparalleled commitment
D. Lowest price points
E. Best-in-class technologies
700-260 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What is the primary customer challenge that is created by the wide variety of security solution providers on
the market?
A. Choosing the right provider

B. Contacting all providers for information
C. Finding a low-cost option
D. Determining the single best security product
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Automatic updates and post-attack guidance are features that demonstrate which Cisco business value?
A. Completeness
B. Cost effectiveness
C. Flexibility
D. Control
E. Protection
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
End-to-end protection and protection across the attack continuum are features that demonstrate which two Cisco business values? (Choose two.)
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Protection
C. Control
D. Flexibility
E. Completeness
700-260 dumps Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 13
The unmatched security that Cisco offers is demonstrated by its long-standing experience in which two
options? (Choose two.)
A. Mobile solutions
B. Networks
C. Software
D. Security
E. Devices
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 14
Click the exhibit button.
Given the diagram in the exhibit, what would be the correct static route configuration on the router on the right, if it is an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. config> static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.1.2.2
B. config>router> static-route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 next-hop 10.1.2.1
C. config>router> static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.1.2.2
D. config>router> static-route 0 0.0 0/0 next-hop 10.1.2.1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements regarding link state protocols are true? (Choose two)
A. When a router receives updates from its neighbors, it adds them to its link state database, performs an SPF computation, and sends the results to its neighbors.
B. An SPF computation is done by each router to determine the best path to destination networks. All the best paths determined by the SPF calculation will be seen in the route table.
C. Each router constructs its own link state database with updates received from neighbors.
D. An SPF computation is done by each router to determine the best path to destination networks. All the
best paths determined by the SPF calculation will be offered to the route table manager.
700-260 vce Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 16
Which of the following OSPFv3 LSAs have an AS scope?
A. Link Local LSA
B. Router LSA
C. Network LSA
D. Inter-Area Router LSA
E. Intra-Area Prefix LSA
F. None of the above LSAs have an AS scope.
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 17
An operator configures an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR with a loopback interface and IPv6 address. The
operator then configures a routing policy to redistribute the loopback prefix into OSPFv3. What type of LSA
is used to advertise the route to other OSPFv3 routers in the same area?
A. Router LSA
B. AS External LSA
C. Intra-Area Prefix LSA
D. Inter-Area Prefix LSA
E. Network LSA
F. None of the statements are correct.
700-260  exam Correct Answer: B

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[Free New Dumps Version] Most Hottest Cisco 400-101 Dumps PDF With High Quality Youtube Training BY Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert

Why you really need Cisco 400-101 dumps? “CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam” also known as 400-101 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Most hottest Cisco 400-101 dumps pdf with high quality Youtube training by Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert. Pass4itsure Cisco 400-101 dumps exam questions answers are updated (828 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 400-101 dumps is CCIE. Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-101.html dumps prominent success in first shot is possible with the best practice test software designed by the Pass4itsure industry experts.

Exam Code: 400-101
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam
Q&As: 828

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Free Pass4itsure 400-101 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 1
Which statement about a type 4 LSA in OSPF is true?
A. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR,that is flooded throughout the AS,and that describes a route to the ASBR.
B. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR,that is flooded throughout the AS,and that describes a route to the ABR.
C. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR,that is flooded throughout the AS,and that describes a route to the ASBR.
D. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR,that is flooded throughout the area,and that describes a route to the ASBR.
E. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR,that is flooded throughout the area,and that describes a route to the ASBR.
Pass4itsure 400-101 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which ISAKMP feature can protect a GDOI from a hacker using a network sniffer while a security
association is established?
A. An ISAKMP phase 1 security association
B. An ISAKMP phase 2 security association
C. The Proof of Possession(POP)
D. A ISAKMP phase 2 GROUPKEY-PUSH exchange
E. An ISAKMP phase 2 GROUPKEY-PULL exchange
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which three statements about Ansible are true? {Choose three.)
A. Ansible by default manages remote machines over SSL.
B. No ports other than the SSH port are required ; there is no additional PKI infrastructure to maintain.
C. Ansible requires remote agent software.
D. Ansible by default manages remote machines over SSH.
E. Ansible does not require specific SSH keys or dedicated users.
F. Ansible requires server software running on a management machine.
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which statement is true about conditional advertisements?
A. Conditional advertisements create routes when a predefined condition is met.
B. Conditional advertisements create routes when a predefined condition is not met.

C. Conditional advertisements delete routes when a predefined condition is met.
D. Conditional advertisements create routes and withhold them until a predefined condition is met.
E. Conditional advertisements do not create routes, they only withhold them until a predefined condition is met.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which two options are benefits of moving the application development workload to the cloud?(Choose two.)
A. The application availability is not affected by the loss of a single virtual machine.
B. The workload can be moved or replicated easily.
C. it provides you full control over the software packages and vendor used.
D. :High availability and redundancy is handled by the hypervisor.
E. it provides a more secure environment.
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which two statements about DMVPN with NHRP are true? (Choose two)
A. NHRP shortens the configuration of the hub router.
B. NHRP dynamically provides information about the spoke routers to the hub.
C. NHRP disables multicast
D. The hub router uses NHRP to initiate the GRE tunnel with spokes.
E. The spoke routers act as the NHRP servers.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 7
When is it useful to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface?
A. Disable it when you want to provide additional backup paths in your network.
B. Disable it when you want to send routes that are learned from another routing protocol to peer on the same interface.
C. Disable it when you need to send updates to peers on the interface on which the updates were received.
D. It is never advisable to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface.
400-101 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 8

400-101 dumps

Refer to the exhibit. Which two route types advertised by a router with this configuration? (Choose two)
A. connected
B. summary
C. static
D. redistributed
E. external
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which feature can you implement to most efficiently protect customer traffic in a rate-limited WAN Ethernet service?
A. IntServ with RSVP
B. DiffServ
C. Q-in-Q
D. The IPsec VTI qos pre-classify command
E. HCBWFQ
400-101 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label information table
C. the label forwarding information base
D. the IP routing table
E. the adjacency table
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Which command can you enter to allow a multicast-enabled router to advertise itself to the BSR router as PIMv2 c-RP?
A. ip pim autorp listener
B. ip pim send-rp-announce
C. ip pim rp-candidate
D. ip pim rp-address
E. ip pim send-rp- discovery
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding are true? (Choose two)
A. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when distributed Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
B. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the adjacency table.
C. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
D. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the FIB table.
E. The FIB table resides on the route processor and the adjacency table resides on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION NO: 13
Given the following formula in a calculation field that returns a Text result: Let (tmp = “2 * 5” ; Evaluate (Quote (tmp)))
What will be returned?
A. The value 10
B. The value tmp
C. The value 2 *5
D. The value “10”, quotes included
E. The value “tmp”, quotes included
F. The value “2 * 5”, quotes included
400-101 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
Given the following formula;
Substitute (“JoHn” ; [“J” ; “0”] ; [“0” ; “H”] ; [“H” ; “N”] ; [“N” ; “n”]) What is the result?
A. nonn
B. nnnn
C. OoNn
D. OHNn
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 15
Given a text field myText that contains “red-blue-green”, which two formulas could be used to extract the word “blue” from the field? (Choose two.)
A. Filter(myText ; “blue”)
B. MiddleWords(myText; 2 ; 2)
C. PatternMatch(myText ; “blue”)
D. GetValue(Substitute { myText ; “-” ; “¶” ); 2)
E. Middle(myText; Position(myText ; “-” ; 1 ; 1)+ 1 ; 4)
400-101 vce Answer: D,E
Explanation:

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Exam Name: Designing and Implementing Big Data Analytics Solutions
Q&As: 42

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QUESTION NO: 104
An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to suffer. What imbalance does this represent?
A. Excessive focus on quality
B. Excessively reactive
C. Excessively proactive
D. Excessive focus on cost
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 105
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfillment?
A. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
C. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested
D. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
70-475 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 106
What is the definition of an Alert?
A. An error message to the user of an application
B. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
C. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
D. A type of Incident
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 107

Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services”. These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following?
A. Functions and Processes
B. Markets and Customers
C. Applications and Infrastructure
D. People, products and technology
70-475 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 108
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?
A. Business Relationship Management
B. Continual Service Improvement
C. Service Level Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 109
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
B. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
C. The definition of Process Control is “The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice”
D. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business objectives
70-475 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 110
How is the Service Catalogue used to add value to the service provider organization?
A. Providing a central source of information on the IT services delivered
B. Showing the business impact of a change
C. Displaying the relationships between configuration items
D. To predict the root cause of issues in the IT infrastructure
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 111
Which process is responsible for monitoring an IT Service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits?
A. Service Level Management
B. Performance Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Event Management
70-475 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 112
In many organizations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk. It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:
A. Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line
B. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
C. Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line
D. Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 113
Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute is?
A. Whether to buy an application or build it
B. Should application development be outsourced
C. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be
D. Where the vendor of an application is located
70-475 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 114
Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2. What services to offer and to whom?
3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. All of the above
D. 3 only
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 115
Removing or restricting rights to use an IT Service is the responsibility of which process?
A. Access Management
B. Incident Management
C. Request Fulfillment
D. Change Management
70-475 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 116
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. Delivers specific results
B. A method of structuring an organization
C. Responds to specific events
D. It is measurable
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 117
Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
A. Applications and Infrastructure
B. Services and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
70-475 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 118
Staff in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?
A. Extreme internal focus
B. Extreme focus on cost
C. Extreme focus on responsiveness
D. Vendor focused
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 119
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. Delivers specific results
B. Responds to specific events
C. It is measurable
D. A method of structuring an organization
70-475 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 120
Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in a Network Operations Centre?
A. IT Operations Management
B. Applications Management
C. Service Desk
D. Technical Management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 121
Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?
A. Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts.
B. Development, negotiation and agreement of Organizational Level Agreements
C. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements.
D. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Portfolio
70-475 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 122
Which of the following areas would not be supported by a Service Design tool?
A. Software design
B. Process design
C. Environment design
D. Strategy design
70-475 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 123
Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?
A. Governance
B. Service Level Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Service Strategy
Answer: B

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QUESTION 51
An internal auditor for a large automotive parts retailer wishes to perform a risk analysis and wants to use an appropriate statistical tool to help identify stores that
would be out of line compared to the majority of stores. The most appropriate statistical tool to use is:
A. Lineartime series analysis.
B. Cross-sectional regression analysis.
C. Cross tabulations with chi-square analysis of significance

