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Cisco 642-384 Exam Questions Answers, 100% Pass Guarantee Cisco 642-384 Certification Download Guaranteed Success

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QUESTION 132
Which command assigns a cost value of “17” to a switch port?
A. spanning-tree interfacefastethernet 5/8 17
B. spanning-treeportcost 17
C. spanning-treeportcost 17
D. spanning-treevlan 1 cost 17

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
You have configured and applied a Cisco IOS Firewall access rule to the inbound, untrusted interface. You suspect that the rule may be blocking necessary traffic onto the network. What must you do to delete that rule when using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager?
A. Select ACL Editor > Access Rules to delete the rule.
B. You must remove the association between the rule and the interface before deleting the rule
C. You must delete the associated access list on the interface, then reconfigure the access list as required, and then reapply the access group to the proper interface.
D. Go to the Edit Firewall Policy tab to delete the rule.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
A customer in Europe needs to establish an 11-Mbps wireless bridge link between two office buildings that are approximately 1.3 km apart. The wireless link will pass through a public park, which contains a lake that is surrounded by trees. You run the range calculation and determine that the Cisco Aironet 1300 Series Outdoor Access Point/Bridge should work. You install the link using 10.5-dB yagis with 75 feet of standard Cisco cabling and both radios set at 20 mW. The wireless bridges are not able to establish or maintain a link.
What is needed to successfully complete this link?
A. An amplifier needs to be installed at one of the sites.
B. The antenna must be raised high enough to clear the trees
C. Lower loss cabling needs to be used to bring the EIRP into legal limits.
D. Due to the trees, a 21-dBi dish needs to be used for its narrower beam width.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
You connect via Telnet to a Cisco access point and enter the command show dot11 link test. Which output might you obtain?
A. signal-to-noise ratio
B. incoming and outgoing signal strength
C. TX packets dropped
D. RX packets per second

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Refer to the exhibit. The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configurations of Router A and Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the sitE.to-site VPN between Router A and Router B.
What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?

A. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a Turbo ACL (150-199).
B. The IKE encryption methods on the two routers are different
C. the IPSec policy map names on the two routers are different.
D. the IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the Answer: interesting traffic.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

How many active VPN clients are currently connected to the 1841 ISR router?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

Which IP address or address range will be used when allocating an internal IP address to the VPN clients
for the “test” VPN group?________________________________________________________________________
A. 10.1.1.100 to 10.1.1.200 I
B. 10.1-1.2 to 10.1.1.254
C. 192.168.1.1 to 192.168.1.100
D. 192.168.1.2 to 192.168.1.254
E. 192.168.1.1
F. 192.168.1.2

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

Which authentication method is used by the test” VPN group?
A. RSA Encrypted Nounce
B. RSA Digital Signature
C. PrE.Shared Key
D. Digital Certificate
E. DH2

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 140
You are the network consultant. You have a customer with a small network of 15 remote sites is trying to optimize its VPN by migrating some remote sites using Frame Relay connections to the Internet to using cable connections to the Internet. The keypoint for your customer is to save money. Only a moderate amount of IP traffic is passing through the network, most of which is from the remote sites to the central site. IPSec should be used to provide VPN functionality and basic confidentiality is desired..Considering the above requirements. Which solution would be the easiest for this customer to set up and manage?
A. point-to-point
B. partial mesh
C. point-to-multipoint
D. hub-and-spoke

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
In an infrastructure based on a wireless advanced feature set using lightweight access points, by which method is a rogue contained?
A. The WCS sends excessive traffic to the rogue thus overloading the access point.
B. The rogue MAC address is used to spoof broadcastdeassociation packets.
C. The rogue MAC address is used to spoof broadcastdeauthentication packets.
D. The WCS sends out excessive signals on the same channel when the rogue is detected.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
With industry-leading services and performance, the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switch is Cisco’s flagship switching solution. It delivers the most comprehensive feature sets for core, distribution, wiring closet, data center, enterprise WAN routing, and Metro-Ethernet deployments. Which layer you think is recommended that the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WLSM be placed?
A. core
B. distribution
C. access
D. presentation

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
The Cisco Lifecycle Services approach defines the activities needed to help you successfully deploy and operate Cisco technologies and optimize their performance throughout the lifecycle of your network. Which statement is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases?
A. initiation, prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
B. site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing, and operations
C. prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
D. deployment, testing, implementation, and production

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Which IP address or address range will be used when allocating an internal ip address to the VPN client for the test

A. 120.1.1.100 to 10.1.1.200
B. 10.1.1.2 to 10.1.1.254
C. 192.1681.1 to 192.1681.1.100
D. 192.1681.2 to 192.1681.1.254

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
Which authentication method is used by the test VPN group?

A. RSA EncryptedNounce
B. RSA Digital Signature
C. Pre-shared key
D. DH2

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RA and RB. Given the debug output on RA, which two statements are true?(Choose two)
A. RA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
B. RA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
C. RA will form an adjacency with RB.
D. RAwill not form an adjacency with RB.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
You are the network administrator. There is one Gigabit Ethernet port on the Cisco CE520 used in the Smart Business Communications System. Which port role assignment would you make for?
A. Cisco Express 520
B. Cisco UC520
C. Cisco CE520
D. Cisco 871W

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Refer to the exhibit. CK-SA and CK-SC are running PVST+ STP, and CK-SB is running 802.1 Q STP. If the BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VU\N 2, then there is no blocking port in the VLAN 2 topology. The BPDU of VU\N 2 never makes a “full circle” around the topology; it is replaced by the VLAN 1 BPDU on the CK-SB-CK-SC link, because CK-SB runs only one STP merged with VU\N 1 STP of PVST+. Thus, there is a forwarding loop.

What does PVST+ do to correct this?
A. CK-SA sends PVST+ BPDUs ofVLAU 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SC. CK-SC will put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
B. CK-SB sends PVST+ BPDUs of VU\N 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SA) towards CK-SC. CK-SC will put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
C. CK-SC sends PVST+BPDUsofVU\N 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SC. CK-SAwill put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
D. CK-SA sends PVST+ BPDUs of VU\N 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SB. CK-SA will put port CK-C-CK-B into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
A wireless autonomous 1200 access point running core feature set in root mode has its SSID set to Factory_floor and provides connection to a repeater access point with its SSID set to factory_floor, if the root-mode access point is using channel 11 which channel will the repeater access point use?
A. channel 11
B. channel 1 or 6
C. anynonoverlapping channel
D. The root access point and the repeater will negotiate this setting

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
The VPN server uses a preshared key for remote device authentication
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
A customer with a large enterprise network wants to allow employees to work from home over the Internet. The customer anticipates a large amount of traffic, predominantly toward the central site. The customer also requires a VPN using strong user authentication and encryption to protect highly sensitive data. Which solution best meets this customer’s requirements?
A. remote-access VPN with software encryption
B. remote-access VPN with hardware encryption
C. site-to-site VPN with hub-and-spoke tunnels using 3DES and pre-shared secrets
D. site-to-site Cisco Easy VPN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configurations of RA and RB. Traffic between PC1 and PC2 is not successfully establishing the site-to-site VPN between -RA and -RB. What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?
A. RAis using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while RB is using a Turbo ACL(150-199).
B. The IPSec encryption methods used by each router do not match.
C. The D-H Group settings on the two routers are the same.
D. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
You are the network consultant. When will you assess a customer’s current network infrastructure?
A. plan
B. design
C. operate
D. optimize

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
A client is experiencing lower throughput and more packet retransmits is one area of the wireless network. At these times, the client utility shows high signal strength but low signal quality. What may be causing this issue?
A. The client does not support Cisco Compatible Extensions version 2.
B. Diversity is not enabled in the access point.
C. The WDS is failing to register the client card in the WLSM.
D. The channel is set incorrectly in the access point or in the client configuration.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Which statement is correct about the current address translation configurations on the security appliance?
A. Dynamic NAT is used to translate the 10.0.1.100 host on the inside interface to a global address of
192.168.1.1
B. Port AddressTranslation(PAT) is used to translate any host on the inside interface to the 192.168.1.100 global address.
C. Static NAT is used to translate the 172.16.1.2 host on thedmzl interface to a global address of
192.168.1.102
D. Dynamic NAT is used to translate any host ondmzl and dmz2 interfaces to a mapped address from the address from the address pool of 192.168.1.110 to 192.168.1.250

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
VLAN Hopping is one of the primary VLAN based attacks used by hackers to infiltrate network security. VLAN hopping is used to attack a network by sending packets to a port which is generally not accessible. VLAN hopping attacks are mainly conducted in the Dynamic Trunking Protocol and, in some cases; the attacks are targeted to the trunking encapsulation protocol (802.1 q or ISL).You worry about the switched infrastructure in an integrated network is vulnerable to VLAN hopping attacks. Which two configuration can be used to mitigate VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. switchporttrunk encapsulation
B. switchport mode trunk
C. switchport access vlan
D. switchport mode access

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
CiscoWorks SNMS is a part of the CiscoWorks family of products for managing small to large networks. CiscoWorks SIMMS is a new Web-based network management solution for small to medium-sized businesses, with 40 or fewer Cisco internetworking devices such as switches, routers, hubs, and access servers. CiscoWorks SNMS can also monitor third-party IT assets such as servers, applications, services, and printers A Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) trunk is typically the voice interconnect between any business and the outside world. Which network management tool is designed to allow businesses to manage up to 40 devices?
A. CiscoWorks Unrestricted
B. CiscoWorks WAN Management
C. CiscoWorks LAN Management
D. CiscoWorks SNMS

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
Which statement is correct about the information in the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager General and License Information screen?
A. The security appliance supports active/active failover only.
B. The security appliance supports 3DES-AES only.
C. The managed device is a Cisco ASA 5540 Security Appliance with VPN premium license enabled.
D. The managed device is Cisco PIX515E Security Appliance.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
Which three are different types of STP inconsistencies in a Layer 2 network?(Choose three)
A. MAC inconsistency
B. Root inconsistency
C. EtherChannel inconsistency
D. type inconsistency

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
According to the error log, VLAN 1 is where the BPDU was received, and VLAN 2 is where the BPDU originated. When inconsistency is detected, what happens?
A. VLAN 1 is blocked, while VLAN 2 is forwarding
B. VLAN1 is blocked, while VLAN 2 is listening
C. Both VLANs are listening on the port from which this BPDU is send
D. Both VLANs are blocked on the port from which this BPDU is received

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
Which is the current configured default gateway IP address on the security appliance?
A. 172.16.10.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 192.168.1.2
D. 10.0.1.1

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which statement is true about a Cisco Aironet 350 Series wireless client when its green LED appears to be off and its amber LED is blinking?
A. The client adapter is scanning for a network.
B. The client adapter is in ad hoc mode.
C. The client adapter is performing a self-test.
D. The client adapter is in power-save mode.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant. Your IT Manager tells you 802.11b telephone can receive an audio signal from an access point, but cannot send audio. What is the most likely reason?
A. The value of RSSI telephone is greater than 30.
B. The access point only receives 802.11g data rates.
C. The security settings in the telephone mismatch the access point.
D. The telephone transmit power is significantly lower than the t the access point

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 139
You connect via Telnet to a Cisco access point and enter the command show dot11 link test. Which output might you obtain?
A. signal-to-noise ratio
B. incoming and outgoing signal strength
C. TX packets dropped
D. RX packets per second

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 140
Refer to the exhibit. The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configurations of Router A and Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the sitE.to-site VPN between Router A and Router B.
What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?

A. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a Turbo ACL (150-199). ”
B. The IKE encryption methods on the two routers are different
C. the IPSec policy map names on the two routers are different.
D. the IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the Answer: interesting traffic.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

How many active VPN clients are currently connected to the 1841 ISR router?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the
tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

Which IP address or address range will be used when allocating an internal IP address to the VPN clients for the “test” VPN group?________________________________________________________________________
A. 10.1.1.100 to 10.1.1.200 I
B. 10.1-1.2 to 10.1.1.254
C. 192.168.1.1 to 192.168.1.100
D. 192.168.1.2 to 192.168.1.254
E. 192.168.1.1
F. 192.168.1.2

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
This item consists of one or more multiple choice type questions that you must answer. To answer these questions, you need to use a GUI tool that becomes fully accessible by the use of the labs you see below these directions. The tabs have up and down arrows to signal the direction that the tabbed window may be dragged lo expose or hide the GUI tool. When you are done using the GUI tool, you may drag the tab down to continue answering questions. To advance to the next question in the series, click on the numbered button to the left of each question. Make sure that you have answered all the questions before continuing to the next item.

Which authentication method is used by the test” VPN group?
A. RSA Encrypted Nounce
B. RSA Digital Signature
C. PrE.Shared Key
D. Digital Certificate
E. DH2

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
You are the network consultant. You have a customer with a small network of 15 remote sites is trying to optimize its VPN by migrating some remote sites using Frame Relay connections to the Internet to using cable connections to the Internet. The keypoint for your customer is to save money. Only a moderate amount of IP traffic is passing through the network, most of which is from the remote sites to the central site. IPSec should be used to provide VPN functionality and basic confidentiality is desired..Considering the above requirements. Which solution would be the easiest for this customer to set up and manage?
A. point-to-point
B. partial mesh
C. point-to-multipoint
D. hub-and-spoke

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
In an infrastructure based on a wireless advanced feature set using lightweight access points, by which method is a rogue contained?

A. The WCS sends excessive traffic to the rogue thus overloading the access point.
B. The rogue MAC address is used to spoof broadcastdeassociation packets.
C. The rogue MAC address is used to spoof broadcastdeauthentication packets.
D. The WCS sends out excessive signals on the same channel when the rogue is detected.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
With industry-leading services and performance, the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switch is Cisco’s flagship switching solution. It delivers the most comprehensive feature sets for core, distribution, wiring closet, data center, enterprise WAN routing, and Metro-Ethernet deployments. Which layer you think is recommended that the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WLSM be placed?
A. core
B. distribution
C. access
D. presentation

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 147
The Cisco Lifecycle Services approach defines the activities needed to help you successfully deploy and operate Cisco technologies and optimize their performance throughout the lifecycle of your network. Which statement is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases?
A. initiation, prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
B. site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing, and operations
C. prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
D. deployment, testing, implementation, and production

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Which IP address or address range will be used when allocating an internal ip address to the VPN client for the test
A. 120.1.1.100 to 10.1.1.200
B. 10.1.1.2 to 10.1.1.254
C. 192.1681.1 to 192.1681.1.100
D. 192.1681.2 to 192.1681.1.254

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Which authentication method is used by the test VPN group?

A. RSA EncryptedNounce
B. RSA Digital Signature
C. Pre-shared key
D. DH2

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150

A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RA and RB. Given the debug output on RA, which two statements are true?(Choose two)
A. RA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
B. RA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
C. RA will form an adjacency with RB.
D. RAwill not form an adjacency with RB.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
You are the network administrator. There is one Gigabit Ethernet port on the Cisco CE520 used in the Smart Business Communications System. Which port role assignment would you make for?
A. Cisco Express 520
B. Cisco UC520
C. Cisco CE520
D. Cisco 871W
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Refer to the exhibit. CK-SA and CK-SC are running PVST+ STP, and CK-SB is running 802.1 Q STP. If the BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VU\N 2, then there is no blocking port in the VLAN 2 topology. The BPDU of VU\N 2 never makes a “full circle” around the topology; it is replaced by the VLAN 1 BPDU on the CK-SB-CK-SC link, because CK-SB runs only one STP merged with VU\N 1 STP of PVST+. Thus, there is a forwarding loop.

What does PVST+ do to correct this?
A. CK-SA sends PVST+ BPDUs ofVLAU 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SC. CK-SC will put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
B. CK-SB sends PVST+ BPDUs of VU\N 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SA) towards CK-SC. CK-SC will put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
C. CK-SC sends PVST+BPDUsofVU\N 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SC. CK-SAwill put port CK-SC-CK-SB into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.
D. CK-SA sends PVST+ BPDUs of VU\N 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by CK-SB) towards CK-SB. CK-SA will put port CK-C-CK-B into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
A wireless autonomous 1200 access point running core feature set in root mode has its SSID set to Factory_floor and provides connection to a repeater access point with its SSID set to factory_floor, if the root-mode access point is using channel 11 which channel will the repeater
access point use?
A. channel 11
B. channel 1 or 6
C. anynonoverlapping channel
D. The root access point and the repeater will negotiate this setting

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
The VPN server uses a preshared key for remote device authentication
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
A customer with a large enterprise network wants to allow employees to work from home over the Internet. The customer anticipates a large amount of traffic, predominantly toward the central site. The customer also requires a VPN using strong user authentication and encryption to protect highly sensitive data. Which solution best meets this customer’s requirements?
A. remote-access VPN with software encryption
B. remote-access VPN with hardware encryption
C. site-to-site VPN with hub-and-spoke tunnels using 3DES and pre-shared secrets
D. site-to-site Cisco Easy VPN

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configurations of RA and RB. Traffic between PC1 and PC2 is not successfully establishing the site-to-site VPN between -RA and -RB. What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?
A. RAis using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while RB is using a Turbo ACL(150-199).
B. The IPSec encryption methods used by each router do not match.
C. The D-H Group settings on the two routers are the same. ”
D. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
You are the network consultant. When will you assess a customer’s current network infrastructure?
A. plan
B. design
C. operate
D. optimize

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
A client is experiencing lower throughput and more packet retransmits is one area of the wireless network. At these times, the client utility shows high signal strength but low signal quality. What may be causing this issue?
A. The client does not support Cisco Compatible Extensions version 2.
B. Diversity is not enabled in the access point.
C. The WDS is failing to register the client card in the WLSM.
D. The channel is set incorrectly in the access point or in the client configuration.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
Which statement is correct about the current address translation configurations on the security appliance?
A. Dynamic NAT is used to translate the 10.0.1.100 host on the inside interface to a global address of
192.168.1.1
B. Port AddressTranslation(PAT) is used to translate any host on the inside interface to the 192.168.1.100 global address.
C. Static NAT is used to translate the 172.16.1.2 host on thedmzl interface to a global address of
192.168.1.102
D. Dynamic NAT is used to translate any host ondmzl and dmz2 interfaces to a mapped address from the address from the address pool of 192.168.1.110 to 192.168.1.250 ”

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
VLAN Hopping is one of the primary VLAN based attacks used by hackers to infiltrate network security. VLAN hopping is used to attack a network by sending packets to a port which is generally not accessible.
VLAN hopping attacks are mainly conducted in the Dynamic Trunking Protocol and, in some cases; the attacks are targeted to the trunking encapsulation protocol (802.1 q or ISL).You worry about the switched infrastructure in an integrated network is vulnerable to VLAN hopping attacks. Which two configuration can be used to mitigate VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)
A. switchporttrunk encapsulation
B. switchport mode trunk
C. switchport access vlan
D. switchport mode access

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
CiscoWorks SNMS is a part of the CiscoWorks family of products for managing small to large networks. CiscoWorks SIMMS is a new Web-based network management solution for small to medium-sized businesses, with 40 or fewer Cisco internetworking devices such as switches, routers, hubs, and access servers. CiscoWorks SNMS can also monitor third-party IT assets such as servers, applications, services, and printers A Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) trunk is typically the voice interconnect between any business and the outside world. Which network management tool is designed to allow businesses to manage up to 40 devices?
A. CiscoWorks Unrestricted
B. CiscoWorks WAN Management
C. CiscoWorks LAN Management
D. CiscoWorks SNMS

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which statement is correct about the information in the Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager General and License Information screen?

A. The security appliance supports active/active failover only.
B. The security appliance supports 3DES-AES only.
C. The managed device is a Cisco ASA 5540 Security Appliance with VPN premium license enabled.
D. The managed device is Cisco PIX515E Security Appliance.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
Which three are different types of STP inconsistencies in a Layer 2 network?(Choose three) A. MAC inconsistency
B. Root inconsistency
C. EtherChannel inconsistency
D. type inconsistency

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
According to the error log, VLAN 1 is where the BPDU was received, and VLAN 2 is where the BPDU originated. When inconsistency is detected, what happens?
A. VLAN 1 is blocked, while VLAN 2 is forwarding
B. VLAN1 is blocked, while VLAN 2 is listening
C. Both VLANs are listening on the port from which this BPDU is send
D. Both VLANs are blocked on the port from which this BPDU is received

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Which is the current configured default gateway IP address on the security appliance?
A. 172.16.10.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 192.168.1.2
D. 10.0.1.1

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 166
Which statement is true about a Cisco Aironet 350 Series wireless client when its green LED appears to be off and its amber LED is blinking?
A. The client adapter is scanning for a network.
B. The client adapter is in ad hoc mode.
C. The client adapter is performing a self-test.
D. The client adapter is in power-save mode.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 167
You are the Cisco Configuration Assistant. Your IT Manager tells you 802.11b telephone can receive an audio signal from an access point, but cannot send audio. What is the most likely reason?
A. The value of RSSI telephone is greater than 30.
B. The access point only receives 802.11g data rates.
C. The security settings in the telephone mismatch the access point.
D. The telephone transmit power is significantly lower than the t the access point

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 177
When you disable a rule the rule is NOT disabled until you verify your Security Policy.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 178
Static Source NAT translates public internal source IP addresses to private external source IP addresses.
A. True
B. False.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 179
What is the command that lists the interfaces to which VPN-1/FireWall-1 bound?
A. Fw ct1 iflist
B. Ifconfig -a
C. Ifconfig \all
D. Netstat -m
E. Cp bind -all

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 180
Your customer has created a rule so that every time a user wants to go to Internet, that user must be authenticated. Which if the following is the best authentication method for roaming users, such as doctors updating patient records at various floor stations in a hospital?
A. Session
B. User
C. Client
D. Connection
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 181
Which command utility allows verification of the Security Policy installed on a firewall module?
A. Fw ct1 pstat.
B. Fw printlic.
C. Fw stat.
D. Fw ver.
E. Fw pol.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 182
You are a firewall administrator with one Management Server managing 3 different Enforcement Modules. One of the Enforcement Modules does NOT show up in the dialog box when attempting to install a Security Policy. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. No master file was created.
B. License for multiple firewalls has expired.
C. The firewall has NOT been rebooted.
D. The firewall was NOT listed in the Install On column of the rule.
E. The firewall is listed as “Managed by another Management Module (external)” in the Workstation Properties dialog box.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 183
In the Install On column of a rule, when you select a specific firewall object as the only configuration object, that rule is enforced on all firewalls with in the network, with related configurations.
A. True
B. False.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 184
As an administrator, you want to force your users to authenticate. You have selected Client Authentication as your authentication scheme. Users will be using a Web browser to authenticate. On which TCP port will authentication be performed?
A. 23
B. 80
C. 259
D. 261
E. 900

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 185
Once installed the VPN-1/FireWall-1 NG resides directly below what layer of the TCP/IP stack?

