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QUESTION 1
Which option describes the correct sequence to discover an ESX server in the fabric without a blade
switch or multiple Layer 2 hops?
A. The leaf sends LLDP/CDP to the ESX, the ESX sends parsed UDP/CDP information to the vCenter,
the AP1C receives LLDP/CDP information from the vCenter, and the APIC downloads the policy for
VMs behind the ESX to the leaf node.
B. The APIC downloads the policy for VMs behind ESX to the leaf node, the leaf sends LLDP/CCP to the
ESX, the ESX sends parsed LLDP/CDP information to the vCenter, and the APIC receives LLDP/CDP
information from the vCenter.
C. The ESX sends parsed LLDP/CDP information to the vCenter, the leaf sends LLDP/CCP to the ESX,
the APIC downloads the policy for VMs behind the ESX to the leaf node, and the APIC receives LLDP/
CDP information from the vCenter.
D. The ARC receives LLDP/CDP information from the vCenter, the APIC downloads policy for VMs
behind ESX to the leaf node, the leaf sends LLDP/CCP to the ESX, and the ESX sends parsed LLDP/
CDP information to the vCenter.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which three statements about fitter and contract are true? (Choose three.)
A. A contract can be consumed and provided by as many EPGs as are needed by the network design.
B. A fitter can be used by multiple contracts.
C. A fitter contains groups of IP subnet
D. A contract can be consumed by a single EPG
E. A contract can be provided by a single EPG
F. A filter contains EtherType, IP protocol, TCP flags, and Layer 4 ports.
Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 3
In the Cisco Nexus 9508 chassis, how many Broadcom T2 ASICs are on the fabric module?
A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which two statements about tenant bridge domain Layer 2 unknown unicast forwarding modes are true’?
(Choose two.)
A. If forwarding mode is flood, unknown Layer 2 unicast is sent to all Layer 2 ports in the bridge domain.
B. If forwarding mode is proxy, unknown Layer 2 unicast packets are sent to border leaf proxy for
forwarding.
C. By default, multicast traffic is always flooded within the bridge domain VLAN.
D. Layer 2 unknown unicast can be set to flood or proxy, the default is flood.
E. If border leaf proxy cannot resolve the destination, packet is flooded.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 5
Which messaging protocol is used by the vPC peers to communicate with each other?A. LLDP
B. CFS
C. ZMQ
D. VPCT
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
If a Cisco ARC cluster is fully operational, how many replica copies does each shard have in addition to
the leader replica?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 1
D. 2
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which option describes the ASICs that comprise the 2 RU spine chassis PID Cisco Nexus 9336PQ?
A. three Broadcom and one Alpine
B. two Broadcom and two Alpine
C. two Broadcom and one Alpine
D. one Broadcom and two Alpine
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which two statements about when the ARP request/response is not set to flooding on an Cisco ACI Fabric
are true? (Choose two.)
A. Static endpoint entries can be configured under the Tenant Networking section of the Cisco ACI Ul for
silent hosts to communicate with each other.
B. When the ARP originator and ARP target are known to the proxy, forwarding can no longer occur using
the proxy because the source and destination are now known
C. When an ARP target device responds, a response is sent to the proxy, which has an entry (or the ARP
originator, so it is then forwarded to the leaf where ARP originator resides.
D. When ARP response is known by the proxy, the ARP is forwarded from the leaf that received the ARP
to the spine, and onto the leaf where the ARP target resides.
E. The proxy age time has no limit If the target of the ARP has not sourced a frame for some lime, the
entry remains indefinite because this i$ the only way forwarding can work between silent hosts.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 9
Which packets are counted after the atomic counters are configured?
A. packets that are switched in the hypervisors
B. packets that are locally switched
C. packets that are switched via AVS
D. packets that traverse the fabric
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which scope type is used when the subnet address needs to be ‘leaked” to a different context or tenant?A. public
B. shared
C. infra
D. private
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
What is the minimal number of operational Cisco APICs .n a cluster that are needed to ensure that policy
modification is still possible?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which command allows you to log in to a line card on a leaf switch?
A. Leaf# vsh_lc
B. Leaf#vsh
C. Leaf*vsh-lc
D. Leaft vshell -lc
E. Leafs vsh-hw
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 13
Which three states are distributed to each node in the fabric? (Choose three)
A. fabric node vector
B. iVXLAN vector
C. appliance vector
D. replica vector
E. diameter ID
F. cluster vector
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 14
Which three AVS switching modes are supported on Cisco ACI? (Choose three)
A. VXLAN, no local switching
B. VPC-HM
C. VXLAN, local switch
D. VLAN, no local switching
E. MAC pinning
F. VLAN, local switching
Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 15
Which two policies can be set within the vswitch policies of an Attachable Access Entity Profile on 1.0?
(Choose two.)A. PortChannel Policy
B. Monitoring Policy
C. CDP Policy
D. LACP Policy
E. VLAN Policy
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 16
What does the acronym OBFL stand for?