D. Time series multiple regression analysis to identify changes in individual stores over time.
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Time series data pertain to a given entity over a number of prior time periods. Cross-sectional data, however, pertain to different entities for a given time period or
at a given time. Thus, cross-sectional regression analysis is the most appropriate statistical tool because it compares attributes of all stores’ operating statistics at
one moment in time.
QUESTION 52
What coefficient of correlation results from the following data?
A. 0
B. -1
C. +1
D. Cannot be determined from the data given.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The coefficient of correlation (in standard notation, r) measures the strength of the linear relationship. The magnitude of ris independent of the scales of
measurement of x and y. Its range is -1 to +1. A value of -1 indicates a perfectly inverse linear relationship between x and y. A value of zero indicates no linear
relationship between x and y. A value of 1 indicates a perfectly direct relationship between x and y As x increases by 1, y consistently decreases by 2. Hence, a
perfectly inverse relationship exists, and r must be equal to -1.
QUESTION 53
In regression analysis, which of the following correlation coefficients represents the strongest relationship between the independent and dependent variables?
A. 1.03
B. -.02
C. -.89
D. .75
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Because the range of values is between-1 and 1.-89 suggests a very strong inverse relationship between the independent and dependent variables. A value of –1
signifies a perfect inverse relationship, and a value of 1 signifies a perfect direct relationship.
QUESTION 54
The following data on variables x and y was collected from June to October.
The correlation coefficient between variables x and y is nearest to:
A. 1.0
B. -1.0
C. 0.5
D. 0.0
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The simplest way to solve this problem is to use a scatter diagram:

The data points appear to form a straight line with a negative slope. Thus,-1 is the best estimate of the coefficient of correlation.
QUESTION 55
The correlation coefficient that indicates the weakest linear association between two variables is:
A. -0.73
B. -0.11
C. 0.12
D. 0.35
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The correlation coefficient can vary from -1 to +1. A–1 relationship indicates a perfect inverse correlation, and a +1 relationship indicates a perfect direct
correlation. A zero correlation coefficient indicates no linear association between the variables. Thus, the correlation coefficient that is nearest to zero would
indicate the weakest linear association. Of the options given in the question, the correlation coefficient that is nearest to zero is -0.11.
QUESTION 56
Correlation is a term frequently used in conjunction with regression analysis and is measured by the value of the coefficient of correlation, r. The best explanation
of the value r is that it:
A. Is always positive.
B. Interprets variances in terms of the independent variable.
C. Ranges in size from negative infinity to positive infinity.
D. Is a measure of the relative relationship between two variables.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The coefficient of correlation (r) measures the strength of the linear relationship between the dependent and independent variables. The magnitude of r is
independent of the scales of measurement of xand y. The coefficient has a range of-1 to +1. A value of zero indicates no linear relationship between the x and y
variables. A value of+1 indicates a perfectly direct relationship, and a value of –1 indicates a perfectly inverse relationship.
QUESTION 57
In preparing the annual profit plan for the coming year.
Based upon the data derived from the regression analysis, 420 maintenance hours in a month would mean the maintenance costs (rounded to the nearest US
dollar) would be budgeted at:
A. US$3,780
B. US$3,600
C. US$3,790
D. US$3,746
200-155  vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Substituting the given data into the regression equation results in a budgeted cost of US $3,746 (rounded to the nearest US dollar).
y=a + bx
= 684.65 + 7.2884(420)
= US $3,746
Answer:
QUESTION 58
In preparing the annual profit plan for the coming year.
What is the percentage of the total variance that can be explained by the regression equation?
A. 99.724%
B. 69.613%
C. 80.982%
D. 99.862%
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The coefficient of determination (r2) measures the percentage of the total variance in cost that can be explained by the regression equation. If the coefficient of
determination is .99724,99.724% of the variance is explained by the regression equation. Thus, the values in the regression equation explain virtually the entire
amount of total cost.
QUESTION 59
The internal auditor of a bank has developed a multiple regression model that has been used for a number of years to estimate the amount of interest income from
commercial loans. During the current year, the auditor applies the model and discovers that the r2 value has decreased dramatically, but the model otherwise
seems to be working.
Which of the following conclusions is justified by the change?
A. Changing to a cross-sectional regression analysis should cause r2to increase.
B. Regression analysis is no longer an appropriate technique to estimate interest income.
C. Some new factors not included in the model are causing interest income to change.
D. A linear regression analysis would increase the model’s reliability.
200-155  exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The coefficient of determination (r2) is the amount of variation in the dependent variable (interest income) that is explained by the independent variables. In this
case, less of the change in interest income is explained by the model. Thus, some other factor must be causing interest income to change.
This change merits audit investigation.

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Exam Name: Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions
Q&As: 205

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Question No : 39 A company has an Azure subscription with four virtual machines (VM) that are provisioned in an availability set. The VMs support an existing web service. The company expects additional demand for the web service. You add 10 new VMs to the environment.
You need to configure the environment. How many Update Domains (UDs) and Fault Domains (FDs) should you create?
A. 2 UDs and 5 FDs
B. 5 UDs and 2 FDs
C. 14 UDs and 2 FDs
D. 14 UDs and 14 FDs
70-533 exam Answer: B
Question No : 40 You administer an Azure solution that uses a virtual network named FabVNet. FabVNet
has a single subnet named Subnet-1. You discover a high volume of network traffic among four virtual machines (VMs) that are part of Subnet-1. You need to isolate the network traffic among the four VMs. You want to achieve this goal with the least amount of downtime and impact on users. What should you do?
A. Create a new subnet in the existing virtual network and move the four VMs to the new subnet.
B. Create a site-to-site virtual network and move the four VMs to your datacenter.
C. Create a new virtual network and move the VMs to the new network.
D. Create an availability set and associate the four VMs with that availability set.
Answer: C
Question No : 41 Your company network includes users in multiple directories. You plan to publish a software-as-a-service application named SaasApp1 to Azure Active Directory. You need to ensure that all users can access SaasApp1. What should you do?
A. Configure the Federation Metadata URL
B. Register the application as a web application.
C. Configure the application as a multi-tenant.
D. Register the application as a native client application.
70-533 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
* When you get deeper into using Windows Azure Active Directory, you’ll run into new
terminology. For instance, is called “directory” is also referred to as a Windows Azure AD
Tenant or simply as “tenant.” This stems from the fact that WAAD ()Windows Azure Active
Directory is a shared service for many clients. In this service, every client gets its own
separate space for which the client is the tenant. In the case of WAAD this space is a
directory. This might be a little confusing, because you can create multiple directories, in
WAAD terminology multiple tenants, even though you are a single client.
* Multitenant Applications in Azure
A multitenant application is a shared resource that allows separate users, or “tenants,” to
view the application as though it was their own. A typical scenario that lends itself to a
multitenant application is one in which all users of the application may wish to customize
the user experience but otherwise have the same basic business requirements. Examples
of large multitenant applications are Office 365, Outlook.com, and visualstudio.com.
References:
QUESTION 42
In a master-detail relationship, what happens to the child records if the parent record is deleted?
A. Parent record deletion fails.
B. Child records are not deleted.
C. A subset of the child records is deleted.
D. Child records are deleted.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
Which action is available to a developer when two objects are connected by a lookup relationship? Choose
2 answers
A. create a roll-up summary field on the parent object to count child records
B. create a custom report type that allows customization of fields displayed from both parent and child
objects
C. create a cross-object formula field on the child object to reference fields on the parent object
D. create a cross-object formula field on the parent object to reference fields on the child object
70-533 pdf Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 44
Universal Containers tracks Positions as a custom object in a recruiting application. All positions with a
priority of critical should NOT be open for more than two weeks. If a position remains open for more than
14 days, the priority should be re-examined.
How would a developer automate this process?
A. Create a workflow action to clone the position, assigned to the owner of the position record, that is due
14 days after record creation
B. Create a validation rule that compares today’s date and the record’s creation date to determine if the
difference is greater than 14 days
C. Recreate a time-dependent workflow action that sends an email to the recruiter if the position is still
open 14 days after record creation
D. Create a time-dependent workflow action that updates the position status to Closed 14 days after
record creation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Given a three tier model (UI layer, business logic layer, data layer), which feature of the Force.com
platform is associated with the data layer? Choose 3 answers
A. Custom applications
B. Custom relationships
C. Custom fields
D. Custom objects
E. Custom tabs
70-533 vce Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 46
What is a Junction object?
A. A standard object with a master-detail relationship
B. A custom object with two master-detail relationships
C. A standard object with two master-detail relationships
D. A custom object with a master-detail relationship
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
A developer would like to enable end users to filter the data displayed on the related list of an object detail
page. How could a developer accomplish this?
A. Enable Advanced Search on the object’s related list
B. Customize the search filter fields layout for that object
C. Create a Visualforce page to replace the object detail view
D. Configure the object’s related list to add a filter
70-533 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
Hiring managers at Universal Containers would like a visual mechanism for determining review score
outliers. Review scores are captured as a custom field on a custom Review object and can range from l to
10. Any review score that is > 8 should be highlighted in green.
Any review score that is < 4 should be highlighted In red.
How would a developer accomplish this?
A. Use custom summary formulas
B. Use matrix reports
C. Use charts
D. Use conditional highlighting
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 22
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
210-260 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 23
Which statement about personal firewalls is true?
A. They can protect a system by denying probing requests.
B. They are resilient against kernel attacks.
C. They can protect email messages and private documents in a similar way to a VPN.
D. They can protect the network against attacks.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 25
How does a device on a network using ISE receive its digital certificate during the new- device registration
process?
A. ISE acts as a SCEP proxy to enable the device to receive a certificate from a central CA server.
B. ISE issues a certificate from its internal CA server.
C. ISE issues a pre-defined certificate from a local database.
D. The device requests a new certificate directly from a central CA.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps

The Admin user is unable to enter configuration mode on a device with the given configuration. What
change can you make to the configuration to correct the problem?
A. Remove the autocommand keyword and arguments from the username admin privilege line.
B. Change the Privilege exec level value to 15.
C. Remove the two Username Admin lines.
D. Remove the Privilege exec line.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A
Question: 27
You are a HR Professional for your organization and your supervisor is asking you about the details of
the Civil Rights Act of 1991, and what it means to your company. He wants to know what the total
damages could be if an organization is found liable by a jury trial. What is the maximum amount that
could be awarded to a victim of discrimination if the organization is found liable?
A. There is no limited amount as the jury can determine damages
B. $50,000
C. $300,000
D. $500,000
Answer: C
Explanation:
The maximum amount that can be awarded is $300,000. This amount, however, can be lowered
based on the number of people involved in the discrimination lawsuit.
Answer options B, D, and A are incorrect. The maximum amount allowed by the Civil Rights Act of
1991, is $300,000.
Question: 28
On November 13, 2000 CFR Part 60-2 was revised to address affirmative action to make the rules
more accessible and easier to implement. Which of the following statements is not part of this
significant update to the Affirmative Action program in CFR Part 60-2?
A. Reduced the number of additional required elements of the written Affirmative Action Plan from
10 to 4
B. Reaffirmed that affirmative action isn’t to establish quotes, but to create goals
C. Granted employers with fewer than 100 employees, permission to prepare a job group analysis
that uses EEO-1 categories as job groups
D. Workforce analysis was replaced with a one-page organizational profile
210-260 vce Answer: C
Explanation:
The update to CFR Part 60-2 was revised and allowed employers with fewer than 150 employees,
not 100, permission to prepare a job group analysis that uses EEO-1 categories as job groups.
Answer options D, B, and A are incorrect. These statements are part of the CFR Part 60-2 revision.
Question: 29
Herb is the HR Professional for his organization. He is preparing to hire a new employee, Hans, to the
firm. Herb has asked Hans to agree, in writing, to mandatory arbitration as part of the employment
offer. What does this agreement mean?
A. It means that Hans and the organization must settle all disputes, if any arise, through a neutral
third party rather than through a lawsuit.
B. It means that Hans must file all legal complaints with the organization’s attorney, before filing a
lawsuit against the organization.
C. It means that Herb’s firm can research Hans to determine if he’s had any lawsuits.
D. It means that Hans cannot work for competitors without the written permission of the employer.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Mandatory arbitration helps the organization avoid lawsuits, should any arise, between the
employee and the employer, by agreeing up-front to settle potential disagreements through an
arbitrator versus a lawsuit.
Answer option D is incorrect. This answer describes a non-compete agreement.
Answer option C is incorrect. This isn’t a valid answer for the mandatory arbitration agreement.
Answer option B is incorrect. Hans doesn’t need to file legal complaints with his employer under this
agreement. The agreement means that Hans and the employer will settle the problem without a
lawsuit.