A. Data
B. Transport
C. Physical
D. Application
E. Network

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 186
Client Authentication rules should be placed above the Stealth rule, so users can authenticate to the firewall.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 187
The following rule base tells you any automatically created NAT rules have simply hidden but have not been deleted from the Rule Base.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 188
You are using static Destination NAT. You have VPN-1/FireWall-1 NG running on Windows NT/Solaris platform. By default, routing occurs after the address translation when the packet is passing form the client towards the server.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 189
Which if the following statements are FALSE?
A. Dynamic NAT cannot be used for protocols where the port number cannot be changed.
B. Dynamic NAT cannot be used when an external server must distinguish between clients bases on their IP addresses.
C. With Dynamic NAT, packet’s source port numbers are modified.
D. In Dynamic NAT, public internal addresses are hidden behind a single private external address using dynamically assigned port numbers to distinguish between them.
E. Dynamically assigned post numbers are used to distinguish between hidden private addresses.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 190
When you modify a User Template, any users already operating under that template will be updates to the new template properties.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 191
Installation time for creating network objects will decrease if you list machine names and IP addresses in the hosts files.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 192
Consider the following network: No Original Packet Translated Packet Source Destination Service Source Destination Service The administrator wants to take all the local and DMZ hosts behind the gateway except the HTTP server
192.9.200.9. The http server will be providing public services and must be accessible from Internet. Select the best NAT solution below that meets these requirements.
A. Use automatic NAT that creates a static NAT to the HTTP server.
B. To hide the private addresses set the address translation for Private Net.
C. To hide the private address set the address translation for 192.9.200.0.
D. Use automatic NAT rule creation to hide NAT Local net and private Net.
E. Both A and D.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 193
What NAT made is necessary if you want to start and HTTP session on a Reserved or Illegal IP address?
A. Static Source.
B. Static destination.
C. Dynamic
D. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 194
With SecureUpdate you are able to: (Select all that apply)
A. Change Central Licenses to Local Licenses
B. Track current installed versions of Check Point and OPSEC products
C. Update Check Point and OPSEC software remotely from a central location
D. Centrally manage Licenses
E. Perform a new installation of VPN-1/FW-1 remotely

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 195
Which is false about SIC communications?
A. A.VPN Certificates, such as those for IKE are used for secure communications
B. B.The Policy Editior initiates an SSL based connection with the Management Server
C. The Policy Editor must be defined as being authorised to use the Management Server
D. The Management Server verifies that the Clients IP address belongs to an authorised Policy Editor Client

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 182
Which command allows verification of the Security Policy name and install date on a Security Gateway?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 73 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
A. fw show policy
B. fw ctl pstat -policy
C. fw stat -l
D. fwver-p

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 183
You have two rules, ten users, and two user groups in a Security Policy. You create database version 1 for this configuration. You then delete two existing users and add a new user group. You modify one rule and add two new rules to the Rule Base. You save the Security Policy and create database version 2. After awhile, you decide to roll back to version 1 to use the Rule Base, but you want to keep your user database. How can you do this?
A. Run fwm_dbexport to export the user database. Select restore the entire database in the Database Revision screen. Then, run fwm_dbimport.
B. Restore the entire database, except the user database, and then create the new user and user group.
C. Restore the entire database, except the user database.
D. Run fwm dbexport -l filename. Restore the database. Then, run fwm dbimport -l filename to import the users.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 184
Which feature or command provides the easiest path for Security Administrators to revert to earlier versions of the same Security Policy and objects configuration?
A. Policy Package management
B. dbexport/dbimport
C. Database Revision Control
D. upgrade_export/upgrade_import

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 185
Your Security Management Server fails and does not reboot. One of your remote Security Gateways managed by the Security Management Server reboots. What occurs with the remote Gateway after reboot?
A. Since the Security Management Server is not available, the remote Gateway cannot fetch the Security Policy. Therefore, no traffic is allowed through the Gateway.
B. Since the Security Management Server is not available, the remote Gateway cannot fetch the Security Policy. Therefore, all traffic is allowed through the Gateway.
C. Since the Security Management Server is not available, the remote Gateway uses the local Security Policy, but does not log traffic.
D. The remote Gateway fetches the last installed Security Policy locally and passes traffic normally. The Gateway will log locally, since the Security Management Server is not available.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 186
How can you configure an application to automatically launch on the Security Management Server when traffic is dropped or accepted by a rule in the Security Policy?
A. Pop-up alert script
B. User-defined alert script
C. Custom scripts cannot be executed through alert scripts
D. SNMP trap alert script

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 187
Which of the following is NOT useful to verify whether or NOT a Security Policy is active on a Gateway?
A. Check the name of Security Policy of the appropriate Gateway in Smart Monitor.
B. Cpstat fw ?f policy
C. fw stat
D. fw ctl get string active_secpol “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 75 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 188
Of the following, what parameters will not be preserved when using Database Revision Control? 1) Simplified mode Rule Bases 2) Traditional mode Rule Bases 3) Secure Platform WebUI Users 4) SIC certificates 5) SmartView Tracker audit logs 6) SmartView Tracker traffic logs 7) Implied Rules 8) IPS Profiles 9) Blocked connections 10) Manual NAT rules 11) VPN communities 12) Gateway route table 13) Gateway licenses
A. 3, 4, 5, 6, 9, 12, 13
B. 5, 6, 9, 12, 13
C. 1, 2, 8, 10, 11
D. 2, 4, 7, 10, 11

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 189
Which of the following describes the default behavior of an R75 Security Gateway?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 76 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
A. Traffic is filtered using controlled port scanning.
B. All traffic is expressly permitted via explicit rules.
C. Traffic not explicitly permitted is dropped.
D. IP protocol types listed as secure are allowed by default, i.e. ICMP, TCP, UDP sessions are inspected.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 190
When you use the Global Properties’ default settings on R75, which type of traffic will be dropped if no explicit rule allows the traffic?
A. SmartUpdate connections
B. Firewall logging and ICA key-exchange information
C. Outgoing traffic originating from the Security Gateway
D. RIP traffic

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 191
You have installed a R75 Security Gateway on SecurePlatform. To manage the Gateway from the enterprise Security Management Server, you create a new Gateway object and Security Policy. When you install the new Policy from the Policy menu, the Gateway object does not appear in the Install Policy window as a target. What is the problem?
A. The new Gateway’s temporary license has expired.
B. The object was created with Node > Gateway.
C. The Gateway object is not specified in the first policy rule column Install On.
D. No Masters file is created for the new Gateway.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 192
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 77 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam Select the correct statement about Secure Internal Communications (SIC) Certificates. SIC Certificates:
A. Are used for securing internal network communications between the SmartDashboard and the Security Management Server.
B. For R75 Security Gateways are created during the Security Management Server installation.
C. Decrease network security by securing administrative communication among the Security Management Servers and the Security Gateway.
D. Uniquely identify Check Point enabled machines; they have the same function as VPN Certificates.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 193
John is the Security Administrator in his company. He installs a new R75 Security Management Server and a new R75 Gateway. He now wants to establish SIC between them. After entering the activation key, the message “Trust established” is displayed in SmartDashboard, but SIC still does not seem to work because the policy won’t install and interface fetching still does not work. What might be a reason for this?
A. This must be a human error.
B. The Gateway’s time is several days or weeks in the future and the SIC certificate is not yet valid.
C. SIC does not function over the network.
D. It always works when the trust is established.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 194
A _______ rule is used to prevent all traffic going to the R75 Security Gateway.
A. Cleanup
B. Reject
C. Stealth
D. IPS “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 78 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 195
In a distributed management environment, the administrator has removed the default check from Accept Control Connections under the Policy / Global Properties / FireWall tab. In order for the Security Management Server to install a policy to the Firewall, an explicit rule must be created to allow the server to communicate to the Security Gateway on port ______.
A. 256
B. 80
C. 900
D. 259

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 196
Your internal network is configured to be 10.1.1.0/24. This network is behind your perimeter R75 Gateway, which connections to your ISP provider. How do you configure the Gateway to allow this network to go out to the internet?
A. Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the internal interface of your perimeter Gateway.
B. Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the external IP address of your perimeter Gateway.
C. Use automatic Static NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24.
D. Do nothing, as long as 10.1.1.0 network has the correct default Gateway.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 197
Which specific R75 GUI would you use to add an address translation rule?
A. SmartConsole “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 79 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
B. SmartDashboard
C. SmartNAT
D. SmartView Monitor

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 198
You are a Security Administrator who has installed Security Gateway R75 on your network. You need to allow a specific IP address range for a partner site to access your intranet Web server. To limit the partner’s access for HTTP and FTP only, you did the following:
1.
Created manual Static NAT rules for the Web server.

2.
Created the following settings in the Global Properties’ Network Address Translation screen
-Allow bi-directional NAT*

Translate destination on client side

A.
Yes, This will ensure that traffic only matches the specific rule configured for this traffic, and that the Gateway translates the traffic after accepting the packet.

B.
Yes, Both of these settings are only application to automatically NAT rules.

C.
No, The first setting is not applicable. The second setting will reduce performance, by translating traffic in the kernel nearest the intranet server.

D.
No. The first setting is only applicable to automatic NAT rules. The second setting is necessary to make sure there are no conflicts between NAT and anti-spoofing.
Do you above settings limit the partner’s access?

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 199
You enable Automatic Static NAT on an internal host node object with a private IP address of 10.10.10.5, which is NATed into 216.216.216.5. (You use the default settings in Global Properties / NAT.)
When you run fw monitor on the R75 Security Gateway and then start a new HTTP connection from host
10.10.10.5 to browse the Internet, at what point in the monitor output will you observe the HTTP SYN-ACK packet translated from 216.216.216.5 back into 10.10.10.5?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 80 Checkpoint 156-215.75 Exam
A. i=inbound kernel, before the virtual machine
B. O=outbound kernel, after the virtual machine
C. o=outbound kernel, before the virtual machine
D. I=inbound kernel, after the virtual machine

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 200
You have configured a remote site Gateway that supports your boss’s access from his home office using a DSL dialup connection. Everything worked fine yesterday, but today all connectivity is lost. Your initial investigation results in “nobody has touched anything”, which you can support by taking a look in SmartView Tracker Management. What is the problem and what can be done about it?
A. You cannot use NAT and a dialup connection.
B. The NAT configuration is not correct; you can only use private IP addresses in a static NAT setup.
C. A static NAT setup may not work with DSL, since the external IP may change. Hide NAT behind the Gateway is the preferred method here.
D. According to published limitations of Security Gateway R75, there’s a bug with NAT. A restart of the Gateway will help here.

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 26
A security administrator of a large private firm is researching and putting together a proposal to purchase an IPS. The specific IPS type has not been selected, and the security administrator needs to gather information from several vendors to determine a specific product. Which of the following documents would assist in choosing a specific brand and model?
A. RFC
B. RTO
C. RFQ
D. RFI

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 27
Wireless users are reporting issues with the company’s video conferencing and VoIP systems. The security administrator notices DOS attacks on the network that are affecting the company’s VoIP system (i.e. premature call drops and garbled call signals). The security administrator also notices that the SIP servers are unavailable during these attacks. Which of the following security controls will MOST likely mitigate the VoIP DOS attacks on the network? (Select TWO).
A. Configure 802.11b on the network
B. Configure 802.1q on the network
C. Configure 802.11e on the network
D. Update the firewall managing the SIP servers
E. Update the HIDS managing the SIP servers

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 28
A company has decided to use the SDLC for the creation and production of a new information system. The security administrator is training all users on how to protect company information while using the new system, along with being able to recognize social engineering attacks. Senior Management must also formally approve of the system prior to it going live. In which of the following phases would these security controls take place?
A. Operations and Maintenance
B. Implementation
C. Acquisition and Development
D. Initiation Correct Answer: B QUESTION 29
A company contracts with a third party to develop a new web application to process credit cards. Which of the following assessments will give the company the GREATEST level of assurance for the web application?
A. Social Engineering
B. Penetration Test
C. Vulnerability Assessment
D. Code Review Correct Answer: D QUESTION 30
As part of the testing phase in the SDLC, a software developer wants to verify that an application is properly handling user error exceptions. Which of the following is the BEST tool or process for the developer use?
A. SRTM review
B. Fuzzer
C. Vulnerability assessment
D. HTTP interceptor Correct Answer: B QUESTION 31
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate control measure for lost mobile devices?
A. Disable unnecessary wireless interfaces such as Bluetooth.
B. Reduce the amount of sensitive data stored on the device.
C. Require authentication before access is given to the device.
D. Require that the compromised devices be remotely wiped.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective solution for sanitizing a DVD with sensitive information on it?
A. Write over the data
B. Purge the data
C. Incinerate the DVD
D. Shred the DVD Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
A network engineer at Company ABC observes the following raw HTTP request:
GET /disp_reports.php?SectionEntered=57&GroupEntered=-1&report_type=alerts&to_date=01- 01-0101&Run= Run&UserEntered=dsmith&SessionID=5f04189bc&from_date=31-10-2010&TypesEntered=1 HTTP/1.1
Host: test.example.net Accept: */* Accept-Language: en Connection: close Cookie: java14=1; java15=1; java16=1; js=1292192278001;
Which of the following should be the engineer’s GREATEST concern?
A. The HTTPS is not being enforced so the system is vulnerable.
B. The numerical encoding on the session ID is limited to hexadecimal characters, making it susceptible to a brute force attack.
C. Sensitive data is transmitted in the URL.
D. The dates entered are outside a normal range, which may leave the system vulnerable to a denial of service attack.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
Driven mainly by cost, many companies outsource computing jobs which require a large amount of processor cycles over a short duration to cloud providers. This allows the company to avoid a large investment in computing resources which will only be used for a short time.
Assuming the provisioned resources are dedicated to a single company, which of the following is the MAIN vulnerability associated with on-demand provisioning?
A. Traces of proprietary data which can remain on the virtual machine and be exploited
B. Remnants of network data from prior customers on the physical servers during a compute job
C. Exposure of proprietary data when in-transit to the cloud provider through IPSec tunnels
D. Failure of the de-provisioning mechanism resulting in excessive charges for the resources