A. Onboard Failure Logging
B. Out of band Failure Logic
C. Onboard Forwarding Logic
D. Oversubscription Forwarding Level
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which two statements about troubleshooting common ARP forwarding issues ma Cisco ACI Fabric are
true? (Choose two.)
A. If IPManager On the spine rejected a tenant VRF/route configuration, the spine command show ip
route vrf can be used to verify all tenant VRF configurations.
B. The BD SVI IP address can be verified with the vsh_ Ic show platform internal ns forwarding router-ip
command.
C. The tcpdum command can be used on all Cisco ACI switches to capture and verity tenant EPGdata
plan traffic.
D. The VLAN membership for an interface on the Broadcom ASIC can be verified with the show hardware
vlans programmed command.
E. VLAN membership of an Interface can be vended wrth the VSh_lC show system Internal eltmc Info
interface x/x command.
Correct Answer: CD
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QUESTION 1
Which are two advantages of a “one switch at a tune’ approach to integrating SD-Access into an existing
brownfield environment? (Choose two.)
A. appropriate for campus and remote site environments
B. allows simplified testing prior to cutover
C. deal for protecting recent investments while upgrading legacy hardware
D. involves the least risk of all approaches
E. opens up many new design and deployment opportunities
F. allows simplified roll back
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 2
What statement is true regarding the current time in Enterprise Networking history?
A. advent of cloud computing
B. pace of change
C. pervasive use of mobile devices
D. advent of loT
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which three key differentiators that DNA Assurance provides that our competitors are unable match?
(Choose three)
A. Support for Overlay Virtual Transport
B. On-premise and cloud-base analytics
C. Apply Insights
D. VXLAN support
E. Proactive approach to guided remediation
F. Network time travel
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 4
Which are the three focus areas for reinventing the WAN? (Choose three.)
A. Centralized device authentication
B. Secure Elastic Connectivity
C. Application Quality of Experience
D. Operations
E. Cloud Fast
F. Execution
Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 5
Which feature is supported on the Cisco vEdge platform?
A. single sign on
B. IPv6 transport (WAN)
C. 2-factor authenticationD. license enforcement
E. reporting
F. non-Ethernet interfaces
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true regarding Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. The major business outcomes of ISE are enhanced user experience and secure VLAN segmentation
B. ISE plays critical role in SD Access
C. Without integration with any other product, ISE can track the actual physical location of a wireless
endpoint as it moves
D. ISE am provide data about when a specific device connected to the network
E. An ISE deployment requires only a Cisco ISE network access control appliance
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true regarding SD-WAN demonstrations? (Choose two.)
A. As a Cisco SD-WAN SF, you should you should spend your time learning about the technology rather
than contributing to demo innovation
B. Use demonstrations primarily for large opportunities and competitive situations
C. During a demo, you should demonstrate and discuss what the team considers important details
D. There is a big difference between demos that use a top down approach and demos that use a bottom
up approach
E. During a demo you should consider the target audience and the desired outcome
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 8
Which Cisco vEdge route offers 20 Gb of encrypted throughput?
A. Cisco vEdge 5000
B. Cisco vEdge 1000
C. Cisco vEdge 2000
D. Cisco vEdge 100
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which are two Cisco recommendations that demonstrates SDA? (Choose two.)
A. Use the CLI to perform as much of the configuration as possible
B. Show lite customer how to integrate ISL into DMA Center at the end of the demo
C. Focus on business benefits
D. Keep the demo at a high level
E. Be sure you explain the major technologies such as VXLAN and LISP in depth
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 10
Which option will help build your customers platform during the discovery phase?
A. business case
B. detailed designC. POV report
D. high-level design
E. PO
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 11
Which element of the Cisco SD-WAN architecture facilitates the functions of controller discovery and NAT
traversal?
A. vBond orchestrator
B. vManage
C. vSmart controller
D. vEdge
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
How would cisco ISE handle authentication for your printer that does not have a supplicant?
A. ISE would not authenticate the printer as printers are not subject to ISE authentication.
B. ISE would authenticate the printer using 8.2.1X authentication
C. ISE would authenticate the printer using MAB.
D. ISE would authenticate the printer using web authentication.
E. ISE would authenticate the printer using MAC RADIUS authentication
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
When using “Cluster resource percentage” for host failover capacity in vSphere HA Admission Control, the total resource requirements are calculated from which
two values? (Choose two.)
A. Total vCPUs assigned to each VM.
B. Average CPU usage on each VM over time.
C. Memory reservations on each VM.
D. Total memory assigned to each VM.
E. Average active memory on each VM over time.
F. CPU reservations on each VM. Correct Answer: CF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
vSphere HA uses the actual reservations of the virtual machines. If a virtual machine does not have reservations, meaning that the reservation is 0, a default of
0MB memory and 32MHz CPU is applied.