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Exam Code: 70-346
Exam Name: Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements
Q&As: 211

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Question No : 12 DRAG DROP  Contoso Ltd. plans to use 70-346 exam Office 365 services for collaboration between departments. Contoso has one Active Directory Domain Services domain named contoso.local. You deploy the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool. You plan to implement single sign-on (SSO) for Office 365. You need to synchronize only the user accounts that have valid routable domain names
and are members of specified departments. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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Answer:
70-346 dumps

Question No : 13
An organization plans to migrate to Office 365. You use the Windows Azure Active
Directory (AD) Sync tool. Several users will not migrate to Office 365. You must exclude these users from
synchronization. All users must continue to authenticate against the on-premises Active
Directory. You need to synchronize the remaining users. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Populate an attribute for each user account.
B. Disable the user accounts in Active Directory.
C. Perform a full synchronization.
D. Configure the connection filter.
E. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-MsolDirSyncEnabled -EnableDirSync
$false.
Answer: B,D,E

Question No : 14 You use a centralized identity 70-346 dumps management system as a source of authority for user account information. You export a list of new user accounts to a file on a daily basis. Your company uses a local Active Directory for storing user accounts for on-premises solutions.
You are configuring the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
New user accounts must be created in both the local Active Directory and Office 365. You
must import user account data into Office 365 daily.
You need to import the new users. What should you do?
A. Use the Office 365 admin center to import the file.
B. Create a Windows PowerShell script to import account data from the file into Active
Directory.
C. Use the Windows Azure Management Portal to import the file.
D. Create a Windows PowerShell script that uses the MSOnline module to import account
data from the file.
Answer: B
Question No : 15 DRAG DROP An organization plans to deploy an Office 365 tenant. The company has two servers named SERVER1 and SERVER2. SERVER1 is a member server of the Active Directory
forest that you are synchronizing. SERVER2 is a standalone server. Both servers run
Windows Server 2012.
You need to use the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool to provision users.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
70-346 dumps
QUESTION 16
Which is the purpose of the Change theme?
A. Prevent change to baselined products
B. Identify, assess and control any potential and approved changes to baselined products
C. Establish mechanisms to monitor and compare actual achievements against those planned
D. Assess and control uncertainty
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which step in the issue and change control procedure considers alternative options for responding to an
issue that is being managed formally?
A. Capture
B. Examine
C. Propose
D. Decide

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
A product can NOT be supplied to meet all of the requirements in its baselined Product Description.
What first action should be taken?
A. Raise a request for change
B. Raise an off-specification
C. Write an Exception Report
D. Amend the Work Package
70-346 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which of the following statements about the Closing a Project process are true?
1. The Closing a Project process provides a fixed point for the receipt of completed Work Packages for the
work performed in the final stage.
2. The Closing a Project process provides a fixed point to review if the objectives set out in the original
Project Initiation Documentation have been achieved.
A. Only 1 is true
B. Only 2 is true
C. Both 1 and 2 are true
D. Neither 1 or 2 are true
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
What takes place during the Closing a Project process?
A. The post-project benefits reviews are performed
B. Ownership of the project’s products is transferred to the customer
C. An End Stage Report is prepared for the final stage
D. The project closure notification is reviewed and approved
70-346 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Which is an objective of the Closing a Project process?
A. Prepare the plan for the next stage
B. Assess any benefits that have already been realized
C. Produce a Benefits Review Plan to identify what benefits are expected
D. Check that all benefits are realized before closing a project
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Which is a purpose of the Closing a Project process?
A. Authorize the final stage of the project
B. Confirm that all benefits defined in the Business Case have been achieved
C. Recognize whether objectives set out in the original Project Initiation Documentation have been
achieved
D. Delegate day-to-day management of the end of the project to the Project Manager

70-346 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Which should be used to document any uncompleted work that needs to be done to a project product after
the project has closed?
A. Off-specifications
B. Follow-on action recommendations
C. Issue Register
D. Risk Register
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Which is an objective of the Closing a Project process?
A. Review and approve the plan for project closure
B. Review the performance of the project against its baseline
C. Perform any post-project reviews
D. Create a Benefits Review Plan
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Which is a purpose of the Controlling a Stage process?
A. Produce a Team Plan for the work to be assigned to a Team Manager
B. Select and implement actions that will resolve deviations from a plan within tolerance
C. Obtain approvals for products delivered in a Work Package
D. Update a Project Plan to incorporate the actuals from a Stage Plan
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
What process ensures focus on the delivery of a stage’s products and avoids uncontrolled change?
A. Directing a Project
B. Managing a Stage Boundary
C. Controlling a Stage
D. Starting up a Project
70-346 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Which process is triggered towards the end of the final stage when all the assigned work has been
completed?
A. Managing a Stage Boundary
B. Managing Product Delivery
C. Closing a Project
D. Controlling a Stage
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Updated: Sep 17, 2017
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION 8
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest resolutions to the problems.
Which of statement is true regarding STP issue identified with switches in the given topology?
A. Loopguard configured on the New_Switch places the ports in loop inconsistent state
B. Rootguard configured on SW1 places the ports in root inconsistent state
C. Bpduguard configured on the New_Switch places the access ports in error-disable
D. Rootguard configured on SW2 places the ports in root inconsistent state
300-135 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
On the new switch, we see that loopguard has been configured with the “spanning-tree guard loop” command.
The loop guard feature makes additional checks. If BPDUs are not received on a non-designated port, and loop guard is enabled, that port is moved into the STP loop-inconsistent blocking state, instead of the listening / learning / forwarding state. Without the loop guard feature, the port assumes the designated port role. The port moves to the STP forwarding state and creates a loop.
QUESTION 9
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest 300-135 dumps resolutions to the problems. You have configured PVST+ load balancing between SW1 and the New_Switch in such a way that both the links E2/2 and E2/3 are utilized for traffic flow, which component of the configuration is preventing PVST+ load balancing between SW1 and SW2 links
A. Port priority configuration on SW1
B. Port priority configuration on the New_Switch
C. Path cost configuration on SW1
D. Path cost configuration on the New_Switch
Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Here is the configuration found on the New_Switch:
This causes the port cost for link eth 1/3 to increase the path cost to 250 for all VLANs, making that link less preferred so that only eth 1/2 will be used.
QUESTION 10
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest resolutions to the problems.
Refer to the topology.
SW1 Switch Management IP address is not pingable from SW4. What could be the issue?
A. Management VLAN not allowed in the trunk links between SW1 and SW4
B. Management VLAN not allowed in the trunk links between SW1 and SW2
C. Management VLAN not allowed in the trunk link between SW2 and SW4
D. Management VLAN ip address on SW4 is configured in wrong subnet
E. Management VLAN interface is shutdown on SW4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In the network, VLAN 300 is called the Management VLAN. Based on the configurations shown below, SW1 has VLAN 300 configured with the IP address of 192.168.10.1/24, while on SW4 VLAN 300 has an IP address of 192.168.100.4/24, which is not in the same subnet.
QUESTION 11
You have been brought in to troubleshoot an EIGRP network. A network engineer has made configuration changes to the network rendering some locations unreachable. You are to locate the problem and suggest solution to resolve the issue.
R5 has become partially isolated from the remainder of the network. R5 can reach devices on directly connected networks but nothing else. What is causing the problem?
A. An outbound distribute list in R3
B. Inbound distribute lists in R5
C. An outbound distribute list in R6
D. Incorrect EIGRP routing process ID in R5
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Here we see that distribute list 3 has been applied to EIGRP on router R%, but access-list 3 contains only deny statements so this will effectively block all routing advertisements from its two EIGRP neighbors, thus isolating R5 from the rest of the EIGRP network:

QUESTION  12.If correct permissions have been setup, users can execute their own programs at a fixed time by submitting their jobs to the cron service using the crontab command.
A. True B.
False
Answer: A
QUESTION  13.The following entry appears in the /etc/crontab as follows:
30 4 * * 1 /bin/sh /home/Tom/rmcore 2>&1 /dev/null
Select the action below which best represents what it will accomplish.
A. “rmcore” will execute on April 30th for one hour
B. “rmcore” will execute on the first day of every month
C. “rmcore” will execute every Monday at 4:30 a.m.
D. None of the above

300-135 vce Answer: C
QUESTION 14.Which of the following statements about cron/crontab is NOT true?
A. each user can have his/her own personal crontab file
B. the crontab file is automatically created when a user account is created
C. the superuser can edit the cron table using the “crontab -e” command
D. cron jobs run with the permission of whomever submitted the job
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 15
You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005
as its application development platform. You have recently created an application that includes the
code shown below.
string str1 = “ABC”;
string str2 = “u”;
str2 += “Certify”;
Console.WriteLine(str1 == str2);
Console.WriteLine((Object) str1 == (Object) str2);
Console.WriteLine(str1.Equals(str2));
What will be the output of the above code?
A. False
False
False
B. False
True
False
C. True
True
True
D. True
False
True
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 16
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET

Framework 3.5. You want to use a HTTP module called on each and every request made by the
application. It is called as part of the ASP.NET request pipeline. It has right to access life-cycle
events throughout the request. You also want to ensure that the HTTP module allows a user to
inspect incoming and outgoing requests and take appropriate action based on the request. What
will be the correct order to create the HTTP module?