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
A security administrator needs a secure computing solution to use for all of the company’s security audit log storage, and to act as a central server to execute security functions from. Which of the following is the BEST option for the server in this scenario?
A. A hardened Red Hat Enterprise Linux implementation running a software firewall
B. Windows 7 with a secure domain policy and smartcard based authentication
C. A hardened bastion host with a permit all policy implemented in a software firewall
D. Solaris 10 with trusted extensions or SE Linux with a trusted policy

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
After implementing port security, restricting all network traffic into and out of a network, migrating to IPv6, installing NIDS, firewalls, spam and application filters, a security administer is convinced that the network is secure. The administrator now focuses on securing the hosts on the network, starting with the servers.
Which of the following is the MOST complete list of end-point security software the administrator could plan to implement?
A. Anti-malware/virus/spyware/spam software, as well as a host based firewall and strong, two- factor authentication.
B. Anti-virus/spyware/spam software, as well as a host based IDS, firewall, and strong three- factor authentication.
C. Anti-malware/virus/spyware/spam software, as well as a host based firewall and biometric authentication.
D. Anti-malware/spam software, as well as a host based firewall and strong, three-factor authentication.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
A security architect is assigned to a major software development project. The software development team has a history of writing bug prone, inefficient code, with multiple security flaws in every release. The security architect proposes implementing secure coding standards to the project manager. The secure coding standards will contain detailed standards for:
A. error handling, input validation, memory use and reuse, race condition handling, commenting, and preventing typical security problems.
B. error prevention, requirements validation, memory use and reuse, commenting typical security problems, and testing code standards.
C. error elimination, trash collection, documenting race conditions, peer review, and typical security problems.
D. error handling, input validation, commenting, preventing typical security problems, managing customers, and documenting extra requirements.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
A number of security incidents have been reported involving mobile web-based code developed by a consulting company. Performing a root cause analysis, the security administrator of the consulting company discovers that the problem is a simple programming error that results in extra information being loaded into the memory when the proper format is selected by the user. After repeating the process several times, the security administrator is able to execute unintentional instructions through this method. Which of the following BEST describes the problem that is occurring, a good mitigation technique to use to prevent future occurrences, and why it a security concern?
A. Problem: Cross-site scripting Mitigation Technique. Input validation Security Concern: Decreases the company’s profits and cross-site scripting can enable malicious actors to compromise the confidentiality of network connections or interrupt the availability of the network.
B. Problem: Buffer overflow Mitigation Technique: Secure coding standards Security Concern: Exposes the company to liability buffer overflows and can enable malicious actors to compromise the confidentiality/availability of the data.
C. Problem: SQL injection Mitigation Technique: Secure coding standards Security Concern: Exposes the company to liability SQL injection and can enable malicious actors to compromise the confidentiality of data or interrupt the availability of a system.
D. Problem: Buffer overflow Mitigation Technique: Output validation Security Concern: Exposing the company to public scrutiny buffer overflows can enable malicious actors to interrupt the availability of a system.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 39
A security administrator has been conducting a security assessment of Company XYZ for the past two weeks. All of the penetration tests and other assessments have revealed zero flaws in the systems at Company XYZ. However, Company XYZ reports that it has been the victim of numerous security incidents in the past six months. In each of these incidents, the criminals have managed to exfiltrate large volumes of data from the secure servers at the company. Which of the following techniques should the investigation team consider in the next phase of their assessment in hopes of uncovering the attack vector the criminals used?
A. Vulnerability assessment
B. Code review
C. Social engineering
D. Reverse engineering

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
A security manager at Company ABC, needs to perform a risk assessment of a new mobile device which the Chief Information Officer (CIO) wants to immediately deploy to all employees in the company. The product is commercially available, runs a popular mobile operating system, and can connect to IPv6 networks wirelessly. The model the CIO wants to procure also includes the upgraded 160GB solid state hard drive. The producer of the device will not reveal exact numbers but experts estimate that over 73 million of the devices have been sold worldwide. Which of the following is the BEST list of factors the security manager should consider while performing a risk assessment?
A. Ability to remotely wipe the devices, apply security controls remotely, and encrypt the SSD; the track record of the vendor in publicizing and correcting security flaws in their products; predicted costs associated with maintaining, integrating and securing the devices.
B. Ability to remotely administer the devices, apply security controls remotely, and remove the SSD; the track record of the vendor in securely implementing IPv6 with IPSec; predicted costs associated with securing the devices.
C. Ability to remotely monitor the devices, remove security controls remotely, and decrypt the SSD; the track record of the vendor in publicizing and preventing security flaws in their products; predicted costs associated with maintaining, destroying and tracking the devices.
D. Ability to remotely sanitize the devices, apply security controls locally, encrypt the SSD; the track record of the vendor in adapting the open source operating system to their platform; predicted costs associated with inventory management, maintaining, integrating and securing the devices.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
A newly-appointed risk management director for the IT department at Company XYZ, a major pharmaceutical manufacturer, needs to conduct a risk analysis regarding a new system which the developers plan to bring on-line in three weeks. The director begins by reviewing the thorough and well-written report from the independent contractor who performed a security assessment of the system. The report details what seems to be a manageable volume of infrequently exploited security vulnerabilities. The likelihood of a malicious attacker exploiting one of the vulnerabilities is low; however, the director still has some reservations about approving the system because of which of the following?
A. The resulting impact of even one attack being realized might cripple the company financially.
B. Government health care regulations for the pharmaceutical industry prevent the director from approving a system with vulnerabilities.
C. The director is new and is being rushed to approve a project before an adequate assessment has been performed.
D. The director should be uncomfortable accepting any security vulnerabilities and should find time to correct them before the system is deployed.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
A small company has a network with 37 workstations, 3 printers, a 48 port switch, an enterprise class router, and a firewall at the boundary to the ISP. The workstations have the latest patches and all have up-to-date anti-virus software. User authentication is a two-factor system with fingerprint scanners and passwords. Sensitive data on each workstation is encrypted. The network is configured to use IPv4 and is a standard Ethernet network. The network also has a captive portal based wireless hot-spot to accommodate visitors. Which of the following is a problem with the security posture of this company?
A. No effective controls in place
B. No transport security controls are implemented
C. Insufficient user authentication controls are implemented
D. IPv6 is not incorporated in the network
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
Statement: “The system shall implement measures to notify system administrators prior to a security incident occurring.”
Which of the following BEST restates the above statement to allow it to be implemented by a team of software developers?
A. The system shall cease processing data when certain configurable events occur.
B. The system shall continue processing in the event of an error and email the security administrator the error logs.
C. The system shall halt on error.
D. The system shall throw an error when specified incidents pass a configurable threshold.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
A corporate executive lost their smartphone while on an overseas business trip. The phone was equipped with file encryption and secured with a strong passphrase. The phone contained over 60GB of proprietary data. Given this scenario, which of the following is the BEST course of action?
A. File an insurance claim and assure the executive the data is secure because it is encrypted.
B. Immediately implement a plan to remotely wipe all data from the device.
C. Have the executive change all passwords and issue the executive a new phone.
D. Execute a plan to remotely disable the device and report the loss to the police.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
A user logs into domain A using a PKI certificate on a smartcard protected by an 8 digit PIN. The credential is cached by the authenticating server in domain A. Later, the user attempts to access a resource in domain B. This initiates a request to the original authenticating server to somehow attest to the resource server in the second domain that the user is in fact who they claim to be.
Which of the following is being described?
A. Authentication
B. Authorization
C. SAML
D. Kerberos

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
A certain script was recently altered by the author to meet certain security requirements, and needs to be executed on several critical servers. Which of the following describes the process of ensuring that the script being used was not altered by anyone other than the author?
A. Digital encryption
B. Digital signing
C. Password entropy
D. Code signing

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 47
A company has asked their network engineer to list the major advantages for implementing a virtual environment in regards to cost. Which of the following would MOST likely be selected?
A. Ease of patch testing
B. Reducing physical footprint
C. Reduced network traffic
D. Isolation of applications

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
The security administrator has been tasked with providing a solution that would not only eliminate the need for physical desktops, but would also centralize the location of all desktop applications, without losing physical control of any network devices. Which of the following would the security manager MOST likely implement?
A. VLANs
B. VDI
C. PaaS
D. IaaS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
A company has decided to relocate and the security manager has been tasked to perform a site survey of the new location to help in the design of the physical infrastructure. The current location has video surveillance throughout the building and entryways.
The following requirements must be met:
Able to log entry of all employees in and out of specific areas

Access control into and out of all sensitive areas

Tailgating prevention
Which of the following would MOST likely be implemented to meet the above requirements and provide a secure solution? (Select TWO).
A. Discretionary Access control
B. Man trap
C. Visitor logs
D. Proximity readers
E. Motion detection sensors

Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 31
Neil works as a project manager for SoftTech Inc. He is working with Tom, the COO of his company, on several risks within the project. Tom understands that through qualitative analysis Neil has identified many risks in the project. Tom’s concern, however, is that the priority list of these risk events are sorted in “high-risk,” “moderate-risk,” and “low-risk” as conditions apply within the project. Tom wants to know that is there any other objective on which Neil can make the priority list for project risks. What will be Neil’s reply to Tom?
A. Risk may be listed by the responses inthe near-term
B. Risks may be listed by categories
C. Risks may be listed by the additional analysis and response
D. Risks may be listed by priority separately for schedule, cost, and performance
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
In which type of access control do user ID and password system come under?
A. Administrative
B. Technical
C. Power
D. Physical

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
You and your project team are identifying the risks that may exist within your project. Some of the risks are small risks that won’t affect your project much if they happen. What should you do with these identified risk events?
A. These risks can be accepted.
B. These risks can be added to a low priority risk watch list.
C. All risks must have a valid, documented risk response.
D. These risks can be dismissed.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
Your project uses a piece of equipment that if the temperature of the machine goes above 450 degree Fahrenheit the machine will overheat and have to be shut down for 48 hours. Should this machine overheat even once it will delay the project’s end date. You work with your project to create a response that should the temperature of the machine reach 430, the machine will be paused for at least an hour to cool it down. The temperature of 430 is called what?
A. Risk identification
B. Risk response
C. Risk trigger
D. Risk event

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35
Adrian is the project manager of the NHP Project. In her project there are several work packages that deal with electrical wiring. Rather than to manage the risk internally she has decided to hire a vendor to complete all work packages that deal with the electrical wiring. By removing the risk internally to a licensed electrician Adrian feels more comfortable with project team being safe. What type of risk response has Adrian used in this example?
A. Mitigation
B. Transference
C. Avoidance
D. Acceptance

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
James work as an IT systems personnel in SoftTech Inc. He performs the following tasks:
Runs regular backups and routine tests of the validity of the backup data. Performs data restoration from
the backups whenever required. Maintains the retained records in accordance with the established
information classification policy.
What is the role played by James in the organization?