Computing the Current Failover Capacity
The total resource requirements for the powered-on virtual machines is comprised of two components, CPU and memory. vSphere HA calculates these values.
The CPU component by summing the CPU reservations of the powered-on virtual machines. If you have not specified a CPU reservation for a virtual machine, it is
assigned a default value of 32MHz (this value can be changed using the das.vmcpuminmhz advanced option.)
The memory component by summing the memory reservation (plus memory overhead) of each powered-on virtual machine.
QUESTION 2
By default, how often is the vCenter vpx user password automatically changed?
A. 15 days
B. 60 days
C. 30 days
D. 45 days Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which two statements about vCenter HA are correct? (Choose two.)
A. ESXi 5.5 or later is required.
B. vCenter HA network latency between nodes must be less than 50 ms.
C. NFS datastore is supported.
D. It must be deployed on a 3 ESXi host cluster with DRS enabled.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4
Which metric in the Exhibit would identify high latency for a storage device?
A. QAVG/cmd
B. KAVG/cmd
C. DAVG/cmd
D. GAVG/cmd Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
What availability mode does vCenter HA provide?A. Active-Passive
B. Active-Standby
C. Active-Active
D. Load-balanced Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which are the two network requirements for a VMware vSAN 6.5 cluster? (Choose two.)
A. Multicast must be enabled on the physical switches and routers that handle vSAN traffic.
B. vSAN requires IPv6 only.
C. All hosts must have a dedicated 40GbE NIC.
D. The vSAN network supported IPv4 or IPv6.
E. vSAN requires IPv4 only. Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The vSAN network supports both IPv4 and IPv6.
QUESTION 7
Which three design requirements must be satisfied to enable RAID-6 objects in a VMware vSAN cluster? (Choose three.)
A. vSAN Advanced license or higher
B. vSAN stretched cluster
C. at least six hosts contributing storage
D. deduplication and compression
E. All Flash configuration Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 8
What is the VMware-recommended best practice for Fibre Channel zoning?
A. soft zoning
B. single-initiator-multiple-target zoning
C. single-initiator zoning
D. single-initiator-single-target zoning Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which two tasks should a vSphere administrator perform if the vmkernel log reports VMFS metadata errors? (Choose two.)
A. contact VMware technical support
B. reformat the datastore
C. check the device with VOMA
D. ignore the messages Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10
Which is required by vCenter Converter Standalone to convert a physical Red Hat Enterprise Linux 7 machine to a virtual machine?
A. The Linux machine must be powered off.
B. The Linux machine must have the SSH daemon started.
C. The Linux machine must use a static IP address.
D. The Linux machine must have a fully-qualified domain name. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
How can a vSphere administrator ensure that a set of virtual machines run on different hosts in a DRS cluster?
A. Use a VM-Host affinity rule.
B. Add the VMs to a vApp.
C. Use a VM-VM affinity rule.
D. Place the VMs in different folders. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Which three types of Content Libraries exist within vSphere 6.5? (Choose three.)
A. Remote Content Library
B. Published Content Library
C. Local Content Library
D. Shared Content Library
E. Subscribed Content Library Correct Answer: BCE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Local Libraries
Subscribed Libraries (You subscribe to a published library by creating a subscribed library.)
QUESTION 13
Which statements regarding datastore clusters meets VMware’s recommended best practices?
A. Clusters should contain only datastores presented from the same storage array.
B. Clusters should contain only datastores with equal hardware acceleration capability.
C. Clusters should contain only datastores with the same capacity.
D. Clusters should contain only datastores using the same connection method (iSCSI, FC, etc.). Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which Host Profile Subprofile configuration is used to configure firewall settings for ESXi hosts?
A. Advanced Configuration Settings
B. General System Settings
C. Security
D. Networking Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In the Web Client interface, you’ll find the firewall configuration under the Security and Services folder of a host profile.
QUESTION 15
An administrator is trying to vMotion a VM from his datacenter to a recovery site. Which is the maximum allowed RTT (Round-Trip Time) latency between source
and destination host?
A. 100 milliseconds
B. 150 milliseconds
C. 15 milliseconds
D. 10 milliseconds Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Round-Trip Time for Long-Distance vMotion Migration If you have the proper license applied to your environment, you can perform reliable migrations between
hosts that are separated by high network round-trip latency times. The maximum supported network round-trip time for vMotion migrations is 150 milliseconds.
This round-trip time lets you migrate virtual machines to another geographical location at a longer distance.
QUESTION 16
A vSphere administrator manages a cluster which includes critical and non-critical virtual machines. The cluster requires different permissions for contractors and
non-contractors.
How can the administrator exclude the contractor group from some of the critical VMs?
A. Apply permission for both contractors and non-contractors on the cluster level.
B. Apply permission for both contractors and non-contractors on the cluster level. Remove permission on the critical VMs for contractors.