300-135 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 17
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET
Framework 3.5. The application contains two HTML pages named Error.htm and
PageNotFound.htm. You want to make sure that the following requirements are met:
l When any user requests a page that does not exist, the PageNotFound.htm page is
displayed.
l When any other error occurs, the Error.htm page is displayed. Which of the following code
segments will you add to the Web.config file to accomplish this task?
A. <customErrors mode=”On” defaultRedirect=”Error.htm”>
<error statusCode=”404″ redirect=”PageNotFound.htm”/>
</customErrors>
B. <customErrors mode=”Off”>
<error statusCode=”400″ redirect=”Error.htm”/>
<error statusCode=”404″ redirect=”PageNotFound.htm”/>
</customErrors>
C. <customErrors mode=”On”>
<error statusCode=”400″ redirect=”Error.htm”/>
error statusCode=”404″ redirect=”PageNotFound.htm”/
</customErrors>
D. <customErrors mode=”Off” defaultRedirect=”Error.htm”>
<error statusCode=”404″ redirect=”PageNotFound.htm”/>
</customErrors>
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 18
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You are creating an ASP.NET Web application using .NET
Framework 3.5. The application will be used to share any type of photos on Internet. All the photos
should be accessible in various sizes and formats. You need to add a download feature that can
be easily maintained. You also need to make sure that only a single version of all photos is stored
on a SQL server database. What will you do?
A. Create an HttpModule class to determine the request for the photo download. Process the
photo according to the given format and size, and after that return the processed photo in the
response.
B. Create a user control that converts the photo to the required format and size.
C. Create an HttpHandler class to determine the request for the photo download. Process the
photo according to the given format and size, and after that return the processed photo in the
response.
D. Create an ActiveX control that converts the photo to the required format and size.
300-135 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 19
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You have recently finished development of an ASP.NET Web
application using the .NET Framework 3.5. You host the application on a Web farm that consists
of three Web servers. You should configure the ASP.NET application for session state to meet the
following requirements:
l Session state data should not be lost if a server fails.
l Session state must be maintained across browser requests by the same user.
You are required to configure the Web.config file to meet these requirements. Which of the
following configurations will you use?

A. <sessionState mode=”StateServer”/>
B. <sessionState mode=”InProc”/>
C. <sessionState mode=”Custom”/>
D. <sessionState mode=”SQLServer”/>
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Sep 08, 2017
Q&As: 164

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Question No : 5 CORRECT TEXT  You have a view that was created by using the following code:
070-461 dumps

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to create an inline table-valued function named Sales.fn_OrdersByTerritory,
which must meet the following 070-461 exam requirements:
Accept the @T integer parameter.
Use one-part names to reference columns.
Filter the query results by SalesTerritoryID.
Return the columns in the same order as the order used in OrdersByTerritoryView.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:
070-461 dumps

Question No : 6 CORRECT TEXT You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibitbutton.)

070-461 dumps


You deploy a new server that has SQL Server 2012 installed. You need to create a table
named Sales.OrderDetails on the new server. Sales.OrderDetails must meet the following
requirements: Write the results to a disk. Contain a new column named LineItemTotal that stores the product of ListPrice
  and Quantity for each row. The code must NOT use any object delimiters.
The solution must ensure that LineItemTotal is stored as the last column in the table. Which
code segment should you use? To answer, type the correct 070-461 dumps code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:

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Question No : 7 CORRECT TEXT  You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
070-461 dumps

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to create a view named uv_CustomerFullName to meet the following
requirements:
The code must NOT include object delimiters.
The view must be created in the Sales schema.
Columns must only be referenced by using one-part names.
The view must return the first name and the last name of all customers.
The view must prevent the underlying structure of the customer table from being
  changed.
The view must be able to resolve all referenced objects, regardless of the user’s
default schema.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:

070-461 dumps

Question No : 8 CORRECT TEXT  You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

070-461 dumps

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to create a query that calculates the total sales of each OrderId from the
Sales.Details table. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Use one-part names to reference columns.
Sort the order of the results from OrderId.
NOT depend on the default schema of a user.
Use an alias of TotalSales for the calculated ExtendedAmount.
Display only the OrderId column and the calculated TotalSales column.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
070-461 pdf 
Answer:
070-461 dumps

Question No : 9. A Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) user is also a supervisor. You want to ensure that the supervisor automatically sees only his/her agents in the following: Historical reports
Real-time displays
Contact Center Manager Server
How can this be done most effectively?
A. Configure a standard partition.
B. Configure a user-defined partition.
C. The supervisor will automatically see all of the agents.
D. Link the CCMA user to the supervisor in the reporting agents partition.
Answer: D
Question No :  10. In a deployed Contact Center Rls. 7.0 network with several sites, which condition will occur if the Network Control Center (NCC) server experiences a hardware failure that drops the server from the network?
A. all call routing and call processing in the network will stop
B. calls are routed between sites but no network call-by-call data will be transferred to the NCC
C. calls will not be routed between sites in the network
D. the Contact Center Manager Servers at each site in the network will also fail
070-461 vce 
Answer: B
Question No : 11 . In Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) Rls. 7.0, which element can be configured on the Configuration component?
A. Global Settings
B. Users
C. Agents
D. Partitions
Answer: A
Question No : 12. In Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) Rls. 7.0, which set of options specifies how statistics are
  treated in reports and real-time displays?
A. Activity codes
B. Call Presentation Class
C. Skillset Assignment
D. Threshold Class
070-461 exam 
Answer: D
Question No : 13. While the Call Presentation option “After Call Break for N seconds” (break time) is in effect, which event
can cancel the break time?
A. An agent is reserved for an NACD call by the switch.
B. An agent can put directory number calls on hold for incoming ACD calls.
C. A break time between calls has been allowed and the agent returns from walk away.
D. A break time between calls has been allowed and the agent releases an individual DN call.
E. A break time between calls has been allowed and the caller abandons the call when on an agent set.
Answer: A
Question No : 14. CERTIFICATION REQUIREMENTS
(A)Obtaining Certification:
To obtain certification in any of the RSA Certified Security Professional designations, You must
successfully comply with the initial certification requirements for that designation. Certification
requirements are available on the RSA Certification Web site, or available from RSA, The Security
Division of EMC at the address specified herein. By sending You the RSA Certified Security
Professional Welcome Kit, RSA confirms that, according to its 070-461 dumps records, You have complied with the initial certification requirements for the RSA Certified Security Professional designation indicated in the RSA Certified Security Professional Welcome Kit.
(B)Maintaining Active Certification:
To maintain Your active certification(s), You must comply with any and all continuing certification
requirements which shall be established by RSA, The Security Division of EMC and may include
periodically taking a re-certification examination that tests Your knowledge of the features and
functionality of any major product release. You acknowledge and agree that RSA may, in its sole
discretion, change the certification requirements (both initial and continuing), RSA Certified Security
Professional designations, and RSA Certified Security Professional Logos and Guidelines at any time.
You are responsible for periodically checking the RSA Certified Security Professional website for
updates and compliance with any and all updates. Failure to comply with all requirements will result in
termination of this Agreement.
(C)Transfer of Certification:
You shall not transfer or share Your RSA Certified Security Professional certification and the benefits
of such certification to or with another person or entity.
Question No : 15.USE OF RSA CERTIFIED SECURITY PROFESSIONAL DESIGNATIONS and LOGOS
Upon Your successful completion of the initial certification requirements, and so long as You remain in
compliance with all applicable continuing certification requirements, RSA, The Security Division of
EMC hereby authorizes You to use the RSA Certified Security Professional designation 070-461 exam for which You have obtained certification, as indicated in the RSA Certified Security Professional Welcome Kit which includes this RSA Certified Security Professional Agreement and the RSA Certified Security
Professional Logo Guidelines which set forth the authorized use of the RSA Certified Security
Professional Logo.
You acknowledge RSA’s sole ownership of the RSA Certified Security Professional Logo and
designations, and that nothing in the RSA Certified Security Professional Agreement, or in Your
performance as an RSA Certified Security Professional, or that might otherwise be implied by law,

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Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Sep 06, 2017
Q&As: 503

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QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains three domain DC3 loses network connectivity due to a hardware failure. You plan to remove DC3 from the domain. You log on to DC3. You need to identify which service location (SRV) records are registered by DC3. What should you do?
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A. Open the %windir%\system32\config\netlogon.dns file.
B. Run dcdiag /test:dns
C. Open the %windir%\system32\dns\backup\adatum.com.dns file.
D. Run ipconfig /displaydns.
70-410 study guide Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains three domains. A group named Group1 is configured as a domain local distribution group in the forest root domain. You plan to grant Group1 read-only access to a shared folder named Share1. Share1 is located in a child domain. You need to ensure that the members of Group1 can access Share1. What should you do first?
A. Convert Group1 to a global distribution group.
B. Convert Group1 to a universal security group.
C. Convert Group1 to a universal distribution group.
D. Convert Group1 to a domain local security group
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2. One of the domain controllers is named DCI. The network contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to promote Server1 to a domain controller by using install from media (IFM).
What should you do first?
A. Create a system state backup of DC1.
B. Create IFM media on DC1.
C. Upgrade DC1 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
D. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
E. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Installation Wizard on DC1.
70-410 practice test Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 servers. The servers are contained in a organizational unit (OU) named ServersOU. You need to create a group named Group1 on all of the servers in the domain. You must ensure that Group1 is added only to the servers. What should you configure?
A. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to the Domain Controllers OU
B. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to the domain
C. a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
D. a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. All of the computer accounts for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts. Servers are restarted only occasionally. You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days.
What should you do?
A. Run dsquery computerand specify the -staiepwdpara meter.
B. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the SearchScope parameter.
C. Run Get-ADComputerand specify the IastLogonproperty.
D. Run dsquery serverand specify the -oparameter
70-410 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You log on to a domain controller by using an account named Admin1. Admin1 is a member of the Domain Admins group. You view the properties of a group named Group1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) Group1 is located in
an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. You need to ensure that you can modify the Security settings of Group1 by using Active Directory Users and Computers. What should you do from Active Directory Users and Computers?

70-410 dumps
A. From the View menu, select Users, Contacts, Groups, and Computers as containers.
B. Right-click OU1 and select Delegate Control
C. From the View menu, select Advanced Features.

D. Right-click contoso.com and select Delegate Control.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2. You install 70-410 dumps Windows Server 2012 on a new computer named DC3. You need to manually configure DC3 as a domain controller. Which tool should you use?
A. Server Manager
B. winrm.exe
C. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
D. dcpromo.exe
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
You have a server named Core1 that has a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. Core1 has the Hyper-V server role installed Core1 has two
network adapters from different third- party hardware vendors.
You need to configure network traffic failover to prevent connectivity loss if a network adapter fails.
What should you use?
A. New-NetSwitchTeam
B. Add-NetSwitchTeamMember
C. Install-Feature
D. netsh.exe
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You connect three new hard disks to Server1.
You need to create a storage space that contains the three disks. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Provide fault tolerance if a single disk fails.
– Maximize the amount of files that can be stored in the storage space.
What should you create?
A. A simple space
B. A spanned volume
C. A mirrored space
D. A parity space
70-410 study guide Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1. You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. The setup.exe command
B. The dism.exe command
C. The imagex.exe command
D. The Add-WindowsPackage cmdlet
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has five network adapters. Three of the network adapters an connected to a
network named LAN1. The two other network adapters are connected to a network named LAN2.
You need to create a network adapter team from the three network adapters connected to LAN 1.
Which tool should you use?
A. Routing and Remote Access
B. Network and Sharing Center
C. Server Manager
D. Network Load Balancing Manager
70-410 practice test Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to remove Windows Explorer, Windows Internet Explorer, and all related
components and files from Server1. What should you run on Server1?
A. Uninstall-WindowsFeature Server-Gui-Mgmt-Infra Remove
B. Uninstall-WindowsFeature Server-Gui-Shell Remove
C. msiexec.exe /uninstall iexplore.exe /x
D. msiexec.exe /uninstall explorer.exe /x
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
You have a server named Server1 that runs 70-410 dumps Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. On Server1, you create a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 has a legacy network adapter. You need to assign a specific amount of available network bandwidth to VM1.
What should you do first?
A. Remove the legacy network adapter, and then run the Set-VMNetworkAdaptercmdlet.
B. Add a second legacy network adapter, and then run the Set-VMNetworkAdoptercmdlet
C. Add a second legacy network adapter, and then configure network adapter teaming.