A. Manager
B. User
C. Owner
D. Custodian

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Which of the following is an entry in an object’s discretionary access control list (DACL) that grants permissions to a user or group?
A. Access control entry (ACE)
B. Discretionary access control entry (DACE)
C. Access control list (ACL)
D. Security Identifier (SID)

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
You are the project manager for your organization. You have identified a risk event you’re your organization could manage internally or externally. If you manage the event internally it will cost your project $578,000 and an additional $12,000 per month the solution is in use. A vendor can manage the risk event for you. The vendor will charge $550,000 and $14,500 per month that the solution is in use. How many months will you need to use the solution to pay for the internal solution in comparison to the vendor’s solution?
A. Approximately 13 months
B. Approximately 11 months
C. Approximately 15 months
D. Approximately 8 months

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Which of the following refers to the ability to ensure that the data is not modified or tampered with?
A. Confidentiality
B. Availability
C. Integrity
D. Non-repudiation

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Management wants you to create a visual diagram of what resources will be utilized in the project deliverables. What type of a chart is management asking you to create?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Resource breakdown structure
C. RACI chart
D. Roles and responsibility matrix

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
You are preparing to start the qualitative risk analysis process for your project. You will be relying on some organizational process assets to influence the process. Which one of the following is NOT a probable reason for relying on organizational process assets as an input for qualitative risk analysis?
A. Information on prior, similar projects
B. Review of vendor contracts to examine risks in past projects
C. Risk databases that may be available from industry sources
D. Studies of similar projects by risk specialists
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
System Authorization is the risk management process. System Authorization Plan (SAP) is a
comprehensive and uniform approach to the System Authorization Process. What are the different phases
of System Authorization Plan?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Pre-certification
B. Certification
C. Post-certification
D. Authorization
E. Post-Authorization

Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 43
A part of a project deals with the hardware work. As a project manager, you have decided to hire a company to deal with all hardware work on the project. Which type of risk response is this?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Exploit
D. Transference

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Risks with low ratings of probability and impact are included on a ____ for future monitoring.
A. Watchlist
B. Risk alarm
C. Observation list
D. Risk register

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 45
Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system, network, or Web
application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Which of the following areas can be
exploited in a penetration test?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Social engineering
B. File and directory permissions
C. Buffer overflows
D. Kernel flaws
E. Race conditions
F. Information system architectures
G. Trojan horses

Correct Answer: ABCDEG

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QUESTION 21
One class B network 155. 16. 0. 0, the mask is 255. 255. 255. 192. Then subnet quantity available is ( ) , the host quantity in every subnet at most is ( )
A. 512 126
B. 1024 64
C. 1024 62
D. 256 254
E. 192 254
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
For network segment 192.168.2.16/28, how many hosts it can hold at most?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 15
D. 14
E. 7
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
The IP address 0. 0. 0.0 indicates ( ).
A. Network address
B. Broadcast address of specially designated network segment
C. All networks
D. Broadcast address of all nodes of local network segment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
What is the network address for 190. 233. 27. 13/16?
A. 190. 0. 0. 0
B. 190. 233. 0. 0
C. 190. 233. 27. 0
D. 190. 233. 27. 1
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Which of the following address types are reserved for multicast use?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class E
D. Class D
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 26
Which is the default network mask length of 219.25.23.56?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24

D. 32
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 27
What is the maximum bits of a Class B address can be used for subnet ?
A. 8
B. 14
C. 16

D. 22
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
The subnet mask of a class a address is 250. 205. 240. 0, how many bits are used to divide subnet?
A. 4
B. 0
C. 9

D. 12
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 29
Which of the following statements are correct regarding OSPF Router LSA ?
A. Every router running OSPF must generate Router LSA.
B. In broadcast and NBMA network, only DR0ther generates Router LSA
C. Router LSA describes link states of the router in area.
D. Router LSA is flooded in the whole AS.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 30
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Network LSA in OSPF network?
A. Network LSA is generated by ABR.
B. Only the router which connects NBMA or Broadcast Network may generate Network LSA.
C. DR uses Network LSA to describe routers that have established adjacency relation with it in the network.
D. Network LSA is flooded in the whole AS.

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 31
Which type of LSA is only used to calculate external route?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
E. Type 5

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 32
Which of the followings are OSPF packet type ?
A. LSA
B. LS Request

C. LSP
D. LS Update
E. LS Ack
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 33
Which of the following elements together uniquely identify a LSA?
A. LS type
B. Link state ID
C. Advertising Router
D. LS Sequence number

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 34
Which of the following statements are correct regarding how OSPF detects old and duplicate LSAs?
A. The smaller the sequence number, the more recent the LSA.
B. The smaller the LS age, the more recent the LSA.
C. When router generates a new LSA at the first time, it will use Ox80000001 as the sequence number.
D. An LSA can be flushed from routing domain by setting its LSA age to \4axage.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 35
Which of the following statements are correct regarding intra-area route calculation of OSPF?
A. Every OSPF router only uses one Router LSA to describe local active link state for one area.
B. Every OSPF uses more than one Router LSA to describe local active link state for one area.
C. One Router LSA only describes one link.
D. One Router LSA describes more than one link.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 36
In OSPF, the process of calculating shortest path tree can be divided into two phases, calculate Transit
node first,
then calculate Stub network.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 37
In the process of calculating SPF tree, the cost from a node to root node equals to metric listed in the Router LSA generated by the node.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38
In OSPF protocol, which of the following elements are used to describe one link?
A. Link ID
B. Data
C. Type
D. Metric

Correct Answer: ABCD QUESTION 39
OSPF uses SPF algorithm to calculate SPF tree according to topology. What is the node of the SPF tree?
A. Router
B. Router and network segment
C. Port and network segment
D. Router and port

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 40
In OSPF protocol, which of the following elements are used by Network LSA to describe broadcast network segment or NBMA network segment?
A. Link ID
B. Net mask
C. Attached Router list
D. Metric

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 41
Which of the connection types that Router LSA can describe?
A. Point-to-point
B. Stub
C. Transit
D. Virtual link Correct Answer: ABCD

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Question No : 46 – (Topic 1)
Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs process?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk register

Answer: C
Question No : 47 – (Topic 1)
An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
A. Organizational process assets.
B. Enterprise environmental factors updates.
C. Project staff assignments.
D. Organizational charts and position descriptions.

Answer: B
Question No : 48 – (Topic 1)
The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is known as:
A. Plan Human Resource Management.
B. Acquire Project Team.
C. Manage Project Team.
D. Develop Project Team.

Answer: B
Question No : 49 – (Topic 1)
Which item is an example of personnel assessment?
A. Resource calendar
B. Tight matrix
C. Team-building activity
D. Focus group

Answer: D
Question No : 50 – (Topic 1)
The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Initiating
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling

Answer: C
Question No : 51 – (Topic 1)
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project?
A. Feedback analysis
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Communication management plan
D. Stakeholder management plan

Answer: D Question No : 52 – (Topic 1)
A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as:
A. Benchmarking.
B. Context diagrams.
C. Brainstorming.
D. Prototyping.

Answer: D
Question No : 53 – (Topic 1)
Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?
A. Power/influence grid
B. Power/interest grid
C. Influence/impact grid
D. Salience model

Answer: A
Question No : 54 – (Topic 1)
Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?
A. Facilitation techniques
B. Expert judgment
C. Analytical techniques
D. Variance analysis

Answer: C Question No : 55 – (Topic 1)
Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?
A. Control charts
B. Pareto diagrams
C. Ishikavva diagrams
D. Checksheets

Answer: D
Question No : 56 – (Topic 1)
The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:
A. Collect Requirements.
B. Conduct Procurements.
C. Estimate Activity Durations.
D. Estimate Activity Resources.

Answer: D
Question No : 57 – (Topic 1)
Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?
A. Procurement documents
B. Communications plan
C. Project charter
D. Stakeholder register

Answer: C
Question No : 58 – (Topic 1)
The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Executing

Answer: A
Question No : 59 – (Topic 1)
An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:
A. Business case.
B. Activity list.
C. Project management plan.
D. Cost forecast.

Answer: A
Question No : 60 – (Topic 1)
Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?
A. Change request
B. Requirements documentation
C. Scope baseline
D. Risk urgency assessment

Answer: A

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QUESTION 57
You are configuring NFS export settings for a share point that resides on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer. What does the “All to Nobody” mapping do?
A. It prohibits export of items and contents to users.
B. It creates the group, “Nobody”, that will be used for NFS access.
C. It tells the NFS server to identify all users by their client settings.
D. It provides all NFS users with the same file privileges as the “nobody” account.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
You have configured the folder at /Shared Items/Documents/ as an NFS share point on your Mac OS X Server at server.pretendco.com. Which URL should you provide to Mac OS X users to allow them to access the share point?
A. nfs://server.pretendco.com/
B. nfs://documents.server.pretendco.com/
C. nfs://server.pretendco.com/Documents/
D. nfs://server.pretendco.com/Shared Items/Documents/

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
Which three actions can the FTP service in Mac OS X Server perform on requested files, before
transferring them?
Choose three – partial credit is possible.

A. Decrypt requested files
B. Encrypt requested files
C. Archive requested files
D. Compress requested files
E. Convert requested files to PDF
F. Encode requested files as MacBinary

Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 60
Using Server Admin in Mac OS X Server, which two options can be set for the FTP service? Choose two – partial credit is possible.
A. Enable anonymous access
B. Disable passive mode transfers
C. Maximum number of downloadable files per session
D. Maximum number of simultaneous authenticated users
E. Allow Challenge-Response Authentication Mechanism-MD5 (CRAM-MD5)

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 61
What protocol does Mac OS X Server v10.6 use to send email between mail servers?
A. POP
B. IMAP
C. MAPI
D. SMTP
E. XMPP

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
What protocol does the Mail application in Mac OS X v10.6 use to send email from a client computer to a mail server for delivery?
A. POP
B. IMAP
C. LDAP
D. SMTP
E. XMPP

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 63
You have set up multiple mail servers to receive email for your company. Which DNS record specifies the hostname of the mail server whose availability should be checked first when mail is being routed to an employee?
A. The A record with the priority number that is lowest
B. The A record with the priority number that is highest
C. The MX record with the priority number that is lowest
D. The MX record with the priority number that is highest
E. The PTR record with the priority number that is lowest
F. The PTR record with the priority number that is highest
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
Which of these is a blacklist server?
A. A server that provides a list of known open relay servers
B. A server that blocks outgoing email to specified domains
C. A server that sends mail to a large recipient group simultaneously
D. A server that allows anyone to send email through it without authenticating
E. A server that provides a list of email addresses that are known sources of spam
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
Which tactic will reduce the disk space required by mail service in Mac OS X Server v10.6?
A. Enable the mail service option to compress all incoming file attachments.
B. Set a mail quota to limit the amount of mail stored for each user account.
C. Set an alternate mail store location on a striped and mirrored RAID partition.
D. Enable the “Archive mail database” option for the mail service in Server Admin.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 66
You are configuring users’ mail accounts in Workgroup Manager. Which option can you define for each user?
A. mail filter type
B. mail quota size
C. mail workgroup name
D. protocol each account will use to send mail to the server

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
Using Server Admin you can configure a Mac OS X Server computer to send you an email notification when certain conditions occur. Which condition can trigger an email notification?
A. A software update is available for the server.
B. A user exceeds his or her assigned disk quota.
C. The number of users exceeds a specified limit.
D. The number of files on the server exceeds a specified limit.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 68
You have set up a Mac OS X Server computer to serve mail for a department at PretendCo. Because of security concerns, you want to make sure that your mail server only accepts mail from other mail servers on PretendCos network, which uses IP addresses 10.1.0.0 through 10.1.255.255. Which entry could you add to the list of addresses from which your server will accept relays?
A. 10.1.0.0/8
B. 10.1.0.0/16
C. 10.1.0.0/24
D. 10.1.0.0/32

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
You want to restrict access to certain pages of a website to a specific group of users. How do you password protect just a portion of your website?
A. Create a realm for the folder where the protected pages reside.
B. Assign sole ownership permissions of the website’s Documents folder to the user “www”.
C. Using Server Admin, create a second website that uses port 8080. Set the “Web Folder” setting for the new website to point to the folder of restricted content.
D. Create a group with the specified users, then set the permissions for the folder containing the protected content so that its “Group” is this new group, and “Everyone” has no access.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 70
You have set up a website for your users on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer. To prevent others from logging into the server and accessing the website files in the Finder, you changed the Everyone permissions for all of the website files to None, made yourself the owner of the website files, and assigned group ownership of the website files to a group containing only your account. Now when users try to access the website via a browser they see an “Access forbidden!” message. Which group should have been given read access to prevent this error?
A. admin
B. root
C. staff
D. wheel
E. _www

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 71
Which statement about WebDAV is true?
A. You enable WebDAV for each website individually.
B. The URL to access a WebDAV server begins with “wdav://”.
C. You define the size of a WebDAV volume using Server Admin.
D. You can only connect to a WebDAV server using a web browser.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 72
Which two logs does the Mac OS X Server web service keep by default? Choose two.
A. Hits
B. Error
C. Access
D. Request
E. Throughput

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 73
You are managing the web service on a Mac OS X Server computer. The first website on the server is
configured as the default website. You want to add a second website with the address web.example.com,
which will publish documents stored in the WebDocs folder. You have created a DNS record for
web.example.com. What three additional steps must you complete in Server Admin in order to publish the
documents on the new website?
Choose three.