C. Remove permission for contractors on the cluster level. Apply permission on the critical VMs for non-contractors.
D. Apply permission for both contractors and non-contractors on the VMs. Remove permission on the critical VMs for contractors. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
What VM Monitoring setting would ensure that the failure interval for a virtual machine is defined as 120 seconds?
A. High
B. Normal
C. Low
D. Medium Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
A vSphere Administrator observes that the Primary VM configured with Fault Tolerance is executing slowly. After further investigation, it is determined that the
Secondary VM is on an overcommitted ESXi host.What two methods will correct the problem? (Choose two.)
A. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the Secondary VM to another datastore.
B. Use vMotion to migrate the Secondary VM to a different ESXi host.
C. Configure a CPU limit on the Primary VM which will also apply to the Secondary VM.
D. Turn off and turn on FT in order to recreate the Secondary VM on a different datastore. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 19
Which command can be run to troubleshoot connectivity problems with vmkernal network interfaces?
A. esxcli network
B. vmkping
C. net-status
D. vicfg-vmknic Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
A vSphere HA cluster with four hosts has admission control configured to tolerate one host failure.
Which statement is true if a fifth host is added?
A. CPU and Memory capacity will be set to 50%.
B. CPU and Memory capacity will be set to 30%.
C. CPU and Memory capacity will be set to 25%.
D. CPU and Memory capacity will be set to 20%. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
Which two configuration options can exclude virtual disks from snapshot operations? (Choose two.)
A. Use RDM in virtual mode for virtual disk.
B. Use virtual disks in Independent ?Persistent mode.
C. Use a virtual disk larger than 2 TB in size.
D. Use RDM in physical mode for virtual disk. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 22
Which statement is correct when migrating from a Windows vCenter Server to the vCenter ServerAppliance 6.5?
A. Migration deployments do not migrate local OS users from the source vCenter Server.
B. Migration deployments support DHCP on the source vCenter Server.
C. Migration deployments allow the source vCenter Server to remain powered on afterwards.
D. Migration deployments support custom ports for all services on the source vCenter Server. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
An administrator sets the Failover Capacity for both CPU and Memory at 25%.
Based on the Exhibit below, how much of the cluster’s total CPU resources are still available to power on additional virtual machines?
A. 45%
B. 25%
C. 70%
D. 60% Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Which two components are part of storage I/O multipathing on ESXi? (Choose two.)
A. SATP
B. VASA
C. PSP
D. VAAI Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 25
The administrator wants to power on VM-K2, which has a 2GHz CPU reservation. VM-M1, VM-M2, and VM-K1 are all powered on. VM-K2 is not powered on.
The exhibit shows the parent and child resource reservations.
If Resource Pool RP-KID is configured with an expandable reservation, which statement is true?
A. VM-K2 will be unable to power on because there are insufficient resources.
B. VM-K2 will be able to power on since resource pool RP-KID has 2GHz available.
C. VM-K2 will be unable to power on because only 2GHz are reserved for RP-KID.D. VM-K2 will receive resource priority and will be able to power on this scenario. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
An administrator attempts to manually reclaim space on thin-provisioned VMFS6 volumes but finds that no additional space is being recovered.
Which could be causing this?
A. vSphere 6.5 does not support manual UNMAP.
B. The manual UNMAP operation has been moved to the vSphere web client.
C. The VASA version is use is incompatible.
D. UNMAP is automated for VMFS6. Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
VMFS 6 is the new filesystem of vSphere 6.5. The new filesystem supports 512e advanced format drives and is 4098 sector (4K) aligned. It also supports
automatic UNMAP, which asynchronously tracks freed blocks and sends UNMAPs to backend storage in background.
QUESTION 27
Which feature facilitates the sharing of templates via vCenter Server?
A. Content Library
B. OVF
C. folders
D. vApp Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which iSCSI initiator type can be used with any network interface card?
A. Software iSCSI initiator
B. Software FCoE adapter
C. Hardware Independent iSCSI initiator
D. Hardware Dependent iSCSI initiator Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Software iSCSI Adapter
A software iSCSI adapter is a VMware code built into the VMkernel. It allows your host to connect to the iSCSI storage device through standard network adapters.
The software iSCSI adapter handles iSCSI processing while communicating with the network adapter. With the software iSCSI adapter, you can use iSCSI
technology without purchasing specialized hardware.
QUESTION 29
What tool can capture network traffic at the uplinks, or vSwitch, or virtual port levels?
A. tcpdump-uw
B. wireshark
C. pktcap-uw
D. pcap Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Which are two vCenter Server two-factor authentication methods? (Choose two.)
A. RSA SecurID
B. Smart Card
C. SAML
D. Symantec VIP Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Two-Factor Authentication Methods
The two-factor authentication methods are often required by government agencies or large enterprises.
Smart card authentication
Smart card authentication allows access only to users who attach a physical card to the USB drive of the computer that they log in to. An example is Common
Access Card (CAC) authentication.