D. Remove the legacy network adapter, and then add a network adapter
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 070-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Sep 08, 2017
Q&As: 503

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Microsoft 070-410 Dumps Exam Topics Covered:

The following list includes the topic areas covered on this exam.
• Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
• Introduction to Active Directory Domain Services
• Managing Active Directory Domain Services Objects
• Automating Active Directory Domain Services Administration
• Implementing Networking Services
• Implementing Local Storage
• Implementing File and Print Services
• Implementing Group Policy
• Implementing Server Virtualization with Hyper-V

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QUESTION  1. In Report Studio, an author merges Query1 and Query2 into one result set (Query3) using a union set operator, Query1 contains two data items: Order method and Revenue, Query2 also contains two data items: Product line and Quantity sold. The author wants to display the data from Query3 in a list report, how can the author ensure that all the order method results appear together line results appear together in the report?
A. The author must add a sort key data item directly to Query3.
B. The author must sort the Order method data item in Query1 and the Product line data item in Query2.
C. The author must sort the data item in Query3 that retrieves both Order method and Product line data. D.
The author must add a sort key data item to Query1 and Query2,and then add this sort key data item to
Query3.
070-410 exam Answer: C
QUESTION  2. Which member is used for dimensions in package that are not referenced in the expression?
A. Tabular data includes a column for each data item in the query, No grouping is applied to the tabular
data.
B. Tabular data includes a column for each data item in the query. Grouping applied in the report layout is
also applied to the tabular data.
C. Tabular data can only include columns for data items that appear in the layout. No grouping is applied
to the tabular data.
D. Tabular data includes a column for data item that appears in both the query and the layout. Grouping
applied in the report layout is also applied to tabular data.
Answer: A
QUESTION  3. In Report Studio, an author uses the tuple function to retrieve the intersection of members from two dimensions. Which member is used for dimensions in the package that are not referenced in the
expression?
A. No member is used.
B. The root member is always used.
C. The last sibling of the lowest member is always used.
D. The default member for that Dimension is always used.

070-410 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION  4. In Report Studio, an author wants to use a join object to create a relationship between two queries. Which of the following is true?
A. The author can use a join object to create either an inner or outer join between the queries.
B. The author can use a join object only if both queries contain data from OLAP data sources.
C. The author can use a join object only if both queries contain data from relational sources that has not
been modeled dimensionally.
D. Both queries must contain the same number of data item, the data items must be compatible and must
appear in the same order.
Answer: D
QUESTION  5. In Event Studio, which of the following tasks are available to a report author?
A. Run an agent
B. Run an export
C. Run an import
D. Run an index update
070-410 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION  6. In Report Studio, an author wants to conditionally format a list report according to the revenue generated by each product line. The Revenue data item does not appear in the list report but is contained in Quety1. Which of the following must the author do in order to apply this conditional formatting?
A. Make the Revenue data item a property of Queery1.
B. Make the Revenue data item a property of the list object.
C. Make the Revenue data item a property of the Page object.
D. Make the Revenue data item a property of the Variable object.
Answer: B
QUESTION  7. In an OLAP package, the Years dimension appears as show below:
If the expression for Year level in this dimension is [great_outdoors_company].[Years]. [Year].which

member will be retrieved by the following expression?
descendants(closingPeriod([great_outdoors_company].[Years],2)
A. Ench Month member for the latest year in the Year level.
B. The latest Month member for the each year in the Year level.
C. Each Quarter member for the latest year in the Year level.
D. Each Month member from the latest quarter in the Quarter level.
070-410 exam questions Answer: A
QUESTION  8. In Report Studio, an author edits the SQL statement that a query uses to retrieve data for a corsstab. After editing the SQL, the author wants to add a new data item to the query. How can the author add the data item?
A. The author must convert the edited SQL back to a query object and then add the data item.
B. The author must edit SQL statement so that the query retrieves an additional data item.
C. The author must add the data item to the query from the package displayed on the Source tab.
D. The author must add a query reference to the existing query and then add the data item to the
referenced query.
Answer: B
QUESTION  9. In Report Studio, an author creates a list report containing columns for staff Name, Order number, and Revenue. The author wants to burst this report to various sales staff members. Each member should see only data relating to sales they have made. What must the author do to specify that the burst report output will contain only data for the appropriate sales staff member?
A. In the report layout, create a master-detail relationship on the staff Name data item.
B. In the report layout, add the staff Name data item as a property of the list object.
C. In the burst options for the report, use the Staff Name data item to specify the Burst Recipients.
D. In the burst options for the report , use the Staff Name data item to specify the Burst Groups.
070-410 dumps Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You add a 4-TB disk named Disk 5 to Server1. You need to ensure that you can create a
3-TB volume on Disk 5. What should you do?
A. Create a storage pool.
B. Convert the disk to a dynamic disk.
C. Create a VHD, and then attach the VHD.
D. Convert the disk to a GPT disk.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that has a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the File Server server role installed. You need to upgrade Server1 to Windows Server 2012 R2 with the graphical user interface (GUI). The solution must meet the following
requirements: Preserve the server roles and their configurations. Minimize Administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
B. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature.
C. Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
D. On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature
070-410 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to install the Remote Desktop Services server role
on Server2 remotely from Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. The dsadd.exe command
B. The Server Manager console
C. The Remote Desktop Gateway Manager console
D. The Install-RemoteAccess cmdlet
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
You have a server named Server1 that runs a full installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to uninstall the graphical user interface (GUI) on Server1.
You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of Administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Reinstall Windows Server 2012 R2 on the server.
B. From Server Manager, uninstall the User Interfaces and Infrastructure feature.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature PowerShell-ISE

D. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature Desktop-Experience.
070-410 exam questions Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual
machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

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You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). You need to ensure that the next time VM2 restarts, you can
connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
Which virtual machine setting should you configure for VM2?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 15. In Report Studio, why would an author use a filter 070-410 dumps function when querying dimensional data?
A. To retrieve a set of members that meet a String condition.

B. To suppress a set of members that meet a String condition. C.
To retrieve a set of members that meet a Boolean condition. D.
To suppress a set of members that meet a Boolean condition.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-696 
Exam Name: Managing Enterprise Devices and Apps
Updated: Sep 04, 2017
Q&As: 86

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QUESTION 6
Exhibit:
Given this display, how would you find information similar to the SHOW SWITCH command?
A. Click on STATISTICS, then SHOW, then SWITCH.
B. Click on STATISTICS, then SWITCH, then SHOW.
C. Click on STATISTICS, then SHOW.
D. Click on STATISTICS, then SWITCH.
70-696 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which ExtremeWare feature permits ESRP to increase the number of protected VLANs by placing them
under the control of a master VLAN?
A. ESRP groups
B. ESRP domains
C. ESRP host attach
D. None of these.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
STPDs s0, s1, and s2 have been created. How would you activate only s1 while leaving the other STPDs
inactive?
A. enable stpd s1
B. enable s1 stpd
C. None of these
70-696 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
SNMP access to ExtremeWare can be limited by the following methods:
A. Use an access list
B. Use an access profile

C. Use the disable snmp access command
D. None of these
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 10
How would you change the password for John Doe’s management account?
A. Enter config jdoe and then enter the new password twice.
B. Enter config jdoe user account and then enter the new password twice.
C. Enter config user account jdoe and then enter the new password twice.
D. Enter config account jdoe and then enter the new password twice.
70-696 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
What is the minimum ExtremeWare software version that supports the Summit48i?
A. ExtremeWare 4.x
B. ExtremeWare 5.x
C. ExtremeWare 6.x
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
When using Spanning Tree Protocol, ExtremeWare permits VLANs in different STPDs to share the same
port when tagged.
A. True
B. False
70-696 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which of the following routes will be used to forward a frame to 192.168.1.174?
A. 192.168.1.0/29
B. 192.168.1.128/30
C. 192.168.1.128/25
D. None of these.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
In RIP, poison reverse means that:
A. A route is not advertised to the interface from which it was learned.
B. A route is advertised as unreachable to the interface from which it was learned.
C. Traffic whose source interface does not match the routing table is blackholed.
D. None of these.
70-696 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
RIP version 2 uses a composite metric that includes link speed and delay.
A. True

B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Unlike VRRP, the Extreme Standby Router Protocol provides redundancy at both the data link and network
layers.
A. True
B. False
70-696 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
__________ allow(s) multiple VLANs to be controlled by a single ESRP instance.
A. ESRP domains
B. ESRP groups
C. ESRP host-attach
D. None of these.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
QoS policy is applied _____ in an Extreme switch.
A. per port
B. per queue, per port
C. per queue
D. None of these.
70-696 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Without QoS, all packets are allowed equal access to an egress port.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Which of the following is not advertised in an OSPF Link State Advertisement?
A. Costs
B. Link utilization
C. Router interfaces
D. Neighbor information
70-696 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
A VLAN can be a member of up to 64 STPDs.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
What type of area is used to limit external routes?
A. Stub area
B. Normal area
C. Backbone area
D. None of these
70-696 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
All OSPF routers in the same area must have the same LSDB.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Which 70-696 dumps RIP settings are enabled by default?
A. Triggered updates
B. Poison Reverse
C. Split Horizon
D. Route redistribution
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 25
What is the default STP forward delay value?
A. 2 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 20 seconds
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Which command would you use to configure the switch to disregard STP for selected VLANs?
A. enable ignore-stp vlan <stpd>
B. enable ignore-bpdu vlan <vlan>
C. enable ignore-bpdu stpd <stpd>
D. enable ignore-stp vlan <vlan>
70-696 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
When the command disable stpd port 4:1-4:8 is entered what is the result?
A. Ports 4:1-4:8 are placed into the blocking state.
B. Ports 4:1-4:8 are placed into the listening state.
C. Ports 4.1-4.8 are placed into the learning state.
D. Ports 4:1-4:8 are placed into the forwarding state.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
How can you tell which ports are disabled?
A. Flashing amber light
B. Flashing green light
C. Flashing red light
D. None of these
70-696 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
Your Summit5i switch is connected to a 3rd party switch. By issuing the show ports rxerrors command you
can see numerous CRC errors listed. What is the first step you should take to resolve this issue?
A. Examine the log for errors.
B. Ping between the two switches.
C. Match the speed and duplex settings for the two devices.
D. Call the Extreme Networks TAC.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
You have been assigned the task of configuring an 8-port load share group between two switches that
uses the round robin-based algorithm. Which of the following commands will provide you with the desired
result?
A. Summit #1: config sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm round-robin, Summit #2: configsharing 1 grouping
1-8 algorithm round-robin
B. Summit #1: enable sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm round-robin, Summit #2: enablesharing 8 grouping
1-8 algorithm round-robin

C. Summit #1: config sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm round-robin, Summit #2: configsharing 8 grouping
1-8 algorithm round-robin
D. Summit #1: enable sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm round-robin, Summit #2: enablesharing 1 grouping
70-696 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
Routing is disabled in all VLANs by default.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
What 70-696 dumps information can you find using the show edp command?
A. ExtremeWare code version used by remote switch.
B. The ports that are disabled on the remote switch.
C. The master port of any load share groups.
D. The speed and duplex settings of the ports connecting the two switches.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
How could you verify that MAC address learning is disabled for ports 1-8 on a Summit7i switch?
A. Enter the show ports config detail command.
B. Enter the show ports management detail command.
C. Enter the show ports statistics detail command.
D. Enter the show ports info detail command.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
Which of the following are valid ESRP master election algorithms?
A. ports_track_priority_mac
B. ports_priority_track_mac
C. track_ports_priority_mac
D. track_priority_ports_mac
70-696 pdf Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 35
What is the command you would use to configure a VLAN for ESRP?
A. enable esrp vlan <vlan>
B. enable esrp vlan <vlan> detail
C. config esrp vlan <vlan>
D. config esrp vlan <vlan> detail
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
Which command would you use to configure ESRP ping tracking for the gateway address 10.0.0.1 with a
frequency of 2 seconds and a miss threshold of 5?