A. Enable proxy caching.
B. Add a new site from the Sites pane.
C. Create a realm for the WebDocs folder.
D. Select the WebDocs folder as the site’s web folder.
E. Change the new website’s Domain Name field to web.example.com.
F. Add a new realm to define browsing/authoring permissions for web.example.com.

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 74
You are hosting the website www.pretendco.com on a Mac OS X Server computer. You have also configured a share point on Data, another volume on the server, to host networked home folders. A user with the short name alexander would like to access a website stored in his home folder on the server. What URL should he use?
A. http://www.pretendco.com/~alexander
B. http://www.pretendco.com/Users/alexander
C. http://www.pretendco.com/Data/Users/alexander
D. http://www.pretendco.com/Volumes/Data/Users/alexander

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 75
Which statement best describes the wiki in Mac OS X Server v10.6?
A. A wiki is a website that is configured to provide access to mail accounts.
B. A wiki is a series of date-stamped and chronologically-ordered entries on a website hosted by Mac OS X Server v10.6.
C. A wiki is a folder on a website hosted by Mac OS X Server v10.6, with permissions that restrict access to the files it contains.
D. A wiki is a collection of web pages that can be edited in a web browser; the web pages allow members of a group to share information.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 76
Which statement about setting up a wiki on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer is true?
A. To allow a user to create a wiki, select the “Web Services” option in the Advanced pane for the user account in Workgroup Manager.
B. To enable a website on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer to host wikis, enable the wikiblog_module for the web service in Server Admin.
C. To allow members of a group to create a wiki, select the “Web Services” option in the Advanced pane for the group account in Workgroup Manager.
D. To enable a website on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer to host wikis, select the Wikis option in the Web Services pane for the website in Server Admin.
E. To enable all websites on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer to host wikis, enable the “Wikis and blogs” option in Web Services for the Settings pane for the web service in Server Admin.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 77
Which protocol do clients of the iCal service in Mac OS X Server v10.6 use to access calendar files on the server?
A. AFP
B. FTP
C. NFS
D. SMB
E. HTTP

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 78
Which utility should you use on a Mac OS X v10.6 computer to create resources, such as rooms and projectors, in an LDAP directory so that those resources can be scheduled by iCal service users?
A. Directory
B. Address Book
C. Directory Utility
D. iCal Server Utility

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 79
What is the purpose of the federation feature in the Mac OS X Server v10.6 iChat service?
A. To allow admin users to send instant messages to all members of a given group
B. To allow iChat service users to chat with users of other instant messaging services
C. To automatically add all members of a group to the iChat buddies list for each group member
D. To allow users from different directory servers, including Active Directory, to use the iChat service

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 80
How do you configure the iChat service hosted on a Mac OS X Server v10.6 computer to allow only the members of a specific group account to use the iChat service?
A. In Workgroup Manager, select the group account, and turn on the iChat Account option in the Advanced pane.
B. In Server Admin, in the Settings pane of the iChat service for the server, add the allowed group account to the Allow Access list.
C. In Workgroup Manager, select all of the allowed user accounts in the group, and turn on the iChat Account option in the Advanced pane.
D. In Server Admin, in the Services pane of the Access section for the server, select the iChat service, and add a group that contains all of the allowed users to the “Allow only users and groups below” list.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 81

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QUESTION 109
You are configuring a VLAN and the switch you are using requires that you do so within the VLAN database. Which command allows you to enter the VLAN database?
A. Switch#vlan database
B. Switch (config)# vlan database
C. Switch (config-if)# vlan database
D. Switch (vlan)# vlan database

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing repeater topology? (Choose two.)
A. RF overlap between access points should be 10 to 15 percent with unique channels configured.
B. RF overlap between primary and repeater access points should be 10 to 15 percent with the same channel configured.
C. RF overlap between primary and repeater access points should be 50 percent with the same channel configured
D. RF overlap between primary and repeater access points should be 50 percent with unique channels configured.
E. Clients that are associated with the repeater access point will have 10 to 15 percent less data throughput than clients that are associated with the primary root access point.
F. Clients that are associated with the repeater access point will have 50 percent less data throughput than clients that are associated with the primary root access point
Correct Answer: CF Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
:Refer to the exhibit. The Cisco Aironet 802.1 la/b/g Wireless LAN Client Adapter has two LEDs. Which two LED states indicate that the card is associated to an access point and is working properly? (Choose two.)

A. green LED off; amber LED solid
B. green LED off; amber LED blinking sporadically
C. green LED blinking quickly: amber LED blinking quickly
D. green LED blinking slowly, amber LED blinking slowly
E. green LED blinking slowly; amber LED blinking quickly

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 112
Refer to the exhibit. The tables contain information from the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager configuration of Router A and Router B. Traffic between Host 1 and Host 2 is not successfully establishing the sitE.to-site VPN between Router A and Router B. What is the mostly likely cause of this fault?

A. The IPSec and IKE encryption methods do not match. They all have to be either 3DES or AES.
B. Router A is using a standard IP ACL (100-149) while Router B is using a turbo ACL (150-199).
C. The D.H Group settings on the two routers are set to group 2. They must be set to group 1 for SHA. 1.
D. The IPSec policy map names on the two routers do not match. They must be the same on both routers.
E. The IPSec rules on the two routers are not permitting the correct interesting traffic

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
OSPF routes are being redistributed into EIGRP but they are not showing up in the routing table. What are two possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. CEF has not been enabled.
B. Synchronization has been turned off.
C. incorrect distribute lists have been configured
D. No default metric has been configured for EIGRP
E. Theip classless command is missing.
F. There are mismatched autonomous system numbers.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
Which two statements best describe the wireless implementation of Cisco Aironet root and non- root bridging? (Choose two.)
A. Point-to-point access points can be used if one is root and the other is non-root.
B. WGB can be used with an access point if the distance is less than one mile
C. Root mode must be enabled only on one side in a point-to-point link to intemperate with other vendors and comply with 802.11
D. Up to 17 non-root bridges can associate to a root bridge
E. Point-to-point WGB can be used if total number of PCs is fewer than eight. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 is the BDR

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
The customer wants to implement wireless security through implementation of WPAv2. Which component of WPAv2 would limit the rollout because of the continued use of old access points?
A. 48-bit IV
B. AES
C. TKIP
D. MIC

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 116
A company needs to provide sitE.to-site VPN, remote access VPN, and firewall protection. Which device best supports all three functions?
A. Cisco PIX
B. Cisco ASA
C. Cisco Concentrator
D. Cisco Router and Security Device Manager

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
Refer to the exhibit. R2 is always in the init state. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. R2 is seeing hello packets from R1.
B. R2 is not seeing hello packets from R1.
C. The exchanging of data between R1 and R2 is occurring because each is sending hello packets.
D. Two-way communication has not been established between R1 and R2 because R2 is not seeing its router ID in the hello packets that it is receiving from R1
E. R2 has an access list defined for SO that is blocking an OSPF multicast IP address of 224.0.0.5.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
Which two features are only supported when using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) Advanced Firewall wizard and not supported when using the Cisco SDM Basic Firewall wizard? (Choose two.)
A. deep-packet inspections
B. IP unicast Reverse Path Forwarding on the outside (untrusted) interface
C. DMZ services
D. Custom inspection rules
E. proxy authentication

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 119
:When troubleshooting poor network performance, which two symptoms would typically be associated with a network layer problem? (Choose two.)
A. Packet loss is more than 30 percent
B. There is excessive broadcast traffic.
C. There are excessive CRC errors.
D. Pings succeed only part of the time
E. Slips are detected on WAN interfaces.
F. ARP requests are timing out.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
Which command can be used to verify that RIPv2 is running on a router?
A. show startup-config
B. show ip route
C. showip route rip
D. Show ip protocols

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router.
B. Layer 2 services can be configured in a Cisco Aironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router
C. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or controllers.
D. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSM.
E. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSE.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 122
You have just configured and enabled the Cisco IOS Firewall feature set from a remote location using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) Firewall wizard. You later want to doublE. check your configuration using Cisco SDM. However, you find that you can no longer connect to the Cisco IOS Firewall using Cisco SDM.
What is the probable cause of this failure?
A. You must additionally specify the Cisco SDM management port number to gain access when the configuration has been applied.
B. You have not generated an RSA key pair between the host and device to allow secure access via Cisco SDM.
C. You have been locked out via access lists mat nave been applied to the router as a result of your Cisco SDM configuration.
D. You must specify the host IP address of Cisco SDM in the Configuration panel for allowed management connections.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 123
An 802.11 b telephone is receiving an audio signal from an access point, but cannot send audio. What is a possible cause?
A. the RSSI value on the telephone is greater than 35.
B. The access point is set to receive only at 802.11g data rates.
C. The security settings in the telephone do not match the settings in the access point.
D. The transmit power in the telephone is significantly lower than the transmit power in the access point.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Refer to the exhibit. A host on the Sales subnet (10.0.2.0/24) is not able to initiate a web connection to an outside website. According to the network diagram and partial Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager configuration shown in the exhibit, what is the cause of the problem?

A. The dynamic NAT global pool is not configured correctly.
B. The source networks for static NAT are not configured correctly.
C. The administrator has not added an access list to allow the connection.
D. The source network for dynamic NAT is not configured correctly

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
Users logging into Cisco Router and Security Device Manager should be authenticated using the Cisco ISR local user database. Currently, none of the users can access Cisco Router and Security Device Manager via HTTP. You should check the configuration of which command or commands when attempting to resolve this problem?
A. There is no ip http secure-server
B. There is ip http authentication local
C. There is linevty 0 5 login local
D. There isaaa new-model

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
When using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager to configure AAA login authentication policies, which four methods are available? (Choose four.)
A. group RADIUS: use a list of RADIUS hosts
B. group TACACS+ use a list of TACACS+ hosts
C. enable: use enable password
D. otp: use onE.time password
E. local use local database
F. default: use line password

Correct Answer: ABCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
You have just configured HSRP and need to determine which router is active. Which command should you enter?
A. show ip hsrp active
B. show standby active
C. show star
D. show active

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 128
A North American customer is using 2.4-GHz radios in a point-to-point configuration. The radio power level is 17 dBm and is transmitting at 11 Mbps. The customer is using 21.5-dBi dish antennas and 50 feet of cabling, with a loss of 8.4 dB per 100 feet. The customer increased the distance between the transmitter stations and began experiencing link problems.
Without using a professional installer, which step should the customer take to fix the situation?
A. Use a cable with a lower loss.
B. Upgrade to an 802.11a radio.
C. Install a higher gain antenna.
D. Increase the transmitter power.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
A user is unable to connect to the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager via HTTPS. Which two of these might have caused this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Theip https server command is missing from the running configuration.
B. The ip http securE.server command is missing from the running configuration
C. The user is trying to launch Cisco Router and Security Device Manager from the inside (secured) interface with a firewall enabled.
D. The user has a privilege level lower than 15.
E. The browser security level is set too high.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two.)
A. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is configured via the infrastructure access point GUI.
B. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is automatically discovered by the infrastructure access points through multicast
C. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest MAC address, followed by priority number.
D. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest priority number followed by MAC address.
E. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest IP address, followed by MAC address.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 131
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between Router A and Router B. Given the debug output on Router A, which two statements are true? (Choose two.) Router A= debug eigrp packets . m .
01:39:13:
EIGRP: Received HELLO on SerialQ 0 nbr 10.1.2.2

01:39:13:
AS 100, Flags 0x0, Seq 0/0 idbQ 00 iidbQ un/rely 0/0 peerQ un/rely 0/0

01:39:13:
K-value mismatch

A.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.