The administrator can deploy the PKI so that the smart card certificates are the only client certificates that the CA issues. For such deployments, only smart card
certificates are presented to the user. The user selects a certificate, and is prompted for a PIN. Only users who have both the physical card and the PIN that
matches the certificate can log in.
RSA SecurID Authentication
For RSA SecurID authentication, your environment must include a correctly configured RSA Authentication Manager. If the Platform Services Controller isconfigured to point to the RSA server, and if RSA SecurID Authentication is enabled, users can log in with their user name and token.
See the two vSphere Blog posts about RSA SecurID setup for details
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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 700-501 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-32)
QUESTION 1
Which two options are advantages of Cisco Data Center solutions over the competition? (Choose two.)
A. Embedded self service
B. Endtoend optimization
C. Scalability without complexity
D. Seamless installation
700-501 exam Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2
Which design practice is the best to reduce wireless CCI?
A. Place adjacent access points on different channels.
B. Place adjacent access points on the same channel.
C. Eliminate all signal overlap between access points.
D. Configure access points with the lowest supported data rate.
E. Place adjacent access points on nonoverlapping channels.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3
Which two collaboration products are accessible (and relevant) to Express Collaboration Specialized partners? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Telepresence EX/90
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise
C. Cisco CRSX D
D. Cisco ASA 5510
E. Cisco Business Edition 6000 700-501 dumps Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 4
Which three options are business benefits of increased reliability? (Choose three)
A. Protects revenue streams
B. Enhances career paths
C. Promotes independence
D. Increases business resilience
E. Reduces maintenance and network operation costs
F. Validates business decisions
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 5
Which three competitive advantages does the Cisco Unified Computing System provide? (Choose three.)
A. Ease of planning via the CSIM capacity modeling tool.
B. Supports only rack server models to reduce cost.
C. Greater virtual desktop density without performance impact.
D. Supports only blade server models to reduce system complexity.
E. Lower cost for compute plus network infrastructure.
F. Simple operation; start in minutes, scale in seconds.
700-501 pdf Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 6
Which statement about TrustSec is true?
A. It provides defense against denial of service attacks
B. It provides a policybased, scalable platform that offers integrated posture, profiling, and guest services to make
contextaware access control decisions.
C. It monitors all the devices on the network, and turns them off when they are not needed.
D. It provides secure richmedia and collaboration services to optimize realtime voice and video applications.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which three options are features of the Cisco Validated Design Program? (Choose three.)
A. Onsite consulting from Cisco Advanced Services engineers.
B. Design guides organized by solution, technology, and architecture.
C. Details on guidelines and practices for different customer scenarios.
D. Specific guidance based on your customer\’s current environment.
E. System and solution designs that are documented and tested.
F. 24×7 phone support on network design questions.
700-501 vce Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 8
Which three decision makers should you focus on when proposing Cisco architectural solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Individual contributors
B. Operations managers
C. Purchasing officers
D. Technical decision makers
E. Business decision makers
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 9
When you design a customer network that is composed only of a pure Layer 2 switch and a router, which feature should
you enable to support communication among VLANs?
A. VLANs cannot communicate when only a router and a Layer 2 switch are used in the design.
B. Spanning Tree on the Layer 2 switch
C. Static routes on the Layer 2 switch
D. Trunking between the Layer 2 switch and the router
E. Uplink port aggregation on the router
700-501 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which three components are in Cisco ExpressPod? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Application Server Engine
B. Cisco UCS CSeries Servers
C. EMC Storage
D. HP Servers
E. NetApp Storage
F. Cisco Nexus Switches
G. Fujitsu Storage
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 11
Which two components are required for a Cisco centralized wireless deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Centralized AirNet
B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco SIO
D. Cisco AiroNet Access Point
E. Cisco Prime
F. Cisco ISR 700-501 dumps Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 12
Which statement about the Cisco Meraki cloud architecture is true?
A. Devices are configured in the cloud on first use and then managed locally after they are set up.
B. All Meraki devices are managed locally by default
C. Management data flows to the Cisco Meraki cloud and user traffic flows directly to its destination on the LAN or across the WAN.
D. All data flows through the Cisco Meraki cloud.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Which two Cisco ISR series are needed to support a Cisco ServicesReady Engine to deploy services on demand?
(Choose two.)
A. 2900 Series
B. 2800 Series
C. 3900 Series
D. 800 Series
700-501 pdf Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 14
Which three switching technology components distinguish Cisco from competing products? (Choose three.)
A. Gigabit Ethernet
B. Flexible NetFlow
C. Medianet
D. Universal PoE
E. RSTP 802.1w
F. Multiprotocol Label Switching
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 15
Which three options are best security practices for VLANs? (Choose three.)
A. Disable Spanning Tree on all switches.
B. Disable all unused ports and put them in an unused VLAN
C. Always use a dedicated VLAN ID for all trunk ports.
D. Do not use VLAN 1 for anything.
E. Enable all unused ports for seamless configuration.
F. Put all user data traffic in VLAN 1.
700-501 vce Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 16
Which two benefits are delivered by Cisco Telepresence? (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration Experience is integrated.