A. enable vlan <vlan> add track-ping add 10.0.0.1 frequency 2 miss 5
B. enable esrp add track-ping add 10.0.0.1 frequency 2 miss 5
C. config esrp track-ping add 10.0.0.1 frequency 2 miss 5
D. config vlan <vlan> add track-ping 10.0.0.1 frequency 2 miss 5
70-696 vce Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 070-489
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Updated: Aug 19, 2017
Q&As: 97

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Question: 1
Which of the following is an example of a taxable gift for federal gift tax purposes?
A – A father gives his 19-year-old daughter a note promising to give her his Rolls Royce when she
reaches the age of 21.
B – Instead of parents paying an outside executive $60,000, a son runs their business for 8
months without charging a fee.
C – The parents of a married son permit their son and his family to use a summer cottage that
rents for $3,000 per month on a rent-free basis.
D – A father cancels a $50,000 note his daughter gave him when he made a loan to her 2 years
ago.
070-489 exam 
Answer: D
Question: 2
The following are facts concerning a decedent’s estate:
Taxable estate $1.700, 000
Pre-1977 taxable gifts 200, 000
Post-1976 adjusted taxable gifts 50, 000
Post-1976 gifts made to a qualified charity 100, 000
The tentative tax base of this estate is
A – $1,700,000
B – $1,750,000
C – $1,850,000
D – $1,900,000
Answer: B
Question: 3
An executor elects to value the assets of the estate at the alternative valuation date 6 months
after death. Which of the following statements concerning the estate tax value of assets included
in this estate is correct?
A – An annuity included in the gross estate that diminishes with the mere passage of time is
includible at the date of death value.
B – Property sold before the alternate valuation date is valued at the alternate valuation date.
C – Property that has increased in value since the date of death may be valued at the date of
death if the executor so elects.
D – Property distributed under the will before the alternate valuation date is valued at the date of
death.
070-489 dumps 
Answer: A
Question: 4
A father and son have been farming land owned by the father for the past 12 years. Just prior to
his death, the father was offered $1200, 000 for his farm because of its possible use as a
shopping center. The son would like to continue to farm the land if it can be included in his
father’s estate at its current use value. Additional facts are:
1. Average annual gross rentals from nearby farms of similar acreage are $56,000.
2. Average annual state and local real estate taxes on the farm are $6,000.
3. The interest rate for loans from the Federal Land Sank is 8 percent.

For federal estate tax purposes, the farm method valuation formula would result in a current use
value for the farm of
A – $500,000
B – $600,000
C – $700,000
D – $820,000
Answer: B
Question: 5
Which of the following types of real properly ownership will be deemed to be a tenancy in
common?
A – Two brothers own equal amounts of all the common stock in a corporation, the only asset of
which is real property.
B – Two brothers own equal undivided interests in a piece of real properly, with each brother
being able to divest himself of his interest by sale, gift, or will.
C – Two brothers are equal partners in a general partnership that owns a piece of real property
used in the partnership business.
D – Two brothers own equal fractional interests in a piece of real property and at the death of one
of the brothers the survivor will own the entire piece of property.
070-489 pdf 
Answer: B
Question: 6
Which of the following statements concerning property ownership by a married couple residing in
a community-property state is correct?
A – All property owned by the couple is community property.
B – Community property loses its identity when a couple moves from a community-property state
to a common-law state.
C – Property inherited by one spouse during a marriage becomes community property
D – Income earned by one spouse becomes community property.
Answer: D
Question: 7
Which of the following statements concerning a simple trust is correct?
A – Income and principal may be distributed to a qualified charily.
B – It receives a special tax deduction for income distributed to its beneficiaries.
C – Income is accumulated at the discretion of the trustee.
D – It limits the number of permissible beneficiaries.
070-489 vce 
Answer: B
Question: 8
On the advice of their attorney and accountant, Betsy and John have decided to make substantial
transfers. They would like to pass most of their considerable wealth to their grandchildren. Which
of the following statements concerning gifts made to their grandchildren is correct?
A – The GSTT annual exclusion may be utilized by Betsy and John for each grandchild during
life time and at death.

B – The value of Betsy and John’s GSTT exemption amounts are slightly increased when used at
death rather than during life time.
C – The GSTT annual exclusion is unavailable for years in which Betsy and John make tuition
gifts for the grandchildren.
D – Betsy and John may elect to split any GSTT transfers to the grandchildren.
Answer: D
Question: 9
The decedent, D, died this year. The facts concerning D estate are:
Gross estate $3,400,000
Marital deduction 0
Charitable deduction 600,000
Funeral & administration expenses 00,000
Gifts made after 1976 170,000
State death taxes payable 192,000
What is D taxable estate?
A – $2,138,000
B – $2,358,000
C – $2,528,000
D – $2,720,000
070-489 exam 
Answer: C
Question: 10
On January 1, 2004 a father gave his daughter a $200,000 straight (ordinary) life insurance policy
on his life. Premiums are paid annually. The pertinent facts about the policy are:
Date of issue: July 1, 1992
Premium paid on July 1, 2003 $3200
Terminal reserve on July 1, 2003 20,000
Terminal reserve on July 1, 2004 24,000
What is the value of the policy for federal gift tax purposes?
A – $ 21,600
B – $23,200
C – $23,600
D – $200,000
Answer: C
Question: 11
A married man has two adult sons. His entire estate is in excess of $1,500,000 and consists
entirely of probate assets. He wants to make certain that if he predeceases his wife she will
receive all estate income as long as she lives, and the assets remaining at her death will pass
equally to their two sons. He wants to pass all assets to this wife and sons as free of federal
estate taxes as possible. To best accomplish these objectives, the man should include which of
the following estate plans in his will?
A – Establish a QTIP trust for half his estate and bequeath the remainder to his wife
B – Establish a marital deduction trust with a general power of appointment for half his estate and

place the remainder in a QTIP trust
C – Establish a bypass trust equal to the applicable exclusion amount and place the remainder of
his estate in a QTIP trust
D – Establish a QTIP trust for his entire estate
070-489 dumps 
Answer: C
Question: 12
Among the assets in a decedent’s gross estate is stock in a closely held corporation that was left
to a nephew. The interest passing to the nephew is required to bear the burden of all estate taxes
and expenses. The relevant facts about this estate are:
Adjusted gross estate $1,200,000
Fair market value of stock in the
closely held corporation 500,000
Administration and funeral expenses 25,000
State inheritance taxes 40,000
Federal estate taxes 160,000
What amount of closely held corporate stock may be redeemed under IRC Section 303 so that
the redemption will be treated as a sale or exchange rather than a dividend distribution?
A – 0
B – $ 65,000
C – $225,000
D – $500,000
Answer: C
Question: 13
A married man died this year leaving a gross estate of $3,200,000. Additional facts concerning
his estate are:
Administration expenses and debts $ 250,000
Marital deduction 1,200,000
Applicable credit amount (2005) 555,800
Applicable exclusion amount (2005) 1,500,000
State death taxes payable 20,400
Under the Unified Rate Schedule for computing estate taxes if the amount with respect to which
the tentative tax to be computed is over$1,000,000 but not over $1,250,000, the tentative tax is
$345,800, plus 41 percent of the excess of such amount over $1,000,000. If the amount is over
$1,250,000 but not over $1,500,000, the tentative tax is then $448,300, plus 43 percent of the
excess of such amount over $1,250,000. If the amount is over $1,500,000 but not over
$2,000,000, the tentative tax is then $555,800 plus 45% of the excess of such amount over
$1,500,000. Based on these facts, the net federal estate tax payable is
A – 0
B – $103,320
C – $123,720
D – $128,280
070-489 pdf 
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 210-250
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Updated: Aug 19, 2017
Q&As: 80

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QUESTION 09
Consider a FileMaker Pro 11 database with the following tables and fields:
Assuming only the above relationships between table occurrences, using sorting if necessary, which two
actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. create a value list that shows all Invoices for a chosen Customer
B. create a value list on a Product layout which displays all Customers
C. find all of the Customers who have ever ordered a specific Product
D. create a portal to display each Product that has been ordered by a Customer
E. display all records from the Customer table in a portal on a layout for an Invoice Item record
210-250 exam Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 10
Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event ID has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID.
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records… nor the Delete
related records… settings to be enabled for the Event table.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
On the RSTP network as shown in the figure, what RSTP operations will occur after the E1 port of SWB
fails? (Select 3 Answers)
A. SWB deletes the MAC address entries with the E1 port as the destination interface.
B. The spanning tree is recalculated and the E2 port is elected as the new root port.
C. All the interfaces in forwarding state send topology change notifications (TCNs) to notify other switches
of the topology change.
D. All the non-edge ports in forwarding state send TCNs to notify other switches of the topology change.
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 12
Which is the port state defined in RSTP?
A. Discarding
B. Learning
C. Forwarding
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
RSTP has all functions that STP has and it is backward compatible with STP.
A. True

B. False
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
RSTP adopts fast convergence mechanism. So, there is no Forward Delay interval in RSTP.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Two switches are directly connected to each other and they are working in full duplex mode. By default,
RSTP will consider the link between the switches as point-to-point link.
A. True
B. False
210-250 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
In RSTP network environment, a port can be set as edge port when it is directly connected with terminal.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements about RSTP and STP is true?
A. STP has more port states than RSTP.
B. The port roles used in RSTP is less than the port roles used in STP.
C. Since RSTP adopts fast convergence mechanism, it does not have Learning state which is available in
STP.
D. Same as STP, the ports will enter into Listening state once the RSTP has been enabled. Then, the
ports can receive BPDU and calculate the spanning tree.
210-250 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
In a switching network that runs RSTP, the topology change notification message will not be sent when the
switch detects that the Alternate Port is failed.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
When the topology of a network running RSTP changes, what happens after the change?
A. Flooding on the entire network.
B. The aging time of MAC address entries is changed.
C. Some MAC address entries are deleted.
D. All of the above
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which ports defined by RSTP cannot work in Forwarding state? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Root Port
B. Designated Port
C. Backup Port
D. Alternate Port
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 21
On an RSTP network, when an edge port is in protected state, what operation is performed after the edge
port receives BPDUs?
A. The edge port forwards BPDUs.
B. The edge port discards BPDUs.
C. The edge port is shut down.
D. The edge port obtains required information from BPDUs.
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
In RSTP, the port status can be discarding and learning. Which statements about the port status are true?
(Select 2 Answers)
A. The port in discarding or learning state does not forward data frames.
B. The port in discarding state does not learn MAC addresses.
C. The port in learning state does not learn MAC addresses.
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 23
On the RSTP network as shown in the figure, what is the port role of SWC E0/1 according to the
configuration? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Designated port
B. Root port
C. Alternate port