B.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.

C.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.

D.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatchedmetriC.calculation mechanisms

E.
Router A will form an adjacency with Router B.

F.
Router A will not form an adjacency with Router B

Correct Answer: DF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 113
OSPF routes are being redistributed into EIGRP but they are not showing up in the routing table. What are two possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. CEF has not been enabled.
B. Synchronization has been turned off.
C. incorrect distribute lists have been configured
D. No default metric has been configured for EIGRP
E. Theip classless command is missing.
F. There are mismatched autonomous system numbers.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
Which two statements best describe the wireless implementation of Cisco Aironet root and non- root bridging? (Choose two.)
A. Point-to-point access points can be used if one is root and the other is non-root.
B. WGB can be used with an access point if the distance is less than one mile
C. Root mode must be enabled only on one side in a point-to-point link to intemperate with other vendors and comply with 802.11
D. Up to 17 non-root bridges can associate to a root bridge
E. Point-to-point WGB can be used if total number of PCs is fewer than eight. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 is the BDR

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
CORRECT TEXT
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: : about what is displayed? (Choose two.) Answer: C, D
QUESTION 116
The customer wants to implement wireless security through implementation of WPAv2. Which component of WPAv2 would limit the rollout because of the continued use of old access points?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 43 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
A. 48-bit IV
B. AES
C. TKIP
D. MIC

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
A company needs to provide sitE.to-site VPN, remote access VPN, and firewall protection. Which device best supports all three functions?
A. Cisco PIX
B. Cisco ASA
C. Cisco Concentrator
D. Cisco Router and Security Device Manager

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
CORRECT TEXT
Which two statements are
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: : about using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) to configure the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose two.) Answer: B, E
QUESTION 119
Refer to the exhibit. R2 is always in the init state. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. R2 is seeing hello packets from R1.
B. R2 is not seeing hello packets from R1. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 44 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
C. The exchanging of data between R1 and R2 is occurring because each is sending hello packets.
D. Two-way communication has not been established between R1 and R2 because R2 is not seeing its router ID in the hello packets that it is receiving from R1
E. R2 has an access list defined for SO that is blocking an OSPF multicast IP address of 224.0.0.5.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 120
Which two features are only supported when using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) Advanced Firewall wizard and not supported when using the Cisco SDM Basic Firewall wizard? (Choose two.)
A. deep-packet inspections
B. IP unicast Reverse Path Forwarding on the outside (untrusted) interface
C. DMZ services
D. Custom inspection rules
E. proxy authentication

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
:When troubleshooting poor network performance, which two symptoms would typically be associated with a network layer problem? (Choose two.)
A. Packet loss is more than 30 percent
B. There is excessive broadcast traffic.
C. There are excessive CRC errors.
D. Pings succeed only part of the time
E. Slips are detected on WAN interfaces.
F. ARP requests are timing out.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 122
Which command can be used to verify that RIPv2 is running on a router?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 45 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
A. show startup-config
B. show ip route
C. showip route rip
D. Show ip protocols

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 123
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router.
B. Layer 2 services can be configured in a Cisco Aironet autonomous AP or a Cisco Integrated Services Router
C. Layer 2 and Layer 3 services can be configured in a CiscoAironet autonomous AP or controllers.
D. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSM.
E. Layer 3 services can be configured in WLSE.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
You have just configured and enabled the Cisco IOS Firewall feature set from a remote location using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) Firewall wizard. You later want to doublE. check your configuration using Cisco SDM. However, you find that you can no longer connect to the Cisco IOS Firewall using Cisco SDM.
What is the probable cause of this failure?
A. You must additionally specify the Cisco SDM management port number to gain access when the configuration has been applied.
B. You have not generated an RSA key pair between the host and device to allow secure access via Cisco SDM.
C. You have been locked out via access lists mat nave been applied to the router as a result of your Cisco SDM configuration.
D. You must specify the host IP address of Cisco SDM in the Configuration panel for allowed management connections. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 46 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
An 802.11 b telephone is receiving an audio signal from an access point, but cannot send audio. What is a possible cause?
A. the RSSI value on the telephone is greater than 35.
B. The access point is set to receive only at 802.11g data rates.
C. The security settings in the telephone do not match the settings in the access point.
D. The transmit power in the telephone is significantly lower than the transmit power in the access point.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
Refer to the exhibit. A host on the Sales subnet (10.0.2.0/24) is not able to initiate a web connection to an outside website. According to the network diagram and partial Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager configuration shown in the exhibit, what is the cause of the problem?
A. The dynamic NAT global pool is not configured correctly.
B. The source networks for static NAT are not configured correctly.
C. The administrator has not added an access list to allow the connection.
D. The source network for dynamic NAT is not configured correctly

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
Users logging into Cisco Router and Security Device Manager should be authenticated using the Cisco ISR local user database. Currently, none of the users can access Cisco Router and Security Device Manager via HTTP. You should check the configuration of which command or commands when attempting to resolve this problem?
A. There is no ip http secure-server
B. There is ip http authentication local
C. There is linevty 0 5 login local
D. There isaaa new-model

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
When using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager to configure AAA login authentication policies, which four methods are available? (Choose four.)
A. group RADIUS: use a list of RADIUS hosts
B. group TACACS+ use a list of TACACS+ hosts
C. enable: use enable password
D. otp: use onE.time password
E. local use local database
F. default: use line password

Correct Answer: ABCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
CORRECT TEXT
Which two statements are
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: : about OSPF in a multiarea environment? (Choose two.) Answer: C, D
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 48 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
QUESTION 130
You have just configured HSRP and need to determine which router is active. Which command should you enter?
A. show ip hsrp active
B. show standby active
C. show star
D. show active

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 131
A North American customer is using 2.4-GHz radios in a point-to-point configuration. The radio power level is 17 dBm and is transmitting at 11 Mbps. The customer is using 21.5-dBi dish antennas and 50 feet of cabling, with a loss of 8.4 dB per 100 feet. The customer increased the distance between the transmitter stations and began experiencing link problems.
Without using a professional installer, which step should the customer take to fix the situation?
A. Use a cable with a lower loss.
B. Upgrade to an 802.11a radio.
C. Install a higher gain antenna.
D. Increase the transmitter power.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
CORRECT TEXT Which three statements are
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: : about the IEEE 802.3af Power over Ethernet standard? (Choose three.) Answer: A, C, E
QUESTION 133
A user is unable to connect to the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager via HTTPS. Which two of these might have caused this problem? (Choose two.)
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 49 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
A. Theip https server command is missing from the running configuration.
B. The ip http securE.server command is missing from the running configuration
C. The user is trying to launch Cisco Router and Security Device Manager from the inside (secured) interface with a firewall enabled.
D. The user has a privilege level lower than 15.
E. The browser security level is set too high.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two.)
A. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is configured via the infrastructure access point GUI.
B. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is automatically discovered by the infrastructure access points through multicast
C. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest MAC address, followed by priority number.
D. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest priority number followed by MAC address.
E. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest IP address, followed by MAC address.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between Router A
and Router B. Given the debug output on Router A, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
Router A= debug eigrp packets
. m .

01:39:13:
EIGRP: Received HELLO on SerialQ 0 nbr 10.1.2.2

01:39:13:
AS 100, Flags 0x0, Seq 0/0 idbQ 00 iidbQ un/rely 0/0 peerQ un/rely 0/0

01:39:13:
K-value mismatch

A.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.

B.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.

C.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.

D.
Router A received a hello packet with mismatchedmetriC.calculation mechanisms

E.
Router A will form an adjacency with Router B.

F.
Router A will not form an adjacency with Router B “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 50 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam

Correct Answer: DF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Which command assigns a cost value of “17” to a switch port?
A. spanning-tree interfacefastethernet 5/8 17
B. spanning-treeportcost 17
C. spanning-treeportcost 17
D. spanning-treevlan 1 cost 17

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
You have configured and applied a Cisco IOS Firewall access rule to the inbound, untrusted interface. You suspect that the rule may be blocking necessary traffic onto the network. What must you do to delete that rule when using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager?
A. Select ACL Editor > Access Rules to delete the rule.
B. You must remove the association between the rule and the interface before deleting the rule
C. You must delete the associated access list on the interface, then reconfigure the access list as required, and then reapply the access group to the proper interface.
D. Go to the Edit Firewall Policy tab to delete the rule.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
A customer in Europe needs to establish an 11-Mbps wireless bridge link between two office buildings that are approximately 1.3 km apart. The wireless link will pass through a public park, which contains a lake that is surrounded by trees. You run the range calculation and determine that the Cisco Aironet 1300 Series Outdoor Access Point/Bridge should work. You install the link using 10.5-dB yagis with 75 feet of standard Cisco cabling and both radios set at 20 mW. The wireless bridges are not able to establish or maintain a link.
What is needed to successfully complete this link?
A. An amplifier needs to be installed at one of the sites.
B. The antenna must be raised high enough to clear the trees
C. Lower loss cabling needs to be used to bring the EIRP into legal limits. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 51 Cisco 642-384: Practice Exam
D. Due to the trees, a 21-dBi dish needs to be used for its narrower beam width.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference

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QUESTION 127
As a firewall administrator you encounter the following you error message:
Authentication for command failed.
What is the most logical reasoning for thus type of error message?