B. Large files can be delivered between locations.
C. User experiences are unified.
D. Any endpoint can be used.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 17
Which option is a function of the Cisco MultiGigabit Fabric in a Cisco ISR router?
A. Provides connectivity between Cisco EHWIC, PVDM3, SM, and ISM modules through the Backplane.
B. Provides connectivity only to the Cisco EHWIC modules.
C. Provides connectivity to the Cisco Nexus fabric switch through the uplink.
D. Provides connectivity to legacy interface modules.
E. Provides connectivity to the Cisco Enhanced EtherSwitch Service Module uplink ports.
700-501 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which option is the backend security ecosystem that detects threat activity, researches and analyzes those threats, and
provides realtime updates along with best practices to allow organizations to be informed and protected?
A. Monitor Analysis Response System
B. Secure Infrastructure Optimization
C. Threat Operation Center
D. Security Intelligence Operations
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Which option is a competitive advantage of Cisco security solutions?
A. Lowest priced offering
B. Stateful firewall capability
C. SpeedNet services
D. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations 700-501 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Which three customer challenges do Cisco architectures help to solve? (Choose three.)
A. Increase ROI
B. Reduce independence
C. Provide creative solutions
D. Lower costs
E. Boost productivity
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 21
When LAN connectivity is designed which option increases high availability and minimizes network administration?
A. integrated switch in WAN router
B. stacked switch design
C. multiple switch design
D. single external switch design
700-501 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Which two product portfolios help make up the Cisco Office in a Box solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS ESeries Servers
B. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900 and 3900 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 5000
D. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series
E. Cisco UCS CSeries Servers
F. Cisco Nexus 3048
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 23
Which two capabilities are found on the Cisco ASA 5512X that are not found on the Cisco ASA 5510? (Choose two.)
A. 50 VLANs
B. 250 sitetosite IPsec sessions
C. 6 Gigabit Ethernet
D. Multicore CPU
700-501 vce Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 24
Your customer is considering migrating to a Cisco Borderless Routing solution from their current vendor. Which best practice can close the sale?
A. Demonstrate how the Cisco solution saves money by consolidating devices and integrating management.
B. Mention that promotions and incentives are available through Cisco
C. Go through a check list and compare the performance capabilities between Cisco and the other vendor.
D. Show the customer a Cisco television commercial.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which best practice should be used to calculate PoE requirements for Cisco collaboration endpoints?
A. Attach all endpoints first and then use a power reporting tool to document the power requirements.
B. Assume that all ports with PoE endpoints attached will require 7 watts.
C. Assume that all ports will require 15.4 watts regardless of attached endpoints.
D. Select the endpoint device that requires the most power and assume that all endpoint devices will require the same amount.
E. Determine the power requirements of each of your endpoints and plan to support that amount.
700-501 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
A customer wants to deploy a solution that requires highquality video for full multimedia applications. Which two Cisco Unified Communication endpoint solutions should you recommend? (Choose two.)
A. 6900 Series
B. 8900 Series
C. 5900 Series
D. 9900 Series
E. 3900 Series
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 27
Which two statements about Collaborative Services are true? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco sells the service to the partner
B. They are sold to the customer by Cisco.
C. They enable the partner to deliver their own brand of service.
D. They are sold by the partner, and are delivered by Cisco. 700-501 dumps Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 28
Which three options can be connected directly to a Cisco Nexus switch? (Choose three.)
A. Token ring network
B. Storage area network
C. Server cluster
D. Local area network
E. 4G network
F. Wide area network
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 29
Which two customer benefits can be realized with Cisco Unified Data Center? (Choose two.)
A. 50 percent faster disaster recovery.
B. 60 percent less cost for cooling and power.
C. 15 percent faster in application performance, 40 percent less in infrastructure costs.
D. 50 percent less time in application deployment.
700-501 pdf Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 30
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco ASA 5500X Series over the Cisco ASA 5500 Series? (Choose two.)
A. Firewall throughput up to 12 Gb/s is provided.
B. The Cisco Content Security does not require an additional hardware module.
C. Cisco IPS throughput up to 650 Mb/s is provided
D. The Cisco IPS does not require an additional hardware module.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 31
Which three options are pillars of the Cisco Security Intelligence Operations? (Choose three.)
A. Dynamic updates
B. OpenBTS Database
C. Cloud base
D. Threat Operations Center
E. Sensor base
F. Manual updates
700-501 vce Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 32
Which two product portfolios help make up the FlexPod Express solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5000
B. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900, and 3900 Series
C. Cisco UCS ESeries Servers
D. Cisco Nexus 3048 Switch
E. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series
F. Cisco UCS CSeries Server
Correct Answer: DF
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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 700-260 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-35)
QUESTION 1
Which Cisco network security solution helps protect against threats by monitoring and responding to any network
anomalies, continually analyzing for potential threats and reacting to them in real time?