D. Edge port
210-250 vce Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 24
As shown in the figure, when the link between SWC and LAND is faulty, through which path are TCA
BPDUs sent?
A. From SWA to SWB
B. From SWB to SWC
C. From SWB to SWA
D. From SWC to SWB
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
As shown in the figure, when the STP network runs properly, which device does the designated port of
LANC reside?
A. SWA
B. SWB
C. SWC
D. None of the above
210-250 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
In STP configuration, which statement about BPDUs is true?
A. BPDUs cannot be sent from the designated port.
B. BPDUs can be sent only from the designated port.
C. BPDUs can be sent from any port.
D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
On an STP network, after the network topology changes, which BPDUs are sent during flooding of
topology change information on the entire network?
A. BPDUs with the TCN flag
B. BPDUs with the TCA flag
C. BPDUs with the TC flag
D. All of the above
210-250 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
After an STP switch starts, it considers itself as the root switch. Which statements about BDPU parameter
setting are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The switch is the designated root.
B. The designated cost is 0.

C. The switch is the designated bridge.
D. The designated port is 0.
Correct Answer: ABC

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Exam Code: 70-357
Exam Name: Developing Mobile Apps
Updated: Aug 08, 2017
Q&As: 66

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QUESTION 1. Which of the following device communication methods is used by MIB Tools?
A. SNMPv1
B. SNMPv3 Credential
C. SNMPv3 Profile
D. Max Access/Super User
E. All of the above
F.A and C only
70-357 exam Answer: E
QUESTION 2. Which of the following definition(s) best describes the difference between managers and agents in
SNMPv1 and SNMPv3?
A. In SNMPv1, the manager and agent were distinctly different but performed overlapping functions.
Managers resided on workstations; agents on remote devices.
B. In SNMPv3, a distributed interacting collection of SNMP entities can reside on both management
workstations and remote devices. Because each entity implements a portion of SNMP capability, an entity
can act as an agent, a manager, or a combination of the two.
C. In SNMPv1, the manager and agent were distinctly different and performed discrete functions: the
manager ran applications; the agent provided functionality. Managers resided on workstations; agents on
remote devices.
D.Aand B
E.B and C
F.All of the above
Answer: E
QUESTION 3. A MIB not supported on all devices should be assigned to which SNMP Request Group, when defining
a FlexView?
A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4

E. All of the above F. B or C only
70-357 dumps Answer: F
QUESTION 4. What are the three predefined groups in Inventory Manager Network Elements?
A. Chassis, Device Type and IP
B. Chassis, Matrix and X-Pedition
C. Matrix, SmartSwitch and X-Pedition
D. Matrix, X-Pedition and IP
Answer:A
QUESTION 5. How can network masks be displayed in CIDR notation in Router Services Manager?
A. By selecting CIDR in the Network Mask option of Tools > Options
B. By selecting CIDR in the device properties window
C. By selecting Dot Delimited in the Display option of Tools > Options
D. It is not possible to have network masks displayed in CIDR notation
70-357 pdf Answer:A
QUESTION 6. The MIB Tools Utility allows you to do all of the following, EXCEPT
A. View object definitions
B. Set object values
C. Change IP addresses on devices
D. Search for objects
E. Browse the MIB database
Answer: C
QUESTION 7. Which of the following statements are true about FlexViews?
A. You can use the FlexView editor to define as many FlexViews as you want.
B. You can create custom tabs to display desired MIB information.
C. The FlexView Wizard is not available with Atlas Lite.
D. All of the ab
ove

E. A and C only
70-357 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 8. What is the name of the file that defines the absolute path to your NetSight Plug-In applications?
A. PlugIn.details
B. common
C. NetSight.properties
D. Atlas.config
Answer: C
QUESTION 9. The relationship among remote devices in each map is automatically generated by Console when you
click the Retrieve button.
A. True
B. False
70-357 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 10. What are the three tabs in the left panel of Inventory Manager?
A. Devices, Traps, Archives
B. Network Elements, Firmware Management, Configuration Management
C. Details View, Archives, Chassis
D. Properties, VLAN, Compass
Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following password cracking techniques is used when the attacker has some information
about the password?
A. Hybrid Attack
B. Dictionary Attack
C. Syllable Attack
D. Rule-based Attack
70-357 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is an application alert returned by a web application that helps an attacker guess a
valid username?
A. Invalid username or password
B. Account username was not found
C. Incorrect password
D. Username or password incorrect
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
A pen tester has extracted a database name by using a blind SQL injection. Now he begins to test the
table inside the database using the below query and finds the table:
http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (LEN(SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=’U’)=3)
WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′–
http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects
where xtype=char(85)),1,1)))=101) WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′– http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF
(ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=char(85)),2,1)))=109)
WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′– http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT
TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=char(85)),3,1)))=112) WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′–
What is the table name?
A. CTS
B. QRT
C. EMP
D. ABC
70-357  pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
When you are running a vulnerability scan on a network and the IDS cuts off your connection, what type of
IDS is being used?
A. Passive IDS
B. Active IDS
C. Progressive IDS
D. NIPS
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
HTTP protocol specifies that arbitrary binary characters can be passed within the URL by using %xx
notation, where ‘xx’ is the

A. ASCII value of the character
B. Binary value of the character
C. Decimal value of the character
D. Hex value of the character
70-357  vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which of the following appendices gives detailed lists of all the technical terms used in the report?
A. Required Work Efforts
B. References
C. Research
D. Glossary
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
An external intrusion test and analysis identify security weaknesses and strengths of the client’s systems
and networks as they appear from outside the client’s security perimeter, usually from the Internet. The
goal of an external intrusion test and analysis is to demonstrate the existence of known vulnerabilities that
could be exploited by an external attacker.
During external penetration testing, which of the following scanning techniques allow you to determine a
port’s state without making a full connection to the host?
A. XMAS Scan
B. SYN scan
C. FIN Scan
D. NULL Scan
70-357  exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Passwords protect computer resources and files from unauthorized access by malicious users. Using
passwords is the most capable and effective way to protect information and to increase the security level
of a company.

Password cracking is the process of recovering passwords from data that have been stored in or
transmitted by a computer system to gain unauthorized access to a system.

Which of the following password cracking attacks tries every combination of characters until the password
is broken?
A. Brute-force attack
B. Rule-based attack
C. Hybrid attack
D. Dictionary attack
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Rules of Engagement (ROE) document provides certain rights and restriction to the test team for
performing the test and helps testers to overcome legal, federal, and policy-related restrictions to use
different penetration testing tools and techniques.

What is the last step in preparing a Rules of Engagement (ROE) document?
A. Conduct a brainstorming session with top management and technical teams

B. Decide the desired depth for penetration testing
C. Conduct a brainstorming session with top management and technical teams
D. Have pre-contract discussions with different pen-testers
70-357  dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Which of the following is a framework of open standards developed by the Internet Engineering Task
Force (IETF) that provides secure transmission of the sensitive data over an unprotected medium, such as
the Internet?
A. DNSSEC
B. Netsec
C. IKE
D. IPsec
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
Mason is footprinting an organization to gather competitive intelligence. He visits the company’s website
for contact information and telephone numbers but does not find any. He knows the entire staff directory
was listed on their website 12 months. How can he find the directory?
A. Visit Google’s search engine and view the cached copy
B. Crawl and download the entire website using the Surfoffline tool and save them to his computer
C. Visit the company’s partners’ and customers’ website for this information
D. Use WayBackMachine in Archive.org web site to retrieve the Internet archive
70-357  pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Application security assessment is one of the activity that a pen tester performs in the attack phase. It is
designed to identify and assess threats to the organization through bespoke, proprietary applications or
systems. It checks the application so that a malicious user cannot access, modify, or destroy data or
services within the system.

Identify the type of application security assessment which analyzes the application-based code to confirm
that it does not contain any sensitive information that an attacker might use to exploit an application.
A. Web Penetration Testing
B. Functionality Testing

C. Authorization Testing
D. Source Code Review
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a firewall?
A. Manages public access to private networked resources
B. Routes packets between the networks
C. Examines all traffic routed between the two networks to see if it meets certain criteria
D. Filters only inbound traffic but not outbound traffic
70-357 vce Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Updated: Aug 02, 2017
Q&As: 275

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 210-260 Dumps  Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION NO: 16
A text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 12 is set to auto-enter the following formula:
FirstName & ” ” & LastNarne
FirstName and LastNarne are text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all
referenced fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any
is checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field
(Choose two.)
A. a record is first created
B. each time the value of the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified
C. a user selects the menu item Records > Relookup Field Contents
D. any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
210-260 exam Answer: A,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
Consider a FileMaker Pro 12 database with the following tables:
210-260 dumps