A. The Rule Base has been corrupted.
B. The kernel cannot communicate with the management module.
C. The administrator does not have the ability to push the policy.
D. Remote encryption keys cannot be fetched.
E. Client authentication has failed.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 128
Your customer has created a rule so that every time a user wants to go to the Internet, that user must be authenticated. Firewall load is a concern for the customer. Which authentication method does not result in any additional connections to the firewall?
A. Session
B. User
C. Client
D. Connection
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 129
What variable is used to extend the interval of the Timeout in a NAT to prevent a hidden UDP connection from losing its port?
A. Fwx_udp_todefaultextend.
B. Fwx_udp_expdefaultextend.
C. Fwx_udp_todefaultext
D. Fwx_udp_timeout.
E. Fwx_udp_expiration.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 130
To hide data filed in the log viewer:
A. Select Hide from the Log Viewer menu.
B. Right-click anywhere in a column of the Log Viewer GUI and select Show Details.
C. Right-click anywhere in the column of the Log Viewer GUI and select Disable.
D. Right-click anywhere in the column of the Log Viewer GUI and select Hide.
E. Select Hide from the Log Viewer tool bar.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 131
You are following the procedure to setup user authentication for TELNET to prompt for a distinct destination. This allows the firewall to simulate a TELNET Proxy. After you defined the user on the Firewall and use VPN-1/FireWall-1 Authentication, you would:
A. Stop the Firewall.
B. Restart the Firewall.
C. Start the Policy Editor and go to Manage service, and edit TELNET service.
D. Ensure that the Authentication method is enabled in the firewall object.
E. Ensure that there are no existing rules already allowing TELNET.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
You have the VPN-1/Firewall-1 NG product installed. The following Rule Base order correctly implements Implicit Client Authentication fort HTTP. No. SOURCE DESTINATION SERVICE ACTION 1 All *Any TCP ftp User Auth [email protected] 2 All [email protected] *Any TCP http User Auth
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 133
What is the software package through which all Check Point products use infrastructure services?
A. Cpstart/cpstop.
B. Check Point Registry.
C. CPD
D. Watch Dog for critical services.
E. SVN Foundation.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 134
Choose the BEST response to finish this statement. A Firewall:
A. Prevents unauthorized to or from a secured network.
B. Prevents unauthorized to or from a unsecured network.
C. Prevents authorized access to or from an Intranet.
D. Prevents authorized access to or from an Internet.
E. Prevents macro viruses from infecting the network.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 135
Where is the external if file located in VPN1/Firewall-1 NG?
A. FWDIR conf directory.
B. Database directory.
C. State directory.
D. Temp Directory.
E. Not used in VPN1/Firewall-1 NG.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 136
Which log viewer mode allows you to actually see the contents of the files HTTP-ed by the corporation’s Chief Executive Officer?
A. Security Log.
B. Active Connections Log.
C. Accounting Log.
D. Administrative Log.
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 137
When you select the alert radio button on the topology tab of the interface properties window:
A. The action specified in the Action element of the Rule Base is taken.
B. The action specified in the Anti-Spoofing Alert field in the Global properties window is taken.
C. The action specified in the Pop up Alter Command in the Global properties window is taken.
D. Both A and B.
E. Both B and C.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 138
You are the firewall administrator with one management server managing one firewall. The system status displays a computer icon with a ‘!’ symbol in the status column. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. The destination object has been defined as external.
B. The Rule Base is unable to resolve the IP address.
C. The firewall has been halted.
D. The firewall is unprotected, no security policy is loaded.
E. Nothing is wrong.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 139
System Administrators use session authentication when they want users to:
A. Authenticate each time they use a supported service.
B. Authenticate all services.
C. Use only TENET, FTP, RLOGIN, and HTTP services.
D. Authenticate once, and then be able to use any service until logging off.
E. Both B and D
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 140
Your customer has created a rule so that every time a user wants to go to Internet, that user must be authenticated. The customer requires an authentication scheme that provides transparency for the user and granular control for the administrator. User must also be able to log in from any location. Based on this information, which authentication schemes meets the customer’s needs?
A. Session
B. User
C. Client
D. Dual
E. Reverse

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 141
Implementing Dynamic NAT would enable an internal machine behind the firewall to act as an FTP Server for external clients.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 142
The Enforcement Module (part if the VPN-1/FireWall-1 Module):
A. Examines all communications according to an Enterprise Security Policy.
B. Is installed on a host enforcement point.
C. Can provide authentication and Content Security features at the application level.
D. Us usually installed on a multi-homed machine.
E. All of the above.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 143
In most cases when you are building the Rule Base you should place the Stealth Rule above all other rules except:
A. Clean up rules.
B. Implicit Riles.
C. Client Authentication Rules.
D. Pseudo Rules.
E. Default Rules.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 144
If you change the inspection order of any of the implied rules under the Security Policy Setup, does it change the order in which the rules are enforced?
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 145
The fw fetch command allows an administrator to specify which Security Policy a remote enforcement module retrieves.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 146
You can edit VPE objects before they are actualized (translated from virtual network objects to real).
A. True
B. False.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 147
Stateful inspection is a firewall technology introduced in Checkpoint VPN-1/Firewall-1 software. It is designed to meet which if the following security requirements?
1.
Scan information from all layers in the packet.

2.
Save state information derived from previous communications, such as the outgoing Port command of an FTP session, so that incoming data communication can be verified against it.

3.
Allow state information derived from other applications access through the firewall for authorized services only, such as previously authenticated users.

4.
Evaluate and manipulate flexible expressions based on communication and application derived state information.
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
E. 1, 2, 3, 4

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 148
If the security policy editor or system status GUI is open, you can open the log viewer GUI from the window menu.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 149
NAT can NOT be configured on which of the objects?
A. Hosts
B. Gateways
C. Networks
D. Users
E. Routers

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 150
Your customer has created a rule so that every user wants to go to Internet, that user must be authenticated. Which is the best method of authentication for users who must use specific computers for Internet access?
A. Session
B. User
C. Client
D. Connection
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 151
Which of the following describes the behavior of VPN-1/Firewall-1 NG?
A. Traffic not expressly prohibited is permitted.
B. Traffic not expressly permitted is prohibited.
C. TELNET, SMTP and HTTP are allowed by default.
D. Secure connections are authorized by default, unsecured connections are not.
E. All traffic is controlled by explicit rules.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 152
New users are created from templates. What is the name of the standard template from which you would create a new user?
A. New
B. User
C. Group
D. Standard User.
E. Default

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 153
In a distributed management environment, the firewall administrator has removed the default check from Accept VPN-1/Firewall-1 control connections under the Security Policy tab of the properties setup dialogue box. In order for the management module and the Firewall to communicate, you must create a rule to allow the Management Module to communicate to the firewall on which port?
A. 80
B. 256
C. 259
D. 900
E. 23
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 154
What is the command for installing a Security Policy from a *.W file?
A. Fw gen and then the name of the .W file.
B. Fw load and then the name of .W file.
C. Fw regen and then the name of the .W file.
D. Fw reload and then the directory location of the .W file.
E. Fw import and then the name of the .W file.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 155
In the Check Point Configuration Too, you create a GUI administrator with Read Only privileges. This allows the Firewall-1 administrator for the authorized GUI client (GUI workstation) privileges to change network object, and create and install rules.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 156
Hybrid Authentication allows VPN-1/Firewall-1 NG to authenticate SecuRemote/SecureClient, using which of the following?
A. RADIUS
B. 3DES
C. TACACS
D. Any authentication method supported by VPN-1/Firewall-1.
E. Both A and C.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 157
In order to install a new Security Policy on a remote firewall, what command must be issued on the remote firewall?
A. Fw unload all all.
B. Fw load new.
C. Cp clear policy.
D. None of the above, the command cp policy remove is issued from the manager.
E. None of the above, the new policy will automatically overwrite the existing policy.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 158
As a firewall administrator if you want to log packets dropped by “implicit drop anything not covered” rules, you must explicitly define a Clean-up rule. This must be the last rule in the rule base.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 159
Fully Automatic Client authentication provides authentication for all protocols, whether supported by these protocols or not.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 160
VPN-1/Firewall-1 NG differs from Packet filtering and Application Layer Gateways, because?
A. VPN-1/Firewall-1 NG provides only minimal logging and altering mechanism.
B. VPN-1/Firewal-1 NG uses Stateful inspection which allows packet to be examined at the top of the layers of the OSI model.
C. VPN-1/Firewall-1 NG has access to a limited part of the packet header only.
D. VPN-1/Firewall-1NG requires a connection from a client to a firewall and firewall to a server.
E. VPN-1/Firewall-1 NG has access to packets passing through key locations in a network.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 161
AlphaBravo Corp has 72 privately addressed internal addresses. Each network is a piece of the 10-net subnetted to a class C address. AlphaBravo uses Dynamic NAT and hides all of the internal networks behind the external IP addresses of the Firewall. The Firewall administrator for AlphaBravo has noticed that policy installation takes significantly longer since adding all 72 internal networks to the address translation rule. What should the Firewall administrator do to reduce the time it takes to install a policy?
A. Create an object for the entire 10-net and use the object for the translation rule instead of the individual network objects.
B. Use automatic NAT rule creation on each network object. Hide the network behind the firewall’s external IP addresses.
C. Match packets to the state table, so packets are not dropped. Increase the size of the NAT tables.
D. Reinstall the Firewall and Security Policy Editor. The policy is corrupting Firewall’s binaries.
E. Increase the size of state table. Use automatic NAT rule creation to hide the networks behind an IP address other than firewall’s external IP.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 162
How does VPN-1/Firewall-1 NG implement Transparent authentication?
A. Unknown user receive error messages indicating that the firewalled gateway does not know the user names on the gateway.
B. VPN-1/Firewall-1 NG prompts for user names even through the authentication data may not be recognized by the firewall’s user database.
C. VPN-1/Firewall-1 NG allows connections, but hides the firewall from authenticated users.
D. Unknown users error messages indicating that the host does not know the users names on the server.
E. VPN-1/Firewall-1 NG does not allow connections from users who do not know the name of the firewall.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 163
When creating user authentication rule, select intersect with user database for source and destination to allow access according to the source specified in the rules.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 164
A connection initiated by the client in the figure below will be hidden behind the IP address of the interface
through which the connection was routed on the server side if the gateway (behind either interface 2 or
interface 3). Specifying 0.0.0.0 as the address is convenient because of network address translation (NAT)
is performed dynamically. And if the IP addresses of the gateway are changed, it is not necessary to
reconfigure the NAT parameters.
Which of the following is true about the following figure?
A. A connection initiated by the client will be hidden behind the IP address of the exit interface.
B. A connection initiated by the server will be hidden behind the IP address of the exit interface.
C. A connection initiated by the server will be hidden by the IP address of the client.
D. Source addresses of outbound packets from the client will be translated to 0.0.0.0.
E. Source addresses of outbound packets from the server will be translated to 0.0.0.0.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 165
Which if the following statements about Client Authentication are FALSE?
A. In contrast to User Authentication, which allows access per user, Client Authentication allows access per ID address.
B. Authentication is by user name and password, but is the host machine (client) that is granted access.
C. Client Authentication is more secure than User Authentication, because it allows multiple users and connections from an authorized IP address or host.
D. Client Authentication enables administration to grant access privileges to a specific IP address after successful authentication.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 166
When you make a rule, the rule is not enforces as part of your Security Policy.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 167
Which of the following user actions would you insert as an INTERNAL Authentication scheme?
A. The user enters the security dynamics passcode.
B. The user prompted for a response from the RADIUS server.
C. The user prompted for a response from the AXENT server.
D. The user prompted for a response from the TACACS server.
E. The user enters an operating system account password.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 168
When configuring Static NAT, you cannot map the routable IP address to the external IP address of the Firewall if attempted, the security policy installation fails with the following error “rule X conflicts with rule Y”.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 169
The advantage of client authentication is that it can be used for any number of connections and for any services, but authentication is only valid for a specified length of time.
A. True

B. False Correct Answer: B QUESTION 170
You have set up Static NAT on a VPN-1/Firewall-1 to allow Internet traffic to an internal web server. You notice that any HTTP attempts to that machine being dropped in the log due to rule 0. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. Spoofing on the internal interface us set to Network defined by Interface IP and Net Mask.
B. Spoofing on the external interface is set to Not Defined.
C. You do NOT have a rule that allows HTTP access to the internal Web Server.
D. You do NOT have a rule that allows HTTP from the Web Server to Any destination.
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 171
As a firewall administrator, you are required to create VPN-1/Firewall-1 users for authentication. When you create a user for user authentication, the data is stored in the?
A. Inspect Engine.
B. Rule base.
C. Users database
D. Rulebase fws file
E. Inspect module.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 172
If users authenticated successfully, they have matched the User and Authentication rule restriction of the user group to which they belong.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 173
The only way to unblock BLOCKED connections by deleting all the blocking rules from the Rule base.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 174
When you perform a cp fetch, what can you expect from this command?
A. Firewall retrieves the user database from the tables on the Management Module.
B. Firewall retrieves the inspection code from the remote Management Module and installs it to the kernel.
C. Management module retrieves the IP address of the target specified in the command.
D. Management module retrieves the interface information for the target specified in the command.
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 175
Each incoming UDP packet is locked up in the list of pending connections. Packets are delivered if they are _________.
A. A request.
B. A response to a request.
C. Source routed.
D. Allowed by the Rule Base.
E. Both B and D.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 176
Assume an NT system. What is the default expiration for a Dynamic NAT connection NOT showing any TCP activity?
A. 30 Seconds.
B. 60 Seconds.
C. 330 Seconds.
D. 660 Seconds.
E. 3600 Seconds.

Correct Answer: E

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