A. Cisco Security Manager
B. Cisco ASA Firewall Services
C. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
D. Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
E. Cisco Web Security Appliance
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance
G. Cisco Identity Services Engine
H. Cisco Site-to-Site VPN
700-260 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Why might companies need Cisco Cyber Threat Defense?
A. They need cost-effective security management outsourcing.
B. They have increased bandwidth needs and allow BYOD
C. They need to add and provision servers faster than ever.
D. They have a lack of segmented or differentiated access.
E. They are being inundated with advanced, persistent threats.
F. They have an infrastructure of overlapping rule sets, complex inheritance, and oversubscription
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3
Cutting IT administrative costs and leveraging current hardware are features that demonstrate which Cisco business
value?
A. Completeness
B. Cost effectiveness
C. Flexibility
D. Control
E. Protection 700-260 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
In addition to protection, control, and flexibility, which two business values are included in Cisco value propositions?
(Choose two.)
A. Low cost
B. Completeness
C. Cost effectiveness
D. Scalability
E. Integration
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 5
End-to-end protection and protection across the attack continuum are features that demonstrate which two Cisco
business values? (Choose two.)
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Protection
C. Control
D. Flexibility
E. Completeness
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 6
The unmatched security that Cisco offers is demonstrated by its long-standing experience in which two options?
(Choose two.)
A. Mobile solutions
B. Networks
C. Software
D. Security
E. Devices
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 7
Reputation analysis and recommended remediation steps are examples of which customer cost saver?
A. Flexible licensing
B. Faster integration
C. Fewer resources to manage
D. Less time scoping a breach
700-260 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which two options benefit a partner who is selling Cisco security solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Incentives programs
B. Lower total cost of ownership
C. Simplified architecture solution
D. Opportunities for new revenue
E. Partner referrals
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Secure Access Control Server solution technology would you recommend to a corporation that is trying to connect computers, smart phones, and tablets in different locations to a customer network?
A. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
B. Cisco AnyConnect
C. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection
D. Cisco Identity Services Engine
E. Cisco TrustSec
700-260 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
What is the first stage of the Cisco software lifecycle.where sellers engage with customers to create a strategy and
development plan?
A. upsell and cross sell
B. asset management
C. plan
D. activate
E. adopt
F. renew
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
The fact that Cisco network security offers unmatched visibility and control of network and application traffic is a prime example of which Cisco value?
A. Scalability
B. Time-to-value
C. Protection
D. Control
E. Flexibility
F. Agility 700-260 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Upon which component are security solutions directly built in the Cisco future solutions architecture framework?
A. Security intelligence operations
B. Third-party applications
C. Management and intelligence capabilities
D. Cisco security platforms
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
Consolidating platforms and appliances under a single provider is an example of which customer cost saver?
A. Less time scoping a breach
B. Fewer resources to manage
C. Faster integration
D. Flexible licensing
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which solution should you suggest to a company that wants to prevent employees from inadvertently sending
confidential information?
A. Cisco ASA Firewall Services
B. Cisco Security Manager
C. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection
D. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
E. Cisco Email Security Appliance
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 15
Leveraging current infrastructures without buying new appliances and avoiding lengthy customizations are examples of which customer cost saver?
A. Less time scoping a breach
B. Faster integration
C. Flexible licensing
D. Fewer resources to manage
700-260 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which option would be the primary concern of a CIO who is focused on advanced protection in the advanced protection use case?
A. Integrate solutions seamlessly
B. Onboard devices quickly
C. Expand into new markets
D. Reduce vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
The fact that Cisco Content Security integrates seamlessly with existing security and network infrastructures is a prime example of which Cisco value?
A. time-to-value
B. protection
C. control
D. scalability
E. flexibility
F. agility
700-260 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 18
Increased employee productivity, confidence in data confidentiality, and increased visibility are features that
demonstrate which Cisco business value?
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Protection
C. Control
D. Flexibility
E. Completeness
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Which four options are examples of Cisco network security solutions? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco Security Manager
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Web Security Appliance
D. Cisco Identity Services Engine
E. Cisco Site-to-Site VPN
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance
G. Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
H. Cisco ASA Firewall Services 700-260 dumps Correct Answer: BEGH
QUESTION 20
Why do partners often have a hard time selling their new security solutions to customers?
A. Customers have antiquated solutions.
B. Customers show a lack of concern over malware and threats.
C. Customers boast completely secure environments.
D. Customers have overcrowded portfolios of security solutions from multiple vendors.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
At which point during the attack continuum does a customer experience limited remediation tools?
A. Across the entire continuum
B. During
C. Before
D. After
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Which four options are Cisco industry differentiators? (Choose four.)