And the relationship is configured as follows:
210-260 dumps

Which two statements are true about this situation? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible to create new Salesperson records by importing data into the Order table.
B. Users may create new Order records by entering data into a portal on a Salesperson Detail
layout.
C. A merge field can be used on layouts based on the Salesperson table occurrence to show a list
of all of a salesperson’s orders.
D. Removing the sort from the Order side of the relationship will not change the way that Order
records are displayed in a portal on a Salesperson Detail layout.
E. List (Salesperson:: Salesperson ID) calculated from the context of the Order table returns a list
containing the Salesperson ID for the current order.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event id has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records … nor the
Delete related records … settings to be enabled for the Event table.
210-260 dumps Answer:: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an
External ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation
B. These fields may be indexed unless they are of type Summary.
C. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL when the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
D. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button
in the FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
A FileMaker Pro 12 database has two tables called Company and Customer. Both tables have a
number field called CompanyID. The two tables have a relationship between them formed by the
condition Company:: CompanyID = Customer:: CompanyID. Each table also has a text field called
CompanyName. The CompanyName field in the Customer table is defined to Auto-enter
calculated value, with the formula: Company:: CompanyName and the option Do not replace
existing value of field unchecked.
Under which circumstances will the value of the CompanyName field on a Customer record be
refreshed with data from the related Company record?
A. any time the Customer record is modified
B. any time the index of the Company:: CompanyID field is rebuilt
C. any time the related Company:: CompanyName field is modified
D. any time the CompanyID field on the Customer record is modified
E. any time a user chooses Refresh Window from the Records menu while viewing the Customer
record
210-260 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
Which statement is true about container fields in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. If one container field in a given database file is set to Store container data externally, all
container fields in that file must store their data externally
B. If a file larger than a database’s Maximum container file size value is inserted into a container
field. FileMaker Pro 12 will automatically compress the inserted file.
C. If a container field is set to Store container data externally, then the Store only a reference to
the file option is automatically selected for any file inserted into that field.
D. If the setting Generate and store thumbnails for images is chosen in the Manage Containers
dialog for a given database file, all container fields in that file will have thumbnails generated.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
Which two are directly selectable options in the Validation tab of the field options dialog in
FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two.)
A. Existing value
B. Strict data type: Integer
C. Strict data type: Time of Day
D. Strict datatype: Alphanumeric
E. Minimum number of characters
210-260 vce Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
Which two statements are true about fields using global storage in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose
two.)
A. Globally stored fields are always empty at the start of a user’s session.
B. Fields using global storage can be used as match fields in a relationship.
C. A container field using global storage may not be configured to store its data externally.
D. Globally stored fields can only be accessed from within the file in which they are defined.
E. Changes to data in globally stored fields in a shared file are stored when the server cache is
flushed.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
What is possible when working with shadow fields from an External ODBC Data Source?
A. creating a two-column value list
B. saving formatted text (bold, italic, etc.)
C. checking the Auto-complete using previously entered values checkbox in the Field/Control
Setup dialog
D. inserting binary data such as a PDF file, provided the field options are set to Store container
data externally
210-260 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
Which three field options may be set for a shadow field from an External ODBC Data Source?
(Choose three.)
A. Validation: not empty
B. Validation: unique value
C. Validation: existing value
D. Auto-enter creation timestamp
E. Auto-enter serial number, on creation
F. Storage: automatically create indexes as needed
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 26
A table in a FileMaker Pro 12 database has a text field CompanyName. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
– Validate data in this field only during data entry
– Allow user to override during data entry
– Require not empty
– Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName
field. What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides
the error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see the specified
custom message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog
from the FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors,
along with a count of those records.
210-260 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
Given a text field Full Name, Auto-Enter by Calculated value has been selected in the field
options, using the following formula:
Name First &.” “& Name Last
The developer then disables (unchecks) the option Do not replace existing value of field (if any).
For which two cases will the results of the specified formula be inserted into the field Full Name?
(Choose two.)
A. When the record is first created
B. When the field Full Name itself is modified
C. Only when the field Full Name was previously empty
D. When either of the fields Name First or Name Last is modified
E. When the field Full Name itself is modified and the record is committed
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28
A new database is created with two tables, Client and Contracts. The only modification made on
the Relationships Graph is to establish a relationship between them which is set to delete related
records in Contracts when a record in Client is deleted.

What happens when the Client table occurrence is deleted from the Relationships Graph?
A. Since it is the only occurrence of the Client table on the graph, it can not be deleted.
B. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records are deleted.
C. The formula in the calculation field Name Full (defined as Name First & ” ” & Name Last) will be
broken.
D. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records will have values
in the client id field deleted.
210-260 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
Consider two FileMaker files, Collection and Item, where tables from Item are included in the
Relationships Graph of Collection.
Which method will preserve all functionality in the Relationships Graph of Collection after
renaming the Item file to Artifact?

A. Choose File > Manage > External Data Sources… for Collection and reset the file path
B. Click the Repair Reference button in the Relationships Graph for Collection and reset the file
path
C. Delete referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and
recreate them for Artifact
D. Select referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and right
click to choose Rename File Source…
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30
Which two FileMaker Pro 12 objects will display data contents even when unrelated to the current
layout’s table occurrence? (Choose two.)
A. Merge variable
B. Indexed tirnestarnp field
C. A text field from a shadow table
D. Globally stored number field placed in a portal
E. A container field defined with the Store as reference only option enabled
Answer: A,D
210-260 vce Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what is known about this database?
A. The Event table occurrence references a table from an external ODBC Data Source
B. There can be zero or one, but no more than one, Event record related to any Task record.
C. The corner arrows indicate all three table occurrences reference tables from external data
sources.
D. From a layout based on the Event table occurrence, a portal could be drawn showing both
related Task and Volunteer data.
210-260 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Updated: Jul 17, 2017
Q&As: 402

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 300-101 Dumps  Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION NO: 32
Which GSC describes the degree to which the application communicates directly with the
processor?
A. Data communications
B. Distributed data processing
C. Transaction rate
D. Online update
300-101 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 33
Which of the following statements is a characteristic of the GSC – complex processing?
A. Development of the application is influenced by how the development was carried out
B. Development of the application is influenced by the complexity of data communication
C. Development of the application is influenced by the complexity of the processing logic
D. None of the above
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 34
Which transactional function(s) has (have) the primary intent of presenting information to the user
and must reference a data function to retrieve data or control information?
A. EI
B. EO
C. EQ
D. Both B and C
300-101 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 35
The primary intent of an EQ is to:
A. alter the behavior of the application
B. maintain one or more ILFs
C. present information to a user
D. Both A and C
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 36
An External Inquiry is defined as an elementary process that:
A. Sends data outside the boundary
B. Sends Control Information outside the boundary
C. Has a primary intent to present information to a user through retrieval of data or control
information
D. All of the above
300-101 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 37
Which statement(s) is (are) true regarding mandatory processing logic for an EQ?
A. Data or control information is maintained
B. Conditions are analyzed to determine which are applicable
C. At least one ILF or EIF is referenced
D. Data or control information entering the boundary of the application is accepted
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 38
Which processing logic can be performed by an EQ?
A. Equivalent values are converted
B. Behavior of the application is altered
C. Derived data is created
D. Both A and B
300-101 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 39
The functional complexity of an EQ is based upon the number of:
A. RETs
B. FTRs
C. DETs
D. Both B and C
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 40
Which of the following forms of processing logic is mandatory that an EO perform at least one
(m*)?
A. Behavior of the application is altered
B. Equivalent values are converted
C. At least one ILF or EIF is referenced
D. Information is prepared and then presented outside the boundary
300-101 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 41
Which of the following statements is true regarding EOs?
A. An EO is an elementary process that sends data or control information outside the boundary.
B. An EO includes additional processing logic beyond that of an EQ.
C. An EO always maintains a data function.
D. Both A and B
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Processing logic is defined as any of the requirements specifically requested by the user to
complete an elementary process. Those requirements include which of the following actions?
A. Validations
B. Algorithms or calculations
C. Reading or maintaining a data function
D. All of the above
300-101 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 43
An External Output is defined as an elementary process that:
A. Includes addition processing beyond an external inquiry
B. Sends data outside the boundary
C. Has a primary intent to present information to a user though processing logic or in addition to
retrieval of data or control information.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 44
Which of the following statements about an External Output are true?
A. Processing logic must contain multiple mathematical formulas
B. Processing logic must perform at least one mathematical formula
C. Processing logic creates derived data
D. Processing logic contains derived data
300-101 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 45
An FTR is be defined as a:
A. data function maintained by a base functional component
B. data function read and/or maintained by a transactional function
C. base functional component maintained by a transactional function
D. base functional component read and/or maintained by a transactional function
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 46

What is the primary intent of an ILF?
A. Hold data maintained through system tools for use by the application being measured
B. Hold code data for use by the application being measured
C. Hold data maintained through one or more elementary processes of the application being
measured
D. Both A and C
300-101 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 47
Data Element Type is defined as?
A. Functionality provided to the user to meet internal or external data storage requirements
B. An attribute that further describes one or more attributes of another entity
C. Two types of the base functional components identified in the IFPUG International Standard
D. Unique, user recognizable, non-repeated attribute
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 200-105
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Updated: Jul 16, 2017
Q&As: 204

Study Material  for Cisco 200-105 Dumps ICND2 Outline

  1. Cisco Device Management
  2. Troubleshooting Networks
  3. Network Addressing
  4. VLANs and Trunking
  5. Spanning Tree Protocol
  6. Advanced Switch Redundancy
  7. Access Layer Security
  8. Routing Fundamentals
  9. EIGRP Configuration
  10. OSPF Configuration
  11. PPP WANs
  12. eBGP Configuration
  13. Secure VPNs and Tunneling
  14. Intelligent Networks
  15. Quality of Service

200-105

Free Pass4itsure Cisco 200-105 Dumps  Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 7
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a
server with the address of 192.168.13.26. Which commands can the administrator issue to verify that the
access list is working properly? (Choose three.)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
200-105 exam Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

200-105

Correct Answer:

200-105

QUESTION 9
Lab – Access List Simulation
A network associate is adding security to the configuration of the Corp1 router. The user on host C should
be able to use a web browser to access financial information from the Finance Web Server. No other hosts
from the LAN nor the Core should be able to use a web browser to access this server. Since there are

multiple resources for the corporation at this location including other resources on the Finance Web
Server, all other traffic should be allowed.
The task is to create and apply a numbered access-list with no more than three statements that will allow
ONLY host C web access to the Finance Web Server. No other hosts will have web access to the Finance
Web Server. All other traffic is permitted.
Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host.
All passwords have been temporarily set to “cisco”.
The Core connection uses an IP address of 198.18.196.65
The computers in the Hosts LAN have been assigned addresses of 192.168.33.1 – 92.168.33.254
Host A 192.168.33.1
Host B 192.168.33.2
Host C 192.168.33.3
Host D 192.168.33.4
The servers in the Server LAN have been assigned addresses of 172.22.242.17 – 172.22.242.30
The Finance Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172.22.242.23.
The Public Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172.22.242.17

200-105

200-105 dumps Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation
QUESTION 10
A sporting goods manufacturer has decided to network three (3) locations to improve efficiency in inventory
control. The routers have been named to reflect the location: Boston, Frankfurt, and Lancaster.
The necessary networking has been completed at each location, and the routers have been configured
with single area OSPF as the routing protocol. The Boston router was recently installed but connectivity is
not complete because of incomplete routing tables.
Identify and correct any problem you see in the configuration.
Note: The OSPF process must be configured to allow interfaces in specific subnets to participate in the
routing process.

200-105

Correct Answer: The question mentioned Boston router was not configured correctly or incomplete so we
should check this router first. Click on Host B to access the command line interface (CLI) of Boston router.
QUESTION 11
200-105

200-105

200-105

200-105

200-105

200-105

200-105

Why did Branch1 router lose WAN connectivity with R1 router?
A. The IP address is misconfigured on PPP multilink interface on the Branch1 router.
B. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the anch1 serial interfaces.
C. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the R1 serial interfaces.
D. The Branch1 serial interfaces are placed in a shutdown condition.
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a
device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
200-105 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
C. Only RADIUS uses TCP.
D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which IEEE standard does PVST+ use to tunnel information?
A. 802.1x
B. 802 1q
C. 802.1w
D. 802.1s
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client?
A. Ethernet
B. dialer
C. serial
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
200-105 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105

Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105

At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105

A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the
AcmeB router. What action does the router take?

A. forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface
B. forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface
C. forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface
D. forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
A. a backup route, stored in the routing table
B. a primary route, stored in the routing table
C. a backup route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the topology table
200-105 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE

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