A. Uncontested threat blocking
B. Best-in-class technologies
C. Lowest price
D. Unparalleled commitment to security
E. Largest selection of security solutions
F. Unmatched support and services
G. Comprehensive vision for security
Correct Answer: BDFG
QUESTION 23
Given the award-winning resources and support that Cisco offers, with what kind of customers can partners create
unique relationships?
A. Customers who can be the first to receive new innovations
B. Customers who can access 24-hour support around the world
C. Customers who can earn higher margins on each deal that is sold
D. Customers who can take advantage of incentives programs
700-260 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Which option would be a primary security concern of a large, growing corporation that is trying to scale its data center growth with its growing business in the secure data center use case?
A. Inexperienced IT staff
B. Lack of scalable and flexible security options
C. No employee remote access
D. Lack of device variability
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
According to recent studies, what percentage of global companies has experienced a security breach?
A. 100 percent
B. 75 percent
C. 33 percent
D. 5 percent
E. 0 percent
700-260 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Which component of the Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure technology solution enables centralized management for the entire solution and is a primary differentiator from the Cisco Secure Data Center virtualization and cloud?
A. Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Security Manager
D. Cisco Fire SIGHT Management Center
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
Which two solutions are main components of Cisco Content Security? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection
B. Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
C. Cisco Web Security Appliance
D. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
E. Cisco Remote-Access VPN
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance 700-260 dumps Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 28
Which two options are features of Cisco Enterprise License Agreements? (Choose two.)
A. One agreement for each part of the business
B. Short-term lifespan under one year
C. Unforeseen costs and fees in the future
D. Organic growth up to 20 percent
E. Up-front pricing
F. Limited consumption models
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 29
What is the primary customer challenge that is created by the wide variety of security solution providers on the market?
A. Choosing the right provider
B. Contacting all providers for information
C. Finding a low-cost option
D. Determining the single best security product
700-260 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Which three options describe the main problems with traditional security solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Security gaps
B. Lack of firewall
C. Pieced together
D. Missing components
E. Fragmented solutions
F. Lack of management solutions
G. Lack of cloud solution
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 31
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Identity Services Engine
D. Cisco Security Manager
E. Cisco TrustSec
700-260 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Which two aspects of Cisco solutions save customers money? (Choose two.)
A. 100 percent effectiveness
B. Faster integration
C. Fewer resources to manage
D. Lowest-cost solutions
E. Incentives programs
F. Complete replacement of current infrastructure
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 33
The fact that Cisco leads the industry in Gartner\’s Magic Quadrants for email, web, NGIPS, and NGFW is a prime
example of which Cisco differentiator?
A. Comprehensive vision for security
B. One solution to fit every need
C. Unparalleled commitment
D. Best-in-class technologies
E. Lowest price points
700-260 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
Which technology solution can resolve the inability of a customer to properly restrict and authorize access to protected resources while still introducing new applications, devices, and business partnerships?
A. Cisco Secure Data Center
B. Cisco Cyber Threat Defense
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Cloud
E. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure
F. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35
Which Cisco security benefit is a differentiator that allows partners to plan and model their businesses?
A. Comprehensive vision for security
B. One solution to fit every need
C. Unparalleled commitment
D. Lowest price points
E. Best-in-class technologies 700-260 dumps Correct Answer: A
Cisco 700-260 dumps sites cannot compare to the understanding, learning and comprehension you will gain from pass4itsure.com, based on facts and case studies, like pass4itsure. If you fail in the exam, pass4itsure promises to give you FULL REFUND of your purchasing fees. In order to successfully pass the exam, hurry up to visit pass4itsure.com to know more details.
You may have also seen on other sites related training materials, but will find their Source pass4itsure of you carefully compare. The pass4itsure provide more comprehensive information, including the current exam questions, with their wealth of experience and knowledge by pass4itsure team of experts to come up against Cisco certification 700-260 dumps exam.
Success:
“I passed my exam earlier this morning. You know what? I just use study materials from pass4itsure, no other books at all! It is really helpful if you do not get much time to prepare your exam. You should have a try. It won’t let you down. Why do you want to take roundabout ways if there is a shortcut? Trust me or not. Good luck to you all. Bob”
Awesome:
“This is my first time to sit a Cisco exam, so you will know how nervous I was! Thanks for your help, Kingexam! I passed. I think 95% questions are more or less the same as your guidance. Some questions with the answer are in the different sequence, and, sorry to point out that one answer of your questions is incorrect, I’ll email you to let you know, you guys need to revise it. Well, I think your kingexam’s guidance is still more accurate than others. The most important thing is I got passed?🙂?Paul Hussler”
Latest Release Pass4itsure Cisco 700-260 Dumps Exam Q&As, Most Accurate Cisco 700-260 Dumps Practice Questions Covers All Key Points, We Help You Pass Advanced Security Architecture for Account Manager. Pass4itsure 700-260 Dumps Exam Youtube Free Online Test Here:
